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Topic 8

The document discusses the principles of continuity and the Steady Flow Energy Equation (SFEE) in fluid dynamics, emphasizing the conservation of mass and energy in steady flow systems. It provides mathematical formulations for mass flow rates and energy balances, along with examples illustrating the application of these concepts in real-world scenarios. Key equations include the relationship between mass flow rates at different points in a fluid system and the energy balance based on the first law of thermodynamics.

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bhekijeffrey71
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
6 views15 pages

Topic 8

The document discusses the principles of continuity and the Steady Flow Energy Equation (SFEE) in fluid dynamics, emphasizing the conservation of mass and energy in steady flow systems. It provides mathematical formulations for mass flow rates and energy balances, along with examples illustrating the application of these concepts in real-world scenarios. Key equations include the relationship between mass flow rates at different points in a fluid system and the energy balance based on the first law of thermodynamics.

Uploaded by

bhekijeffrey71
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

59

ENME2FM

Topic 8: Continuity and the Steady Flow Energy Equation


Continuity (Conservation of Mass)
Consider a fixed region within a moving fluid

In the absence of a nuclear reaction:

Rate of mass in = Rate of mass out + Rate of accumulation of mass

If flow is steady:

𝑚𝑚̇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 𝑚𝑚̇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜

𝑚𝑚̇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 𝑚𝑚̇1 = 𝜌𝜌1 𝛿𝛿𝐴𝐴1 𝑢𝑢1


𝑚𝑚̇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 = 𝑚𝑚̇2 = 𝜌𝜌2 𝛿𝛿𝐴𝐴2 𝑢𝑢2
∴ 𝜌𝜌1 𝛿𝛿𝐴𝐴1 𝑢𝑢1 = 𝜌𝜌2 𝛿𝛿𝐴𝐴2 𝑢𝑢2 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
In reality, fluid velocity varies from wall to wall but using mean velocities:

𝜌𝜌1 𝐴𝐴1 𝑢𝑢1 = 𝜌𝜌2 𝐴𝐴2 𝑢𝑢2 = 𝜌𝜌𝑉𝑉̇

̇3
𝑉𝑉: [𝑚𝑚 �𝑠𝑠]
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
𝑚𝑚̇: [ �𝑠𝑠]

𝑚𝑚̇ = 𝜌𝜌1 𝐴𝐴1 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉1 = 𝜌𝜌2 𝐴𝐴2 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉2 = 𝜌𝜌𝑉𝑉̇


60

ENME2FM

Example
Water flows through a pipe (AB) with d1=50mm, which is in series with pipe BC of d2=75mm, in which
the mean velocity is u2=2m/s. AT C the pipe splits such that CD has d3 and mean velocity u3=1.5m/s
and CE has d4=30mm. Flow through CE is half of that through CD. Find 𝑉𝑉1̇ ,u1, 𝑉𝑉̇2 , 𝑉𝑉̇3 , d3, 𝑉𝑉4̇ and u4.

For BC:
𝜋𝜋0.0752
𝑉𝑉̇2 = 𝑢𝑢2 𝐴𝐴2 = 2 ∙
4
= 0.008836𝑚𝑚3 /𝑠𝑠
And
𝜋𝜋0.052
𝑉𝑉̇2 = 𝑉𝑉1̇ = 𝑢𝑢1 𝐴𝐴1 = 𝑢𝑢1 ∙ = 0.008836
4
∴ 𝑢𝑢1 = 4.5𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
𝑢𝑢3 𝐴𝐴3 = 2𝑢𝑢4 𝐴𝐴4
Or
𝑉𝑉̇3 = 2𝑉𝑉4̇
And
𝑉𝑉̇3 + 𝑉𝑉4̇ = 𝑉𝑉̇2
∴ 𝑉𝑉4̇ = 𝑉𝑉̇2 − 𝑉𝑉̇3
𝑉𝑉̇3 = 2�𝑉𝑉̇2 − 𝑉𝑉̇3 �
3𝑉𝑉̇3 = 2𝑉𝑉̇2
2
𝑉𝑉̇3 = 𝑉𝑉̇2
3
∴ 𝑉𝑉̇3 = 0.005891 = 𝑢𝑢3 𝐴𝐴3
0.005891 𝜋𝜋𝑑𝑑32
∴ 𝐴𝐴3 = =
1.5 4
𝑑𝑑3 = 0.0707𝑚𝑚
= 70.7𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
1 𝑚𝑚3 𝜋𝜋𝑑𝑑42
𝑉𝑉4̇ = 𝑉𝑉̇3 = 0.002945 = 𝑢𝑢4 𝐴𝐴4 = 𝑢𝑢4
2 𝑠𝑠 4
∴ 𝑢𝑢4 = 4,17 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
61

ENME2FM

The Steady Flow Energy Equation (SFEE)


From the 1st Law of Thermodynamics – “For any mass system the net energy supplied equals the
increase in energy of the system, plus the energy leaving.”

∆𝑄𝑄 = ∆𝐸𝐸 + ∆𝑊𝑊


Steady Flow Device

δm1 has:

1) Internal energy, e1 [J/kg] (NB: Sometimes ‘e’≡’u’)

2) Kinetic energy, 12𝑢𝑢12 [J/kg]

3) Potential energy, g.z1 [J/kg]

Similarly, for δm2. By continuity the mass of the element 1 equals the mass of element 2, Therefore
𝛿𝛿𝑚𝑚1 = 𝛿𝛿𝑚𝑚2 = 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿.

Between B and C:

4) nett heat δQ is supplied

5) nett work δW is done BY the fluid (+ve) or ON the fluid (-ve)

Also; at A and D:

6) displacement work is done (−𝑃𝑃1 𝐴𝐴1 𝛿𝛿𝑠𝑠1 ) getting δm1 into the device

7) (+𝑃𝑃2 𝐴𝐴2 𝛿𝛿𝑠𝑠2 ) displacing fluid ahead of the element at the exit.

Now, for an energy balance across the boundaries:

∆𝑄𝑄 = ∆𝐸𝐸 + ∆𝑊𝑊


1
𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 = 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 �(𝑒𝑒1 − 𝑒𝑒2 ) + (𝑢𝑢12 − 𝑢𝑢22 ) + 𝑔𝑔(𝑧𝑧1 − 𝑧𝑧2 )� + 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 + 𝑃𝑃2 𝐴𝐴2 𝛿𝛿𝑠𝑠2 − 𝑃𝑃1 𝐴𝐴1 𝛿𝛿𝑠𝑠1
2
But,

𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 = 𝜌𝜌2 𝐴𝐴2 𝛿𝛿𝑠𝑠2 = 𝜌𝜌1 𝐴𝐴1 𝛿𝛿𝑠𝑠1


62

ENME2FM
So,
𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 1 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 𝑃𝑃2 𝑃𝑃1
= (𝑒𝑒1 − 𝑒𝑒2 ) + (𝑢𝑢12 − 𝑢𝑢22 ) + 𝑔𝑔(𝑧𝑧1 − 𝑧𝑧2 ) + + −
𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 2 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 𝜌𝜌2 𝜌𝜌1
Or,

1 1
𝑞𝑞𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 + 𝑒𝑒1 + 𝑃𝑃1 𝓋𝓋1 + 𝑢𝑢12 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧1 = 𝓌𝓌𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 + 𝑒𝑒2 + 𝑃𝑃2 𝓋𝓋2 + 𝑢𝑢22 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧2
2 2
I

Now (𝑒𝑒 + 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃) is combined to form ENTHALPY (h), so:

1 1
𝑞𝑞𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 + ℎ1 + 𝑢𝑢12 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧1 = 𝓌𝓌𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 + ℎ2 + 𝑢𝑢22 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧2
2 2
II

The above Equation is “per kg”, i.e. specific quantities, For steady flow; multiply through by 𝑚𝑚̇ (kg/s)
to get:

The SFEE

1 1
𝑄𝑄̇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 + 𝑚𝑚̇ �ℎ1 + 𝑢𝑢12 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧1 � = 𝑊𝑊̇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 + 𝑚𝑚̇ �ℎ2 + 𝑢𝑢22 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧2 �
2 2
III

Where:
𝑄𝑄̇𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 ≡net rate of heat supplied TO the control volume [W]
𝑊𝑊̇𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 ≡net rate of work DONE BY the control volume (work out) [W]
𝑚𝑚̇(ℎ2 − ℎ1 ) = 𝑚𝑚̇𝐶𝐶𝑃𝑃 (𝑇𝑇2 − 𝑇𝑇1 )
𝑚𝑚̇𝑞𝑞 = 𝑄𝑄̇; 𝑚𝑚̇𝒲𝒲 = 𝑊𝑊̇

NB: SFEE applies to fluids, real or ideal, as long as:


1) Flow is steady and continuous
2) Heat and machine work are transferred at a constant rate
3) Quantities are uniform over inlet and outlet sections.
63

ENME2FM

Example
A pump delivers water at a steady rate of 19l/s. At inlet to the pump the pipe diameter is 89 mm and
the static pressure is 124 kPa. At outlet the pipe diameter is 25mm and static pressure is 414 kPa. The
rise in internal energy of the water (ρ=1000 kg/m3) associated with temperature rise across the
impeller, is 279 kJ/kg. The pumping process is adiabatic (no heat transfer). If the pump motor has an
electrical efficiency of 92%, calculate:
a) The mechanical power required to drive the pump
b) The size of the electric motor required (kW).

Solution:

SFEE:

𝑁𝑁𝑁𝑁: 𝑉𝑉̇ = 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑄𝑄̇ = 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟/𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝


a)
(19l/s=0.019m3/s)
𝑚𝑚̇ = 𝜌𝜌𝑉𝑉̇ = 1000 ∙ (0.019)
= 19 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘/𝑠𝑠
And
𝑉𝑉̇ = 𝑢𝑢1 𝐴𝐴1 = 𝑢𝑢2 𝐴𝐴2 (𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐)
𝜋𝜋0.0892
∴ 0.019 = 𝑢𝑢1 ∙
4
∴ 𝑢𝑢1 = 3.05 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
And
𝜋𝜋0.0252
∴ 0.019 = 𝑢𝑢2 ∙
4
∴ 𝑢𝑢2 = 38.71 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
𝑚𝑚̇[𝑒𝑒2 − 𝑒𝑒1 ] = 19[279] = 5301𝑊𝑊
Now substitute:
414 ∙ 103 1 124 ∙ 103 1
𝑊𝑊̇ = 19 � + (38.71)2 � − 19 � + (3.05)2 � + 5301
1000 2 1000 2
= 22101 − 2444 + 5301
= 24 958𝑊𝑊
= 24.96𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 (𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀𝑀ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎)
𝐶𝐶ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒: 𝑊𝑊̇𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 > 𝑊𝑊̇𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚ℎ 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑎𝑎 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
b)
24.96 24.96
𝑊𝑊̇𝑒𝑒 = = = 27.13𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 (𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒)
𝜂𝜂𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 0.92
64

ENME2FM

Bernoulli’s Equation
For zero machine work (𝓌𝓌 = 0), the steady flow energy can be re-written as:
𝑃𝑃2 1 2 𝑃𝑃1 1
+ 𝑢𝑢2 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧2 = + 𝑢𝑢12 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧1 + (𝑒𝑒2 − 𝑒𝑒1 − 𝑞𝑞)
𝜌𝜌2 2 𝜌𝜌1 2
If the flow is incompressible, (𝜌𝜌1 = 𝜌𝜌2 ), no heat is supplied (q=0) and there is no friction, we get

𝑃𝑃2 1 2 𝑃𝑃1 1
+ 𝑢𝑢2 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧2 = + 𝑢𝑢12 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧1
𝜌𝜌2 2 𝜌𝜌1 2

Bernoulli’s Equation for Frictionless Flow

This is commonly written in terms of pressure ‘head’ [units: m], such:

𝑃𝑃2 𝑢𝑢22 𝑃𝑃1 𝑢𝑢12


+ + 𝑧𝑧2 = + + 𝑧𝑧1
𝜌𝜌𝑔𝑔 2𝑔𝑔 𝜌𝜌𝑔𝑔 2𝑔𝑔

Most fluids have viscosity which gives rise to friction. Friction causes a heat rise (q) which is usually
transferred to the surroundings and lost.

In such a case, (𝑒𝑒2 − 𝑒𝑒1 − 𝑞𝑞) > 0. And Bernoulli’s Equation, incorporating friction loss becomes:

𝑃𝑃2 𝑢𝑢22 𝑃𝑃1 𝑢𝑢12


+ + 𝑧𝑧2 = + + 𝑧𝑧1 − ℎ𝑓𝑓
𝜌𝜌𝑔𝑔 2𝑔𝑔 𝜌𝜌𝑔𝑔 2𝑔𝑔

Where:
(𝑒𝑒2 − 𝑒𝑒1 − 𝑞𝑞)
ℎ𝑓𝑓 = [𝑚𝑚]
𝑔𝑔
≡ 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢𝑢 𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒.
For compressible, steady and uniform flow in a circular pipe, hf may be calculated as follows:

𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑢𝑢2
ℎ𝑓𝑓 =
2𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔
Where:

𝑓𝑓 = 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓
𝐿𝐿 = 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙ℎ
𝑢𝑢 = 𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓𝑓 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
𝑑𝑑 = 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝑔𝑔 = 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
65

ENME2FM

Example
In the given system, a pump
delivers water through a pipe of
diameter 150mm. At inlet the pipe
diameter is 225mm, mean velocity
is 1.35m/s and the pressure is
150mmHg vacuum. Point B is
600mm above A and C is 5m above
B where pressure is 35kPa gauge.
Friction losses in BC amount to
2.5kW of power. If 12.7kW is
required to drive the pump,
calculate the overall efficiency.
𝑆𝑆ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊𝑊
𝜂𝜂 =
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
−𝜌𝜌𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
𝑃𝑃𝐴𝐴 = ∙ 0.15 ∙ 𝜌𝜌𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂 ∙ 9.81
𝜌𝜌𝐻𝐻2 𝑂𝑂
= 𝑃𝑃𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 −𝜌𝜌𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 𝑔𝑔ℎ
= 𝑃𝑃𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 − 19.954𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃
𝑃𝑃𝐶𝐶 = 𝑃𝑃𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 + 35000𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃
SFEE gives (between A and C)
𝑃𝑃𝐴𝐴 1 2 𝑃𝑃𝐶𝐶 1 2
+ 𝑢𝑢𝐴𝐴 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧𝐴𝐴 + (𝑒𝑒2 − 𝑒𝑒1 − 𝑞𝑞) = + 𝑢𝑢 + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧𝐶𝐶
𝜌𝜌 2 𝜌𝜌 2 𝐶𝐶
Where:
(𝑒𝑒2 − 𝑒𝑒1 − 𝑞𝑞) = 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
𝜋𝜋0.2252
𝑉𝑉𝐴𝐴̇ = 𝑉𝑉̇𝐵𝐵 = 𝑉𝑉̇𝐶𝐶 = ∙ 1.35
4
= 𝑢𝑢𝐴𝐴 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = 0.0537𝑚𝑚3 /𝑠𝑠
= 𝑢𝑢𝐶𝐶 𝐴𝐴𝐶𝐶
∴ 𝑢𝑢𝐶𝐶 = 3.04𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
̇
𝑚𝑚̇ = 𝜌𝜌𝑉𝑉 = 1000 ∙ 0.0537 = 53.7𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘/𝑠𝑠
Now multiply through by 𝑚𝑚̇ to bring the units to [W].
𝑃𝑃𝐴𝐴 𝑢𝑢𝐴𝐴2 𝑃𝑃𝐶𝐶 𝑢𝑢𝐶𝐶2
𝑚𝑚̇ � + + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧𝐴𝐴 + 𝓌𝓌 − 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙� = 𝑚𝑚̇ � + + 𝑔𝑔𝑧𝑧𝐶𝐶 �
𝜌𝜌 2 𝜌𝜌 2
𝑃𝑃𝐶𝐶 − 𝑃𝑃𝐴𝐴 𝑢𝑢𝐶𝐶2 − 𝑢𝑢𝐴𝐴2
𝑃𝑃𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝑚𝑚̇𝓌𝓌 = 𝑚𝑚̇ � + + 𝑔𝑔(𝑧𝑧𝐶𝐶 − 𝑧𝑧𝐴𝐴 )� + 𝑃𝑃𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙
𝜌𝜌 2
35000 + 19954 3.042 − 1.352
𝑃𝑃𝑠𝑠ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 53.7 � + + 9.81 ∙ (5.6)� + 2500
1000 2
= 53.7(54.954 + 3.710 + 54.936) + 2500
= 8600𝑊𝑊
= 8.6𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
8600
𝜂𝜂 = = 67.7%
12700
Remember:
𝐽𝐽 𝐽𝐽 𝐽𝐽
𝓌𝓌 ≡ � � 𝑊𝑊̇ ≡ [ 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑊𝑊] 𝑚𝑚̇𝓌𝓌 ≡ 𝑊𝑊̇ ≡ [ 𝑜𝑜𝑟𝑟 𝑊𝑊]
𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑠
𝑊𝑊 ≡ [𝐽𝐽] 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
𝑚𝑚̇ ≡ [ ]
𝑠𝑠
66

ENME2FM

The Pitot Tube


The Pitot tube can be used to measure flow and velocity of flow. It works by converting the dynamic
𝑣𝑣 2
head associated with fluid motion �2𝑔𝑔� into static head, which is then measured.

The tube is closed at C, thus the fluid will stagnate (come to rest) in the tube, converting its dynamic
pressure into static pressure.

Writing Bernoulli’s equation from A to B:

𝑃𝑃𝐴𝐴 𝑢𝑢𝐴𝐴2 𝑃𝑃𝐵𝐵 𝑢𝑢𝐵𝐵2


+ + 𝑧𝑧𝐴𝐴 − ℎ𝑓𝑓 = + + 𝑧𝑧𝐵𝐵
𝜌𝜌𝑔𝑔 2𝑔𝑔 𝜌𝜌𝑔𝑔 2𝑔𝑔
Since 𝑧𝑧𝐴𝐴 = 𝑧𝑧𝐵𝐵 and ℎ𝑓𝑓 = 0 and 𝑢𝑢𝐵𝐵 = 0 we get.

𝑢𝑢𝐴𝐴2 𝑃𝑃𝐵𝐵 − 𝑃𝑃𝐴𝐴


=� �
2𝑔𝑔 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌
2(𝑃𝑃𝐵𝐵 − 𝑃𝑃𝐴𝐴 )
𝑢𝑢𝐴𝐴2 =
𝜌𝜌

2(𝑃𝑃𝐵𝐵 − 𝑃𝑃𝐴𝐴 )
𝑢𝑢𝐴𝐴 = �
𝜌𝜌

NB: This is valid for incompressible flow only. i.e. for low speed measurements in air where
incompressibility effects are negligible.

Example
An aeroplane is flying at 6500m above sea level where the atmosphere is standard (P=101.3kPa,
T=15°C). The measurement from a Pitot tube mounted on the wing tip reads 45 kPa. What is the
velocity of the aeroplane?
𝐶𝐶𝑃𝑃
Assume dry air with a lapse rate of 0.00975 K/m, �𝐶𝐶 = 1.4 and R=287 J/kgK.
𝑉𝑉
𝑔𝑔
�𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅
𝑃𝑃 𝜆𝜆𝜆𝜆
= �1 − �
𝑃𝑃𝑜𝑜 𝑇𝑇𝑜𝑜
Where:
𝜆𝜆 = 0.00975
9.81�
0.00975 ∙ 6500 287∙0.00975
𝑃𝑃 = 101.3 ∙ �1 − �
288
= 42.39𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘
67

ENME2FM
Now:
𝑇𝑇 = 288 − 6500 ∙ 0.00975
= 224.63𝐾𝐾
𝑃𝑃
𝜌𝜌 =
𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅
42390
=
287 ∙ 224.6
= 0.658 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘/𝑚𝑚3
2(45000 − 42390)
𝑢𝑢 = � = 89.07𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑠
0.658
68

ENME2FM

The Derivation of Bernoulli’s Equation using the Momentum Equation


Before deriving Bernoulli’s equation, we require an expression for the acceleration of a fluid particle
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
moving with velocity, u, i.e. we require = 𝑎𝑎𝑠𝑠 .
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

In general u is a function of position and time. As the particle moves from A to B, u changes for 2
reasons.

1) Particle at B have a different velocity from A (non-uniform flow)


2) During the time the particle is in transit between A and B, the velocity at B change (unsteady
flow)

For a small distance, δs, between A and B:


𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 = 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 + 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
∴ = +
𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
And
𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
lim = = +
𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿→0 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
And since 𝑢𝑢 =
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕


𝑎𝑎𝑠𝑠 = = 𝑢𝑢 +
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕

Or
𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝑎𝑎 = = 𝑢𝑢 +
𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑢𝑢 = 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 + 𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
For:
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
Steady flow =0
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕

𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
Uniform flow =0
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
69

ENME2FM
Now to Bernoulli:

Consider a small element of fluid moving between streamlines in a steady manner.

Pressure at the sides of the element is a mean value of 𝑃𝑃 + 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘, and this acts on the area 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿, since
𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 is perpendicular to the direction of motion.
i.e.
𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 = 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 − (𝑃𝑃 + 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿)(𝐴𝐴 + 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿) + (𝑃𝑃 + 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘)𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 − 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 cos 𝜃𝜃
= 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 − 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 − 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 − 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 − 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 + 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 + 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 − 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 cos 𝜃𝜃
𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 → 0 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘𝑘 → 0
Leaving
𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹𝐹 = −𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 − 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝛿𝛿𝑠𝑠 cos 𝜃𝜃
By Newton’s 2 law: nd

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝐹𝐹 = 𝑚𝑚 ∙ 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 = (𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌) ∙ � �
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
Now write 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 cos 𝜃𝜃 = 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿, then dividing by 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌, and taking the limit as 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 → 0.
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿
lim � � = lim �− − 𝑔𝑔 �
𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿→0 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿→0 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 𝛿𝛿𝛿𝛿
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 1 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
=− − 𝑔𝑔
𝑑𝑑𝑡𝑡 𝜌𝜌 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
Or
1 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
+ + 𝑔𝑔 =0
𝜌𝜌 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
Now
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
= 𝑢𝑢 +
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
But
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
=0
𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
70

ENME2FM
So
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
= 𝑢𝑢
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝜕𝜕𝜕𝜕
(u is a function of s only)
1 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
+ 𝑢𝑢 + 𝑔𝑔 =0
𝜌𝜌 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

If ρ is constant, integrate to get:


𝑃𝑃 𝑢𝑢2
+ + 𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝜌𝜌 2
Or
𝑃𝑃 𝑢𝑢2
+ + 𝑧𝑧 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 2𝑔𝑔

Conditions:

1) Fluid must be inviscid (frictionless)


2) Density must be constant
3) Flow must be steady
4) Relation holds for a single streamline (no velocity perpendicular to the streamline
direction)

Example
A pump supplies 7.5kW of power to a water flow in order to raise it 10m from a lower reservoir to
an upper lake. The flow rate is 56.6l/s. Calculate the head loss (in m) and the corresponding power
loss (in W).

Bernoulli from A to B:
𝑃𝑃𝐴𝐴 𝑣𝑣𝐴𝐴2 𝑃𝑃𝐵𝐵 𝑣𝑣𝐵𝐵2
+ + 𝑧𝑧𝐴𝐴 + 𝐻𝐻𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 − ℎ𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 = + + 𝑧𝑧𝐵𝐵
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 2𝑔𝑔 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 2𝑔𝑔
Where,
𝑃𝑃𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝐻𝐻𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
𝑃𝑃𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 7500
∴ 𝐻𝐻𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 = = = 13.51𝑚𝑚
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 1000 ∙ 9.81 ∙ 0.0566
Now
𝑃𝑃𝐴𝐴 = 𝑃𝑃𝐵𝐵 = 0 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑣𝑣𝐴𝐴 = 𝑣𝑣𝐵𝐵 = 0 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑧𝑧𝐴𝐴 = 0
∴ 13.51 − ℎ𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 = 10
ℎ𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 = 15.51 − 10 = 3.51𝑚𝑚
The power associated with this loss is 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌ℎ𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 :
= 1000 ∙ 9.81 ∙ 0.0566 ∙ 3.51 = 1949𝑊𝑊
71

ENME2FM

Example
Flow through a sharp-edged Orifice

𝑃𝑃1 𝑢𝑢12 𝑃𝑃𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑢𝑢22


+ + 𝑧𝑧1 = + +0
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 2𝑔𝑔 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 2𝑔𝑔
𝑢𝑢1 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑃𝑃𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 0
Now
𝑃𝑃1 = 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌(ℎ − 𝑧𝑧1 )
𝑃𝑃1
∴ = ℎ − 𝑧𝑧1
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌
Substituting
𝑢𝑢22
ℎ − 𝑧𝑧1 + 𝑧𝑧1 =
2𝑔𝑔
𝑢𝑢2 = �2𝑔𝑔ℎ

In practice there is a small loss in the orifice so that


𝑢𝑢 = 𝐶𝐶𝑉𝑉 �2𝑔𝑔ℎ
Where
0 < 𝐶𝐶𝑉𝑉 < 1
The coefficient of discharge accounts for less than ideal flow through the orifice and contraction of
the jet (vena contracta) such that:
𝑄𝑄𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
𝐶𝐶𝐷𝐷 = = 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 ∙ 𝐶𝐶𝑉𝑉
𝑄𝑄𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖
Where
𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑜𝑜𝑓𝑓 𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗𝑗
=
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
and
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉
𝐶𝐶𝑉𝑉 =
𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼𝐼 𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉𝑉
72

ENME2FM

Example
Consider a venturi meter. Obtain an expression for the flow rate Q:

By continuity (conservation of mass), Q1=Q2. i.e. A1u1=A2u2

Bernoulli from 1 to 2: (Assuming no loss)


𝑃𝑃1 𝑢𝑢12 𝑃𝑃2 𝑢𝑢22
+ + 𝑧𝑧1 = + + 𝑧𝑧2
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 2𝑔𝑔 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 2𝑔𝑔
𝑃𝑃1 − 𝑃𝑃2
𝑢𝑢22 − 𝑢𝑢12 = 2𝑔𝑔 �� � + (𝑧𝑧1 − 𝑧𝑧2 )�
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌
But
𝐴𝐴1
𝑢𝑢2 = 𝑢𝑢
𝐴𝐴2 1

𝐴𝐴1 2 2 𝑃𝑃1 − 𝑃𝑃2


∴ � � 𝑢𝑢1 − 𝑢𝑢12 = 2𝑔𝑔 �� � + (𝑧𝑧1 − 𝑧𝑧2 )�
𝐴𝐴2 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌

𝐴𝐴1 𝐴𝐴2 𝑃𝑃1 − 𝑃𝑃2


𝑢𝑢1 = �2𝑔𝑔 �� � + (𝑧𝑧1 − 𝑧𝑧2 )�
�𝐴𝐴12 − 𝐴𝐴22 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌
73

ENME2FM
Now let
𝑃𝑃1 𝑃𝑃2
𝐻𝐻 = � + 𝑧𝑧1 � − � + 𝑧𝑧2 � = 𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌
𝑃𝑃1 − 𝑃𝑃2
=� � + (𝑧𝑧1 − 𝑧𝑧2 )
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌
And since Q= A1u1:
𝐴𝐴1 𝐴𝐴2
𝑄𝑄 = �2𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔
�𝐴𝐴12 − 𝐴𝐴22

Let
𝐴𝐴1
𝑚𝑚 = 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 =
𝐴𝐴2
Then

𝐴𝐴1
𝑄𝑄 = � � �2𝑔𝑔𝑔𝑔
√𝑚𝑚2 − 1

Now:

𝑃𝑃𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 = 𝑃𝑃1 + 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌(𝑧𝑧1 − 𝑧𝑧) = 𝑃𝑃2 + 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌(𝑧𝑧2 − 𝑧𝑧 − ℎ) + 𝜌𝜌𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚 ℎ𝑔𝑔


𝑃𝑃1 𝑃𝑃2 𝜌𝜌𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
� + 𝑧𝑧1 � − � + 𝑧𝑧2 � = 𝐻𝐻 = −ℎ +
𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 𝜌𝜌𝜌𝜌 𝜌𝜌
𝜌𝜌𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
= ℎ� − 1�
𝜌𝜌

𝐴𝐴1 𝜌𝜌𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚𝑚
∴ 𝑄𝑄 = � � �2𝑔𝑔 � − 1�
√𝑚𝑚2 −1 𝜌𝜌

In practice there will be a loss between 1 and 2 so that:

𝑄𝑄𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 𝐶𝐶𝐷𝐷 ∙ 𝑄𝑄𝑡𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒


Where,

0 < 𝐶𝐶𝐷𝐷 < 1

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