02/03/2026 Code-A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122015, Ph.+91-1244168300

MM : 720 Practice test 2 RM Time : 180 Min.

PHYSICS

1. In an ac circuit, voltage across inductor is 3 times the 4. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 10 μF is being
voltage across resistor, and voltage across capacitor is 2 charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing
times the voltage across resistor, then the power factor of at the rate of 2 V/s. The displacement current through the
the circuit is plates of the capacitor will be
(1) 1 (1) 20 μA

(2)
1 (2) 30 μA
2

(3) 40 μA
(3) 1

(4) 10 μA
3

1
(4) √2 5. An electromagnetic wave is transporting energy in the
positive x-direction. At a certain point and certain time, the
2. A horizontal copper ring is fixed on the horizontal surface. direction of electric field of the wave is along positive y-
Now, two strong identical magnets (small in size) A and B direction. The direction of magnetic field of the wave at
are falling towards ring symmetrically as shown in the that point and instant will be along
figure. At the given instant velocities of A is 10 m/s and B
is 20 m/s. At this instant (1) Positive direction of z axis
(2) Positive direction of x axis
(3) Negative direction of z axis
(4) Negative direction of y axis
6. An AC voltage (in volt) is given by

u ll
V = asinωt + b cos ωt

Its rms value for one cycle will be

−−−−
2
n
(1) √
a2 + b

(1) Induced current in ring (seen from top) is clockwise

4

−− −−
(2) Induced current in ring (seen from top) is anticlockwise
2

(2)
2
a +b
√
2

(3) Acceleration of magnet A is less than g

4 4 1/4

(4) Acceleration of magnet B is g (3) (

a +b
)
4

3. Which of the following is a direct conclusion from 2 2

Oersted’s experiment on the magnetic effect of current? (4) a +b

A magnetic field is produced only when current flows 7. A short bar magnet of length 4 cm has a magnetic pole
(1)
through a wire placed in the north-south direction strength of 0.2 A m. The magnetic moment of the magnet
is
A current carrying conductor produces a magnetic
(2)
field around it, which is confined to very small distance (1) 0.008 A m2
A magnetic field is associated with a current carrying
(3) conductor, and the direction of field depends on the (2) 0.04 A m2
direction of current
(3) 0.002 A m2
The magnetic field due to a current carrying wire is in
(4)
direction of current (4) 0.01 A m2

1
Practice test 2 RM

8. In the figure wire ABC carrying current 2A is placed in 12. The equation of current in a purely inductive circuit is
uniform magnetic field B = 2 tesla, part AB is straight and
A. If the inductance is 50 mH then the
π
10 sin (100πt − )
BC is curved as shown in figure. Magnetic force on wire 6

ABC is equation for the voltage across the inductor, will be

(1) 10 sin (100πt +

π

3
) volt

(2) 157 sin (100πt–

π

3
) volt

(3) volt
π
157 sin (100πt + )
3

(4) 157 sin (100πt–

π

6
) volt

13. The refractive index and the permeability of a medium are

(1) 5.4 N
1.5 and 10–6 N/A2 respectively. The relative permittivity of
(2) 8.4 N the medium is nearly
(3) 6.4 N (1) 4.2
(4) 14.4 N (2) 1.8
9. A solenoid is connected to a galvanometer. A bar magnet (3) 2.8
is pushed into the solenoid. Which of the following
(4) 7.6
correctly describes the induced current?
Current flows only when the magnet is completely 14. An ac voltage is represented by V = 10 cos 100πtvolt. At
(1)
inside and is in motion time t = second, instantaneous value of voltage is
1

600

Current flows only when the magnet is completely (1) 1 V

(2)
inside and is at rest
–
(2) 4√3 V
(3) Current is zero throughout
(3) 6 V
Current flows when the magnet enters and exits the
(4)
solenoid, direction depends on entry or exit (4) –
5√3 V
10. Consider the following statements: 15. Consider the given statements and choose the correct
Statement I: The induced magnetic dipole moment in a option.
diamagnetic sample is always opposite to the magnetising Statement A: Galvanometer is a very sensitive device, it
field. gives a full scale deflection for a current of the order of μA.
Statement II: Magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic Statement B: For measuring currents, the galvanometer
material is independent of temperature. has to be connected in series.
ll
Choose the correct option. Statement C: Current sensitivity of a galvanometer is
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
n u
defined as the current per unit deflection.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (1) Only statement B is true

(3) Both Statements are correct. (2) Only statements A and B are true

(4) Both Statements are incorrect. (3) Only statements B and C are true

11. Which of the following is not a Maxwell's equation? (4) All the statements are true

→ → 16. Two solenoids of equal radii have their length ratio 3 : 2

(1) ∮ E ⋅d l = 0 and their self inductance ratio is 2 : 3, the ratio of number
of turns of the solenoids will be
→
(2) →
∮ B ⋅d s =
qen c

(1) 2 : 3
∈0

– –
→ → (2) √2 : √3
(3) ∮ E ⋅d l =
–dϕB

dt
(3) 4 : 9
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) 1 : 1

2
Practice test 2 RM

17. A 750 hertz, 20V source is connected to a resistance of 22. An electron (mass 9 × 10–31 kg and charge 1.6 ×10–19
10Ω, an inductance of and a capacitance of 10μF all in
0.2

π
C) moving with speed c/100 (c = speed of light) is injected
series. Calculate the time in which the resistance (thermal →
–4 T
capacity 2J/°C) will get heated by 20°C. into a magnetic field B of magnitude 9 × 10

perpendicular to its direction of motion. We wish to apply

(1) 1.7s →
an uniform electric field E together with the magnetic
(2) 7.5s field so that the electron does not deflect from its path.
(3) 4.8s Then (speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
(4) 11.7s
and its magnitude is 27 × 102 V m–
→ →

(1) E is parallel to B

18. An infinite current carrying wire carries current i in negative 1

x-direction force on charge particle at a point having co-
ordinates (6, 2, 3) is zero, if velocity of particle is → →

(2) E is parallel to B and its magnitude is 27 × 104 V m–

(1) ˆ ˆ
4 j + 3k
1

(2) ˆ ˆ ˆ → →
6 i + 3 j − 2k
(3) E is perpendicular to B and its magnitude is 27 ×
(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ
6 i + 5 j + 6k
104 V m–1
→ →
(4) is perpendicular to and its magnitude is 27 ×
−4 î + 8 ĵ
(4) E B

19. A proton enters in a region of uniform magnetic field 1 T 10 V m–1

2
with velocity u at an angle 37° with B. If P is the pitch of 23. An ideal transformer increases the input current from 4 A
the helical path followed, the radius of the helix is to 24 A at the secondary. If the number of turns in the
primary coil is 330, the number of turns in the secondary
(1) P

π
coil is
(2) (1) 60
3P

8π

(2) 65
(3) 2P

3π

(3) 55
(4) 3P

4π (4) 45
20. An electromagnetic wave is expressed by the equation 24. Which of the following option is true about magnetic
y (x, t) = 0.05 sin (3 × 10 t − 15x) m susceptibility ( χ ) of paramagnetic substance?
8
m

(All the given quantities are in SI unit) Value χ is inversely proportional to the absolute
The velocity of wave is (1) m

temperature of the sample

(1) 8 × 107 m/s (2) is positive at all temperature
ll
χm

(2) 0.4 × 108 m/s (3) χm

u
is negative at all temperature
n
(3) 6 × 107 m (4) Both (1) and (2)

25. A metallic ring is attached with the wall of a room. When

(4) 2 × 107 m/s
the north pole of a magnet is brought near to it, the
21. If I and V represent rms values of current and voltage induced current in the ring will be
respectively, then in series LCR ac circuit (symbols have
their usual meanings)
(a) Power consumed is I2R
2

(b) Power consumed is V

(c) Power consumed is VI

2

(d) Power consumed is (

V

Z
) R

(e) Power consumed is V I cos φ

(1) First clockwise then anticlockwise
Choose the correct option.
(2) In clockwise direction
(1) Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(3) In anti-clockwise direction
(2) Statements (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) are correct
(4) First anti-clockwise then clockwise
(3) Statements (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(4) Only statement (e) is correct

3
Practice test 2 RM

26. A solenoid has 1000 turns per meter and carries a current 31. A 10 mH coil carries a current of 1 A. Energy stored in its
of 3 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at one end of magnetic field is
the solenoid is
(1) 1 mJ
(Take μ0 = 4π × 10-7 T m/A)
(2) 2 mJ
(1) 1.88 × 10-3 T (3) 3 mJ
(2) 3.77 × 10-3 T (4) 5 mJ

(3) 6.28 × 10-3 T 32. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly

reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to surface is
(4) 9.42 × 10-3 T (c = velocity of light)

27. A thin semi-circular conducting ring of radius R is falling (1) E

down with its plane being vertical in horizontal magnetic

induction (B) as shown in figure. (2) 2E

E
(3) c
2

2E
(4) c
2

33. A semicircular conducting rod of radius R moving in a

region of uniform magnetic field B as shown in figure. The
At an instant, if speed of the ring is v, then potential potential difference between C and D (VD – VC ) is
difference developed across it will be
(1) πRBv and Q is at higher potential
(2) 2RBv and Q is at higher potential
2

(3) π R Bv
and M is at higher potential
2

(4) Zero

28. Assertion (A): Substances, which at room temperature,

retain their ferromagnetic property for a long period of time
are called permanent magnets.
Reason (R): For superconductors, χ = –1 and μr = 0
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
explanation of (A)

(2)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) Zero
u ll
explanation of (A)
(2) BvR

2
n
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false (3) 3BvR

29. When a series RLC circuit is at resonance then (4) √3

BvR
2

Current in the circuit is maximum but impedance of the

(1) 34. For what maximum value of M , the system will remain in
circuit is minimum
equilibrium
Current in the circuit is minimum but impedance of the
(2)
circuit is maximum
Current in the circuit is maximum and net impedance
(3)
of the circuit is zero
(4) Both (1) and (3)

30. A charged particle of charge 2 mC and mass 2 g is moving

with a speed of 2 m/s in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T.
The maximum acceleration of charged particle is
(1) 2 kg
(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 kg
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 8 kg
(3) 1 m/s2
(4) 15 kg
(4) 4 m/s2

4
Practice test 2 RM

35. A particle of mass 0.1 kg and charge 4 C is projected into 40. Eddy currents are used in
a magnetic field of 0.1 T and travels along a helical path of
radius 0.2 m and pitch 2 m. The perpendicular and parallel (1) Magnetic braking in trains
components of velocity of the particle w.r.t. the magnetic (2) Electromagnetic damping
field respectively are:
(3) Induction furnace
(1) 8 m/s,
π
m/s
2
(4) All of these
(2) 0.8 m/s,
4

π
m/s
41. An ac series LCR circuit is operated at resonance. Then
(3) 2 m/s, 0 m/s (1) Voltage across resistance is minimum

(4) 8 m/s,
π
m/s (2) Impedance of the circuit is minimum
4

(3) Power transferred is minimum

36. On applying external magnetic field, to a ferromagnetic
substance. The domains (4) Current amplitude is minimum
(1) Align along the direction of magnetic field 42. The average energy density of an EM wave is given as
(where E0 is peak value of electric field and Erms is its
(2) Align in the direction opposite to applied magnetic field
rms value)
(3) Remains unaffected
(1) 1
ε0 E
2

(4) Align along direction perpendicular to magnetic field 2 0

37. A long hollow copper tube of radius R carries a current i. (2) ε0 E

0
2

The magnetic field B inside the tube is 2

(3) ε0 E
rms
μ0 i
(1)
(4) Both (1) and (3)
2πR

μ0 i
(2) 43. A 80 μF capacitor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac
R

supply. The RMS value of current in the circuit is (nearly)

(3)
μ0 i

4πR (1) 2.5 A

(4) Zero (2) 3.5 A
38. A small bar magnet having pole strength m is placed (3) 4.0 A
inside a closed surface. If the total magnetic flux entering
(4) 5.0 A
the surface is Φ, then the magnetic flux leaving the surface
is 44. Match list I with list II. (ε is a small positive number and all
(1) Φ other symbols have their usual meaning)
List I List II
(2) 2Φ a. Diamagnetic (i) μr >> 1
(3) μ0m
ll
b. Paramagnetic (ii) 0 < χ < ε
u
(4) μ0m – Φ n
c. Ferromagnetic (iii) μ < μ0

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

39. For a long solenoid, turn density is 50 turns/cm. If current
2 A is flowing in this solenoid, then magnetic field at an (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
internal point is
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(1) 104μ0 T (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)

(2) μ0 T 45. Light is incident normally on a completely absorbing

(3) 10μ0 T surface with an energy flux of 50 W/cm2. If the surface has
an area of 25 cm2, the momentum transferred to surface
μ0

(4) 4
T in 40 min time duration will be
10

(1) 10–2 N s

(2) 10–4 N s

(3) 6.3 × 10–4 N s

(4) 6.3 × 10–2 N s

CHEMISTRY

5
Practice test 2 RM

46. Given below are two statements one is labelled as 52. Hybridisation of Pt in [PtCl ]2– and shape of [PtCl ]2–
4 4
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Geometrical isomerism is not possible in respectively are
tetrahedral complexes. (1) sp3 and tetrahedral
Reason (R): In tetrahedral complexes, the relative
positions of the ligands attached to the central metal atom (2) dsp2 and tetrahedral
are the same with respect to each other.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option (3) dsp2 and square planar
among the following.
(1) (A) is true, (R) is false (4) sp3 and square planar

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 53. Consider the following statements.
(2) (a) Mixed oxides of Lanthanoids are used as catalysts in
explanation of (A)
petroleum cracking.
(3) (A) is false, (R) is true (b) Lanthanoids are used for the production of alloy steels
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct for plates and pipes.
(4) (c) Mischmetall consists of approx. 95% of lanthanoid
explanation of (A)
metal.
47. Which among the following amines does not react with The correct statements are
benzenesulphonyl chloride?
(1) (a) and (b) only
(1) C2H5NH2 (2) (a) and (c) only
(2) (C2H5)2NH (3) (b) and (c) only
(3) (C2H5)3N (4) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) CH3NHC2H5 54. Four successive members of the first series of the
transition metals are listed below. For which one of them
48. The hybridization of central metal ion in the complex
the standard potential ∘
value has a positive
[Mn(H2O)6]2+ is
(E 2+
)
M /M

sign?
(1) sp3 (1) Zn
(2) sp3d2 (2) Co

(3) d2sp3 (3) Ni

(4) Cu
(4) dsp3
55. Which among the following is not a mixed oxide?
49. Total number of Cr – O – Cr bond(s) in Cr 2−
2 O7 ion is
(1) Fe3O4
(1) 6
(2) 10
(2) C3O2
u ll
(3) 1
(3) Mn3O4n
(4) Pb3O4
(4) 4
50. When benzenediazonium chloride is heated with fluoro 56. Consider the following statements about [Co(en)3]Cl3
boric acid, fluorobenzene is formed. This reaction is called (a) Cobalt has 3 primary valences and 6 secondary
valences.
(1) Balz Schiemann reaction (b) It is diamagnetic in nature.
(2) Gattermann reaction (c) Cobalt has sp3d2 hybridisation.
(3) Sandmeyer reaction (d) Cobalt has t 6
2g
0
eg configuration.
The correct statements are
(4) Hofmann bromamide reaction
(1) (a) and (c) only
51. Total number of possible isomers of [MClBrIF], a square
planar complex, where M is central metal atom, is (2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(1) 1 (3) (b) and (c) only

(2) 3 (4) (a), (b) and (d) only

(3) 4
(4) 2

6
Practice test 2 RM

57. Which of the following statements are correct about 62. Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct
Lanthanoids? option
a. Both La3+ and Lu3+ are colourless Column I Column II
b. Mischmetal consists of 95% lanthanoid metal and 5% a. [Ni(CN)4]2– (i) sp3, diamagnetic
iron
c. Pr3+ and Yb2+ are paramagnetic in nature b. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (ii) dsp2, diamagnetic
d. Lanthanoids form M(OH)3 hydroxide which are basic in
c. [Co(H2O)6]3+ (iii) d2sp3, paramagnetic
nature (M = Lanthanoid elements)
(1) a, b and c only d. [Ni(CO)4] (iv) d2sp3, diamagnetic

(2) a, b and d only (1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)

(3) a, b, c and d (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) b, c and d only (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
58. Consider the following statements (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
a. Benzenediazonium chloride is insoluble in water
63. Among the given metal cations which has highest negative
b. Benzenediazonium fluoroborate is stable at room
temperature hydration enthalpy?
c. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with KI gives
iodobenzene (1) Ti2+
The correct statements are
(2) Co2+
(1) b and c only
(3) Cr2+
(2) a and c only
(3) a and b only (4) V2+

(4) a, b and c 64. Given below are two statements

Statement-I: The absorption bands in the spectra of
59. The correct order of basicity of lanthanoid ions are narrow probably because of the
excitation within f level.
Statement-II: Both Ce4+ and Yb2+ are diamagnetic in
nature.
In the light of above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
in water is (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(1) IV > III > I > II (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) IV > I > III > II
ll
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
u
(3) IV > II > III > I
65. An n compound
organic (A) having molecular formula
(4) III > I > IV > II C6H15N on reaction with benzene sulphonyl chloride
forms a product (B) which is insoluble in aqueous alkali.
60. The products formed from the reaction of permanganate The structure of the compound (A) could be
ion with iodide ion in acidic medium and faintly alkaline
medium respectively are
(1) IO3
–
and I2 (1)

(2) IO4
–
and I2

(3) I2 and IO
–
3 (2)
(4) IO3
–
and IO –

61. Identify the metal used as a catalyst in hydrogenation of

fats. (3)
(1) Ag
(2) Fe
(3) Cu (4)

(4) Ni

7
Practice test 2 RM

66. Consider the following statements 71. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
(a) Zinc has minimum value of enthalpy of atomisation in Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
3d series Assertion (A) : Transition metals can act as catalysts.
(b) Mn2O7 is a covalent green oil Reasons (R) : Transition metals can adopt multiple
(c) In acidic medium, MnO 2–
disproportionates into oxidation states and form complexes.
4
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
MnO and MnO2
–
4
answer from the options given below:
The correct statement(s)/ is/are
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (1)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) (a) only Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(2)
(3) (b) and (c) only not the correct explanation of the assertion

(4) (a) and (b) only (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
67. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II 72. Consider the following reaction sequence
(Complex) (Number of unpaired e–(s))
a. [Co(H2O)6]3+ (i) Four
b. [FeF6]3– (ii) One

c. [CoF6]3– (iii) Zero Major product B is

d. [Fe(CN)6]3– (iv) Five
The correct match is
(1)
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2)
68. Shape of 2−
(P tC l4 ) and (N i(C N )4 )
2−
respectively are
(1) Tetrahedral and Square planar
(2) Tetrahedral and Tetrahedral
(3) Square planar and Square planar (3)

(4) Square planar and Tetrahedral

69. Which among the following is an inner orbital as well as

u ll
paramagnetic complex?
(4) n
(1) [Mn(CN)6]4–

(2) [Fe(CN)6]4–
73. Given below are two statements,
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ Statement I: [Co(NH ) (NO ) ] is heteroleptic complex
3 3 2 3

while [Co(C O ) 2 4
3−
3] is homoleptic complex
(4) [CoF6]3– Statement II: Both [Co( NH ) ( NO
3 3 2 )3 ] and

70. Which one of the following is expected to exhibit optical [Co(C2 O4 )3 ]shows optical isomerism.
3−

isomerism? (en = ethylenediamine) In the light of above statements, choose the correct
option.
(1) cis– [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) trans– [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) cis– [CoCl2(en)2] (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(4) trans– [CoCl2(en)2] (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

8
Practice test 2 RM

74. The amine which will not react with Hinsberg’s reagent is 76. The pair of lanthanoid ions which is diamagnetic in nature
is

(1) Ce4+ and Lu3+

(1)
(2) Sm3+ and Yb2+

(3) Gd3+ and Eu3+

(4) Pm3+ and Sm3+

77. The complex compound in which metal is not present in

(2) zero oxidation state is

(1) [Mn2(CO)10]

(2) [Fe(CO)5]
(3) (3) [Cr(C6H6)2]

(4) K[PtCl3(C2H4)]
(4)
78. Match List-I with List-II.
75. Consider the following reaction sequence List-I List-II
(Co-ordination (Magnetic moment in
complex) B.M)
a. [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM
Major product C is b. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM

c. [Fe(CN)6]4– (iii) 4.90 BM

d. [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM

(1) Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(4) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
79. Consider the following statements about interstitial

ll
(2) compounds.

n
pure metals
u
(a) They have high melting points, higher than those of

(b) They do not conduct electricity

(c) They are chemically inert
The correct statements is/are
(1) (a) only
(3) (2) (b) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (c) only
80. The correct order of enthalpy of atomisation of given 3d
series elements is
(4) (1) V > Cr > Mn > Fe
(2) V > Cr > Fe > Mn
(3) V > Fe > Cr > Mn
(4) V > Mn > Fe > Cr

9
Practice test 2 RM

81. Total number of bridged carbonyl group(s) and metal-metal 84. Match list-I with list-II
bond(s) in [Co2(CO)8] respectively are List-II
List-I Crystal field splitting energy
(1) 0 and 2 Species (CFSE) [ignoring pairing
(2) 2 and 0 energy]

(3) 2 and 2 (a) [CoF6]3– (i) –0.6Δ0

(4) 2 and 1 (b) [MnCl6]3– (ii) –2.4Δ0

82. Given below are two statements: (c) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (iii) –0.4Δ0
Statement I: Highest Mn fluoride is MnF4 whereas the
highest oxide is Mn2O7. (d) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (iv) Zero

Statement II: Cr2+ is reducing agent and Mn3+ is The correct match is
oxidising agent when both have d4 configuration. (1) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
answer from the options given below:
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect 85. Shape of [ Ni (CN) ]2– is
4
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct (1) Tetrahedral
83. Consider the following sequence of reactions: (2) Square planar
(3) Trigonal pyramidal
(4) See saw
86. The correct electronic configuration of Gadolinium and
Lutetium respectively are
Major product (B) is
(1) [Xe]4f7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe] 4f14 5d1 6s2

(1) (2) [Xe]4f8 6s2 and [Xe] 4f14 6s2

(3) [Xe]4f9 6s1 and [Xe] 4f13 5d2 6s2

(4) [Xe]4f13 5d1 6s2 and [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2

(2) 87. Consider the following reaction sequence

u ll
n
The major product B is
(3)

(1)

(4)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10
Practice test 2 RM

88. The correct order of wavelength absorbed in visible region 90. Reaction of m-dinitrobenzene with ammonium sulphide
is yields

(1) [Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+

(2) [Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (1)

(3) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(H2O)6]2+

(4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6]4–

(2)
89. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Type of isomerism exhibited by the
compounds [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2
is linkage isomerism.
Statement II: The coordination number of cobalt in both
the complexes, [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 and (3)
[Co(NH3)5ONO]Cl2 is 6.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (4)
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

BOTANY

91. Heterochromatin is 94. In lac operon, the gene that possesses the site for the
(a) Darkly stained region attachment of RNA polymerase is termed as
(b) Loosely packed chromatin
(c) Transcriptionally inactive (1) Operator gene
The correct one(s) is/are (2) Promoter gene
(1) Only (a) (3) Regulator gene
(2) Only (a) and (b) (4) Structural gene
(3) Only (b) and (c)
ll
95. During DNA fingerprinting, which of the following steps is
u
(4) Only (a) and (c) n
performed just after electrophoresis?

92. Statin acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme (1) Digestion by endonucleases
responsible for synthesis of (2) Hybridization with VNTR probe
(1) Citric acid (3) Southern blotting
(2) Lactic acid (4) Autoradiography
(3) Acetic acid 96. During translation process, charging of tRNA is done by
(4) Blood cholesterol (1) Aminoacyl - tRNA synthetase
93. Read the following statement (A) and (B) statement and (2) Helicase
select the correct option
Assertion (A):- While growing microbial flocs during (3) RNA polymerase
biological treatment; microbes consume the major part of (4) Peptidyl transferase
the organic matter in the effluent.
Statement (B):- All the sewage untreated sewage from the
urban and rural area, sewage is treated in sewage
treatment plants.
(1) Both Statement A and B are true
(2) Only statement A is true
(3) Only statement B is true
(4) Both A & B are false

11
Practice test 2 RM

97. The given diagram is a stage of the meiotic division in [Link] List - I with List - II.
overestimate primary oocyte based on this, consider the List-I List-II
below given statements. (a) In lac operon i gene codes for (i) Transacetylase
a. The given cell will undergo two cycles of unequal (b) In lac operon z gene codes for (ii) Permease
cytoplasmic division to form large and small cellular
(c) In lac operon y gene codes for (iii) β-galactosidase
products.
b. The homologous chromosomes placed at equator had (d) In lac operon a gene codes for (iv) Repressor
undergone crossover at single non-sister chromatid site. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
c. A single oogonium produces four mature ovum by (1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
meiosis
d. The genetic compliment of each chromatid of (2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
homologous chromosomes are same in the given stage. (3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
e. The number of chromosomes seen in the stage is equal
to the number of chromosomes in the anaphase II. (4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
How many of the give statements is/are incorrect?
[Link] the action of which enzyme, lactose present in the
(1) Three growth medium of the bacteria is transported to the cell?
(2) Two (1) Transacetylase
(3) Four (2) Permease
(4) One (3) Polymerase
98. Which among the following beverages is produced without (4) Beta galactosidase
distillation of fermented broth?
[Link] the odd one w.r.t. the steps of Hershey and Chase
(1) Brandy experiment.
(2) Whisky (1) Infection
(3) Beer (2) Blending
(4) Rum (3) Crystallography
99. All solids that settle during primary treatment of sewage (4) Centrifugation
form
[Link] the following columns and select the correct option.
(1) Primary sludge Column-I Column-II
(2) Activated sludge a. Trichoderma (i) Controls butterfly caterpillars
(3) Primary effluent
Bacillus Effective against several plant
b. (ii)
(4) Secondary effluents thuringiensis pathogens

[Link] of the given is a hallmark of Watson and Crick’s Pathogen that attacks specific
c. Ladybird beetle (iii)
double helix model of DNA? insect

u ll
d. Baculovirus (iv) Controls aphids
(1) Base pairing between two strands of DNA
(2) Purine and pyrimidine occur in equal amount
n
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) DNA consists of two polynucleotide chains (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Adenine is equimolar to thymine (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
[Link] below are two statements (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
Statement I: DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation
only in one direction, that is 5′ → 3′. [Link] the mismatched pair w.r.t commercial production of
certain chemicals with the help of microbes.
Statement II: During replication of DNA, on one strand the
replication is continuous while on other strand it is (1) Citric acid - Azotobacter
discontinuous.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (2) Acetic acid - Acetobacter
answer from the options given below: (3) Lactic acid - Lactobacillus
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Butyric acid - Clostridium
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
[Link] capping of primary transcript
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect Ethyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5′-end of
(1)
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect mRNA
5′ end of mRNA makes a loop to form double stranded
(2)
structure
Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3′ end
(3)
of mRNA
Addition of an unusual nucleotide to the 5′ end is
(4)
catalysed by guanylyl transferase

12
Practice test 2 RM

[Link] the odd one w.r.t. RNA. [Link] the figure given below.
(1) It can function as an adapter molecule
(2) It does not act as a structural molecule
(3) It can act as a genetic material in some viruses
(4) It can function as a catalyst
109.

Correctly identify A, B and C w.r.t. the above figure.

(1) A- Head, B- Collar, C- Tail
(2) A- Head, B- Tail, C- Prong
(3) A- Plate, B- Neck, C- Tail
(4) A- Capsid, B-Collar, C-Pin
[Link] are
a. Found towards 5' end after start codon
The above graph represents the effect of a leguminous b. Present in m-RNA
c. Required for efficient translation process
plant on the diversity of other plant species in a grassland
ecosystem. The leguminous plant habours Rhizobium in (1) Only b
its root nodules.
Which of the following statements is/are correct, based on (2) Only b and c
the above data? (3) Only a and b
(i) Presence of the leguminous plant increases the plant
species richness in the area due to improvement in soil (4) All a, b and c
richness.
[Link] the following figure and choose the option which
(ii) Removal of the leguminous plant reduces the plant
has correct set of statements regarding the same.
species richness by 20% due to lower N2 content of soil.
(iii) The above interaction between leguminous plant and
other species is an example of mutualism.
(iv) The leguminous plant species represents the key
species in the given area.
The correct ones are:
u ll
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) only n
(2) (i) and (iv) only
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

[Link] the incorrect option w.r.t. UTRs.

(1) Additional sequences that are not translated
(2) Required for the efficient translation process
a. It has entirely different but interconnected forming and
(3) Present before the start and after the stop codon maturing face
b. It facilitates the packing of materials only for intracellular
A part of exon that provides binding site for the small targets.
(4)
subunit of ribosomes c. It is the site of formation of glycoproteins.
d. It is present in all cells of plants such as mature sieve
tubes.
e. It provides precursor of enzyme for the formation of
lysosomes.
a, b and c
(1)

(2) a and c
(3) c and e
(4) d and e

13
Practice test 2 RM

[Link] the following steps in a correct sequential [Link] the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
manner as they happen during the treatment of sewage. statements and select the correct option.
(i) Removal of grit by sedimentation Assertion (A) : LAB play very beneficial role in checking
(ii) Effluent is passed onto large aeration tank disease causing microbes in our stomach.
(iii) Anaerobic digestion of sludge Reason (R) : LAB improves the nutritional quality of curd
(iv) Formation of biogas by increasing vitamin B12.
(v) Lowering of BOD
Select the correct answer from the following options Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
explanation of (A).
(1) (iii) → (i) → (iv) → (ii) → (v)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2) (i) (iii) (v) (iv) (ii) (2)
→ → → → explanation of (A).
(3) (i) → (ii) → (v) → (iii) → (iv) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (v) → (iv) (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
[Link] to which of the following reasons, both the strands of [Link] below are two statements:
DNA are not copied during transcription? Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first
If both strands act as template, they would always genetic material evolved to carry out essential life
(1) processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a
code for RNA molecule with identical sequence.
catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living
It would lead to formation of double stranded RNA that systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.
(2)
would prevent RNA from being translated. Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more
stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being
Process of transcription becomes too efficient if both
(3) complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing
strand will act as a template.
mechanism.
If both strand act as a template and further codes for In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(4) proteins, the sequence of amino acids in the proteins appropriate answer from the options given below:
would be same.
[NEET-2025]
[Link] the column I with column II
Column I Column II (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Unwinds double helical parental (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(a) DNA gyrase (i)
DNA molecule
Uses DNA template to catalyse the (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(b) Helicase (ii)
polymerisation (4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
DNA
(c) (iii) Activation of deoxyribonucleotides [Link] ‘beads-on-string’ structure in chromatin when viewed
polymerase
under EM can be found in
Releases tension in the DNA helix
(d) Phosphorylase (iv)
developed due to unwinding (1) Mycoplasma
Choose the correct option from the following.
(2) Plant cell
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) Nostoc
u ll
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) n
[Link]
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
[Link] of the following statements about the Meselson-
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) Stahl’s experiment is incorrect?
[Link] the mismatched pair from the following (1) It proved semiconservative mode of replication of DNA
mRNA – Act as template molecule for the (2) Heavy nitrogen (15N) was used to label parental DNA
(1)
polymerisation of amino acids
14
(2)
rRNA – Can act as ribozyme during polypeptide (3) After two generations in N medium, only light DNA
synthesis in cytosol was observed

tRNA – Act as adapter molecule during polymerisation The DNA band obtained after one generation was of
(3) (4)
of nucleotides intermediate density

(4) hnRNA – Acts as a precursor of mRNA

14
Practice test 2 RM

[Link] the following events involved in the flow of genetic [Link] there are 333 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein
information according to the Central Dogma for eukaryotes with 111 amino acids, and the base at position 271 is
in a chronological order. deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 332
(A) Formation of 40S-mRNA complex bases, how many codons will remain unaltered?
(B) Formation of peptide bond by 28S rRNA
(C) Recognition of TATA box by protein factors (1) 1
(D) Establishment of aminoacyl acceptor site next to the P- (2) 90
site
(E) Association of eRF1 with the UAA (3) 21
(F) Formation of spliceosome around a transcribed (4) 111
product of RNA polymerase II
Choose the correct option: [Link] DNA replication, unwinding of DNA double helix is
catalysed by
(1) A → C → D → B → E → F
(1) Helicase
(2) F → D → C → A → B → E
(2) Primase
(3) F → C → A → D → B → E
(3) Ligase
(4) C → F → A → D → B → E
(4) DNA polymerase
[Link] many locations have been identified in human
genome where single base differences occur? [Link] large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of
a large amount of CO2 by a bacterium named
(1) 1.4 million
(1) Clostridium butylicum
(2) 14 million
(2) Trichoderma
(3) 1.4 billion
(3) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(4) 14 billion
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
[Link], as “beads-on-string”, contain DNA with an
average length of [Link] A produced by Fungus Tricoderma
polysporum is used for
(1) 80 bp
(1) Lowering of blood-cholesterol
(2) 200 bp
(2) Immunosuppression in organ- transplant patient
(3) 146 bp
(3) Removing clots from blood vessels
(4) 25 bp
(4) Curd formation
125. 'A' cell-free system for protein synthesis finally helped
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
the genetic code to be deciphered. [Link] DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences
Choose the option to correctly fill in the above blank. in some specific regions of DNA sequence, called
(1) Satellite DNA
ll
(1) Severo Ochoa's
(2) Marshall Nirenberg's
n u
(2) Polymorphic DNA

(3) George Gamow's (3) Repetitive DNA

(4) Har Gobind Khorana's (4) Plasmid DNA

[Link] of the following is the predominant site for the [Link] project of sequencing human genome was launched
control of gene expression in prokaryotes? in

(1) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm (1) 1992

(2) Translation of mRNA (2) 1987

(3) Regulation during splicing of hnRNA (3) 1990

(4) Control of the rate of transcriptional initiation (4) 1948

[Link] code is said to be degenerate because

(1) Many amino acids are coded by a single codon
(2) An amino acid can be coded by more than one codons
(3) An amino acid is coded only by a single codon
(4) Genetic codes differ from organism to organism

15
Practice test 2 RM

[Link] the following statements: [Link] DNA fingerprinting, the separation of DNA
A. Detritivores mainly perform the process of fragments is done with the help of
fragmentation, catabolism and leaching.
(1) Centrifugation
B. Mineralisation of the dead matter releases the inorganic
material back for reuse by the autotrophs. (2) Electrophoresis
C. All the steps in decomposition, i.e., fragmentation,
catabolism, leaching and mineralisation operate (3) Blotting
simultaneously on the detritus. (4) VNTR probes
D. The detritus food chain begins with dead organic
matter.
E. Flagellates and fungi break down detritus into smaller
particles by a process called anabolism.
The correct ones are
(1) B, C and D
(2) C, D and E
(3) A, D and E
(4) A, B and C

ZOOLOGY

[Link] first human-like being the hominids, had brain [Link] (A): According to Pasteur, life comes only from
capacity between pre-existing life.
Reason (R): Louis Pasteur demonstrated that in a tightly
(1) 650-800 cc sealed pre-sterilised flask, new organisms arose from
(2) 900-1000 cc killed yeast.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.
(3) 500-550 cc
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(4) 1400 cc (1)
explanation of (A)
[Link] the given statements. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Statement A: Comparative anatomy and morphology (2)
explanation of (A)
shows similarities and differences among organisms of
today and those that existed years ago. (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
Statement B: Similarities in proteins and genes (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
performing a given function among diverse organisms give
clues to common ancestry. [Link] tomography uses ‘A’ to generate a three-
Select the correct option. dimensional image of the internals of an object. MRI uses
(1) Both statements A and B are correct u ll
‘B’ to accurately detect pathological and physiological

(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect

n
changes in the living tissue.
Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively and select the correct
option.
(3) Only statement A is correct
(1) UV-rays, X-rays
(4) Only statement B is correct
(2) X-rays, non-ionising radiations
[Link] actions that lead to the evolution of
organisms are use of (3) UV-rays, γ-rays
(a) Herbicides (4) Non-ionising radiations, ionising radiations
(b) Pesticides
(c) Antibiotics [Link] (A): The bluish colouration of lips and
Choose the correct option fingernails in severe pneumonia is indication of reduced
oxygen availability in peripheral tissues.
(1) (a) and (b) only Reason (R): Fluid accumulation in the alveoli reduces the
(2) (b) and (c) only effective respiratory surface area, impairing diffusion of
oxygen into the blood.
(3) (a) and (c) only In the light of above statements, choose the correct
(4) (a), (b) and (c) option:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

16
Practice test 2 RM

[Link] of the following is not an Australian marsupial? [Link] many of the following is/are responsible for
ringworms in humans?
(1) Banded anteater
(a) Microsporum
(2) Tasmanian wolf (b) Trichophyton
(c) Epidermophyton
(3) Lemur (d) Rhino virus
(4) Flying phalanger Choose the correct option.

[Link] the incorrect statement w.r.t. humans. (1) Four

Both smoking and alcoholism can have ill effects on (2) One
(1)
stomach (3) Two
The chronic use of drugs and alcohol causes cirrhosis (4) Three
(2)
which means damage to nervous system in adults.
148.A 20 year-old student allergic to pollen came to a health
Adverse effects of drug abuse are manifested in the center complaining about runny nose, congestion, itchy
(3)
form of vandalism and violence. eyes and wheezing. Her symptoms can be most likely
Curiosity, need for adventure and excitement attributed to the synthesis of which of the following
(4) antibodies whose levels increase during allergic reactions?
motivates youngsters towards drug and alcohol use.
[Link] deadliest form of malaria, which causes cerebral (1) IgA
malaria and death is caused by (2) IgD
(1) P. ovale (3) IgE
(2) P. falciparum (4) IgG
(3) P. malaria [Link] biggest land reptile that ever existed, with about 20
(4) P. vivax feet height and huge fearsome dagger-like teeth was
(1) Triceratops
[Link] an undisturbed sedimentary cliff, the layers are
arranged from bottom to top as L1, L2, L3, L4, where (2) Tyrannosaurus rex
L1: Contains ‘Fossil A’ only
L2: Contains ‘Fossils A + Fossil B’ (3) Stegosaurus
L3: Contains ‘Fossils B + Fossils C’ (4) Brachiosaurus
L4: Contains ‘Fossil C’ only
Select the most correct inference w.r.t the given data. [Link] the following graph.
(1) ‘Fossil 'C’ is the oldest because it is present at the top.
‘Fossil 'B’ is the youngest because it is present in two
(2)
layers.
Organism ‘B’ existed after organism ’A', but before
ll
(3)
organism ‘C’
All three fossils are of the same age because each of n u
(4)
them are present in more than one layer.
[Link] column I and column II w.r.t various theories of
origin of life.
Column I Column II
Theory of
a. (i) Disapproved by Louis Pasteur
special creation
Diversity was always the same Select the correct inference from the above given graph.
Theory of
b. (ii) since creation and will be the same Primary immune response is rapid as compared to the
panspermia
in future (1) secondary immune response as it develops
Theory of immediately after injecting the antigen.
Life came from pre-existing non-
c. chemical (iii)
living organic molecules Secondary immune response is slow as it took 60
evolution
(2) days to develop on subsequent administration of the
Theory of Units of life called spores were
same antigen.
d. spontaneous (iv) transferred to different planets
generation including the Earth Secondary immune response is more potent and
(3)
Choose the correct option. occurs due to memory cells.
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) Primary/anamnestic immune response is usually
accomplished by injecting antigen in multiple doses as
(2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4)
our body does not have any memory or plasma cells
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) of the first encounter.
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

17
Practice test 2 RM

[Link] of the following gets matured in interior of long [Link] the statements given below w.r.t. allergy and select
bones and is primarily responsible for which type of the option that correctly identify them as True (T) or False
immunity, respectively (F).
(A) The exaggerated response of the immune system to
(1) T-lymphocyte; Humoral immunity certain immunoglobulins present in the environment.
(2) B-lymphocyte; cell mediated immunity (B) IgE type of antibodies are produced.
(C) Allergy is due to release of histamine and serotonin
(3) T-lymphocyte; innate immunity from PMNL.
(4) B-lymphocyte; Humoral immunity (D) Modern day lifestyle has resulted in lowering of
immunity and more sensitivity to allergens.
[Link] the sum total of all allelic frequencies in a population (A) (B) (C) (D)
deviates from 1, this means that (1) T T T T
Allelic frequencies are constant from one generation to (2) F T F T
(1)
another (3) T F T T
(2) Gene pool of this population is constant (4) F T F F

(3) Evolution is not occurring in this population (1) (1)

(4) Population is not in genetic equilibrium (2) (2)

(3) (3)
[Link] many among the given statements is/are correct?
a. Alcohol addicts and all types of drug abusers are at high (4) (4)
risk for acquiring HIV infection.
b. Chemical carcinogens like UV rays and X-rays cause [Link] List I with List II :
neoplastic transformations. List I List II
c. Cancer is the most dreaded infectious disease of A. Typhoid I. Fungus
human.
d. Drugs used in chemotherapy besides targeting cancer B. Leishmaniasis II. Nematode
cells, also inhibit the proliferation of normal cells in body C. Ringworm III. Protozoa
leading to hair loss and anaemia. D. Filariasis IV. Bacteria
(1) Four Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(2) Three (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

(3) Two (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(4) One (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

[Link] most successful story of evolution is the evolution of (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
man with
[Link] the incorrect statement w.r.t tissue/organ grafting.
(1) Disappearance of tail and appendix Cell mediated immune response is majorly
(1)
responsible for graft rejection.
ll
(2) Language skills and self-consciousness
(3) Increased cranial capacity maximum upto 1200cc (2) n u
Tissue matching and blood group matching are
essential before undertaking any transplant.
(4) Bipedal walk
To reduce the risk of graft rejection, patients are
[Link] allelic frequency of a dominant allele is 0.8. Select the (3)
administered with cortisol.
number of heterozygous individuals in a population of
1000 from the options given below. The most successful organ transplantation can be
(4) performed in humans when taken from another
(1) 80 primates like pig.
(2) 320 [Link] of the following is closest living relative of
(3) 180 crocodiles?

(4) 120 (1) Dinosaurs

(2) Birds
(3) Tuataras
(4) Snakes
[Link] increases __________ content in blood and
reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen. Fill the
blank suitably. Choose the option that correctly fills the
blank.
(1) Nitric dioxide
(2) Nitric oxide
(3) Carbon monoxide
(4) Carboxylic acid

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Practice test 2 RM

[Link]-day life style has resulted in _____ of immunity [Link] frequency of allele ‘a’ is 0.45 for a population which is
and _____ sensitivity to allergens among children in metro in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. What are the expected
cities of India. frequencies of genotypes AA and aa respectively?
Fill in the respective blanks by selecting the correct
(1) 0.2 and 0.3
option.
(2) 0.3 and 0.2
(1) Enhancing; reduced
(2) Lowering; lesser (3) 0.4 and 0.5

(3) Lowering; increased (4) 0.2 and 0.4

(4) Enhancing; more [Link] antibodies given against snake venom is a type
of
[Link] the incorrect statement w.h.t evidence
(1) Natural passive immunisation
Paleontological evidences of evolution.
(2) Artificial passive immunisation
(1) Fossils are remains of hard parts of life forms found in (3) Artificial active immunisation
rocks.
(4) Natural active immunisation

Different-aged rock sediments contain fossils of [Link] column I and column II and choose the correct
(2) option.
different life-forms who were live after the formation of
the particular sediment. Column I Column II
a. Homo habilis (i) 1.5 mya
(3) A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers
indicates the geological period in which they existed. b. Homo erectus (ii) 15 mya
c. Neanderthal man (iii) 650-800 cc
The study showed that life forms varied over time and d. Dryopithecus (iv) 1400 cc
(4)
certain life forms are restricted to certain geological
time-span. (1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
[Link] of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates (2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(1) The geological period in which the organisms existed (3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(2) That life forms do not vary over time (4) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)
That all life forms are restricted only to a specific [Link] (A): A large bean shaped organ located in the
(3)
geological time-span upper left region of abdomen, provides the micro-
environment for maturation of T-lymphocytes.
That different-aged rock sediments contain fossils of
(4) Reason (R): Spleen, also known as the ‘Grave-yard of
same life-forms only
RBCs, acts as the site for maturation of only granulocytes
[Link] among the following human ancestors, buried their after they are produced in bone marrow.
dead and used hides to protect their skin?
u ll
In the light of above given statements, select the correct
(1) Neanderthal man
option.
n
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(2) Homo habilis (1)
explanation of (A)
(3) Homo erectus (2) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) Australopithecines (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
[Link] in Australia and placental mammals throughout Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
the world exhibit convergent evolution. Match the (4)
explanation of (A)
marsupial mammals with their respective counterpart
placentals showing convergent evolution and choose the [Link] of which of the following factors is least likely to
correct option. affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
MARSUPIALS PLACENTALS (1) Genetic drift
(a) Marsupial mouse (i) Wolf (2) Habitat fragmentation
(b) Flying phalanger (ii) Anteater (3) Random mating
(c) Numbat (iii) Flying squirrel (4) Natural selection
(d) Tasmanian wolf (iv) Mouse [Link] of which of the following will affect the Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium?
(1) (a)(iv), (b)(ii), (c)(iii), (d)(i)
(1) Founder effect
(2) (a)(ii), (b)(iii), (c)(iv), (d)(i)
(2) Random mating
(3) (a)(iii), (b)(ii), (c)(i), (d)(iv)
(3) Stable allelic frequencies
(4) (a)(iv), (b)(iii), (c)(ii), (d)(i)
(4) Constant gene pool

19
Practice test 2 RM

[Link] of the following indicates common ancestry, except [Link] the given statements and select the option
that correctly states them as true (T) or false (F).
(1) Wings of butterfly and that of birds (a) Morphine, a cannabinoid, is a very effective sedative
(2) Forelimbs of cheetah and bat and painkiller.
(b) Amphetamine and atropine are used as medicines to
(3) Brains of frog and that of human help patients in treating insomnia.
(4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita (c) Smoking increases CO content in the blood.
(d) Excessive dosage of crack causes hallucinations.
[Link] per conventional religious literature, which of the
following is not a connotation under the theory of special (a) (b) (c) (d)
creation? (1) T T T T
Diversity was always the same since creation and will (2) T T F T
(1)
remain the same in future also. (3) T F T F
All living organisms that we see today were created as (4) F F T T
(2)
such.
(1) (1)
Any population has built-in inheritable variations in
(3) (2) (2)
characteristics.
(4) The Earth is about 4000 years old. (3) (3)

[Link] are remains of hard parts of life forms found in (4) (4)
rocks. They are likely to be found in relative abundance in [Link] wolf, sugar glider and koala show which of the
which type of rocks? following process of evolution?
(1) Igneous (1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Granite (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Sedimentary (3) Radiation of placental mammals
(4) Metamorphic (4) Cyclic evolution
[Link] the following statements A and B and choose the 179.A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is
correct option.
Statement-A: The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like (1) Radiography
adult chimpanzee than adult human skull.
(2) Biopsy
Statement-B: The most successful story is the evolution
of apes with language skills and self-consciousness. (3) ELISA
(1) Both statements A and B are correct (4) MRI
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect [Link] which were abundant in carboniferous period
(3) Only statement A is incorrect were descendants of

(4) Only statement B is incorrect u ll

(1) Zosterophyllum

[Link] embryological support for evolution, proposed by

(2) n
Ferns
Ernst Haeckel, was disapproved on careful study (3) Psilophyton
performed by
(4) Lycopods
(1) Alfred Wallace
(2) Lamarck
(3) Karl Ernst Von Baer
(4) Louis Pasteur

20