📖 Chapter 10 – Cell Cycle and Cell Division Q51.

During anaphase, sister chromatids:

a) Remain attached at centromere
b) Separate and move towards opposite poles
Q1. All multicellular organisms, even the largest, begin their life from: c) Disintegrate into chromatin
a) A single nucleus d) Cross over
b) A single cell Q52. The movement of chromatids to opposite poles is caused by:
c) A group of identical tissues a) Pull of spindle fibres attached to kinetochores
d) A fertilised gamete colony b) Cell wall elongation
Q2. The increase in the number of cells in an organism occurs primarily c) ER vesicle fusion
through: d) Lysosomal digestion
a) DNA mutation Q53. After centromere division, each chromatid is considered as:
b) Fusion of existing cells a) A half-chromosome
c) Cell division b) A complete chromosome
d) Cell expansion only c) A nucleosome
Q3. When a parental cell divides, each time it produces: d) A chromomere
a) Four identical cells Q54. Telophase begins with:
b) Two daughter cells a) Chromosomes reaching the poles
c) Multiple haploid gametes b) Chromosomes condensing further
d) No new cells, only DNA copies c) Crossing over of chromatids
Q4. Successive cycles of cell growth and division allow a single cell to: d) Disappearance of centrioles
a) Remain dormant Q55. At telophase, chromosomes gradually:
b) Form millions of cells a) Fragment into DNA
c) Revert to non-living matter b) Elongate and uncoil into chromatin
d) Lose genetic stability c) Form chromatids
10.1 CELL CYCLE d) Degenerate
Q5. Cell division in organisms is always coordinated with: Q56. The structures that reappear during telophase are:
a) DNA replication and cell growth a) Golgi complex and ER
b) Protein denaturation b) Mitochondria
c) Loss of organelles c) Ribosomes
d) Mutation of genetic material d) Centrioles
Q6. The cell cycle is defined as the sequence of events by which a cell: Q57. Nuclear envelope reforms around:
a) Prepares for fertilisation a) Golgi vesicles
b) Duplicates its genome, synthesises other components, and divides b) Each set of chromosomes at poles
c) Repairs its organelles only c) Ribosomal subunits
d) Becomes quiescent d) Microtubules
Q7. DNA synthesis occurs during: Q58. Nucleolus reappears at:
a) Entire cell cycle continuously a) Prophase
b) A specific stage of the cell cycle b) Metaphase
c) After mitosis c) Telophase
d) Only during cytokinesis d) Anaphase
Q8. Replicated chromosomes are distributed to daughter nuclei during: Q59. The major significance of mitosis is to ensure:
a) Interphase a) Genetic variability
b) Cytokinesis b) Genetic stability by equal distribution of chromosomes
c) Cell division c) Chromosome reduction
d) G0 stage d) Mutation formation
Q9. The regulation of events in the cell cycle is under: Q60. Mitosis is essential for which of the following processes?
a) Cytoplasmic control a) Growth and cell replacement
b) Genetic control b) Crossing over
c) Environmental stress c) Reduction in chromosome number
d) Nucleolus activity d) Fertilisation
Q10. The two main phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle are: Q61. In unicellular organisms, mitosis is responsible for:
a) Prophase and metaphase a) Genetic recombination
b) Interphase and M phase b) Asexual reproduction
c) G1 and G2 phase c) Gamete formation
d) Cytokinesis and meiosis d) Crossing over
Q11. Interphase was once incorrectly regarded as: Q62. In multicellular organisms, mitosis maintains:
a) A dormant stage a) Haploid chromosome number
b) A quiescent stage b) Diploid chromosome number
c) A preparatory phase without activity c) Polyploidy
d) All of the above d) Aneuploidy
Q12. Interphase is now understood as a period of: Q63. Meiosis is also known as:
a) Complete inactivity a) Equational division
b) Intense metabolic activity and growth b) Reduction division
c) Chromosome segregation c) Amitosis
d) Organelle degeneration d) Binary fission
Q13. The phase in which the cell prepares itself for division is: Q64. Meiosis occurs in which type of cells?
a) Interphase a) Somatic cells
b) M phase b) Germ cells during gamete formation
c) Cytokinesis c) Nerve cells
d) Anaphase d) Muscle cells
Q14. The M phase of the cell cycle represents: Q65. A key feature of meiosis is:
a) Period of metabolic activity a) Doubling of chromosome number
b) Actual nuclear division and cytokinesis b) Halving of chromosome number
c) Resting stage c) Random loss of DNA
d) DNA repair d) Fusion of nuclei
Q15. The average duration of the cell cycle in human cells is about: Q66. The importance of meiosis lies in:
a) 12 hours a) Introducing variation via recombination and segregation
b) 24 hours b) Preserving exact genetic copies
c) 48 hours c) Enhancing mutation rate
d) 72 hours d) Storing genetic material
Q16. In human cells, the S phase alone lasts for approximately: Q67. Meiosis ensures maintenance of chromosome number across:
a) 2 hours a) Asexual cycles
b) 6–8 hours b) Sexual life cycles
c) 12 hours c) Somatic divisions
d) 24 hours
Q17. The phase occupying nearly 95% of the cell cycle is: d) Clonal propagation
a) G1 phase Q68. Meiosis I is also termed:
b) M phase a) Reductional division
c) Interphase b) Equational division
d) G2 phase c) Amitosis
Q18. The phase immediately after mitotic division is: d) Somatic division
a) S phase Q69. At the end of meiosis I, daughter cells are:
b) G1 phase a) Diploid
c) G2 phase b) Haploid
d) Cytokinesis c) Polyploid
Q19. G1 is characterised mainly by: d) Aneuploid
a) DNA replication Q70. The longest and most complex phase of meiosis is:
b) Cell growth and preparation for DNA synthesis a) Anaphase I
c) Nuclear division b) Telophase I
d) Formation of spindle fibres c) Prophase I
Q20. Proteins necessary for DNA replication are synthesised during: d) Metaphase I
a) S phase Q71. Prophase I is subdivided into how many stages?
b) G2 phase a) Two
c) G1 phase b) Three
d) M phase c) Five
Q21. During S phase, the amount of DNA per cell: d) Six
a) Remains constant Q72. The first substage of prophase I is:
b) Doubles a) Pachytene
c) Reduces to half b) Diplotene
d) Becomes variable c) Leptotene
Q22. If a diploid human cell contains 2C DNA content in G1, after S d) Zygotene
phase it will have: Q73. During leptotene, chromosomes:
a) 1C a) Pair and undergo crossing over
b) 2C b) Condense and become visible as long threads
c) 4C c) Disappear completely
d) 8C d) Split into chromatids
Q23. In the S phase, chromosome number: Q74. The bouquet stage is observed during:
a) Doubles a) Pachytene
b) Remains the same b) Leptotene
c) Reduces to half c) Zygotene
d) Becomes polyploid d) Diplotene
Q24. Each chromosome during S phase is converted into: Q75. Synapsis between homologous chromosomes occurs in:
a) A single chromatid a) Leptotene
b) Two sister chromatids b) Zygotene
c) A tetrad c) Pachytene
d) Homologous pairs d) Diplotene
Q25. During G2 phase, the cell mainly: a) Synthesises DNA Q76. The synaptonemal complex facilitates:
b) Prepares proteins for mitosis a) Independent assortment
c) Becomes dormant b) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
d) Produces RNA only c) Spindle fibre attachment
Q26. Organelle duplication is completed by the end of: d) Cytokinesis
a) G1 phase Q77. A pair of homologous chromosomes lying together is called:
b) S phase a) Tetrad or bivalent
c) G2 phase b) Dyad
d) M phase c) Chromatid
Q27. The M phase is also called: d) Centriole
a) Dormant phase Q78. The stage of meiosis where crossing over occurs is:
b) Equatorial phase a) Leptotene
c) Mitotic phase b) Zygotene
d) Resting phase c) Pachytene
Q28. M phase starts with: d) Diplotene
a) Cytokinesis Q79. Crossing over involves:
b) Karyokinesis (nuclear division) a) Exchange of DNA segments between sister chromatids
c) G1 phase b) Exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of
d) DNA replication homologous chromosomes
Q29. Karyokinesis is usually followed by: c) Exchange between centromeres
a) DNA repair d) Exchange between ribosomal RNAs
b) Cytokinesis Q80. The exchange of genetic material during pachytene is catalysed by:
c) Prophase a) RNA polymerase
d) G0 phase b) Recombinase enzyme complex
Q30. In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by: c) DNA ligase only
a) Cell plate formation d) Kinetochores
b) Cleavage furrow formation Q81. Chiasmata first become visible during:
c) Spindle elongation a) Leptotene
d) Apoptotic vesicles b) Pachytene
Q31. In plant cells, cytokinesis occurs through: c) Diplotene
a) Cleavage furrow d) Diakinesis
b) Cell plate formation Q82. The synaptonemal complex dissolves in:
c) Cell wall breakdown a) Pachytene
d) Binary fission b) Diplotene
Q32. The M phase occupies only what percentage of the cell cycle? c) Metaphase I
a) 50% d) Anaphase I
b) 25% Q83. Diplotene can last for years in:
c) Less than 10% a) Oocytes of vertebrates
d) Nearly 95% b) Root tip cells
Q33. In plants, mitotic cell division occurs mainly in: c) Leaf epidermal cells
a) Root and shoot meristems d) RBC precursors
b) Guard cells Q84. The final stage of prophase I is:
c) Xylem vessels a) Pachytene
d) Trichomes b) Diplotene
Q34. In animals, mitotic cell division is generally seen in: c) Leptotene
a) Stem cells only d) Diakinesis
b) Somatic cells Q85. Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs in:
c) Germ cells a) Leptotene
d) RBCs b) Zygotene
Q35. Growth of multicellular organisms is largely due to: c) Diakinesis
a) Mitosis d) Telophase I
b) Meiosis Q86. By the end of diakinesis, which structures disappear?
c) Binary fission a) Nuclear envelope and nucleolus
d) Fertilisation b) Mitochondria
Q36. The cell cycle results in growth accompanied by: c) Golgi complex
a) Genetic recombination d) ER only
b) Genetic stability Q87. At metaphase I, the bivalents align:
c) Genetic reduction a) Randomly inside nucleolus
d) Mutation accumulation b) On the equatorial plate
Q37. Mitosis is also known as: c) Along the poles
a) Reduction division d) Around the centrosome
b) Equational division Q88. Each bivalent at metaphase I has:
c) Amitosis a) One kinetochore
d) Meiotic division b) Two kinetochores, one of each homologous chromosome
Q38. The significance of mitosis lies in maintaining: c) Four kinetochores, one for each chromatid
a) Diploid chromosome number in daughter cells d) No kinetochore
b) Variation in chromosome number Q89. Anaphase I is marked by:
c) Reduction of ploidy a) Separation of sister chromatids
d) Genetic recombination b) Separation of homologous chromosomes
Q39. In plants, mitosis is restricted to: c) Disappearance of chiasmata only
a) Lateral roots only d) Nuclear envelope reappearance
b) Meristematic tissues Q90. During anaphase I, homologous chromosomes:
c) Mature xylem a) Split at the centromere
d) Phloem fibres b) Move towards opposite poles
Q40. In animals, mitosis occurs in: c) Pair up again
a) Only embryonic cells d) Fuse into tetrads
b) Somatic cells Q91. At telophase I, chromosomes:
c) Gametes a) Reach opposite poles and nuclei may reform
d) Nerve cells exclusively b) Undergo crossing over
Q41. Mitosis is studied under how many stages for convenience? c) Condense further
a) Two d) Split into chromatids
b) Four Q92. Cytokinesis after meiosis I may result in:
c) Six a) One diploid cell
d) Eight b) Two haploid cells
Q42. The first stage of mitosis is: c) Four haploid cells immediately
a) Telophase d) Multiple polyploid cells
b) Anaphase Q93. Prophase II begins with:
c) Prophase a) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
d) Metaphase b) Spindle apparatus formation in haploid cells
Q43. Early prophase is marked by: c) Disappearance of chiasmata
a) Disappearance of nucleolus d) Pairing of tetrads
b) Condensation of chromatin into chromosomes Q94. In prophase II, chromosomes are:
c) Chromosome alignment on equator a) Already replicated and consist of two chromatids
d) Spindle fibre splitting b) Single-stranded without chromatids
Q44. Each chromosome during prophase appears as: c) In extended chromatin form
a) A single chromatid d) Attached to nucleolus
b) Two sister chromatids joined at centromere Q95. In metaphase II, chromosomes align:
c) A tetrad a) Randomly at poles
d) Polytene bundle b) Along the equatorial plate like in mitosis
Q45. Spindle fibres are made up of: c) In tetrads at the nuclear membrane
a) Microtubules d) Adjacent to synaptonemal complex
b) Actin filaments Q96. Each chromosome in metaphase II has:
c) Chromatin fibres a) No kinetochore
d) Lipid bilayers b) A single kinetochore attached to both spindle poles
Q46. At the end of prophase, which structures disappear? c) Two kinetochores attached to opposite spindle poles
a) Mitochondria and plastids d) Two kinetochores attached to the same pole
b) Nuclear envelope and nucleolus Q97. Anaphase II is characterised by:
c) Golgi apparatus and ER a) Separation of homologous chromosomes
d) All of the above b) Separation of sister chromatids to opposite poles
Q47. Metaphase begins with: c) Retention of chiasmata
a) Disintegration of spindle d) Reappearance of nuclear envelope
b) Complete disappearance of nuclear envelope Q98. After centromere division in anaphase II, chromatids become:
c) Reappearance of nucleolus a) Tetrads
d) Crossing over b) Independent chromosomes
Q48. The plane of alignment of chromosomes at metaphase is called: c) Synapsed bivalents
a) Polar axis d) Haploid chromatids only
b) Equatorial plate Q99. At telophase II, chromosomes:
c) Centriole axis a) Condense further
d) Telophase disc b) Reach poles and uncoil into chromatin
Q49. Chromosomes at metaphase are most suitable for: c) Form new chiasmata
a) Genetic recombination studies d) Disintegrate into nucleotides
b) Transcription analysis Q100. Cytokinesis after meiosis II results in:
c) Morphological and karyotype analysis a) Two diploid cells
d) DNA sequencing b) Four haploid cells
Q50. Anaphase starts with: c) Eight haploid cells
a) Chromosomes aligning at equator d) One tetraploid cell
b) Splitting of centromeres
c) Disappearance of spindle fibres
d) Reformation of nuclear envelope