05-04-2026

9610WMD801490250028 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two bodies of different masses m1 and m2 are dropped from two different heights 'a' and 'b'. What
is the ratio of time taken by the two bodies to drop through these distance?

(1)
(2) a : b
(3)
(4) a2 : b2

2) A body covers 200 cm in the first 2 seconds and 220 cm in the next two seconds. What will be its
velocity at the end of 7 seconds? Also the displacement in 7 seconds?

(1) v = 100 cm s–1, s = 500.5 cm

(2) v = 130 cm s–1, s = 787.5 cm
(3) v = 150 cm s–1, s = 820.0 cm
(4) v = 115 cm s–1, s = 677.5 cm

3) A block is supported by a cord C from a rigid support, and another cord D is attached to the
bottom of the block. If you give a sudden jerk to D, it will break.

But if you pull on D steadily, C will break. Why?

(1) Due to the difference in string thickness.

(2) Due to the inertia of the block and the state of initial tension.
(3) Because gravity only acts during a steady pull.
(4) Because the lower string is always weaker.

4) A helicopter of mass 500 kg rises with a vertical acceleration of 10 ms–2. The weight of pilot is 60
kg. Give the magnitude and direction of
(i) force on the floor of the helicopter by the pilot
(ii) action of the rotor of the helicopter on the surrounding air
(iii) force on the helicopter due to the surrounding air.
(Take g = 10 ms–2).

(1) (i) 1200 N down, (ii) 11200 N down, (iii) 11200 N up

(2) (i) 600 N down, (ii) 5600 N down, (iii) 5600 N up
(3) (i) 1200 N up, (ii) 11200 N up, (iii) 11200 N down
(4) (i) 1000 N down, (ii) 10000 N down, (iii) 10000 N up

5) The equations of alternating e.m.f. and current in an A.C. circuit are E = 5 cos ωt volt and I = 2
sin ωt ampere respectively. The average power loss in this circuit will be -

(1) 1 watt
(2) 2.5 watt
(3) 3 watt
(4) Zero

6) The impedance of the circuit given will be –

(1) Zero
(2) Infinite
(3) 110 ohm
(4) 90 ohm

7) A flood light is covered with a filter that transmits red light. The electric field of the emerging
beam is represented by a sinusoidal plane wave
Ex = 36 sin (1.20 × 107 z – 3.6 × 1015 t) V/m
The average intensity of the beam will be-

(1) 0.86 W/m2

(2) 1.72 W/m2
(3) 3.44 W/m2
(4) 6.88 W/m2

8) Which one of the following is not electromagnetic in nature -

(1) X-rays
(2) Gamma rays
(3) Cathode rays
(4) Infrared rays

9) A vessel contains oil (density = 0.8 gm/cm3) over mercury (density = 13.6 gm/cm3). A uniform
sphere floats with half its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil. The density of the
material of sphere in gm/cm3 is :

(1) 3.3
(2) 6.4
(3) 7.2
(4) 12.8

10) If two uniform spherical drops of a liquid having same mass, radius, and falling freely with a
terminal velocity of m/s, coalesce to form a bigger drop, then the terminal velocity with which
the bigger drop falls is :

(1) 8 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) None of these

11) On a planet, whose size is same as that of the earth but mass is 4 times that of the earth, the
energy required to lift a 2 kg mass vertically upwards through 2m distance on the planet is:
(g = 10 m/s2 on surface of earth)

(1) 16 J
(2) 32 J
(3) 160 J
(4) 320 J

12) Three equal mass (m) are placed at vertex of an equilateral triangle of side r. Work required to

double the separation between masses will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

13) A physical quantity σ is given by . The percentage error in the measurements of P, Q,

R and S are 2%, 1%, 3%, 6% respectively. Then find out the % error in σ.

(1) 14%
(2) 12%
(3) 16%
(4) 8%
14) Assertion :- Light year and year, both measure time.
Reason :- Light year is the time taken by the light to reach the earth from the sun.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion and reason both are false

15) A simple pendulum of frequency n falls freely under gravity. Its frequency of oscillation will : -

(1) become infinity

(2) be greater than n
(3) be less than n
(4) become zero

16) A tuning fork with frequency 800 Hz produces resonance in a resonance column tube with upper
end open and lower end closed by water surface. Successive resonance are observed at length 9.75
cm, 31.25 cm and 52.75 cm. The speed of sound in air is : -

(1) 500 m/s

(2) 156 m/s
(3) 344 m/s
(4) 172 m/s

17) A simple pendulum is made by attaching 1 kg bob to a 5 m long copper wire. Its period is T.
Now, if 1 kg bob is replaced by 10 kg bob, the period of oscillations : -

(1) remains T
(2) becomes greater than T
(3) becomes less than T
(4) any of above depends on locality

18) The equation of a progressive wave is given by y = 5sin(100πt – 0.4πx) where y and x are in
metre and t is in second.
(i) The amplitude of the wave is 5 m.
(ii) The wavelength of the wave is 5 m.
(iii) The frequency of the wave is 50 Hz.
(iv) The velocity of the wave is 250 m s–1.
Which of the following statements are correct?

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) All are correct

19)
The graph of pressure versus volume of a monoatomic ideal gas is as shown. What is the internal
energy of the system in state 1 and the heat given to the system during the process 4 to 1 ?

(1) 15J, –5J

(2) 3J, –20J
(3) 7J, 9J
(4) 7J, –10J

20) In a heat engine, the temperature of source and sink are 500K and 375K. If engine consumes 25
× 105 J per cycle, find work done per cycle?

(1) 5 × 105 J
(2) 6.25 × 105 J
(3) 5.25 × 102 J
(4) 6.25 × 101 J

21) The figure shows the P-V plot of an ideal gas taken through a cycle ABCDA. The part ABC is a

semicircle and CDA is half of an ellipse. Then

(1) The process during the path A→B is isothermal

(2) Heat is absorbed by the gas during the path B→C→D
(3) Work done during the path A→B→C is zero
(4) Positive work is done by the gas in the cycle ABCDA

22) A pilot of mass m in a jet flies in a vertical loop of radius R. The normal force exerted by the seat
at the bottom of the loop at speed v is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) mg
23)

the velocity of the point of contact with the ground is (in rolling without slipping).

(1) v
(2) 2v
(3) zero

(4)

24) The ratio of rotational kinetic energy to total kinetic energy for a rolling solid sphere is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A point particle of mass M is attached to one end of massless rigid non-conducting rod of length
L. Another point particle of the same mass is attached to other end of the rod. The two particles
carry charges +q and –q respectively. This arrangement is held in a region of a uniform electric field
E, such that the rod makes a small angle θ (say of about 5 degree) with the field direction. Find an
expression for the maximum time needed for the rod to become parallel to the field after it is set

free-

(1)
T = 2π

(2)
T=

(3)
T=
T=π
(4)

26) A long string with a charge of λ per unit length passes through an imaginary cube of edge a. The
maximum flux of the electric field through the cube will be -

(1) λa/ε0
(2) λa/ε0
2
(3) 6λa /ε0
(4) λa/ε0

27) Ceq between A and B -

(1)
[ + x (K – 1)]
(2) Zero
(3) Infinite

(4)
Kx

28) In the circuit shown the current in 4Ω, 8Ω resistances are -

(1) 2.5 A, 0A
(2) 5A, 0A

(3)
2.5A, A

(4)
5A, A

29) A body of mass 1 g and carrying a charge 10–8 C passes from two points P and Q. P and Q are at
electric potentials 600 V and 0 volt respectively. The velocity of the body at Q is 20 cm/s. Its velocity
in m/s at P is -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery. The plates are pulled apart with a uniform
speed. If x is the separation between the plates, the time rate of change of electrostatic energy of

capacitor is proportional to -

(1) x–2
(2) x
(3) x–1
(4) x2

31) The temperature co-efficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125ºC. At 300 K, its resistance is 1Ω.
The resistance of the wire will be 2Ω at -

(1) 1154 K
(2) 1100 K
(3) 1400 K
(4) 1127 K

32) Find the position of final image from 'O' for the arrangement shown.

(1) –24 cm
(2) –120 cm
(3) –40 cm
(4) –20 cm

33) A small fish 0.4 m below the surface of a lake, is viewed through a simple converging lens of
focal length 3 m. The lens is kept at 0.2 m above the water surface such that fish lies on the optical

axis of the lens. The image of the fish seen by observer will be at :-
(1) A distance of 0.2 m from the water surface
(2) A distance of 0.6 m from the water surface
(3) A distance of 0.3 m from the water surface
(4) The same location of fish

34) In the ideal double-slit experiment, when a glass-plate (refractive index 1.5) of thickness t is
introduced in the path of one of the interfering beams (wavelength λ), the intensity at the position
where the central maximum occurred previously remains unchanged. The minimum thickness of the
glass-plate is

(1) 2λ

(2)

(3)

(4) λ

35) A nonconducting ring of radius r has charge Q. A magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of

the ring changes at the rate . The torque experienced by the ring is

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) The flux linked with a coil is 0.8 Wb when 2A current flows through it. If this current begins to
increase at the rate of 0.4 A/s, the emf induced in the coil will be

(1) 0.02 V
(2) 0.04 V
(3) 0.08 V
(4) 0.16 V

37) A charged particle moves with velocity in a magnetic field . The force
acting on the particle has magnitude F.

(1) F = 0, if aD = dA
(2) F = 0, if aD = – dA
(3) F = 0, if aA = – dD
(4) F ∝ (a2 + b2)1/2 × (A2 + D2)1/2

38) Which one of the following options represents the magnetic field at O due to the current
flowing in the given wire segments lying on the xy-plane?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A small bar magnet placed with its axis at 30° with an external field of 0.06 T experiences a
torque of 0.018 Nm. The minimum work required to rotate it from its stable to unstable equilibrium
position is

(1) 9.2 × 10–3 J

(2) 6.4 × 10–2 J
(3) 11.7 × 10–3 J
(4) 7.2 × 10–2 J

40) In a photoelectric effect experiment, the graph of stopping potential V versus reciprocal of
wavelength obtained is shown in the figure. As the intensity of incident radiation is increased,

(1) slope of the straight line gets more steep

(2) graph does not change
(3) straight line shifts to left
(4) straight line shifts to right

41) The mass defect in a particular nuclear reaction is 0.3 grams. The amount of energy liberated in
kilowatt hours is :-

(1) 1.5 × 106

(2) 2.5 × 106
(3) 3 × 106
(4) 7.5 × 106

42) The combination of ‘NAND’ gates shown here under (figure) are equivalent to –

(1) An OR gate and an AND gate respectively

(2) An AND gate and a NOT gate respectively
(3) An AND gate and an OR gate respectively
(4) An OR gate and a NOT gate respectively

43) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT:-

(1) The resistance of intrinsic semiconductor decrease with increase of temperature

(2) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities gives P-type semiconductors
(3) The majority carriers in N-type semiconductors are holes
(4) A PN-junction can act as a semiconductor diode

44) A particle is moving along x-axis under the action of a force, F which varies with its position (x)

as . If the variation of power due to this force with x is , than A is :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) None

45) A block Q of mass M is placed on a horizontal frictionless surface AB and a body P of mass m is
released on its frictionless slope. As P slides by a length L on this slope of inclination θ, the block Q
would slide by a distance :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) In Lother Meyer curve, descending position (next to peak) is held by :-

(1) Halogens
(2) Alkaline earth metals
(3) d–block elements
(4) Alkali metals

2) Which of the following order of given properties is incorrect :-

(1) PF3 > PCℓ3 (Basic character)

(2) N(CH)3 > N(SiH3)3 (Basic character)
(3) HCCℓ3 > HCF3 (Acidic character)
(4) SiH3–OH > CH3–OH (Acidic character)

3)
Major product (A) A is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which among the given acids has lowest pKa value :-

(1) Chloroacetic acid

(2) Bromoacetic acid
(3) Nitroacetic acid
(4) Cyanoacetic acid

5) The numerical values of rate constants are same for first, second and third order reactions.
Which one is true at a moment for rate of these three reactions if concentration of reactants is same
and lesser than 1M.

(1) r1 = r2 = r3
(2) r1 > r2 > r3
(3) r1 < r2 < r3
(4) None of these

6) Correct acidic nature is :-

(1) HNO3 > H3AsO4 > H3PO4

(2) HOF > HOBr > HOCl > HOI
(3) HClO4 > HBrO4 > HIO4
(4) N2O > NO > N2O3

7) Product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 & 2 both

8) Which of the following is correct

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

9) Which of following set of quantum numbers are not possible

(1) n=3, ℓ = 2, m=0, s = –1/2

(2) n=3, ℓ = 2, m=–2, s = –1/2
(3) n=3, ℓ = 3, m=–3, s = –1/2
(4) n=3, ℓ = 0, m=0, s = –1/2

10) At anode in the electrolysis of fused NaCl :

(1) Na+ is oxidised

(2) Cl— is oxidised
(3) Cl— is reduced
(4) Na+ is reduced

11)
What is X and Y in above reaction respectively

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The amount of metal deposited at cathode on passing electric current of 0.75 ampere in
aqueous ferric sulphate solution for 30 minutes, will be -
(atomic wt. of Fe = 56 )

(1) 0.00435 g
(2) 0.261 g
(3) 0.783 g
(4) 0.522 g

13) Correct statements among the following is/are :-

(1) 2nd electron gain enthalpy is always endothermic

(2) Electronegativity is the property of bonded atoms
(3) Al2O3 and BeO are amphoteric oxides
(4) All of these

14) The Lanthanoids contraction is responsible for the fact that :-

(1) Zr and Y have about same radius

(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state

15) Match the column.

Column-I (Reaction of Glucose) Column-II (Product)

(a) Glucose (p) Osazone

(b) Glucose (q) n-Hexane

(c) Glucose (r) Gluconic acid

(d) (s) Saccharic acid

Glucose
(1) a – q, b – s, c – p, d - r
(2) a – q, b – p, c – r, d - s
(3) a – q, b – s, c – r, d - p
(4) a – q, b – r, c – s, d - p

16) The solubility products of three sparingly soluble salt M2X, MX and MX3 are identical. What
will be the order of their solubilities ?

(1) MX3 > M2X > MX

(2) MX3 > MX > M2X
(3) MX > M2X > MX3
(4) MX > MX3 > MX2

17) What volume of CO2 at STP is obtained by thermal decomposition of 20 g KHCO3 ?

[Atomic weight of K = 39]
2KHCO3(s) K2O(s) + 2CO2(g) + H2O(g)]

(1) 44.8 L
(2) 4.48 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) None of the above

18) Which of the following statement is correct for peroxide ion :-

A. has completely filled π antibonding molecular orbitals
B. is diamagnetic
C. has bond order one
D. is isoelectronic with Neon

(1) B, C
(2) A, B, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) A, D

19) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Lead is known but not to form an iodide PbI4.
Statement-II : Conc. HNO3 can be transported in Al Container.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

20) The product formed in the reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Calculate pH of solution obtained by mixing 50 ml 0.2 M NH4Cl solution and 75 ml. 0.1 M NaOH
solution. pKb for aqueous NH3 is 4.74 :-
(1) 4.26
(2) 5.22
(3) 8.78
(4) 9.74

22) The equivalent weight of H3PO4 in following reaction is :-

H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaHPO4 + 2H2O

(1) 98
(2) 49
(3) 32.66
(4) 40

23) Which bond angle θ gives maximum dipole moment for triatomic molecule XY2 :-

(1) θ = 90°
(2) θ = 120°
(3) θ = 180°
(4) Both 2 and 3

24) Type of chemical covalent bond between carboncarbon atom in C2H4 :-

(1) sp2–sp2 - σ bond, 2pπ–2pπ bond

(2) 2p–2p - σ bond, 2pπ–2pπ bond
(3) sp3 – sp3 - σ bond, 2pπ–2pπ bond
(4) None of these

25) CH3CH2COOH X Y
Y in the above reaction is :-

(1) CH3COCl
(2) CH3CH2CHO
(3) CH2 = CHCOOH
(4) Cl–CH2–CH2–COOH

26) Which of the following will show maximum osmotic pressure for its 1 M solution ?

(1) AgNO3
(2) MgCl2
(3) Na2SO4
(4) (NH4)3PO4

27) Standard entropies for H2, Cl2 & HCl is 60, 40 and 60 Jk–1 respectively. For reaction H2 + Cl2 ⇌
2HCl, ΔH = +30 kJ to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be :-
(1) 2500 K
(2) 100 K
(3) 1500 K
(4) 1.5 K

28) Intramolecular H-bond is present in :-

(1) HF

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Major product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Find the major product of given reaction :

Major product
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) On mixing 10 ml CCl4 and 10 ml benzene, the total volume of solution is :-

(1) > 20 ml
(2) < 20 ml
(3) 20 ml
(4) None of these

32) Which is incorrect :

(1) Ni(CO)4 - Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic

–2
(2) [Ni(CN)4] - Square planar, diamagnetic
(3) Ni(CO)4 - Tetrahedral, diamagnetic
–2
(4) [NiCl4] - Tetrahedral, Paramagnetic

33) Alkene (x)

x is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Least reactive towards nucleophilic addition is :-

(1) CH2 = O

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Which of the following statement is wrong ?

(1) Specific conductance is the conductance of 1 cm3 electrolyte solution

Specific conductance increases while equivalent conductance decreases on
(2)
increasing dilution.
The maximum value of equivalent conductance for weak electrolyte can not be determined by
(3)
extrapolation of curve in between and concentration.
(4) The conductivity of metal is due to mobility of electrons.

36) A Pt complex of NH3 and Cl produces four ions per molecule in the aq. solution is :-

(1) PtCl4.6NH3
(2) PtCl4.5NH3
(3) PtCl4.2NH3
(4) PtCl4.4NH3

37) The number of possible enantiomeric pairs that can be produced on Monochlorination
of 2–methylbutane is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

38) The IUPAC name of the following compound is

:-

(1) 1, 2, 3–tricyano propane

(2) propane tricarbylamine
(3) propane–1, 2, 3–tricarbonitrile
(4) 3–cyano propane–1, 5–dinitrile

39) The equilibrium constant for equilibrium 2HX(g) ⇌ H2(g) + X2(g) is 1 × 10–5. What will be the
equilibrium concentration of HX if the equilibrium concentrations for H2 and X2 are 1.2 × 10–3 M and
1.2 × 10–4 M respectively :-
(1) 12 × 10–4 M
(2) 12 × 10–3 M
(3) 12 × 10–2 M
(4) 12 × 10–1 M

40) What will be the standard heat of reaction for the reaction C2H6(g) + 7/2 O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3 H2O(l) if
standard heat of combustion of C(s) and H2(g) are –393.5 and –285 kJ/mol respectively and standard
heat of formation of C2H6(g) is – 88.2 kJ/mol.

(1) +1553.8 kJ/mol

(2) –1730.2 kJ/mol
(3) –1553.8 kJ/mol
(4) –1456.6 kJ/mol

41) Assertion (A) : A lyophilic sol is more stable than lyophobic sol.
Reason (R) : When compared to lyophobic sol, colloidal particles in lyophilic sol are heavily
hydrated.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

42) In titration colourless solution will change into light pink colour that point is called -

(1) Equivalent point

(2) End point
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of these

43) For a reaction of iodide ion with hydrogen peroxide at room temperature, what will be the order
of reaction concerning iodide ion?

(1) Second order reaction

(2) Zero order reaction
(3) Third order reaction
(4) First order reaction

44) The heat of solution of anhydrous CuSO4 and CuSO4.5H2O are –15.89 and 2.80 Kcal mol–1
respective, What will be heat of hydration of anhydrous CuSO4?

(1) – 18.69 Kcal

(2) 18.69 Kcal
(3) – 28.96 Kcal
(4) 28.96 Kcal
45) The equivalent weight of sodium carbonate [Na2CO3] is

(1) 40
(2) 53
(3) 55.85
(4) 63

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion: Testis is situated outside the abdominal cavity with in a pouch called scrotum.
Reason: Scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes necessary for
spermatogenesis.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

2) Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?

(1) Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Rete testis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
Seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Vas deferens →
(2)
Ejaculatory duct → Urethra → Urethral meatus
(3) Seminiferous tubules → Vasa efferentia → Epididymis → Inguinal canal → Urethra
Testis → Epididymis → Vasa efferentia → Vas deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal →
(4)
Urethra → Urethral meatus

3) Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are :-

(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin

(2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(3) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids

4) No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because :

(1) Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation

(2) FSH levels are high in the luteal phase
(3) LH levels are high in the luteal phase
(4) Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase

5) Which of the following infections can also be transmitted by sharing of injection needles, surgical
instruments, etc., with infected persons, transfusion of blood, or from an infected mother to the
foetus too?
(1) Hepatitis B and HIV
(2) Genital herpes and HIV
(3) Syphilis and Hepatitis B
(4) Chlamydiosis and Trichomoniasis

6) What is true for an ideal contraceptive?

(i) It should be user-friendly.
(ii) It should be easily available.
(iii) It should be ineffective and reversible with least side effects. (iv) It should be effective and
reversible with least side effects.
(v) It should interfere with the sexual act of the user.

(1) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) All of these

7) Assertion :- Smoking makes oxygen less available to the body.

Reason :-In presence of CO, O2 binds less with haemoglobin.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

8) Non specific immunity includes all of the except:-

(1) Lysozyme
(2) Interferons
(3) Immunoglobulin
(4) Neutrophils

9) Assertion:- Cancer is contagious and cells can spread from one person to other.
Reason:- Cancerous cells are highly differentiated cells.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

10) Which group of symptoms are indicative of pneumonia ?

(1) Difficulty in breathing, fever, chills, cough, headache.

(2) Constipation, pain abdomen, cramps, blood clots.
(3) Nasal congestion, cough, sore throat, headache.
(4) High fever, weakness, loss of appetite, constipation.

11) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

1. Microsporangia a. Megasporogenesis (i) Embryo sac
2. Ovule b. Microsporogenesis (ii) Male gametophyte
3. Filiform apparatus c. Endothecium (iii) Synergids
4. Stomium d. Micropylar tip (iv) Dehiscence
(1) 1-b-(ii), 2-a-(i), 3-d-(iii), 4-c-(iv)
(2) 1-a-(ii), 2-b-(i), 3-d-(iii), 4-c-(iv)
(3) 1-c-(iii), 2-d-(ii), 3-b-(iv), 4-a-(i)
(4) 1-d-(ii), 2-c-(iii), 3-a-(i), 4-b-(iv)

12) Assertion : An ovule generally has a single embryo sac.

Reason : The process of formation of embryo sac is called megasporogenesis.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true and reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

13) If a gametophyte is directly formed by sporophyte (Somatic cells), without meiosis, then the
process is known as :-

(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Diplospory
(3) Apospory
(4) Adventive embryony

14) Regarding the historical progression of biological knowledge, which statement is correct based
on the text?

(1) Early man could not perceive the difference between inanimate matter and living organisms.
(2) The description of living organisms, including human beings, began very early in human history.
Societies that indulged in an anthropocentric view of biology registered rapid and extensive
(3)
progress in biological knowledge.
The revelation that all present-day living organisms are related to each other led to cultural
(4)
movements for the conservation of biodiversity.

15) Match the type of virus with the typical nature of its genetic material:

Column I (Virus Type) Column II (Genetic Material)

(a) Viruses that infect plants (i) Usually double-stranded DNA
(b) Viruses that infect animals (ii) Single-stranded RNA
(c) Bacteriophages (iii) Either single/double-stranded RNA or double-stranded DNA
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i

16) Consider the following roles performed by Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria:

I. They oxidize various inorganic substances such as nitrates, nitrites, and ammonia.
II. They use light energy directly for their ATP production.
III. They play a great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron, and sulphur.
Which of the statements are correct?

(1) I and II only

(2) I and III only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II, and III

17) Which specific class of Fungi do rusts and smuts belong to?

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Deuteromycetes

18) In green algae (Chlorophyceae), what is the structural composition of their rigid cell wall?

(1) An inner layer of pectose and an outer layer of cellulose.

(2) An inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer of pectose.
(3) Cellulose and algin.
(4) Cellulose, pectin, and polysulphate esters.

19) Assertion (A): The phenomenon of alternation of generations is observed in the life cycle of
plants.
Reason (R): The life cycle of plants has two distinct phases — the diploid sporophytic and the
haploid gametophytic — that alternate with each other.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

20) Which of the following is a unicellular alga rich in proteins that is used as a food supplement
even by space travellers?

(1) Chlorella
(2) Sargassum
(3) Volvox
(4) Porphyra

21) Statement I: Rib cage formed by thoracic vertebrae, ribs, sternum.

Statement II: It protects heart and lungs.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Statement I is true, II is false.
(3) Statement I is false, II is true.
(4) Both statements are false.

22) Assertion (A): Bone has hard matrix due to calcium salts.
Reason (R): Cartilage has pliable matrix due to chondroitin.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

23) Amoeboid movement is exhibited by:

(1) Macrophages and leucocytes

(2) Ciliated epithelium
(3) Cardiac muscles
(4) Skeletal muscles

24) Emphysema causes :

(1) Increased surface

(2) Decreased respiratory surface due to alveolar damage
(3) Wheezing
(4) Dust inflammation

25) Statement I: TV is 500 mL.

Statement II: IRV is additional volume of air inspired after normal inspiration.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct; statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both statements are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect; statement II is correct.

26) Coronary Artery Disease is also called:

(1) Angina
(2) Atherosclerosis
(3) Heart failure
(4) Hypertension
27) Statement I: SAN is called pacemaker.
Statement II: It generates maximum action potentials.

(1) Both true, II explains I

(2) Both true, II does not explain I
(3) I true, II false
(4) Both are false

28) Assertion (A): Impulse transmission across electrical synapses is faster.

Reason (R): Electrical current flows directly between neurons.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

29) 'Corpus callosum' connects:

(1) Two cerebrum hemispheres

(2) Thalamus and hypothalamus
(3) Pons and medulla
(4) Cerebellum and spinal cord

30) Assertion (A): Neural coordination is fast but short-lived.

Reason (R): Nerve fibers do not innervate all cells.

(1) Both A and R true, R explains A.

(2) Both A and R true, R does not explain A.
(3) A true, R false.
(4) A false, R true.

31) Glucagon is a :

(1) Hypoglycemic hormone

(2) Hyperglycemic hormone
(3) Hypercalcemic hormone
(4) Hypocalcemic hormone

32) Choose correct sequence for hormone action for protein hormones:
1. Biochemical changes
2. Bind membrane receptor
3. Generate second messengers
4. Physiological response

(1) 2 → 3 → 1 → 4
(2) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
(3) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
(4) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4

33) Which statements about mutations are accurate?

A. Mutations are sudden, heritable changes in the genetic material.
B. They can be beneficial, neutral, or harmful to an organism.
C. Mutations serve as a primary source of genetic variation for evolution.
D. All mutations are always passed on to the next generation regardless of cell type.

(1) A, C, D
(2) A, B, C
(3) B, C, D
(4) A, B, C, D

34) Assertion (A): The case of peppered moths during the industrial revolution exemplifies natural
selection.
Reason (R): Dark-colored moths became more prevalent in polluted areas due to better camouflage
against predators.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

35) Match the Columns -

Column A Column B
(Concept/Evidence) (Description/Example)

A. Palaeontological evidence 1. Wings of birds and wings of butterfly

B. Anatomical – Homologous organs 2. Archaeopteryx showing reptilian and avian features

C. Anatomical – Analogous organs 3. Forelimbs of cheetah, whale, bat, and human

D. Connecting link / Transitional form 4. Succession of fossils in sedimentary rock strata

E. Biochemical evidence 5. Similarities in DNA/protein sequences across species

(1) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 5, E – 2
(2) A – 4, B – 1, C – 3, D – 2, E – 5
(3) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1, D – 4, E – 5
(4) A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2, E – 5

36) In activated sludge process, what happens to the flocs?

(1) They are transferred to anaerobic digesters.

(2) They are discarded as waste.
(3) They are used for biogas production only.
(4) They are chemically treated.
37) Identify the correct labels for the structure of a Cilia/Flagella:

The central core is called the (A), which usually has (B) pairs of peripheral microtubules and (C)
central microtubules. This arrangement is referred to as the (D) arrangement. The peripheral
doublets are connected by (E).

(1) (A) Axoneme, (B) 9, (C) 2, (D) 9+2, (E) Linkers

(2) (A) Centriole, (B) 9, (C) 0, (D) 9+0, (E) Radial spokes
(3) (A) Axoneme, (B) 2, (C) 9, (D) 2+9, (E) Central sheath
(4) (A) Matrix, (B) 11, (C) 2, (D) 11+2, (E) Nexin

38) How many of the following statements are correct regarding cell organelles and their functions?
A. The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is the major site for synthesis of lipids and
steroidal hormones.
B. The Golgi apparatus is involved in the formation of lysosomes and the packaging of materials.
C. Mitochondria and Chloroplasts are part of the endomembrane system because their functions
are coordinated.
D. The Centriole forms the basal body of cilia and flagella and gives rise to spindle fibers during cell
division.
E. Ribosomes are membrane-bound organelles present only in eukaryotic cells.
F. The Tonoplast is a single membrane that facilitates the transport of ions against concentration
gradients into the vacuole.
G. Nucleolus is a site for active ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

39) How many of the following structures are part of a typical prokaryotic cell envelope or its
modifications?
Glycocalyx, Cell Wall, Plasma Membrane, Mesosomes, Fimbriae, Pili, Nucleoid

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

40) How many of the following statements are incorrect regarding the nucleus?
A. The nuclear envelope consists of two parallel membranes with a space called the perinuclear
space (10 to 50 nm).
B. The nuclear pores are the passages through which movement of RNA and protein molecules takes
place in one direction only.
C. The interphase nucleus has highly extended and elaborate nucleoprotein fibers called chromatin.
D. Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction called the centromere on the sides of
which disc-shaped structures called kinetochores are present.
E. Satellite chromosomes possess a non-staining secondary constriction at a constant location.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) None

41) How many of the following statements correctly describe Meiosis I?

A. Homologous chromosomes pair during Zygotene.
B. Recombination nodules appear during Pachytene.
C. Sister chromatids separate during Anaphase I.
D. Nuclear membrane disappears by the end of Diakinesis.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

42) If you are observing a cell where the chromosomes have reached the poles and the nuclear
envelope is reforming around two distinct nuclei, but the chromosomes are still somewhat
condensed, what phase are you likely seeing?

(1) Interphase
(2) Cytokinesis
(3) Telophase
(4) Anaphase

43) What is the key enzymatic difference between the Pachytene stage and the rest of the cell cycle
stages?

(1) Presence of DNA Polymerase

(2) Absence of RNA Polymerase
(3) Presence of Ligase only
(4) Activity of Recombinase

44) How many genome copies are present in a cell at the end of Meiosis I if the original parent cell
was diploid (2n,2C)?

(1) Two cells, each with 1n,2C

(2) One cell with 2n,4C
(3) Two cells, each with 2n,2C
(4) Four cells, each with 1n,1C

45) How many of the following statements about 'Proteins' are correct?
A. They are homopolymers of amino acids.
B. Collagen is the most abundant protein in the whole of the biosphere.
C. A peptide bond is formed between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of
the next.
D. The left end of a protein chain is represented by the first amino acid (N-terminal).
(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Two

46) Assertion (A): Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction.

Reason (R): An enzyme-substrate complex (ES) is formed as a transient, unstable intermediate.

(1) A is true but R is false

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is false but R is true

47) Assertion (A): Co-factors play a crucial role in the catalytic activity of enzymes.
Reason (R): Catalytic activity is lost when the co-factor is removed from the enzyme.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

48) Statement-I : In exponential growth, a plot of N in relation to time (t) results in a sigmoid curve
Statement-II : The logistic growth model is considered a more realistic one.

(1) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

49) Which of the following is an accurate example of a 'population'?

(1) All the different types of birds found in a forest.

(2) A single bulbul singing in a garden.
(3) All the teakwood trees growing in a specific forest tract.
(4) Various species of fish living in the same pond.

50) Which of the following statements about population dynamics is correct?

(1) Mortality and immigration increase population density.

(2) Natality and emigration decrease population density.
(3) Natality and immigration increase population density.
(4) Emigration and natality both increase population size.

51) In a freshwater pond ecosystem, phytoplankton perform photosynthesis and support

zooplankton, which in turn are eaten by small fishes. Decomposers like fungi and bacteria act on
dead organisms. The energy captured by phytoplankton is used to support all other levels of
consumers.
In the above food chain, zooplankton are:

(1) Primary producers

(2) Primary consumers
(3) Secondary consumers
(4) Decomposers

52) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Primary production is expressed in terms of weight (g m–2) or energy (kcal m–2).
(2) Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by producers.
Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs
(3)
(herbiviores and decomposers).
(4) The rate of biomass production is called productivity.

53) Assertion (A): The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted.
Reason (R): The biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton in the sea.

(1) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect.

(2) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation for
(3)
Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation for
(4)
Assertion (A).

54) Match the columns -

Column A (Level) Column B (Example)

A. Genetic diversity 1. 50,000 rice varieties
2. Western ghats have greater amphibian species diversity than eastern
B. Species diversity
ghats
C. Ecosystem diversity 3. Tropical rainforest, desert
(1) A–1, B–2, C–3
(2) A–2, B–3, C–1
(3) A–3, B–1, C–2
(4) A–1, B–3, C–2

55) Identify the odd one out.

(1) Biosphere Reserve

(2) National Park
(3) Botanical Garden
(4) Wildlife Sanctuary

56) In a dihybrid cross (AaBb × AaBb), the phenotypic ratio observed in F₂ generation is:
(1) 9:3:3:1
(2) 3:1
(3) 1:2:1
(4) 1:1:1:1

57) The best example of codominance in humans is:

(1) Skin colour

(2) ABO blood group
(3) Height
(4) Eye colour

58) Which disorder is X-linked recessive?

(1) Thalassemia
(2) Haemophilia
(3) Down syndrome
(4) Huntington disease

59) The diameter of DNA double helix is approximately:

(1) 2 nm
(2) 20 nm
(3) 0.2 nm
(4) 200 nm

60) DNA replication is:

(1) Conservative
(2) Semi-conservative
(3) Dispersive
(4) Random

61) How many codons code for amino acids?

(1) 61
(2) 64
(3) 20
(4) 63

62) Prokaryotic ribosome is:

(1) 70S
(2) 80S
(3) 60S
(4) 90S
63) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases G and A.

Each EcoRI restriction endonuclease recognizes a specific palindromic nucleotide sequences in
(2)
DNA.
When cut by same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments do not have the same kind
(3)
of sticky ends.
(4) Making multiple identical copies of any template DNA is called cloning.

64) The given figure shows the [Link] cloning vector pBR322 showing restriction sites. Some parts
are labelled as A, B, C & D. Choose the option showing the correct labelling.

(1) A- Hind I, B-EcoR I, C-ampR, D-ori

(2) A-Hind I, B-BamH I, C-kanR, D-ampR
(3) A-BamH I, B-Pst I, C-ori, D-ampR
(4) A-EcoR I, B-BamH I, C-ampR, D-ori

65) The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-
recombinant bacteria because of -

(1) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in nonrecombinant bacteria.

(2) Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria.
(3) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria.
(4) Non-recombinant bacteria contain beta galactosidase.

66) Find out the incorrect statement -

(1) Human protein used to treat emphysema is α-1 antitrypsin.

Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic species of Agrobacterium
(2)
tumefaciens.
(3) Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced human protein enriched milk.
(4) Cry I Ab endotoxins obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis is effective against corn borers.

67) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.
 Column–I Column–II

A Golden rice I Cry protein

B Bt toxin II Rich in vitamin A

C RNAi III First transgenic cow

D Rosie IV Gene silencing

(1) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(2) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(3) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV
(4) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III

68) Assertion : An application of tissue culture is the production of transgenic plants.

Reason : A transgenic organism is one that contains and expresses a transgene.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

69) In the tap root system, the primary root:

(1) Is short-lived
(2) Is replaced by adventitious roots
(3) Persists throughout life
(4) Is absent

70) Flowers in racemose inflorescence are arranged mainly in:

(1) Basipetal order

(2) Acropetal order
(3) Centripetal order
(4) Random order

71) In marginal placentation, ovary is:

(1) Multilocular with septa

(2) Unilocular with ovules along margin
(3) Bilocular with axile placenta
(4) Multilocular without septa

72) Passage cells are thin-walled cells present in:

(1) Cortex
(2) Endodermis
(3) Pericycle
(4) Pith

73) Ground tissue in monocot stem is:

(1) Differentiated into cortex and pith

(2) Uniform without distinction
(3) Absent
(4) Only parenchymatous pith

74) ATP synthesis in chloroplast occurs by:

(1) Krebs cycle

(2) Oxidative phosphorylation
(3) Photophosphorylation
(4) Glycolysis

75) Carboxylation in Calvin cycle is catalysed by:

(1) PEP carboxylase

(2) RuBisCO
(3) ATP synthase
(4) NADP reductase

76) The enzyme responsible for primary CO2 fixation in C4 plants is:

(1) RuBisCO
(2) PEP carboxylase
(3) ATP synthase
(4) Rubredoxin

77) In glycolysis, ATP is produced mainly by:

(1) Oxidative phosphorylation

(2) Photophosphorylation
(3) Substrate level phosphorylation
(4) Chemiosmosis

78) Which components are embedded in inner membrane?

1. Complex I
2. Complex II
3. ATP synthase
4. Krebs cycle enzymes

(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 1 and 4
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

79) Which step directly consumes oxygen?

(1) Glycolysis
(2) Krebs
(3) ETS
(4) Link reaction

80) Plant growth occurs mainly due to:

(1) Cell wall thickening

(2) Increase in vacuole size only
(3) Increase in protoplasm
(4) Cell death

81) Cytokinins are mainly synthesised in :

(1) Leaves
(2) Roots
(3) Flowers
(4) Fruits

82) Which of the following combinations correctly matches the phylum with its characteristic
feature?

(1) Annelida — Metameric segmentation

(2) Arthropoda — Water vascular system
(3) Echinodermata — Jointed appendages
(4) Hemichordata — Tube feet

83) Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Protochordates possess notochord during some stage of life.
B. Pristis is a bony fish.
C. Respiration in fishes occurs through gills.
D. Body of fishes is generally streamlined.

(1) A, C and D only

(2) A and C only
(3) B and D only
(4) All are correct

84) Which of the following characters are associated with mammals?

A. Presence of hair.
B. Mammary glands in females.
C. External ear pinnae.
D. Dry cornified skin.

(1) A and B only

(2) A, B and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) All are correct

85)

Match the following:

Column I Column II

A. Cortical nephron 1. Short loop of Henle

B. Juxtamedullary nephron 2. Long loop of Henle

C. Vasa recta 3. Associated with juxtamedullary nephron

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3
(2) A-2, B-1, C-3
(3) A-1, B-3, C-2
(4) A-2, B-3, C-1

86) Assertion (A): Hemodialysis is used when kidneys fail to remove nitrogenous wastes.
Reason (R): Blood passes through a dialysis membrane where wastes diffuse into dialysis fluid.

(1) Both correct and reason explains assertion.

(2) Both correct but reason not explanation A.
(3) Assertion correct reason incorrect.
(4) Both A & R are incorrect.

87) Which epithelial tissue lines blood capillaries and alveoli of lungs?

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Stratified epithelium

88) Which connective tissue fibre provides maximum tensile strength?

(1) Elastic fibres

(2) Collagen fibres
(3) Reticular fibres
(4) Keratin fibres

89) A. Male frog have common urogenital duct.

B. Frog heart is three-chambered.
C. Frog skin participates in respiration.
D. Frog body covered with dry scales.
Choose the correct options:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A and B only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) All are correct

90) A. Cockroach body divided into head, thorax and abdomen.

B. Each thoracic segment bears a pair of legs.
C. Forewings are called tegmina.
D. Mushroom gland occurring female cockroach.
Choose the correct options:

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A and D only
(4) B and C only