**Maintenance and Reliability Comprehensive Question Paper**

**(CMRP + Work Management + Process Reliability)**

**Instructions:**

- This is a single combined exam containing all unique multiple-choice questions from the
attached files.

- Total questions: 64.

- Choose the **best/correct** answer for each question.

- Time allowed: 90 minutes (suggested).

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**Questions 1–10: Maintenance & Reliability (CMRP)**

1. What should be done first to address a gap between your manufacturing performance
and World Class performance?

A. Develop gap closure plans and begin to implement them

B. Assign additional resources to work on attaining World Class performance

C. Define the value of the gap to determine its worth to the company

D. Review gap analysis to ensure it reflects your current performance accurately

2. Preventive maintenance tasks should be grouped by?

A. Parts required, task interval and lockout-tag out requirement

B. Skill required, parts required and equipment availability

C. Skill required, task and interval

D. Skill required, task interval and lockout-tag out requirement

3. When would a strategic plan for Maintenance and Reliability be most appropriately
required?
 A. Planning and scheduling are not being properly implemented at that plant (facility).

B. Improved plant (facility) throughput is required to allow the business to commit to the
requirements of a new customer.

C. The markets that the company operates in are changing on a weekly basis.

D. Fixed costs need to be reduced by 20% within the next year.

4. Which of the following is least likely to be linked to Maintenance and Reliability process
improvements?

A. Improved product design

B. Reduced rework

C. Lower operating costs

D. Better availability capability

5. One way to stimulate and motivate your team member is to understand what drives
human beings. Which desire does not motivate most of the time?

A. Desire for Paycheck

B. Desire for Ownership

C. Desire for Competence

D. Desire for Recognition

6. Which of the following failures, when avoided, is considered a “best practice” for
Industrial maintenance?

A. Design induced

B. Machine induced

C. Self induced

D. Manufacturer induced

7. The most effective method of performance evaluation is:

A. A field review process.

 B. A behaviorally anchored rating scale process

C. An employee written assessment.

D. A feedback process

8. Process measures are leading indicators that offer an indication of task performance with
a lead time to manage for successful results. All of the following are examples of leading
indicators except:

A. % planned maintenance.

B. Asset Availability.

C. Planner to craft workers ratio.

D. % rework.

9. When deciding if you should keep a part in stock, which of the following should be your
primary concern?

A. Is the equipment it fits on the critical equipment list?

B. Does the manufacturer suggest stocking it?

C. Would plant (facility) output be affected?

D. Is the store’s inventory too high?

10. When forming teams to address reliability issues, four stages of team development
should be recognized and managed by the reliability professional. These stages in order are:

A. Warming/Absorbing/Performing/Norming.

B. Forming/Absorbing/Storming/Performing.

C. Forming/Storming/Norming/Performing.

D. Warming/Swarming/Absorbing/Norming.

**Questions 11–25: Work Management**

11. What is the best description for maintenance planning?

 A. Plans daily to keep pace with equipment breakdowns

B. Plans weeks ahead to ensure the trades do quality work by providing all the parts, tools,
information and procedures needed to deliver a quality job.

C. by having parts delivered to the maintenance department to reduce delays

D. Plans maintenance by walking the production facility looking for equipment failures

12. What is the best description for scheduling maintenance?

A. Scheduling maintenance is the process of picking critical jobs from the backlog list for
equipment repairs

B. Scheduling maintenance involves assembling and coordinating resources, materials, and

equipment along with all the other necessary resources to get the job done.

C. Scheduling maintenance involves shutting equipment down for repairs before failures
occur

D. Scheduling maintenance by walking the production facility looking for equipment

failures

13. CMMS is used for tracking maintenance work. Originators of maintenance request
submit __________ into the system to start the process?

A. Notifications

B. Forms

C. Inspections

D. Work Category

14. What is a maintenance work order backlog?

A. A list of all maintenance request

B. A list of all work orders completed monthly

C. A list of all maintenance work orders not yet complete. Ready to schedule / Planned
waiting on material and preventive maintenance work orders.

D. A list of all work orders waiting on material to be received

15. Maintenance planner’s responsibility are to __________ and __________ cost, duration
and tasks needed to complete requested work.

A. Meet and discuss

B. Identify and track

C. Identify and communicate

D. Schedule and Assess

16. Maintenance planners develop scopes of work. Define what a scope of work means
__________?

A. Assign hours and instruct repair techs to investigate and repair

B. Assign work hours and schedule

C. Identifying clear descriptions of tasks to be performed to complete work.

D. Identify originators of the maintenance request and plan how they want the work
completed

17. Work orders have a work breakdown structure (WBS). What is the purpose of the WBS?

A. Verification that the equipment is in breakdown mode

B. Scope of work includes type of failure and why

C. Rough job scope of repairs needed

D. To ensure that all work is identified and defined.

18. A work breakdown structure (WBS) provides a hierarchical structure that outlines the
__________?

A. activities of testing the process when repairs are completed

B. Sequence of paying for material when received

C. Activities or work that needs to be done in order to complete the work scope.

D. Process of purchasing material

19. Planners review completed work for original scope verification. Scope verification is the
process of __________?
 A. Ensuring the problem is resolved

B. Ensuring client satisfaction and everything that he wanted is delivered

C. Ensuring the equipment is repaired

D. Closing out the work order in the system

20. What is the purpose of the volute in the discharge of a centrifugal pump?

A. To convert pressure to velocity

B. To increase both output and velocity

C. To convert velocity to pressure

D. To increase output velocity

21. What is the recommended slack for a horizontal one direction chain drive?

A. 20% of the center to center distance between sprockets

B. 5% of the overall length of the chain

C. 10 pounds of pressure to deflect the chain 2"

D. 2% of the center to center distance between sprockets

22. Work breakdown structures, can also have work packages. What is the purpose of a work
package?

A. Work packages are part of the work breakdown structure detailing task duration / cost /
resources and work objective.

B. Work packages contain store room locations for the kitted material

C. Work packages are part of the equipment master list with equipment parts list

D. Work package is part of production permitting process

23. Inspecting equipment and repairing equipment on scheduled outages is called

__________ maintenance.

A. Troubleshooting

B. Reliability
 C. Service

D. Preventive

24. Reactive maintenance causes disruptions to production. What type of maintenance

would minimize equipment failures?

A. Preventive maintenance

B. Quality

C. Fast service repairs

D. Technical

25. What does lockout/tagout mean?

A. Isolating energy at the on and off switch in the field

B. Lockout/Tagout ensures employee safety during inspection, Maintenance, or service of

equipment by controlling all energy flow to and from the equipment.

C. Isolating process material from equipment being repaired

D. Installing danger tape around the work area with tags stating danger do not enter work
area

**Questions 26–64: Process Reliability**

26. The Japanese-inspired concept of poka-yoke seeks to prevent human mistakes. Which of
the following are not examples of poka-yoke?

a) Light beams that activate alarms if errors occur.

b) Sampling and checking work in a thorough manner.

c) Gauges through which parts must pass on a machine.

d) Digital counters on machines to ensure all parts are completed.

27. An approach that aims to identify the product or service feature that is critical to various
types of failure is:

a) Fault tree analysis

 b) Failure mode and effect analysis

c) Product liability

d) Critical incident analysis

28. The reliability of an operation is normally NOT improved by which one of the following
procedures?

a) Laying off employees who cause faults in the operation.

b) Building redundancy into the operation.

c) Ensuring some activities in the operation are ‘fail-safe’.

d) Designing out fail points in the operation.

29. Which of the following statements best describes change management?

a) An analysis of the external trends impacting on the organisation

b) Identification and removal of blockages within the organisation

c) Improving the effectiveness of organisations & teams

d) All of the above

30. Failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA) provide a checklist procedure. Which of the
following questions is NOT likely to feature on the checklist?

a) What would be the cost of avoiding failure be?

b) What is the likelihood that failure will occur?

c) What would the consequences of the failure be?

d) How likely is such a failure to be detected before it affects the customer?

31. The process of Six Sigma allows only 3.4 defects per million opportunities.

a) True b) False c) Depends d) Negotiable

32. Just-in-time (JIT) does NOT include which one of the following?

a) High inventory production

 b) Fast-throughput manufacturing

c) Lean manufacturing

d) Batch sizes of one

33. Which of the following is a tool utilized to visually map the flow of production?

a) Gemba b) Automation c) Value Stream Mapping d) Benchmarking

34. According to ISO 9001, the quality system is the organizational structure, responsibilities,
procedures, processes, and resources for implementing quality management.

a) True b) False

35. Which of the following is not related with JIT implementation?

a) Pull System b) Push System c) Zero inventory d) Zero lead time

36. ‘Total’ in Total Productive Maintenance refers to all the individuals in maintenance and
production working together.

a) True b) False

37. DPMO stands for ______

a) Defects per meter opportunities

b) Defects per million opportunities

c) Defects per month of opportunities

d) Defects per millimetre of opportunities

38. Which of the following must not be a characteristic of a quality system?

a) It must be well-understood

b) Products or services do satisfy customer expectations

c) Emphasis on problem prevention

d) It must be ineffective
39. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a) Change does not need to be managed, it will sort itself out

b) Managing change requires specific competencies that need to be learned

c) Organisational changes don’t affect individuals in the organisation

d) Managing change is the same as crisis management

40. Which of the following is not an advantage of using Six Sigma?

a) Process improvement

b) Product improvement

c) Defect reduction

d) A decrease in customer satisfaction

41. Which of the following is not a tool used to implement and optimize TPM?

a) Employee empowerment

b) Census

c) Benchmarking

d) Documentation

42. What is the interpretation of Cp>1?

a) The process cannot meet the specification

b) The process will meet the specification

c) The process is just meeting the specification

d) No interpretation is possible without further Information

43. Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of using the ISO 9001 standard?

a) Organizing processes

b) Improving the efficiency of processes

 c) Continuous improvement

d) All of the Above

44. Poka Yoke means

a) mistake proofing

b) standardization

c) process control

d) none of the above

45. “DMAIC” is used for projects aimed at

a) improving an existing business process

b) creating new product or process designs

c) Both (a) and (b)

d) None of the above

46. Combination of Six Sigma and Lean manufacturing is known as

a) Advanced Six Sigma

b) Lean Six Sigma

c) Operational Six Sigma

d) None of the above

47. Which of the following is the key benefit of multi-vari charting?

a) It keeps track of the time when measurements were made

b) It graphically displays the variation in a process

c) It assists in the breakdown of components of variation

d) It is much easier to plot than most control charts

48. Cause and Effect Diagram is not known as

 a) Ishikawa Diagram

b) 4-M

c) Affinity Diagram

d) None of the above

49. Cost-benefit analysis does not include

a) Project benefits

b) Project cost factors

c) Project gain

d) Impact on competitor

50. What is lean philosophy?

a) Helps to provide a perfect value through a perfect value creation process that has zero
waste

b) Continuous Improvement

c) Higher output by encouraging people to work hard and have targets

d) Reducing cost and improving purchasing power

51. Which of the following is not an advantage of implementing a quality system that
conforms to ISO standards?

a) Improvement in employee involvement

b) Improvement in housekeeping

c) Improvement in customer satisfaction

d) Inefficient decision making

52. Assignable causes of variation in the process are called ‘common’ causes.

a) True b) False
53. “The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics of an object fulfils requirements”
is known as:

a) Conformity

b) Quality

c) Grade

d) Capability

54. What is the quality score if an asset produces 15000 units out of which 500 are
defective?

a) 92.67% b) 94.67% c) 96.67% d) 3.33%

55. Benchmarking is used by organizations as a ________ tool.

a) Intermittent improvement

b) Discontinuous improvement

c) Continuous improvement

d) Sporadic improvement

56. Which is true about critical path?

a) Zero slack

b) Event oriented

c) Shortest path

d) Time and cost not considered

57. Which of these tools/techniques represent “continuous improvement”?

a) Kaizen

b) Six Sigma

c) Lean

d) Kanban
58. Which of the following is not a reason why 100% checking may not guarantee that all
defects or problems will be identified?

a) Quality measures may be unclear and staff making the checks may not know precisely
what to look for.

b) Wrong information may be given.

c) Staff may become fatigued over a period of time.

d) Checking every product or service can be both time-consuming and costly.

59. Which of the following is a principle of TQM?

a) Process-centred

b) Product-centred

c) External customer focus only

d) Internal customer focus only

60. Japanese 5S methodology is created and used for:

a) Continuous Improvement

b) Prevent Defects

c) Creating a productive work environment

d) Reduce Variation

61. One of the purposes of using a fishbone diagram is to:

a) Separate a problem into smaller components

b) Identify and classify sources of variations into major groups

c) Define the problem in sequential order

d) Show the relationship between parameters

62. Which approach talks about equipment effectiveness?

a) Lean

b) TPM
 c) Six Sigma

d) TOC

63. All the factors that might contribute to a production problem must be discovered. Which
among the following problem-solving tools might be the best choice?

a) Pareto diagrams

b) Fishbone diagrams

c) Histograms

d) Control charts

64. When a cause-and-effect diagram is used to solve plant problems, what are the three
parts a session is customarily divided into?

a) Teamwork, cost-effectiveness, efficiency

b) Brainstorming, prioritization and plan development

c) Teamwork, planning and execution

d) Cost-effectiveness, plan development, teamwork.

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**SOLUTION MANUAL / ANSWER KEY**

(Compiled from all attached source documents)

**Questions 1–10 (CMRP):**

1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. C

**Questions 11–25 (Work Management):**

Questions 11–25:

11. B

12. B
13. A

14. C

15. C

16. C

17. D

18. C

19. B

20. C

21. D

22. A

23. D

24. A

25. B

**Questions 26–64 (Process Reliability):**

26. b 27. a 28. a 29. d 30. a 31. a 32. a 33. c 34. a

35. b 36. a 37. b 38. d 39. b 40. d 41. b 42. b 43. d

44. a 45. a 46. b 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. a 51. d 52. b

53. b 54. c 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. a 60. c 61. b

62. b 63. b 64. b