Questions & Answers

1. What is minimal temperature required for

sterilization by autoclave?
• It is 250 F (121 C), follow the manufacture’s
instruction for time, temperature and pressure
parameters.

2. Typical values for steam autoclave condition?

• 121c for 20-30 minutes at psi (pound per square inch)
of pressure.

3. Prepacked sterile supplies and the use of an

autoclave?
• Is 121c for 15 min or 134c for 3 min.

4. The PH of CAOH is?

• 12-12.5.

5. Which of the following statement about 2.2% fluoride

(F) varnish Application are correct?
A. F varnish is contraindicated who have ulcerative gingivitis.
B. F varnish is contraindicated in children who have caries-free
deciduous teeth.
C. F varnish is contraindicated in children who use toothpaste
containing 1500 parts per million (PPM).
D. F varnish is contraindicated in children who have contact
dermatitis to iodine.
E. F varnish is contraindicated in patients with amelogenesis
imperfecta.
6. Pulpal diagnosis in case of abscess formation?
• Pulp necrosis.

7. Types of retainers for premolar with good mucosal

condition?
• RPI clasp.

8. Crown angle inclination?

• 4 degrees to 7 degrees.

9. Greater palatine nerve innervates?

• Teeth posterior to the canine. (Study the innervation
very well).

10. Dominant component of the gutta-percha is?

• Zinc oxide ZN oxide
Gutta-percha contains:
a) 20% gutta-percha
b) 66%-70% ZNO
c) ~11%heavy metal (opaque)
d) ~3%wax

11. Water fluoride concentration is?

• 1000 ppm or 0.7-1.2% or 1%.

12. Management of simple caries in a cooperative child?

• Composite application.
13. Lingual bar and lingual plate?
• Need 7mm from ging. To lingual sulcus
• 3mm from ging. Bar is 4mm in width

14. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) where to expect its

place?
• It is found on the lateral & ventral surface of the
tongue and floor of the mouth.

15. Material used as a temporary restoration & cement?

• Glass Ionomer GI.
• Compomer.

16. Function of face bow?

• Transfers relationship between the maxillary arch to
skull.
• Facebow is an instrument that records the relationship
of the maxilla to the hinge axis of rotation of the
mandible, it allows a maxillary cast to be placed in an
equivalent relationship on the articulator.

17. Function of articulator is?

• Stimulate jaws relation.
• Diagnose state of occlusion.
• Plan dental procedure
• Aid in fabrication.
• Correct and modify restoration.
18. Gutta-percha lefted in the canal for post placement
is?
• 3-5mm.

19. Dentine formed due to irritation is?

• Tertiary dentine.

20. Early sign of Hyperglycemia is?

• Headache, blurred vision, feel thirsty, urgence to go to
toilet (polydepsia, polyurea).
➢ Dentally diabetic patients are more susceptible to infection.
Candida (fungal), dental abscess, facial space infections,
Cellulitis.
➢ Post operative extraction infected socket +bone loss & tooth
mobility.

21. Early sing of Hypoglycemia is?

• Anxiety, Jerky movement, Irritability, nervousness,
sweeting, chings.
➢ To survive this patient should give 20 mg of sugar or glucose
which is 3-4 spoon of sugar.

22. Advantages of cement retained implant?

• Improve the esthetics.
• Easier achievement of passive fit.
• No screw access hole.
• Easier control of occlusion.
• Compensation of improperly inclined implants.
23. Distance between?
• Implant and tooth (1.5 mm).
• Implant and implant (3 mm).
• Implant and Inferior alveolar nerve IAN (2 mm).
• Implant and sinus (1 mm).
• Implant and buccal palate (1 mm).
• Implant and Lingual Palate (1 mm).
• Implant and inferior border (1 mm).
• Implant and nasal cavity (1mm).
• Implant and mental Nerve (5 mm). (Due to anterior loop)

24. First bone formed around implant is?

• Woven Bone is the fastest and the first bone to be
formed around the implant interface; however, it is
mineralized only partly and demonstrates an
unorganized structure.

25. IRM intermediate restorative material?

• Long lasting temporary material for adults (permanent
teeth).
• Permanent restoration material for children (primary
teeth).

26. Safe AB for pregnant is?

• Amoxicillin (penicillin), ampicillin, clindamycin.
• Some paper says Erythromycin is safe too.
27. What is the selective Anesthesia how it is used and
when?
• This test is applied when the patient is not able to
isolate the cause of the pain, particularly in to a specific
arch. During this test the clinician should first
anaesthetize selectively the maxilla by using
intraligamentary anesthesia, Starting with the most
posterior tooth. The anesthesia is then administered in
the anterior direction one tooth at the time, until the
pain is eliminated. If the pain continues, the procedure
must be continued on the mandibular teeth.

28. A patient is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation is

prescribed warfarin. Which of the following can
interact with the effect of warfarin?
A. Carrots.
B. Dark leafy green vegetables.
C. Ferrous sulfate. (Decrease the absorption and should be
taken 2 hours before warfarin).
D. Furosemide.

29. Amalgam restoration and there is also gold

restoration, result in galvanic action to manage?
A. Wait.
B. Change restoration (replace amalgam with no metallic
restoration). Because we took that there should not be
precious and non-precious alloys together in the oral cavity. It
is better to either replace amalgam with gold restoration or
non-metallic filling material as Composite.
C. Varnish.
D. Separating medium.
30. Contamination of amalgam with water will?
• Delayed the Expansion especially in lathe cut amalgam.

31. Increase the mercury in the amalgam will?

• Increase the plasticity so will cause deformation and
marginal leakage & mechanical properties of amalgam.

32. Ideally the internal surface of a full veneer crown

should touch the tooth on?
A. All the surface of the die.
B. All the surface except at the margin.
C. All the surface except at the occlusion.
D. Only at the margins. (because we put the space
maintainer on all of the die spacer except the margin).

33. Patient with G6pd deficiency (Favism)?

• Should give mepivacaine (CARBOCAINE) carpule in the
concentration of 1%, 1.5% and 2% anesthesia for
injection via local infiltration, peripheral nerve block
and caudal and lumbar epidural blocks.

34. While extraction of upper molar (8), a fracture

occurred to the tuberosity, what is your
management?
• If complete separation no treatment but, if mobility
occurred and still connected to the periosteum should
be splinted.
 35. Define ALARA?
• As low as reasonably achievable, this principle means
that if it is a small dose, if that dose has no direct
benefit, you should try to avoid it.

36. The safest position for pregnant is?

A. Supine or semi supine.
B. up right.
C. Right with rise leg.
D. Left with rise leg.

[Link] is the differential diagnosis of the black spots on

the tongue, and how you will tell the patient it’s not a
cancer?
• Tongue injury.
• Tongue piercing.
• Hyperpigmentation due to elongation
• Fungiform papillae.
• Hyperpigmentation due to people with dark skin (rare)
• Bismuth exposure initially occurs in patches.
How you will inform the patient its not a cancer you should make
exclusion according to the lesion place and biopsy.
Area famous with cancer such as: inferior or lateral border of the
tongue.
Area is not famous with cancer such as: retromolar area.
[Link] of fluoride in?
• Water: 1000ppm (0.7-1.2%)
• Tooth paste: Adult =1000:1450ppm
Children=500ppm
• Mouth wash: 230 ppm (0.05%) NAF daily
900 ppm (0.2%) NAF weekly
• In APF2: 12300 ppm (1.23%).

39. function of articulator is?

• Stimulate jaws relation.
• Diagnose state of occlusion.
• Plan dental procedure
• Aid in fabrication.
• Correct and modify restoration.

[Link] requires graft in his alveolus what is the best

graft?
a) Autogenous cancellous from illac crest.
b) Autogenous corticocancellous.
c) Freeze dried.
d) Autogenous cancellous bone from anterior illac crest
is used in many centers.
41.3 wall defect treatment, what’s is the superior bone
fill?
a) freezed dried.
b) Cortical.
c) Cancellous.
d) All are the same bone fill effect.

41. for furcation grade 2 what is the favorable graft?

a) Cortical.
b) Cancellous.
c) Corticocancellous.
d) Freeze dried.

42. 2 walls defect in perio what is the best graft to treat

this defect?
a) Cortical freeze-dried bone allograft.
b) Cancellous freeze-dried bone allograft.
c) All are the same.

[Link] type of bone graft for 2 wall osseous defect?

a) Intraoral cortical.
b) Intraoral Cancellous.
c) Extraoral Cancellous.
d) Intraoral Corticocancellous.
44. Types of intracanal medicament?
• Calcium hydroxide.
• Chlorohexidine.
• MTAD.
• QMIX.

45. Crohn’s Disease?

• It is an autoimmune disease affect the GIT system; Bowel
obstruction can affect the entire thickness of the intestinal
wall.
• Crohn’s disease is contraindicated with CLINDAMICINE.

46. what expect to see in Crohn’s patient?

• Gingival enlargement.
• Swelling of the lip.
• Linear aphthous Ulcers.

47. Disadvantages of Amalgam?

• Extensive tooth preparation.
• Esthetic, metallic color.
• No bonding to tooth surface.
• Concern over mercury toxicity.
[Link] of amalgam?
• Less technique sensitive.
• More durable.
• Less cost.
• Excellent abrasion & wear resistance.
• Bacteria do not adhere to it as on composite.

49. Side effect of Mercury?

• Amalgam restoration is possible only because of the
unique characteristics of mercury.
• Use of mercury in the oral environment has raised
concerns regarding safety for more than 170 years.

[Link] is the Parallel & bisecting angel technique?

• Parallel angle technique: (it is the most accurate & reproducible
technique).
• The film is held in holder parallel to the tooth and the beam is
directed at right angle to the tooth & film.

• Bisecting angle technique: (older technique which can be carried

without film holder).
• Film is placed close to the tooth & the beam is directed
at right angle to the plan bisecting the angle between
the tooth & the film.
 51. Management of Asthma?
✓ Medical consultation.
✓ Short morning appointment.
✓ Reduction of stress & anxiety. (May use nitrous oxide).
✓ Local Anesthesia.
✓ Dental procedure should be less invasive.
✓ Avoid use of NSAIDs.
✓ If the Asthma developed:
• Stop the dental treatment.
• Rest the patient in upright position.
• Oxygen (10-15liter/minute).
• Salbutamol (10 activation every 10 minutes).
• Hydrocortisone (200 mg) IV.
• Adrenaline (0.5 ml) IM.

52. Drugs precipitate Asthma?

• Aspirin.
• NSAID (as ibuprofen, naproxen).
• Beta-blockers, which are usually used for heart
condition, high blood pressure and migraines.

53. Drugs for patient with Abscess?

• Old school: gives AB as (Amoxicillin 250-500mg/3T
or 1g/2T for adults, 50mg/kg (125-250mg/5ml)).
And gives Metronidazole.

• New school: incision and drainage by extraction or

RCT
• Drugs only if there is a systemic manifestation.
54. what early beep in the apex locator indicate?
• Wet canals due to infection.
• No sufficient isolation to the access cavity.
• Metallic restoration.
• Perforation (indicate perforation).
• Coronal pulp tissues.
➢ If infection due to pus we should irrigate by calcium
hydroxide and wait for three weeks, we can support with
antibiotic.

[Link] finishing RCT and going to start to obturate but

canals can’t be dried what you will do?
• Weeping the canal (exudate).
• Inform a good irrigation.
• Put Intracanal medicament manly based on
calcium hydroxide.
• delay the obturation for father appointment.
• Immature formation of the apex.

[Link] biohazardous waste?

• May cause infection such as the gauze soaked with blood,
cotton rolls, sharp instruments…
• Disposed by yellow labeled waste bags
• Sharps: sharp containers (yellow with red cap).
• Needles should be covered back single hand scoop
technique.

[Link] regulated biohazardous waste?

• May not cause infection such as the papers and the
tissues
 • Disposed in general waste bags (black or blue).
58. Hazardous waste?
✓ Such as Amalgam, lead foil….
✓ Disposed by specific ways and containers.
• Flush water line for 3 minutes at the beginning of the clinic work
& for 15-20 seconds between patients.
• Blood in the floor: prepare a gallon of 1 litter water with 6-7
sodium hypochloride tablets 2.5 concentration & soak the area
for 20 minutes & then wipe.

[Link] is the temperature and duration of the

autoclave?
• 121c for 20 minutes.
• 134c for 30 minutes.

60. A 34 years old female patient returns to your clinic

two weeks later with pain and swelling associated with
the right inferior alveolar nerve. How would you manage
this iatrogenic nerve injury?
• Chief complain: “I haven’t been able to taste with the right side of my
tongue for the last week”
• Patient history: “right inferior alveolar nerve block at her pervious dental
appointment”.
✓ Monitor for 2 weeks.
✓ Refer to an oral and maxillofacial surgeon.
✓ Prescribe NASID and methylprednisolone (Medrol).
✓ Prescribed NASID and Amoxicillin.
61. coronal perforation during endodontic treatment is
detected by?
A. Bitewing X-ray. (If the coronal perforation is mesial or distal).
B. Transillumination. (For detection of caries in anterior teeth).
C. Ethylene blue. (For the of caries and cracks).
D. Gutta percha of 30 & X-ray.
Note: The best detection for any perforation is CBCT.

[Link] effect of dentine is?

A. 1.5mm for 360 degree.
B. 1.5mm for 180 degree.
C. 2mm for 360 degrees.
• Ferrule effect is a band 2mm of metal collar encircling the
tooth extended apical to the preparation.

63. Caries cavitation is caused by?

A. Demineralization of enamel.
B. Demineralization od dentine.
C. Invasion of bacteria to the dentinal tubules.
D. Trauma of mastication.

64. Most common nerve injury during wisdom extraction

is?
• Inferior alveolar nerve (IAN).
• Lingual nerve (LN).
[Link] is the hypercementosis?
• Is an overgrowth of cementum.

[Link] between periapical & bitewing X-ray?

✓ Periapical X-ray:
• is an image of the whole length of the tooth from the
crown to the apex, the socket, the surrounding mesial
and distal supporting bone structure and bone
formation beyond the apex, gives the status of the
canals, gives the status of the apical and periapical
condition.

✓ Bitewing X-ray:
• It shows the crown, extend-depth of caries & crestal
bone level.
• Used to diagnose caries, overhanged fillings, calculus,
bone loss less than < 4mm.

68. Advantage of parallel technique, Disadvantages of

bisecting technique?
• Parallel technique is better than bisecting techniques
because it takes less radiation, high focus, no elongation or
shortness, less time achievable, it produces an image with
both linear and dimensional accuracy, it is repeatable and
less errors, gives image of the full tooth size.
• The bisecting technique is accomplished by placing the
receptor as close to the tooth as possible, can not be
repeatable, can not give image of the full tooth size.

69. What is the occlusal X-ray?

• It tracks the development and placement of an entire arch
of teeth on either the upper or lower jaw.
70. Types of Extraoral X-rays?
• Panoramic X-ray:
show the entire mouth area all the teeth in a single x-ray, is to
detect the position of emerged teeth, impacted teeth, diagnosis
of tumors.
• Tomograms:
show a particular layer of the mouth and blur out other layers,
used to examine structures that are difficult to clearly see because
other nearby structures are blocking the view.
• Cephalometric projection:
show an entire side of the head, looks at the teeth in relation to
the jaw and the profile of the individual, used by orthodontics to
develop each patient’s specific realignment approach.
• Sialogarm:
used to detect the salivary gland problems such as blockage,
Sjogren’s syndrome (dis order with symptoms including dry
mouth, dry eyes; this disorder can cause tooth decay).
• Dental computed tomography (CT):
looks at the anterior structure in 3D images of dental structure,
used to find problems in the bone of the face such as cysts,
tumors and fracture.
• Cone beam CT:
it creates 3D images of dental structure, soft tissues, nerves and
bone; used in guide tooth implant placement, evaluate cyst and
tumors in mouth and face, problems in the gums and roots of the
teeth and jaws, produce a high-quality image.
• Digital image:
it is a 2D type of dental imaging allow images to be sent directly
to a computer, the image can be viewed on screen, stored or
printed out in a second, its advantages are the image can be
enhanced or enlarged, can’t be send electronically to another
dentist, it use less radiation than x-rays.
• MRI imaging:
it is a method that take a 3 D view of the oral cavity including jaw
and teeth, it is ideal for soft tissue evaluation.
[Link] dentist use digital X-rays?
• To decrease the radiation exposer to the patient.
• To eliminate the errors.
• Easily saving the data.

[Link] happens when amalgam is contaminated?

• Delayed excessive expansion.
• Deterioration of the physical properties.

[Link] happens when mercury increase in amalgam?

• Marginal leakage.
• Toxicity.

[Link] material for the perforation of the root and the

cervical crest?
• Perforation of the root: use MTA (retro MTA) because of
its fast setting and do not stain.
• Perforation at the cervical crest: use glass ionomer.

[Link] for the chronic irreversible pulpitis (asymptomatic

pulpitis)?
• By the X-ray will appear a large caries lesion.

76. what is the accessory nerve to mandibular molar?

• Nerve of mylohyoid.
[Link] size of needle gauge for aspiration (for nerve
block)?
• 25-gauge needle has been recommended for all injection.
• 20,21,22-gauge use fine needle aspiration for biopsy.
• The short needle is used in infiltration, long needle is used
in nerve block.

[Link] sign and symptoms of a stroke?

• Severe headache with unknown cause.
• Sudden numbness of the face, arm or leg on one side of
the body (unilateral paralysis of the face).
• Sudden confusion, trouble speaking, or difficulty
understanding speech.
• Sudden trouble with vision in one or both eyes.
• Sudden trouble walking, dizziness, loss of balance, loss of
coordination.
• Loss of sensory stimuli or oral tissue, a flaccid tongue with
multiple folds and dysphagia.
• Increase caries, periodontal disease and halitosis is also
common.
[Link] procedure of patient with stroke?
• Provide only urgent dental treatment at the first six
months after stroke.
• Short stress-free morning appointment to reduce the risk
of complication.
• Effective pain control during procedure and post-operative
will reduce the stress and risk of complication.
• Dental providers may administer nitrous oxide with
oxygen.
• Local anesthesia LA should have a limited amount of
vasoconstrictor (epinephrine), patient can be safely given
LA with epinephrine 1:100,000 or 1:200,000, the amount
of vasoconstrictor should be less than or equal 0.04mg.
• Supine position & upright gradually after finishing dental
treatment to avoid postural hypotension.
• Patient who takes warfarin should report their
international normalized ratio (INR)
• Avoid Metronidazole & tetracycline interact with warfarin
which can increase the INR.
• Patient who takes Digoxin avoid the erythromycin &
tetracycline & azole drugs.
• Dental providers should recommend rigorous preventive
measure such as 3 months recall appointment and
application of fluoride varnish.
[Link] is the epidemiology & etiology of stroke
(causes)?
• High blood pressure.
• Previous stroke.
• Transient ischemic attack (TIA).
• High cholesterol.
• Heart disease.
• Diabetes mellites.
• Sickle cell disease.
• Unhealthy diet, lack of physical activity, too much alcohol,
tobacco use, family history, age, gender and race increase
a person’s risk factor for developing stroke.

[Link] is the management of stroke?

• The priority is to transfer the patient to the hospital as
an emergency.
• Assess the patient.
• Administer 100% oxygen flow rate: 15liters/minutes.
• If the patient is unconscious and breathing, secure their
airway and place in the recovery position.
• Call for an ambulance.

[Link] which tissue might a hemorrhage go over

the cranium?
a) Skin.
b) Periosteum.
c) Subcutaneous layer.
d) Subaponeurotic layer.
83. A 2 wall defect, which type of bone?
a) Freeze dried bone.
b) Cortical decalcified freeze-dried bone.
c) Cancellous decalcified freeze-dried bone.
d) All have the same result.

84. Nausea is a complaint that a new denture wearing

might encounter, it may result from?
a) Thick posterior border.
b) Denture under extended.
c) Denture slightly over extended.
d) A & B are correct.

[Link] is the composite bond with enamel & dentine?

• Enamel: chemically.
• Dentine: mechanically.

[Link] to reduce the post operative sensitivity of

composite filling?
• Etching time (20-30s).
• Washing time minimum 30s then gently dry
• Avoid over dryness.
• Bonding.
• Curing time (20s)
• Finishing and polishing with water coolant.

87. The cone beam radiograph is mostly?

a) Have great radiation than conventional ways.
b) Can be used as traditional method for patient assessment.
c) Rae and not applicable.
d) It is the best way to diagnose TMJ.
[Link] of Gracey?
• Area specific periodontal curette used for subgingival
calculus.

[Link] and grading of periodontitis?

• Staging:
✓ Interproximal bone loss:
• Stage 1 (early/mild): less than < 15% or less than < 2mm.
• Stage 2 (moderate): coronal third of the root.
• Stage 3 (severe): mid-third of the root.
• Stage 4 (very severe): apical third of the root.

✓ Extent:
➢ Described as:
• Localized (up to 30% of the tooth).
• Generalized (more than 30% of the tooth).

• Grading:
✓ % Of bone loss/age:
• Grade A (slow): less than < 0.5
• Garde B (moderate): 0.5-1.0
• Garde C (rapid): more than > 1.0
[Link] we do remove infected dentine and keep
affected dentine?
• Infected dentine has bacteria + collagen reversibly
denatured so cannot be remineralized.
• Affected dentine DOSE NOT have bacteria + collagen is
reversibly denatured so can be remineralized.
• Tubular sclerosis= deposition of minerals in the dentinal
tubules are requires the presence of vital odontoblasts.

[Link] width?
To have a healthy periodontium, a space is required between
the margin of the restoration and the crest of the bone.
• Connective tissue attachment above the bone (1.07mm) +
junctional epithelium attachment below the bas of the gingival
sulcus (0.97mm) = biological width 2mm (approximately 2.5mm
with the gingival sulcus depth.
• Variation of the biological width can result in two responses:
✓ Bone loss of unpredictable nature with gingival recession as the body
is trying to create a room between the alveolar bone and the
restorative margin.
✓ Unchanged bone level, but gingival inflammation develops and
persists.

92. height and width of axial dentine after restoration +

crow preparation?
• 0= NON (no axial dentine above finishing line).
• 1= in adequate (dentine walls les than < 1.5mm thick or
more than 2x as high as their thinnest part).
• 2= Questionable (between 1 & 3).
• 3= Adequate (adequate height, thickness and distribution
of axial dentine walls).
[Link] of the following is the most critical with respect
to an avulsed tooth?
a) Extra oral time.
b) Extra oral dry time.
c) Storage medium.
d) Proper handling of the root.

93. which of the following is the most common site of

fracture of class II amalgam restoration?
a) Cavo-surface margin.
b) The contact area.
c) The isthmus area. (because of in sufficient depth).
d) Gingival floor.

[Link] of the following isn’t a property of fluoride ion?

a) Crosses placental barrier.
b) Deposit in bone.
c) Excretes rapidly by kidney.
d) Produce extrinsic tooth stain.

95. In the design of removable partial denture, the guide

be?
a) Parallel to long axis of tooth.
b) Parallel to path of insertion.
c) At right angle to the occlusal plane.
d) At right angle to the major connector.
[Link] cavity preparation for a class II amalgam in
primary tooth doesn’t requires a gingival bevel because
the enamel rods in that area are inclined?
a) Gingivally.
b) Horizontally.
c) Occlusally.
d) Vertically.

[Link] of the following should be evaluated before

performing surgery on a patient taking warfarin?
a) Bleeding time.
b) Clotting time.
c) Prothrombin time.
d) Coagulation time.

[Link] of the following nerve fibers are responsible for

transmission?
a) a beta and C nerves fibers.
b) A delta and C nerves fibers.
• A delta for sharp pain for reversible.
• C fibers for dull pain for irreversible.
c) A beta and A delta fibers.
d) A alpha and A delta fibers.
99. The initiator present in composite which reacts to
visible light curing system resulting in the setting reaction
is?
a) Hydroquinone.
b) Ubiquinone.
c) Camphoquinone.
d) Potassium oxide.

100. Pulpal inflammation reaches the periodontal areas

throw?
a) Pulp horns.
b) Large caries lesions.
c) Deep periodontal pocket.
d) The apical foramen & accessory canals.

101. Which of the following luxation injuries has the

poorest prognosis?
a) Subluxation.
b) Intrusive luxation.
c) Lateral luxation.
d) Extrusive luxation.

102. Most consistent and repeatable landmark for

locating the position of the pulp chamber?
a) Cementoenamel junction.
b) Pulp horn.
c) Gingival margin.
d) Dentine-enamel junction.
103.A space maintainer in the posterior segment will?
a) Prevent the extrusion of the opposing teeth.
b) Prevent the eruption of the permanent teeth.
c) Maintain arch length.
d) Retard eruption of the permanent teeth.

104. avulsed permanent incisor with closed apex and

extra oral dry time is 2 hours what is your treatment?
a) No need for reimplanting.
b) Remove PDL, pulpectomy, immerse in sodium fluoride,
replant and flexible splint.
c) Perform pulpotomy after replantation.
d) Immerse in doxycycline solution and replant.

[Link] of the following antibiotics is contraindicated

in asthmatic patients?
a) Penicillin.
b) Metronidazole.
c) Clindamycin.
d) Augmentin.

106. Which of the following should be checked first if a

crown fits on the die but won’t fit on the abutment?
a) The occlusal contact.
b) The tapper of preparation.
c) The proximal contact.
d) The impression used to pour the cast.
107. A clenching habit maybe a factor in which of the
following?
a) Marginal gingivitis.
b) Generalized recession.
c) Increased tooth mobility.
d) Supra periodontal pocket formation.

108. Patient with sever spontaneous pain, marked

tenderness on chewing?
a) Reversible pulpitis.
b) Irreversible pulpitis.
c) Necrotic pulp.
d) Acute (symptomatic) apical periodontitis.
e) Chronic (asymptomatic)apical periodontitis.

109. patient with sever spontaneous pain on hot, marked

tenderness in chewing?
a) Reversible pulpitis.
b) Irreversible pulpitis.
c) Necrotic pulp.
d) Acute (symptomatic) apical periodontitis.
e) Chronic (asymptomatic) apical periodontitis.

110. C-factor increase?

• High C-factor increase the rate and amount of stresses
resulting from polymerization shrinkage of resin composite
restoration.
• To avoid the polymerization shrinkage, use incremental
layering technique.
• C factor increase cause deflection on cusp and pain.
[Link] movement for extraction of upper central
is?
• Rotation.

[Link] drugs can take for gastric ulcer patient?

✓ Give the patient antacid such as:
• Omeprazole.
• Pantoprazole.
• Lansoprazole.
➢ Analgesic for gastric ulcer patient is acetaminophen.

113. Cavo-surface margin?

• It is an angle between the axial wall of the cavity and the
tooth margin.

114. which of the following has highest strength

compression?
a) Composite light cure.
b) Composite Self-cure.
c) GIC.

115. to reduce the polymerization shrinkage with light

cure?
a) Low intensity, short duration.
b) Low intensity, long duration.
c) High intensity, long duration.
d) High intensity, short duration.
116. post operative hemorrhage?
• Bleeding after a surgical procedure, may occur
immediately or be delayed, it need not be restricted to
the surgical wound.

117. Define Hypodontia?

• It is the developmental absence of one or more teeth.

118. Define class III cavity?

• Proximal surface of anterior teeth but not involves the
incisal edge.

119. Define class V cavity?

• Occur on the cervical 1/3 of the labial surface of incisors
and canines, buccal and lingual surface of premolars and
molars.

120. Which of the following can not cause irritation to

the pulp tissue?
a) Ca (OH) cement.
b) Silicate cement.
c) Copper ionomer cement.
d) Zinc phosphate cement.

121. hazardous waste?

a) 2/3 proof. Container.
b) ½ proof. Container.
c) ¾ sacks.
[Link] on permanent molar, so fissure sealant put in?
a) Palatal pit maxillary central incisor.
b) Palatal pit maxillary lateral incisor.

123. types of anesthesia If we extract lower 8 + trismus?

• Vazirani-Akinosi. Also known as closed-mouth mandibular
block.

124. Prophylactic dose for a child?

• 25-50 mg/kg/day amoxicillin.

[Link] dose for prosthetic valve?

• Amoxicillin 2 g/day.

[Link] of the following X-ray should be avoided with

pregnancy?
a) Digital x-rays.
b) High sensitive films.
c) Paralleling technique.
d) Bisecting technique.

[Link] drug enhancing warfarin?

a) NSAID (e.g., Ibuprofen).
b) Diclofenac.

[Link] complication of extraction upper third molar

is?
• Tuberosity fracture.
[Link] common failure of composite in posterior teeth
is?
a) Secondary caries.
b) Restoration fracture.
c) Tooth fracture.
d) Wear and loss of substance.

130. when use chlorohexidine mouth wash CHX two

days plaque decreases about?
a) 19-56%.
b) 16-20%.
c) 40-60%.

[Link] onset local Anesthesia is?

• Articainne.

[Link] X-ray for proximal caries is?

• Intraoral bitewing radiograph.

133.X-ray before endodontic treatment is?

a) Straight and angular for posterior teeth.
b) Straight and angular for anterior teeth.
c) CBCT.
d) Panoramic X-ray.
[Link], we remove pulp horn when preparing for
access cavity?
a) For Gutta percha obturation.
b) Easier cavity preparation.
c) Wide access.

[Link] factor anomalies for periodontitis?

a) Multi rooted.
b) Single root.
c) Deep fissure and groove.

[Link] of the following cyst involved non-vital tooth?

a) Radicular cyst.
b) Naso-paltal cyst.
c) Mesio cyst.

[Link] common vaccine need for dentist is?

a) HBV.
b) HCV.
c) HIV.

138.X-ray shows horizontal resorption?

a) Chronic periodontitis.
b) Generalized aggressive periodontitis.
c) Localized aggressive periodontitis.
[Link] benefit for intracanal medication after
pulpectomy?
a) Make canal free from bacteria.
b) To reduce microbial loading on canal.
c) Avoid obliteration.

[Link] dose of local anesthesia will?

a) Hypertension.
b) Hypotension.
c) Cardiac problem.
d) No change blood pressure.

[Link] first for asthmatic patient management is?

a) Gives oxygen 15L/min.
b) Gives adrenaline.
c) Gives Hydrocortisone IV.
d) Gives salbutamol.

[Link] with flushed- hypotension?

• Anaphylactic shock.

[Link] on left arm and mandibular for emergency?

• Angina gives Glycidenite GTN spray/400 microgram.

144. how you will manage chocking patient?

• Encourage the patient to cough vigorously and abdominal
thrust.
145. What is the sign and symptoms of anaphylactic
shock?
• Skin reaction, including itching, flushed or pale skin.
• Low blood pressure (hypotension).
• Constriction of airways and swollen tongue or throat.
• A week and rapid pulse.
• Nausea, Vomiting or diarrhea.
• Dizziness or fainting.

[Link] use elevator on?

a) Palatal root of maxillary first molar.
b) Palatal root of premolar.
c) Remaining root if upper canine.
d) Remaining root of upper lateral.

[Link] of dentine bonding agents?

✓ Chronological generation:
• 4th generation 17-25.
• 5th generation 20-24.
• 6th generation 17-25.
• 7th generation 23-30.

[Link] of vital bleaching?

• In office bleaching (chemical bleaching, light activated
bleaching, laser activated bleaching).
• Home bleaching.
[Link] is the vertical and horizontal bone loos and
which one is good in prognosis?
✓ Horizontal bone loss:
• Results in bone levels that are approximately at the same
height on adjacent tooth roots. On a radiograph, if an
imaginary line drawn between the CEJs of the adjacent teeth
is approximately parallel, then the bone loss is described as
horizontal bone loss.

✓ Vertical bone loos:

• Results in an uneven reduction in bone height on the
adjacent tooth roots, resulting in a trenchlike area of missing
bone alongside the root of one tooth. On a radiograph, if an
imaginary line drawn between the CEJs of the adjacent teeth
is NOT parallel, then the bone loss is described as vertical
bone loss.

➢ The vertical bone loss is better than the horizontal bone

loss in prognosis.
➢ One wall defect id better than two wall defect better
than tree wall defect.

150. The ideal bone for implant prosthetic support is?

• Lamellar bone.

[Link] bone?
Lamellar bone is highly organized but takes about one year to
mineralize completely after the trauma induced by implant
placement.
152. What is the intermediate restorative material
(IRM)?
• Is a polymer-reinforced zinc oxide-eugenol
composition restorative material designed for
intermediate restorations intended to remain in place
No longer than one year.
• Its is a material that intend to be used as a temporary
restoration that is usually last up to one year.
• Long standing temporary restoration for permanent
dentition, permanent restoration for deciduous
dentition.

[Link] is initial sign for gingivitis? (MCQ).

a) Increase in the gingival sulcus fluid.
b) Increase bleeding on probing.

154. Definition of reversible pulpitis.

• Refers to instance where the inflammation is mild and the
tooth pulp remain healthy enough to save.

[Link] of direct pulp capping?

• Treatment of an exposed vital pulp with dental material to
facilitate the formation of reparative dentine and
maintenance of vital pulp.
• The procedure in which a small exposure of the pulp,
encountered during cavity preparation following a
traumatic injury or due to caries, with a sound
surrounding dentine, is dressed with an appropriate
biocompatible radio-opaque base in contact with the
exposed pulp tissue prior to placing a restoration.
[Link] of indirect pulp capping?
• A procedure where in small amount of carious dentine is
retained in deep area of cavity to avoid exposure of the
pulp, followed by placement of suitable medicament and
restorative material that seal off the carious dentine and
encourage the pulp recovery.

[Link] two old and two new materials for pulp

capping?
➢ Two old materials:
• CAOH (dycal).
• MTA. (Mineral Trioxide Aggregate).
• Zinc oxide eugenol.

➢ Two new materials:

• Bio ceramic pulp capping materials.
• Biodentine.

158. What is the major medical Complication of

penicillin?
• Hypersensitivity.
• Nausea.
• Vomiting.
• Epigastric distress.
• Diarrhea.
• Black hairy tongue.
[Link] of calcium hydroxide?
• Initially bactericidal then bacteriostatic.
• Promote healing and repair.
• High PH stimulate fibroblasts.
• Neutralize low PH of acids.
• Stop internal resorption.
• Particles may obturate open tubules.

160. Disadvantages of calcium hydroxide?

• Does not exclusively stimulate dentinogenesis.
• Does not exclusively stimulate reparative dentine.
• Associated with primary tooth resorption.
• May dissolve after one year with cavosurface dissolution.
• May degrade acid etching.
• Degrade upon tooth fixture.
• Marginal failure with amalgam condensation.
• Dose not adhere to the dentine or resin restoration.

[Link] of scaling & root planning, what is the

defiance?
➢ Scaling:
• Is removing the plaque and calculus supra gingival.
➢ Root planning:
• Is removing the plaque and calculus sub gingival and
smoothing of root surface.

162. Main factor for stability of periodontal heath after

treatment is?
• Maintenance of good oral hygiene measures with
frequent tooth brushing and uses of mouth wash, and
routine scaling and root planning every six months.
 [Link] female with hypertension and diabetes taking
anti-hypertensive drugs &anti-diabetic drugs, with
bleeding on brushing, so she stopped brushing for long
time, she complains of dry mouth and halitosis?
A. What is the normal Glycosylated hemoglobin HbA1c and
definition?
➢ HbA1c is a blood test that is used to help diagnosis and monitor people
with diabetes.
• Normal: below 5.7%
• Prediabetes: 5.7% to 6.4%.
• Diabetes: 6.5% or above.

B. Analgesic suitable & the dose?

• Paracetamol 500mg.

C. Antibiotic of choice?
• Amoxicillin 500mg 1x3
• Metronidazole (flagyl) 500mg/250mg 1x3.

D. Two causes of dry mouth?

• increase the blood sugar level.
• Drugs induced xerostomia.
E. Causes of halitosis?
• PDL disease.
• Keto-acidosis.
F. Treatment plan?
• Scaling and root planning with oral hygiene instruction frequently tooth
brushing and the use of the mouth wash.
• Analysis of the fasting blood sugar and HbA1c level.
• OPG to see the bone loss.
• measure the pocket depth and clinical attachment loos, less than 3-4 mm
attachment loos so it is a moderate periodontitis so it can be treated with
phase one therapy and after controlling the diabetes it will heal, if more
than 3-4 mm attachment loos this should be treated by regenerative
surgery after the diabetic control.

G. Tools for clinical examination for periodontitis?

• Diagnostic set. (Mirror, Prob & tweezer).
• Periodontal prob.
• Nabers prob (use for diagnosis of furcation involvement).
[Link] dependent patient, during treatment patient
felt sweeting and anxiety and after few minutes felt un
well and so nervous, increase sweeting.
A) what is your diagnosis?
• Hypoglycemic patient
B) What will do first?
• Give the patient 20 mg sugar dissolve them in a cup of
water its about 3-4 spoons of sugar.
C) If patient conscious what you will provide him with to
recover?
• Gives the patient oral glucose.

D) After few minutes patient loss conscious what will you

do?
• Gives IM 1 mg glucagon, or IV glucose.

E) After recovery what will you will give him?

• Gives oral glucose.

F) How time you will wait after recovery to give him the (E
question)?
• 15 minutes because the glucagon washed out within
15 minutes.

G) What is your advice to the patient after recovery?

• Patient should consult his physician.
• Patient should adjust his insulin dose.
• Gives the patient short morning appointment.
• Patient should take his breakfast and his insulin before
the dental session.
• Dental session should be with less stress as possible.
165. What is meant by OPG (orthopantomogram),
Disadvantages of OPG?
• It is special x-rays of the lower face, teeth and jaws.
• An OPG is a panoramic or wide view x-ray of the lower
face, which display all the teeth of the upper and lower
jaw on a single film.

➢ Disadvantages:
• Provide less sharp image.
• Less accurate information about dental and oral
diseases
• Distorted picture that is very often soon.

166. Lingual bar and lingual plate? (MCQ).

• Which provide more indirect retention.

167. Submerge tooth in periodontic means? (MCQ).

• Ankylosis?

168. Inferior alveolar nerve IAN will anesthetize? (MCQ).

• All mandibular teeth in one arch and gingival mucosa of
anterior teeth.

[Link] difficult extraction of impacted lower 3rd molar

is? (MCQ).
• Distoangular position.
170. Which material is used as cement and restoration?
(MCQ).
• Compomer and glass ionomer (GI).

171. Definition of Canine Guidance?

• When slide the jaw to the side with upper and lower
canines touching, they should guide the rear teeth apart.

[Link] first molar with simple cavity, what is the

best choice? (MCQ).
a) Stainless steel crown.
b) Pulpotomy.
c) Pulpectomy.
d) Composite restoration.

[Link] Gauge cause pain during insertion? (MCQ).

• 20,27,30.

174. Which material used in sealing coronal perforation?

(MCQ).
• MTA.

175. 3 hours after extraction, patient came back to the

clinic with bleeding, what is the first option?
a) Suture, pack with oxide cellulose.
b) Pack with zin eugenol.
c) Biting on cotton gauge.
176. Antagonist of warfarin is?
a) Orally vitamin K.
b) IV vitamin K.
c) Vitamin B12.
d) Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma.

177. Amount of Gutta percha should be left in the canal

for post and core placement should? (MCQ).
• 3-5mm.

178. after extraction of 1st molar one root disappears

what is the suspected space may be the rood
disappeared into?
• Imbedded into buccal space.
• Slipped into the sinus.
• May be swallowed.
• May be inhaled.

[Link] of Hue, Value & chroma?

➢ Hue:
• Refers to color families. (e.g. red, green, orange).
➢ Value:
• Refers to lightness or darkness as related to a scale
from black to white.
➢ Chroma:
• Refers to the saturation of a color at any given value
level.
[Link] of post and core?
• Give retention for an existing tooth that has lost a
significant amount of its internal structure, epically
the coronal buildup.

[Link] of subluxation?
• Loosening of tooth within the socket without
displacement.

[Link] is the average biological width?

• 2 mm.

[Link] for extruded tooth splint?

• 1-2 weeks.

184. Grater palatine nerve block will anesthetize teeth

anterior to?
a) First premolar.
b) Second premolar.
c) Canines.
d) Lateral incisors.

185. patient with ulcer and he is worried from squamous

cell carcinoma, how to exclude it by its place?
a) labial mucosa.
b) Retromolar area.
c) Tongue.
d) Floor of the mouth.
186. Definition of Group function occlusion?
• Occurs when there is simultaneous contact of the
canine and posterior teeth on the working side during
lateral mandibular excursion.

187. patient with stroke should give him?

• Administer 100% oxygen 15 liters/minutes.

[Link] is?
a) Bacteriostatic. (At low concentration).
b) Bactericidal. (At high concentration).
c) Gram negative.
d) Gram positive.

189. prophylactic antibiotic dose for child is?

a) 20mg/kg.
b) 30mg/kg.
c) 50mg/kg.

190. Elderly patient during treatment he has chest pain,

heaviness on his chest and pain in jaw?
a) Asthma.
b) Cardiac disease. (Angina).
c) Neuralgia.
[Link] cell carcinoma mainly in?
a) Gingiva.
b) Tongue & palate.
c) Tongue & floor of the mouth.

[Link] & fissure sealant in patient which not have dry

field?
a) Compomer.
b) Flowable.
c) Glass ionomer cement.

193. problems in biological width will?

• Cause gingival inflammation & root fracture.

[Link] manifestation of HIV patients (AIDS) is?

a) Minor aphthous ulcers.
b) Pseudo membranous candidiasis.

195. What is the oral thrush?

• Produce slightly raised, creamy white, sore patches in
your mouth or on the tongue.
• Also called oral candidiasis.
• Drugs as prednisone, inhaled corticosteroids or
antibiotics that distribute the natural balance of
microorganisms on the body can increase the risk of
oral thrush.
• Wearing dentures, especially upper dentures, or
having conditions that cause dry mouth can increase
the risk factor of oral thrush.
[Link] of lower third molar extraction?
• Injury of alveolar and lingual nerve.
• Infected and dry socket.
• Trismus.
• Bleeding.

[Link] of bitewing radiograph?

• Diagnosis of tooth decay.
• Periodontal bone loss or gum disease.

198. Management of tooth discoloration?

• Polishing.
• Micro-abrasion (12 years).
• Bleaching (16 years).
• Composite restorations.
• Laminate veneers (18 years).
• Crowns.

199. Most common cause of tooth discoloration is?

• Aging.
• Trauma.
• Medications.
[Link] is special about each of the following
endodontic irrigation?
➢ EDTA:
• Colorless soluble product.
• Common chelating agent.
• Effective on removing of smear layer.
• No Antimicrobial activity.
• Concentration in endodontic is 17%.
• Recommended irrigation time is 1 minutes, irrigation for longer
period cause excessive removal of dentine.

➢ Hydrogen peroxide:
• Concentration in endodontic is 3%-5%.
• Active against bacteria, viruses and yeasts.

➢ Chlorhexidine: CHx
• Has a broad antimicrobial activity.
• Has a little toxicity.
• Concentration in endodontic is 0.2%- 2%.
• Soluble form is chlorhexidine gluconate.
✓ Advantages of chlorhexidine CHx:
• Mechanical flushing of debris from the canal.
• Broad spectrum antimicrobial action.
• Cheap.
✓ Disadvantages of chlorhexidine CHx:
• Can’t dissolve necrotic tissue.
• Can’t remove smear layer.

➢ Sodium Hypochlorite NaCOl:

• Most common irrigant.
• Used as a primary irrigant.
• Allergies are rare.
• Concentration in endodontic is 0.25%-5.25%.
✓ Advantages of sodium hypochlorite NaOCl:
• Mechanical flushing of debris from the canals.
• Dissolvent for vital and necrotic tissue.
• Antimicrobial action.
• Lubricating action.
• Cheap.
✓ Disadvantages of sodium hypochlorite NaOCl:
• Using higher concentration result in greater effect, but more toxic.
[Link] oral photograph for patient complaining of
change in the color in his gingiva?
➢ What is your deferential diagnosis? (Two points).
•

➢ Management for such case?

202. patient present to the clinic with pain in 27 (canine),

the pain dose not respond to pain killer, after certain
period of time the patient don’t have pain at all?
➢ What is your diagnosis for 27 teeth?
• Irreversible pulpitis that has been untreated till
necrosis of the pulp occurs.
➢ What test you will perform to know about periapical
condition?
• Vertical percussion.

➢ If the teeth have negative response to the test, you

performed what is your periapical diagnosis?
• No periapical periodontitis.

➢ What is your management?

• RCT.

➢ What is the tip size of red K-file, how to replace upper 7?

[Link] of dry socket?
• When the blood clot at the site of the tooth
extraction fails to develop or it dislodge or dissolves
before the wound has healed.

204. Causes of dry socket? (Three causes)?

• Smoking & tobacco use.
• Oral contraceptives drugs.
• Dislodges of the blood clot or doesn’t form at all.
• Improper at home care.

[Link] of infected socket?

• Bacterial contamination of the socket within one or two
days of the extraction causing redness and swelling.
• Trauma at the surgical site

[Link] of infected & dry socket is:

• Flushing out the socket from any food or debris.
• Medicated dressings. Such as alveogel
• Pain medications.
• Self-care.

[Link] of sodium hypochlorite accident? (Three

causes).
• Careless iatrogenic injection.
• Extrusion into the maxillary sinus.
• Infusion of NaOCl beyond the root apex into the
periradicular regions.
208. Management of sodium hypochlorite accident?
(Three points).
• Immediate irrigation of the canal with normal saline to
dilute the sodium hypochlorite.
• Advice ice pack compression for 24 hours (15 minutes
interval) to minimize the swelling.
• Recommend warm, moist compress after 24 hours (15
minutes interval).

209 Three signs of sodium hypochlorite accident?

✓ It occurs when there is extravasation of this irrigation
solution beyond the apex leading to tissue necrosis,
This manifests as:
• Severe pain.
• Burning.
• Rapid tissue swelling.
• Bleeding from the periapical tissue.

210. Mention types of vital bleaching, active ingredient

and the concentration?
• In office or powder bleaching.
• At home or dentist supervised night-guard bleaching.
• Bleaching with over-the-counter OTC products.

➢ Active ingredient is: Hydrogen peroxide with the

concentration of 35%
211. Definition of vital bleaching is?
• It is the clinical application of a chemical solution to a
tooth surface in order to achieve a lightening effect.

[Link] is the non-vital bleaching?

• It is a non-invasive technique to treat the intrinsic
discoloration of teeth of several etiologies.
• Hydrogen peroxide and sodium perborate are commonly
used bleaching agents.

213. Maximum dose of paracetamol for 80kg man is?

(MCQ).
• 400mg/kg

[Link] number of carpoul for a 10 kg kid of

lidocaine is? (MCQ).
• 1 carpoul.

215. Maximum number of carpoul for 20 kg kid of

lidocaine is? (MCQ).
• 2 carpouls.

216. causes of check biting in complete denture patient

is? (MCQ).
• Increase vertical dimension of occlusion.
[Link] for children is?
• 2 breath/30 compression (single rescue).
• 2 breath/15 compression (Two rescues).

[Link] with 0.1 mm bone loss after five years, what

is your management?
• It is acceptable bone loss don’t do anything.

[Link] of the following is a complication of extraction

of lower 3rd molar? (MCQ).
• Injury of the alveolar nerve.

[Link] common complication after extraction for

children is? (MCQ).
• Self-inflecting injury

[Link] of bleaching is? (MCQ).

• Gingival irritation.

[Link] of etching is? (MCQ).

• 10-20 sec.

[Link] after avulsion for PDL to stay alive is? (MCQ).

• 60 minutes.
[Link] antibiotic for kid with allergy to
penicillin is? (MCQ).
• 600 mg clindamycin.

[Link] of clindamycin is? (MCQ).

• Pseudo-membrane colitis.

[Link] function in complete denture is? (MCQ).

• Contact on working side.

[Link] of overdenture is? (MCQ).

• Preservation of bone.

228. What is the resin-modified glass ionomer cement?

• The RMIG or RRGI (Resin-reinforced glass ionomer)
cements are indicated for the luting of crown, bridges,
inlay and onlay restoration.
• They are essentially hybrid formulations of resin and glass
ionomer components.
[Link] is the glass ionomer cement?
• It is a dental restorative material used as filling material,
luting cement and for orthodontic brackets attachment,
abrasion and erosion cavities, restoration of deciduous
teeth, restoration of class III & class V carious lesions,
tunnel restoration and also be combined with resin
composite in the laminate or sandwich technique.
• Composition of GI is based on the reaction of silicate glass-
powder & polyacrylic acid, an ionomer.
• The advantage of GI is the cavity is theoretically sealed,
protecting the pulp, eliminating secondary caries and
preventing leakage at the margins.
• The disadvantages of GI are lack of strength and low
resistance to abrasion and wear.
• GI could last for up to 5-7 years.

[Link] vs GI is? (MCQ).

• More strength.

[Link] common complication of traumatic occlusion

is? (MCQ).
• Mobility.

[Link] sclera in? (MCQ).

• Osteogenesis imperfecta.

[Link] of fillers in composite?

• Enhance the elastic modulus.
• Increase tensile strength, hardness and wear resistance.
• Decrease polymerization shrinkage of the restoration.
234. Definition of occlusal convergence?
• The convergence of two opposing external walls of a tooth
preparation or,
• The angle between a single preparation wall and the long
axis of the preparation.

[Link] is the submerged tooth?

• The affected teeth do not come to the level of adjacent
normal occluding teeth, always 0.5 mm or more below the
intact marginal ridges of the adjacent teeth.
• The incidence occurs after eruption of teeth in the oral
cavity.
• This condition is usually treated by surgical removal of the
ankylosed teeth to prevent the development of
malocclusion, local periodontal disturbance and dental
caries.

[Link] tooth with temporary filling what do you

expect?
• Coronal leakage.

[Link] with lidocaine anesthesia will?

• Increase duration of local anesthesia.

238. splinting of extruded tooth?

• 2-3 weeks.
239. Definition of subluxation?
• Physical injury to the tooth surrounding structure with
some loosening of the tooth but without fracture or
displacement.

240. Discolored tooth due to trauma, no response for

vitality test, what is the treatment?
• RCT with internal bleaching.

241. one of the following is not proper managements

after bleeding from extraction? (MCQ).
• Put alveogel.

242. Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis? (PHGS).

• Typically has a prodrome of 2-4 days.
• Consists of fever, malaise, headache and cervical
lymphadenopathy before generalized gingival
inflammation and ulceration occur.
• Often self-limiting infection that resolve in 10-14 days.
• Caused by herpesvirus 1 infection arising in childhood
usually subclinical or mild, the primary infection in adults is
more severe.
• PHGS in adults and children usually accompanied by
mouth ulcer, fever, dry mouth and red, swollen or painful
gums.
• Typically occur between six month and five years of age,
but can occur in older children and adolescents.
• It is a contagious mouth infection that causes painful
sores, blisters and selling.
243. Paracetamol is contraindicated in?
• Liver disease.

244. examination of swelling of submandibular gland is?

• Extra oral, intra oral.

245. Best method for periapical x-ray is?

• Parallel technique.

246. Most bacteria in endodontics is?

• Gram negative bacteria.

[Link] deformity that causes malocclusion is?

• Cleft palate.

248. teeth connected from cementum is?

• Concrescence.

249. Gingival hyperplasia caused by?

• Calcium channel blockers.

250. international normalized ratio (INR)?

• In healthy people is 1.1 or below
• In patient talking warfarin is 2.0-3.0
• Maximum INR is 4
251. Ugly duckling stage is corrected by?
• Eruption of canine.

252. Ni decrease corrosion in?

• NiCR alloy.

253. Definition of oligodontia is?

• The congenital absences of more than six teeth in primary,
permanent or both dentitions.

254. Definition of hypodontia is?

• Absences of several teeth except the third molars.

[Link] of glass ionomer is?

• Aluminum silicate and polyacrylic acid.

[Link] of enamel in demineralization is?

• 5.5.

257. Neutrophils normal count is?

• 1500-8500.

258. If neutrophils are less than 500?

• We must give antibiotic before dental treatment.
259. Topical fluoride acidulated is used for?
• Encourage remineralization of enamel.
• Inhibit bacterial metabolism.
• Reducing the growth of plaque bacteria.

➢ Three specific professionally applied fluoride product are the

most often used clinically which are: 1.23% acidulated
phosphate fluoride (APF), 2% neutral sodium fluoride and
5% fluoride varnish.

260. Definition of dental caries is?

• Infectious, communicable disease, resulting in destruction
of tooth structure by acid-forming bacteria found in dental
plaque, intra oral biofilm in the presence of sugar. Or,
• Infectious, communicable, transmissible disease caused by
bacterial invasion resulting in the breakdown of the tooth
structure. Or,
• Is a microbial disease of the calcified tissues of the teeth,
characterized by demineralization of the inorganic
substance of the tooth.

[Link] patient have infective endocarditis, he is allergic to

penicillin, what should you give him?
• Give clindamycin.

[Link] tooth surface is not cleansable?

• Occlusal (pit % fissure).
[Link] is the maximum dose of 2% lidocaine I children
mg/kg?
a) 3.4
b) 4
c) 4.5
d) 5

264. Definition of curve of Spee is?

• Seen In the sagittal plane.
• Anterioposterior curve passing through incisal edge and
cusp tip of the teeth.
• Concave above and convex below.

265. Definition of curve of Monson is?

• Spherical curvature (3D).
• Passing through the occlusal plane and both condyles.
• Its center is at glabella.
• Radius about 4 inches.

266. Definition of curve of Wilson is?

• Observed in molar region.
• It is a lateral curve.
• Concave above and convex below.

267. Definition of curve of Anti-Monson is?

• Observed in pre-molar region.
• Same as Wilson’s curve, it is a lateral curve.
• It is convex above and concave below.
268. Apexogenesis means?
a) Induction of calcified barrier at the apex.
b) Removal of the vital pulp near the open apex.
c) Determination of the completion of the apex.
d) Continued physiological root formation.

269. In diabetic patients?

a) Need antibiotic cover if uncontrolled when bacteremia is
anticipated.
b) Best treated in afternoon.
c) Safe to treat if the glucose blood level is 13mmol/L (250
mg/dl).
d) Bleeding is a problem due to high glucose level.

270. Infra-orbital nerve block will anesthetize?

• Part of the nose.
• Lower eye lid and part of the upper eye lid.
• Upper lip.
• Upper cheek.