13-07-2025

4015CMD303034250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a charged body. If the electric field at A
and B are EA and EB respectively and if the displacement between A and B is r then:-

(1) EA > EB
(2) EA < EB
EA =
(3)

(4)

2) Equation for y - x graph is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Equal charges Q are placed at the four corners A, B, C, D of a square of length a. The magnitude
of the force on the charge at B will be
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

4) If the resultant of vectors and is a unit vector along y-axis then the values of p &
q are respectively :–

(1) –3, 5
(2) 3, –5
(3) 3, –3
(4) 5, –5

5) Assertion (A) : If 0° < θ < 90° then tanθ > θ > sinθ.
Reason (R) : For very small value of θ, tanθ ≈ θ ≈ sinθ.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

6) In the given figure a graph is shown a variable y varying exponentially with another variable x.
Study the graph carefully. Which of the following equations best suits the above graph?

(1) y = 3 – e–x
(2) y = 1 – 4e–x
(3) y = 1 – 3e–x
(4) y = 3 – 4e–x

7) Find the value of sin2α + sin2β + sin2γ = ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 0
(4) None
8) The spatial distribution of the electric field lines due to charges (A, B) is shown in figure. Which

one of the following statements is correct ?

(1) A is +ve and B is –ve and |A| > |B|

(2) A is –ve and B is +ve ; |A| = |B|
(3) Both are +ve but A > B
(4) Both are –ve but |A| > |B|

9) Column II corresponds to the graph of magnitude of electric field versus distance from centre of
charge distribution in column I

Column-I Column-II

(A) Ring along its axis (P)

(B) Uniformly charged solid sphere (Q)

(C) Spherical conducting shell (R)

(1) A→P, B→Q, C→R

(2) A→P, B→R, C→Q
(3) A→R, B→P, C→Q
(4) A→Q, B→P, C→R

10) Find derivative of given functions w.r.t. x : y = exlnx

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Two point charges + 9e and + e are at 16 cm away from each other. Where should another
charge q be placed between them so that the system remains in equilibrium

(1) 24 cm from + 9e
(2) 12 cm from + 9e
(3) 24 cm from + e
(4) 12 cm from + e

12) The maximum value of y = –3x2 + 12 x + 2 is :

(1) –6
(2) 14
(3) 2
(4) 12

13) The ratio of maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors and is 3 : 2.
The relation between A and B is :-

(1) A = 5B
(2) 5A = B
(3) A = 3B
(4) A = 4B

14) Find the slope of a curve y = x3 – 4x – 1 at x = 2 ?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) –8
(4) –16

15) Which of the following is a unit vector ?

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

16) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2x cot x2
(4) 2x cot x
17) Maximum value of (3sinθ – 4cosθ) is

(1) 5
(2) –5
(3) 7
(4) 1

18) y –2 = upto ∞ then y2 is.

(1) 16/9
(2) 4/3
(3) 8
(4) 2

19) If y = 3e5, then is :-

(1) 0
(2) 15e5
(3) 5e5
(4) 35e5

20) The correct equation for the given graph can be

(1) 2y – 3x – 5 = 0
(2) 3x + 2y + 5 = 0
(3) 3x – 2y + 5 = 0
(4) 3x + 2y – 5 = 0

21) A point charge 'Q' is placed at a point inside a hollow conducting sphere. Which of the following
electric field pattern is correct ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Two point charges a and b whose magnitudes are same are positioned at a certain distance from
each other; a is at origin. Graph is drawn between electric field strength and distance x from a. E is

taken positive if it is along the line joining from a to b :

(1) a is positive, b is negative

(2) a and b both are positive
(3) a and b are negative
(4) a is negative, b is positive

23) If sinθ = , then value of (cosθ + 2cotθ) will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Find derivative of given functions w.r.t x :

y = (secx + tanx) (secx – tanx)

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

25) Calculate

(1) 1
(2) 0.995
(3) 1.005
(4) 0.99

26) For the graph shown in fig. value of is :-

(1) 5
(2) 15
(3) 10
(4) Zero

27) The graph of function y = 1 + cosx will be :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

28) A soap bubble is given negative charge. Its radius will

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) Fluctuate

29)

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 5N
(4)

30) Two charges 9e and 3e are placed at a separation r. The distance of the point where the electric
field intensity will be zero, is :-

(1)
from 9e charge

(2)
from 9e charge

(3)
from 3e charge

(4)
from 3e charge

31) Find derivative of given functions w.r.t x : y = (3 – 2x)9

(1) 27(2 – 3x)6

(2) –18(3 – 2x)8
(3) 18(3 – 2x)8
(4) 27(2 – 3x)4
32) A nonconducting solid sphere of radius R is charged uniformly. The magnitude of the electric
field due to the sphere at a distance r from its centre :–
(a) increases as r increases, for r < R
(b) decreases as r increases, for 0 < r <
(c) decreases as r increases, for R < r <
(d) is discontinuous at r = R

(1) a, c
(2) c, d
(3) a, b
(4) b, d

33) If mA, mB & mC are the slopes at points A, B and C respectively in the figure shown then :-

(1) mA > mB > mC

(2) mA = mB = mC
(3) mA = mC < mB
(4) mA < mB < mC

34) Electric field due to -

Column-I Column-II

(i) Infinite plane sheet Charge (a) 0

Infinite conducting plane sheet

(ii) (b)
of uniform thickness

Non-conducting charged
(iii) (c)
solid sphere at its surface

Non-conducting charged solid

(iv) (d)
sphere at its centre
Where symbols have their usual meaning.
(1) i → a , ii → d, iii → d, iv → a
(2) i → b , ii → d, iii → a, iv → a
(3) i → a , ii → b, iii → c, iv → a
(4) i → b , ii → d, iii → c, iv → a

35) E-x graph for the uniformly charged ring will be ( on y axis)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Eight point charges having magnitude q are fixed at vertices of a cube. The electric flux

through the cube is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A charged drop is suspended in uniform electric field. If direction of electric field is reversed
without changing magnitude then acceleration of drop will be :

(1) g downward
(2) g upward
(3) 2g downward
(4) 2g upward

38) An infinite number of charges, each of charge, 1 nC, are placed on the x-axis with co-ordinates x
= 1, 2,4,8,......∞. If a charge of 1C is kept of the origin, then what is the net force acting on 1C
charge.

(1) 9 N
(2) 12N
(3) 24 N
(4) E36 N
39) Calculate total positive charge in 18 gm H2O :

(1) 20 NAe
(2) 10 NAe
(3) 5 NAe
(4) 2NAe

40) Find electric field on origin.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) If v = 3t2 + 7 then find at t = 1 sec

(1) 10
(2) 13
(3) 6
(4) 3

42) The equation of shown sinusoidal graph is

(1) y = sin5x
(2) y = 5sinx
(3) y = 10 sinx
(4) y = 5 sin2x

43) Two metal spheres of same mass are suspended from a common point by a light insulating
string. The length of each string is same. The spheres are given electric charges +q on one end and
+4q on the other. Which of the following diagrams best shows the resulting positions of spheres ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A charge q is placed in the middle of a line joining the two equal and like point charge Q. This
charge q will remain in equilibrium for which the value of q is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

45) Four different point charge q, –2q, –5q and 4q are placed at vertex of a square of side a. The
electric field at centre of square is :

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which is the correct order of ionic sizes 63Eu, 71Lu, 70Yb & 64Gd

(1) Gd > Eu > Yb > Lu

(2) Eu > Gd > Yb > Lu
(3) Eu > Gd > Lu > Yb
(4) Lu > Yb > Gd > Eu

2) Correct order of EA :-
(1) N > Be > Ne
(2) N < Be > Ne
(3) N > Be < N
(4) N = Be = Ne

3) Most acidic oxide is

(1) BaO
(2) BeO
(3) MgO
(4) CaO

4) Suppose an orbital may accomodate 3 electrons then the number of elements in IV period.

(1) 18
(2) 27
(3) 12
(4) 45

5) Find the formula of halide of a metal whose successive ionization energies are x, 2x, 5x, 20x, 25x
kJ mol–1 respectively :-

(1) MX
(2) MX2
(3) MX3
(4) M2X

6) Consider the following values of IE(eV) for elements W and X :-

Element IE1 IE2 IE3 IE4

W 10.5 15.5 24.9 79.8
X 8 14.8 78.9 105
Other two elements Y and Z have outer electronic configuration ns2 np4 and ns2 np5 respectively.
According to given information which of the following compound (s) is/are not possible.
(a) W2Y3 (b) X2Y3 (c) WZ2 (d) XZ2
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) a, d

7) Statement-1 : ΔiH of N is greater than O.

Statement-2 : N-atom is smaller than O in size.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true

8) Which of following covalent bond is most polar

(1) N–O
(2) O–F
(3) N–F
(4) N–H

9) Which of the following is different from other three oxides :-

(1) CO
(2) NO
(3) Na2O
(4) N2O

10) Correct order for I.E. would be ?

(1) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr

(2) N > C > P > S
(3) Na < Mg < Al < Si
(4) (1) & (2) both

11)

Which of the following statement is incorrect for the d-block elements:

(1) General electronic configuration for them is (n – 1)d1-10ns1-2

(2) They generally exhibit variable valency.
(3) Last electron enters in (n – 1)d subshell in them.
(4) They are placed from 3rd to 6thperiod in modern periodic table.

12) Consider the following ionization steps :

;
;
Select incorrect statement(s)

(1) I.E1 of M(g) is 100 eV

+
(2) I.E1 of M (g) is 150 eV
(3) I.E2 of M(g) is 250 eV
(4) I.E2 of M(g) is 150 eV

13)

Which of the following is incorrect regarding noble gases?

(1) Noble gases exhibit very high chemical reactivity.
(2) Noble gases exhibit very low chemical reactivity.
General outermost shell electronic configuration is
(3)

(4) Noble gases are present at the end of each period.

14) Which statements is/are incorrect :

(1) In alkali metals group, from top to bottom increase in size is maximum from Na to K.
(2) Addition of e– in P atom will be exothermic.
(3) IP of F is greater than its EA value.
(4) Reaction is endothermic.

15) Match the lists.

List-I List-II
(i) Na < F < O–2 < N3–
+ –
(a) Electronegativity
(ii) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+ (b) σ(shielding effect)
(iii) N+ < O+ (c) Ionic size
(iv) CI– < K+ < Ca+2 < Sc+3 (d) Electron affinity
Correct matching is -
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) c b,c a,b a,d

(2) b,c c d a,d

(3) c b,c a,d d

(4) a,d d b c
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Which of the following is least stable ?

(1) O–
(2) B–
(3) C–
(4) Be–

17) The incorrect match among the following options is :

(1) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 → 4th period, 6th group

(2) [Kr] 4d10 → 5th period, 12th group
(3) [Rn] 6d2 7s2 → 7th period, 3rd group
(4) [Xe] 4f14 5d2 6s2 → 6th period, 4th group

18) If electron negativity of x is 3.5 and y is 2, then find percentage covalent character in x-y bond.

(1) 31.875 %
(2) 63.7%
(3) 32.3%
(4) 68.125%

19) Consider the following statements :

I. The radius of an anion is larger than that of parent atom.
II. The I.E. increases from left to right in a [Link]
III. The electro-negativity of an element is the tendency of an isolated atom to attract an electron.
The correct statements are :-

(1) I alone
(2) II alone
(3) I and II
(4) II and III

20) Which of the following is an endothermic process?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All

21)

How much volume of air will be required for the combustion of 200 mL of C2H6(g)

(1) 700 mL
(2) 4.5 L
(3) 3.5 L
(4) 3500 L

22) The number of atoms of C and H are 3.6 × 1011 and 14.4×1011 respectively. It's empirical formula
is:

(1) C3H8
(2) C2H6
(3) CH4
(4) C2H2

23) Which of the following has least number of molecules ?

(1) 5.6 L NH3 gas at STP
(2) 2.24 g H2 gas
22
(3) 3.011 × 10 molecules of H2SO4
(4) 4 g O2 gas

24) Which of the following has least mass :

(1) 4 gram atom of carbon

(2) 3.011×1023 atom of nitrogen
(3) 1 mole CO2
(4) 32 g SO2

25)

For the reaction A + 2B → C,8 mole of A and 12 mole of B will produce :-

(1) 4 mole of C
(2) 6 mole of C
(3) 5 mole of C
(4) 12 mole of C

26) Vapour density of gas is 5.6, volume occupied by 3.2 g of this at STP will be :-

(1) 11.2L
(2) 3.2L
(3) 22.4L
(4) 6.4L

27) A gaint molecule contains 0.40% of a metal whose atomic weight is 39. Its minimum molecular
weight is :

(1) 19500
(2) 9750
(3) 3900
(4) 4875

28) 1.6g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24L of volume at STP. This gas may be :-

(1) N2O
(2) CO2
(3) SO3
(4) CH4

29)

The number of molecule in 4 mole CO2 is :-

(1) NA
(2) 4NA
(3) 0.25 NA

(4)

30) What mass of CaCO3 is required to react completely with 500 ml of 0.2 M HCl according to
following reaction ?
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) →
CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(ℓ)

(1) 10 g
(2) 5 g
(3) 50 g
(4) 100 g

31) One mole of potassium chlorate (KClO3) is thermally decomposed and excess of aluminium is
burn in the gaseous product. How many mole of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) are formed ?

(1) 1
(2) 1.5
(3) 2
(4) 3

32) The volume of a gas at 0 °C and 700 mm pressure is 760 cc. The no. of molecules present in this
volume is

(1) 1.88 × 1022

(2) 6.022 × 1023
(3) 18.8 × 1023
(4) 18.8 × 1022

33) What is the density (in g mL–1) of a 3.60 M aqeous sulphuric acid solution that is 29.0% H2SO4 by
mass :-

(1) 1.22
(2) 1.45
(3) 1.64
(4) 1.88

34) The mass of 70% pure H2SO4 required for neutralisation of 500 ml of 2M of NaOH is :-

(1) 49 gm
(2) 98 gm
(3) 70 gm
(4) 24.5 gm
35) A sample of calcium carbonate is 80% pure. 25 g of this sample is treated with excess of HCl.
How much volume of CO2 will be obtained at N.T.P. ?
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

(1) 2.24 L
(2) 5.6 L
(3) 11.2 L
(4) 4.48 L

36) Which of the following will have 80% C.

(1) CH4
(2) C2H6
(3) C6H6
(4) C4H10

37) 20cc of CO2 are passed over red hot coke. The volume of CO evolved is –

(1) 10 cc
(2) 20 cc
(3) 30 cc
(4) 40 cc

38) A compound contains 38.8% C, 16% H and 45.2% N. The formula of the compound would be :-

(1) CH3NH2
(2) CH3CN
(3) C2H5CN
(4) CH2(NH)2

39) Aspirin has the formula C9H8O4. How many atoms of oxygen are there in a tablet weighing 360
mg ?
(mol. mass of Aspirin = 180g)

(1) 1.2 × 1023

(2) 1.08 × 1022
(3) 1.2 × 1024
(4) 4.8 × 1021

40) If Ca3(PO4)2 and H3PO3 samples contain same number of 'P' atoms then the ratio of oxygen atoms
in these compounds respectively is?

(1) 8/3
(2) 2/3
(3) 3
(4) 4/3

41) Which of the following statement is correct about the gram atomic mass of any element :-

(1) It is the mass of 1 molecule of the element in grams

(2) It is 1 g mass of an element
(3) It is the mass of 1 mol atoms of an element in gram
(4) It is equal to the mass of 1 mol of element in amu

42) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) 36 u of C (P) 2 atoms

(b) 46 g of Na (Q) 3 atoms

(c) 8 u of He (R) 3 NA atoms

(d) 120 g of Ca (S) 2 NA atoms

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) R P S Q

(2) P R S Q

(3) R P Q S

(4) Q S P R
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) Assertion (A) :- Mass of 1 gram molecule of H2SO4 is 98 gm.

Reason (R) :- One gram atom contains NA atoms.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

44) Statement-I :- Actual mass of one molecule of CH4 is 16 amu.

Statement-II :- Mass percentage of carbon in CH4 is 80%.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-II is correct, statement-I is incorrect
(4) Both statement are wrong
45) Which of the following electronic configuration does not belongs to same block as others :-

(1) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2

(2) [Kr] 4d10 5s2
(3) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p6 7s1
(4) [Ar] 3d6 4s2

BIOLOGY

1) Select odd one out with reference to cisterne of golgi body–

(1) Mature face

(2) Trans face
(3) Concave
(4) Forming face

2) “Omnis cellula-e cellula” explains that–

(1) All living organisms are composed of cells

(2) All living organisms are composed of products of cell
(3) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
(4) A cell is capable of independent existence

3) Select wrongly matched pair–

(1) SER – Glycoprotein and glycolipid synthesis

(2) Golgibody – Cell plate formation
(3) Lysosome – Hydrolytic enzymes
(4) Mesosome – Infolding of cell membrane

4) Centrioles in a centrosome lie _______ to each other :-

(1) Parallel
(2) Perpendicular
(3) 30°
(4) 60°

5) Main component of middle lamella is–

(1) Ca–Pectate
(2) Ag–Pectate
(3) Na–Pectate
(4) Al–Pectate

6) Which of the following cell does not contain a cell wall?

(1) Plant cell
(2) Eubacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Animal cell

7) Assertion (A): Mitochondria help in oxidative phosphorylation and generation of adenosine

triphosphate.
Reason (R): Mitochondria are not bounded by any membrane.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

8) Who proposed cell theory?

(1) Tom cruise and Brad Pitt

(2) Schwann and Schleiden
(3) Messi and Ronaldo
(4) Hook and Brown

9) Statement-1: Endomembrane system is present in eukaryotic cells.

Statement-2 : It comprises of peroxisome, golgicomplex, vacuoles.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
(3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

10) Lysosome are known as "Suicidal bags" because–

(1) Presence of food vacuole

(2) Respiration capacity
(3) Catalytic activity
(4) Autolysis of cell

11) Which of the following is an example of cell, devoid of Mitochondria ?

(1) Bacteria cell

(2) Sperm
(3) egg cell
(4) Animal cell

12) Match the following group I and II:

Group I Group II
 a. Amyloplast p. Carbohydrate

b. Elaioplas t q. Carotenoids

c. Aleuroplast r. Protein

d. Chromoplast s. Fat

e. Chloroplast t. Chlorophyll
(1) a-p, b-r, c-s, d-q, e-t
(2) a-p, b-s, c-r, d-q, e-t
(3) a-s, b-p, c-r, d-q, e-t
(4) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q, e-t

13) At which pH lysosomal enzymes mainly active–

(1) pH 5
(2) pH 7
(3) pH 8
(4) pH 10

14) Non membrane bound cell organelles found in all living cells are–

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Centrosome
(3) Ribosome
(4) Peroxysome

15) Proteins and lipids which reach the cisternae of golgi apparatus are respectively synthesized by–

(1) SER, SER

(2) RER, RER
(3) SER, RER
(4) RER, SER

16) Find the correct statement about above diagram–

(1) Both outer and inner membranes have same permeability

(2) Inner membrane is relatively less permeable
(3) Outer membrane is relatively less permeable
(4) Outer membrane is impermeable

17) An organelle with an 9+2 microtubule arrangement is :

(1) Cilia
(2) Basal body
(3) Centriole
(4) 2 and 3 both

18) Which of the following structures resembles a cart wheel ?

(1) Cilia
(2) Flagella
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Centrioles

19) The number of chloroplast in each mesophyll is:-

(1) 100
(2) 100 – 1000
(3) 20 – 40
(4) 104

20) Nucleus as a "cell organelle" was first described by.....as early as........

(1) Robert Hooke, 1665

(2) Robert Brown, 1831
(3) Flemming, 1931
(4) Strasburger, 1831

21) Enzymes of electron transport system are located in–

(1) Matrix of mitochondria

(2) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(3) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(4) Stroma of chloroplast

22) If a cell is actively undergoing lipid synthesis then according to you which of the following
structure will be prominent:

(1) Vacuole
(2) Nucleolus
(3) Mitochondria
(4) SER

23) Cell wall of algae is made up of -

(1) Chitin
(2) Peptidoglycan
(3) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Pectin, Protein
(4) Cellulose, Galactans, Mannans & CaCO3

24) Which one structure determine the shape of the cell and provides a strong structural support to
prevent the bacterium from bursting or collapsing?

(1) Capsule
(2) Slime layer
(3) Capsule and cell membrane
(4) Cell wall

25) Tail of phospholipid molecules in plasma membrane is–

(1) Polar and hydrophilic

(2) Non polar and hydrophilic
(3) Polar and arranged towards outer side
(4) Nonpolar and hydrophobic

26) The membrane around the vacuole of plant cell is called–

(1) Tonoplast
(2) Cytoplast
(3) Amyloplast
(4) Aleuroplast

27) Which of the following are not membrane bound?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Lysosomes

28) Which of the following is called as "Power house of the cell"?

(1) Lysosome
(2) Microbodies
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Mitochondria

29) Ribosomes are madeup of–

(1) DNA + Protein

(2) RNA + Protein
(3) DNA + RNA
(4) Only protein

30) Golgi body is concerned with–

(1) Respiration
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) Secretion
(4) Digestion

31) What is P, Q, R in given figure :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) What is the percentage of proteins and lipids in human RBC membrane respectively?

(1) 52%, 40%

(2) 70%, 30%
(3) 40%, 52%
(4) 30%, 70%

33) Match the column-I with Column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Tonoplast (i) Mitochondria

(B) Thylakoid (ii) Cilia

(C) Cristae (iii) Chloroplast

(D) Axoneme (iv) Vacuoles

Options :
(1) (A)–(iv), (B)–(ii), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii)
(2) (A)–(iii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(ii)
(3) (A)–(iv), (B)–(iii), (C)–(ii), (D)–(i)
(4) (A)–(iv), (B)–(iii), (C)–(i), (D)–(ii)

34) The endomembrane system includes–

(1) ER and golgibody only

(2) Only ER , golgibody and vacuoles
(3) ER, lysosomes, golgibody and vacuoles
(4) ER and lysosomes only

35) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) Ribosomes (i) Ca-Pectate

(B) Lysosome (ii) r-RNA and Proteins

9 + 2 Arrangement of
(C) Middle Lamella (iii)
Microtubules

(D) Flagella (iv) Hydrolytic enzymes

(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

36) Assertion: Mitochondria is the member of endomembrane system.

Reason: Its functions are in coordination with vacuole, ER, Golgi complex and nucleus.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

37) Arrangement of microtubules in flagella is–

(1) 9+2
(2) 0+9
(3) 11+0
(4) 12+0

38) Which one of the following structure is called "Organelle with in organelle"?

(1) ER
(2) Ribosome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chloroplast
39) Main site of aerobic respiration is–

(1) Ribosome
(2) Golgibody
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Chloropalst

40) Eukaryotic flagella made up of–

(1) Flagellin
(2) Tubulin
(3) Pilin
(4) Chitin

41) Spherosomes are involve in–

(1) Synthesis of protein

(2) Synthesis and storage of lipid
(3) β-oxidation of fatty acid
(4) Storage of charbohydrate

42) Which of the following is the exception of cell theory?

(1) Bacteria
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Virus
(4) B.G.A.

43) Size of typical eukaryotic cell is–

(1) 0.1 µm
(2) 1-2 µm
(3) 10-20 µm
(4) 0.3 µm

44) The two subunits of 70 S ribosome is–

(1) 30S + 40S

(2) 40S + 20S
(3) 50S + 30S
(4) 35S + 35S

45) Bacterial cell wall node up of–

(1) Peptidoglycan
(2) Chitin
(3) Phospholipid
(4) Cellulose

46) Blubber & camel Hump are deposition of :

(1) Areolor tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Fibrous tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

47) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding compound epithelium ?

(1) It is made of more than one layer of cells and thus has a limited role in secretion and absorption
(2) Their main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses
They cover dry surface of the skin, moist surfaces of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts
(3)
and salivary glands and pancreatic ducts
(4) All of the above

48)

What are the three basic components of connective tissues ?

(1) Ground substance, Cells, Basement membrane

(2) Cells, Protein fibres, Ground substances
(3) Collagen, Basement membrane, Reticular fibres
(4) Cartilage, Matrix, Serum

49) The ground substance of connective tissue is basically composed of :-

(1) Lipids
(2) Monosaccharides
(3) Phospholipids
(4) Mucopolysaccharides

50) Stereocilia present in:

(1) Epididymis
(2) Vasa deferens
(3) Fallopian tube
(4) Both (1) and (2)

51) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

A Areolar tissue 1 Fat cells

B Adipose tissue 2 Osteocytes

 C Ligaments 3 Loose connective tissue

D Bone 4 Dense regular connective tissue

(1) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
(2) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
(3) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
(4) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3

52) Ciliated epithelial cells are known to occur in :-

(1) Eustachian tube and stomach

(2) Fallopian tube and bronchioles
(3) Fallopian tube and urethra
(4) Trachea and oesophagus.

53) The lining of blood vessels, Air sacs of lungs contain ______ :-

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium

54) The diagrams given below represent :-

(1) A-Ligament B-Tendon

(2) A-Tendon B-Ligament

(3) A-Bone B-Cartilage

(4) A-Cartilage B-Bone

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) Dry surface of skin is covered by which epithelium?

(1) Simple columnar epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Compound epithelium
(4) Simple squamous epithelium

56) Following diagram represent which type of connective tissue :

(1) Dense regular

(2) Dense irregular
(3) Areolar
(4) Adipose

57) How many statements are true in the following?

(i) Simple epithelium forms lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.
(ii) In epithelial tissue, cells are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix.
(iii) Simple epithelium provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(iv) Gap junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

58)

Mark correct statements ?

(A) Tight junction facilitate to communicate cells with each other.
(B) Columnar cells are found in lining of stomach
(C) Ciliated epithelium is present in inner surface of hollow organs like oviduct

(D) Compound epithelium has limited role in secretion

(1) A, C, D
(2) A, B
(3) A, D
(4) B, C, D

59) In cockroach A ganglia lie in thorax and B in the abdomen.

Choose the option that correctly fills the blanks A and B.

(1) A–Six, B–Three

(2) A–Two, B–Four
(3) A–Three, B–Six
(4) A–Four, B–Two

60) Choose the incorrect statement regarding the exocrine gland and their secretion :-
(1) Digestive enzymes are secretion of these glands
(2) These glands secretes their secretion through ducts or tubes.
(3) Milk, Saliva and Oil are secreted by exocrine glands.
(4) These glands secrete their secretion directly into the fluid bathing the gland.

61) Which tissue faces either a body fluid or the outside environment ?

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Muscular tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

62) Epithelial tissue can be derived from

(1) Ectoderm
(2) Mesoderm
(3) Endoderm
(4) All of these

63)

Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1 : Cartilage, bones and blood are speacialised connective tissues.

Statement 2 : Blood is a fluid connective tissue.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
(2) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect and statements 2 is correct.

64) In male cockroach sperms are stored in :-

(1) Collaterial glands

(2) Mushroom glands
(3) Genital chamber
(4) Seminal vesicle

65) Consider the following features

a. Vascularised
b. Cells have rapid Cell division
c. Little inter cellular matrix
d. Cells are loosely arranged
How many of the given statements are correct for epithelial tissue ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

66) Select the correct passage of sperm in male frog-

(1) Testis → Vas efferentia → Ureter → Rectum → Cloaca

(2) Testes → Vas efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct
(3) Testis → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Ureter → Cloaca
(4) Testes → Vas efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca

67)
Identify the correct labeling A, B, C, D with respect to male cockroach :-

A = Caudal style; B = Titilator;

(1)
C = Phalic gland; D = Mushroom gland
A = Anal style; B = Pseudopenis;
(2)
C = Phalic gland; D = Seminal vesicles
A = Anal style; B = Pseudopenis;
(3)
C = Phalic gland; D = Mushroom gland
A = Caudal style; B = Titilator;
(4)
C = Phalic gland; D = Ejaculatory duct

68) Loose connective tissue is found in :-

(1) Tendon and Ligament

(2) Beneath the skin
(3) Blood
(4) Cartilage and bone

69) It serves as a support framework for epithelium. It contains fibroblast, macrophages and mast
cells. It is known as.

(1) Dense regular tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense irregular tissue
(4) Areolar tissue

70)

Which of the following statement is Incorrect with reference to frog :-

(I) Eyes are bulged and not covered by nictitating membrane.
(II) Membranous tympanum receives the sound signals.
(III) The frog never drinks water.

(IV) pair of nostrils is present above to mouth.

(1) I and II
(2) III and IV
(3) I and IV
(4) Only I

71) What will be the correct sequences of the flow of deoxygenated blood in the heart of frog ?

(1) Vena cava → sinus venosus → Left auricle → ventricle

(2) Vena cava → conus arteriosus → right auricle → ventricle
(3) Vena cava → sinus venosus → Right auricle → ventricle
(4) Vena cava → Right auricle → Sinus venosus → ventricle

72) Male frog can be distinguished from female frog by :

(1) Anal style

(2) Truncus arteriosus
(3) Amplexusory pad and vocal sacs
(4) Teeth on lower jaw

73) How many digits are found in forelimbs and hind limbs of frog respectively :-

(1) 5,5
(2) 5,4
(3) 4,4
(4) 4,5

74) In frog Sinus venosus occurs on :-

(1) Dorsal side of heart

(2) Ventral side of heart
(3) Basal region of heart
(4) Apical end of heart

75) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect one

(1) In male frog cloaca is used to pass faecal matter, urine and sperm to outside
(2) there is no functional connection in ovaries and kidneys in female frog
(3) A mature female frog can lay 2500 to 3000 eggs at a time
(4) In frog fertilization is external and development is direct through the larval stage called tadpole

76) Ootheca is formed in Cockroach by–

(1) Phallic gland

(2) Ejaculatory duct
(3) Collateral gland
(4) Utricular gland

77) Frogs have the ability to change their skin colour to hide from enemies. This protective
coloration is called________.

(1) Hibernation
(2) Mimicry
(3) Aestivation
(4) Echolocation

78) In the mouth parts of a cockroach, the labium forms __(i)__ while ___(ii)__ acts as a tongue.

(1) (i) - upper lip ; (ii) - maxilla

(2) (i) - upper lip ; (ii) - hypopharynx
(3) (i) - lower lip ; (ii) - maxilla
(4) (i) - lower lip ; (ii) - hypopharynx

79) See the diagram carefully and select the correct match :

(1) (A) Anterior Aorta Help in excretion

(2) (B) Alary muscles Help in blood circulation
(3) (C) Alary muscles Help in excretion
(4) (B) Pulsatile Ampulla Help in blood formation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Which of the following is not a part of male reproductive system in cockroach ?

(1) Ejaculatory duct

(2) Spermatheca
(3) Conglobate gland
(4) Mushroom gland

81) Identify the correct matching pair for cockroach?

(1) Crop – helps in grinding of food
(2) Gizzard – used for storage of food
(3) Hepatic caeca – at junction of Midgut and Hindgut
(4) Malpighian tubules – help in removed of excretory products from heamolymph

82) Find out correct statements about Cockroach :-

(A) Anal cerci is present in both male and female
(B) Excretory organ are nephridia
(C) Nocturnal, Omnivorous animal
(D) 3-pair wings & 2-pair legs

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C
(3) C, D
(4) B, C, D

83) Read the following statements (A-C) which are related to cockroach and find out the true (T) and
false (F) statements :-
(A) Cockroaches are pests because they destroy food and contaminate it with their smelly excreta.
(B) In the head region, the brain is represented by sub-oesophageal ganglia.
(C) A ring of 6-8 pair of hepatic caecae is present at the junction of midgut and hindgut.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) T T F

(2) T F T

(3) F T T

(4) T F F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Consider the statements regarding the blood vascular system of Periplaneta and select the
correct statements :-
(A) Blood vascular system is open type
(B) Blood vessels are well developed
(C) Haemolymph is composed of coloured plasma and hematocytes
(D) Heart is 13-chambered

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

85) The genital pouch of female cockroach is formed by :-

(1) 6, 7, 8th tergum
(2) 6, 7, 8th sternum
(3) 7, 8, 9th tergum
(4) 7, 8, 9th sternum

86) What is the function of antenna in cockroach?

(1) Temperature
(2) Touch
(3) Monitoring the environment
(4) All of them

87) Which of the following is a wrongly matched pair?

(1) Unicellular - Goblet cell

(2) Saliva - Exocrine secretion
(3) Hormones - Endocrine secretion
(4) Cartilage - Areolar tissue

88) Alimentary canal is short in frog due to ?

(1) Carnivorous nature

(2) Omnivorous nature
(3) Herbivorous nature
(4) Frugivorous nature

89) Identify the epithelium given below and the concerned location :-

(1) Cuboidal epithelium Ducts of glands

Inner wall of
(2) Columnar epithelium
stomach

Inner wall of
(3) Squamous epithelium
blood vessels

Collecting duct
(4) Squamous epithelium
of nephron
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Which statement is incorrect about the forewings of cockroach ?

(1) Originated from mesothorax
(2) Also know as tegmina
(3) Leathery and covers the hind wings
(4) Helpful in flying
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 3 1 1 4 2 1 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 1 1 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 4 4 3 1 1 1 4 2 2 1 4 4 2 3 3 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 1 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 1 4 1 4 2 4 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 2 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 3 4 2 4 1 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 1 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 1 2 1 4 3 2 3 4 1 2 1 3 4 2 1 4 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 4 4 4 1 3 4 2 3 1 1 4 3 4 4 1 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 3 3 1 2 4 2 4 4 1 2 1 4 3 2 4 4 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 2 4 2 4 1 2 4 4 3 3 4 1 4 3 2 4 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 4 2 4 4 4 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) In non-uniform electric field. Intensity is more, where the lines are more denser.

2) a = 3
b=2

3)

Option (3) :

4)

Option (1) : –3, 5

5)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

6) Shift the curve (–4e–x) in positive y-direction by 3 units.

Only option 4 satisfy the (0, –1).

7)

Option (2) : 2

8) No. of lines ∝ q

9)

Eshell = 0 (r < R)
10)

Option (2) :

11)

Option (2) : 12 cm from + 9e

12) y = –3x2 + 12 x + 2

⇒ –6x = – 12 ⇒ x = 2

→ Maxima
2
y = –3x + 12 x + 2
At x = 2 ⇒ ymax = –3(2)2 + 12(2)+ 2
= –12 + 24 + 2 = 14

13) ⇒ A = 5B

14) y = x3 – 4x – 1

Slope ⇒ = 3x2 – 4
At x = 2 ⇒ slope = 3(2)2 – 4
= 12 – 4 = 8

15)

Option (2) :

16)

Option (3) : 2x cot x2

17)

Option (1) : 5

18) 1. Explanation: The problem involves finding the value of y2, where y - 2 equals the sum
of an infinite-geometric series.
2. Concept: The sum of an infinite geometric series can be calculated using the formula

where a is the first term, and r is the common ratio.

3. Formula: For the sum of an infinite geometric series:
 4. Calculation:

A. Series sum.

A. Solve for y:

A. Find y2:

19) Explanation:
In this question we have to find differentiation of a given equation
Concept:
It is based on the concept of formula of differentiation when we have to determine
differentiation of constant
Formula: y = constant

calculation
=constant

=zero

20)

Option (4) : 3x + 2y – 5 = 0

21)

No electric field line exist in conductor and electric field lines originate or terminate
perpendicularly on surface of conductor.

22)

a is positive, b is negative

23) Sinθ = ⇒ θ = 30°

(cosθ + 2cotθ) = [cos30° + 2cot30°]

=
24)

Option (4) : 0

25)

Option (3) : 1.005

26)

Option (1) : 5

27) at x = 0 y = 1 + cosθ = 2

at x = y=1+0=1
at x = π y = 1 – 1 = 0

28)

Option (1) : Increase

29)

Option (4) :

30)

31)

Option (2) : –18(3 – 2x)8

32)

(a) increases as r increases, for r < R

(c) decreases as r increases, for R < r <

33)

Option (4) : mA < mB < mC

34)

Option (4) : i → b , ii → d, iii → c, iv → a

35)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks for the shape of the graph showing how the electric
field (E) varies with position (x) along the axis of a uniformly charged ring. Specifically, it
wants the correct E-x graph where the electric field is plotted as a function of distance from
the center of the ring.

Underlying Concept: The problem uses the concept of the electric field created by a
continuous charge distribution-in this case, a uniformly charged ring. The electric field at a
point on the axis of the ring arises from the vector sum of contributions from all charges on
the ring. Symmetry considerations lead to an expression for the electric field which depends
on the distance from the center, showing characteristic behavior such as zero field at the
center and maximum values at specific positions along the axis.

Relevant Formulas: The electric field on the axis of a uniformly charged ring is given by:
\[ E(x) = \frac{k Q x}{(R^2 + x^2)^{3/2}} \]
where: - is the electric field at distance from the center on the axis, - is Coulomb's
constant, - is the total charge on the ring, - is the radius of the ring, - is the variable
position along the axis.

Step-by-Step Calculation: To find the maximum field:

Differentiate with respect to and set to zero:
\[ \frac{d}{dx} \left( \frac{k Q x}{(R^2 + x^2)^{3/2}} \right) = 0 \]
Solving this yields the position of the maximum field:
\[ x = \frac{R}{\sqrt{2}} \]
At this point, reaches its peak value. Similarly, at , the field is minimum
(maximum in negative direction).

Tips and Tricks: Recognize that the function is an odd function, so the graph should be
symmetric about the origin with positive values on the positive side and negative on the
negative side. This helps eliminate graphs that are not symmetric or do not pass through zero
at the center.

Common Mistakes: 1. Assuming the field is maximum at the center (instead of zero). 2.
Forgetting the negative sign for negative . 3. Ignoring the effect of the denominator
increasing faster than the numerator, which leads to a peak instead of continuous increase. 4.
Misinterpreting the graph as even instead of odd.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Graphs that do not pass through zero at are
incorrect because the field must be zero at the ring's center. Also, graphs that do not have
symmetric positive and negative peaks around zero are inconsistent with the behavior of an
odd function described by the formula. Any graph that shows the field monotonically
increasing or only positive values without negative symmetry fails to match the physical
expression for .
36) Each corner contributes in enclosed charge. So net closed
charge is

37)

Option (3) : 2g downward

38)

1. Explanation :-
An infinite series of charges, each 1 nC, is placed at positions x = 1, 2, 4, 8, ....A1 C charge is
placed at the origin. Find the net force on it.
2. Concept :-
The net force is the sum of forces from all charges using coulomb's law, considering the
geometric series for distances.
3. Formula :-

Sum of ∞ G.P =
4. Calculation
So, the net force will be the sum of all such force.

Fnet = 9 × 109 × 10–9

This is indeed a geometric where the first term is 1 and the common ratio is 1/4. the sum of
this infinite geometric series is :

Thus, the total force is :

Fnet = 9 × 109 × 10–9 × = 12 N

So the correct final result is 12N, which matches the second option
The net force acting on the 1 C charge is 12 N
The correct answer is 2 ) 12N

39)

Option (2) : 10 NAe

 40)

Option (2) :

41) Explanation :- the problem asks to find the derivative of the velocity function v = 3t2 + 7
with respect to time t at t = 1 second.
Concept :- differentiation
formula :- The derivative of v = 3t2 + 7 with respect to t is:

Using the power rule for differentiation, where

calculation :- Differentiating the given equation v = 3t2 + 7

Now, substitute t = 1 into the derivative:

Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3 : 6

42)

Option (2) : y = 5sinx

43)

Option (1) :

44)

Option (4) : All

45)

CHEMISTRY
46)

Factual theory based.

47)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the correct order of electron affinity (EA)
values among the elements nitrogen (N), beryllium (Be), and neon (Ne). We need to determine
which element has the highest and which has the lowest ability to gain an electron.

Underlying Concept: Electron affinity is the energy change that occurs when an atom in the
gas phase gains an electron. Generally, electron affinity increases across a period in the
periodic table from left to right. However, certain elements like beryllium and nitrogen have
unique electronic configurations (filled or half-filled subshells) that affect their electron
affinities differently, making them exceptions to the general trend.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that half-filled and fully filled subshells are particularly stable,
causing their electron affinities to be lower or even positive (endothermic) compared to nearby
elements.

Common Mistakes: Assuming electron affinity always just increases from left to right without
exceptions, which leads to guessing Ne has higher EA than N or Be.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options suggesting Be or Ne have higher EA than N
ignore the stability from half-filled or filled subshells which makes EA values of Be and Ne very
low or negligible. Since Ne is a noble gas, it barely gains electrons, and Be's filled 2s orbital
makes it resistant to adding electrons.

48) BeO - amphoteric

Rest is basic
BeO > MgO > CaO > BaO (Acidic character)

49)

4th period
subshells ⇒ 4s 3d 4p
no. of orbital = 9
9 × 3 = 27 elements

50) Highest rate of increment in successive IE is between IE3 and IE4 hence, M has three
valence e– and its possible oxidation state is +3.

51) Valency of W = 3, Valency of X = 2

52) N-atom is larger in size than O-atom-

53) Polarity of bond ∝ ΔEN

54) XI NCERT Page No. 95

55)

Be > Mg > Ca > Sr I.P.

Na < Al < Mg < Si

56)

NCERT -XI, pg # 81, 82

They are placed from 4th period to 7th period in modern periodic table and rest all statements
are correct.

57)
IE2 = 250 – 100 = 150 eV

58)

NCERT Page no. 84

Noble gases considered to be inert gas due to low reactivity.

59)

ΔHeg [0 < S]
Hence overall process will be exothermic

1P + 41 kJ /mol
S → S– ΔHeg – 200 kJ/mol

60)

(i)

(ii)

(iii)
 (iv)

61) (1) (2) (3) are ex. σ ΔHeg. So energy ↓ stability↑

(4) is endo ΔHeg. So energy ↑ stability↓

62)

Asking for:

A. Identification of the incorrect match between electronic configuration and period/group.

Concept: Electronic configuration

Explanation:

A. Analyze each option:

A. 1. [Ar] 3d5 4s1 → 4th period, 6th group

■ Highest n = 4, so 4th period.

■ 3d5 4s1 has 6 valence electrons (5d + 1s).

■ 5d + 1s corresponds to Group 6 (Chromium group).

■ This option is correct.

A. 2. [Kr] 4d10 → 5th period, 12th group

■ Highest n = 5, so 5th period.

■ 4d10 is a filled d-orbital.

0
■ (d10 + 5s ) corresponds to Group 10 (Nickel group).

■ This option is incorrect.

A. 3. [Rn] 6d2 7s2 → 7th period, 3rd group

■ Highest n = 7, so 7th period.

■ Total electrons = 86+2+2 = 90 which is Thorium (f-block)

■ This option is correct.

A. 4. [Xe] 4f14 5d2 6s2 → 6th period, 4th group

■ Highest n = 6, so 6th period.

■ 2d + 2s corresponds to Group 4 (Titanium group).

A. ■This option is correct.

Answer : Option : (2)

63) Ionic character = 16 ΔEN + 3.5 (ΔEN)2

= 16 × (1.5) + 3.5(1.5)2
= 24 + 3.5 (2.25)
= 24 + 7.875
= 31.875
% covalent character = 100 – Ionic character
= 100 – 31.875 = 68.125%

64) EN of element is the tendency of bonded atom to attract an electron.

65)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given electron attachment processes
(adding an electron to nitrogen, neon, or beryllium atoms or ions) is endothermic, meaning it
requires energy input to occur.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves electron affinity and ion formation. Adding
an electron to an atom or negative ion can either release energy (exothermic) or require
energy (endothermic). Elements with stable electron configurations resist adding electrons,
making the process endothermic. Negative ions further repel additional electrons, increasing
the energy needed.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that half-filled or fully filled subshells are stable electron
configurations, so adding an electron to such atoms usually requires energy. Also, adding an
electron to a negatively charged ion is generally harder due to electron-electron repulsion.

Common Mistakes: Assuming that adding an electron to any atom or ion is always
exothermic. Overlooking the stability of the electron configuration can lead to wrong answers.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choosing a specific process instead of 'All' ignores that
each reaction individually requires energy input due to electronic stability or repulsion. For
example, adding an electron to neon's negative ion is not exothermic because of increased
repulsion.

66)

C2H6 + —→ 2CO2 + 3H2O

1 mL of C2H6 required —→

200 mL of C2H6 required —→

= 700 mL of O2
 Volume of air required = 700 × 5
= 3500 mL
= 3.5 L

67)

C H

1 : 4 = CH4

68)

3.011 × 1022 molecules of H2SO4

69)
W = mole × MW

=7g

70)

A + 2B → C
8 12 (L.R.)
2 mole of B → 1 mole of C

1 mole of B → mole of C

12 mole of B → = 6 mole of C

71)

MW = 2 × V.D.
= 2 × 5.6
= 11.2

Volume at S.T.P. = mole × 22.4

= 3.2 × 2

= 6.4 L

72)
 = 9750

73) ....(1)

....(2)
equation (1) = equation (2)

MW = 16 = CH4

74)
no. of molecules = mole × NA
= 4 NA

75) NCERT Pg # 25

moles of HCl - = 0.1

moles of CaCO3 = mol

wt. of CaCO3 = × 100 = 5g

76)

2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2

3O2 + 4Al → 2Al2O3

∴ From 1 mole KClO3 mole O2 produced

from mole O2 1 mole Al2O3 formed.

77)

PV = n R T

78) 29g of H2SO4 present in 100g of solution

79)

Moles of NaOH = 2 × moles of H2SO4

0.5 × 2 = 2 ×

mass of 70% pure H2SO4 sample

80)

CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2

100 g 22.4 L

∴ Volume of CO2 =

81) % C = = 80%

82) CO2(g) + C(g) → 2CO

1 cc CO2 given = 2 cc CO
20 cc CO2 given = 40 cc CO

83) ⇒ C3.25H16N3.25
= C1H5N
= CH3NH2

84)

No. of atoms of oxygen =

= 8 × NA × 10–3
48 × 1020

85)

No. of O - atom =
for Ca3(PO4)2
 for H3PO4

86) Fact.

87) NCERT Pg. # 28

88)

89)

Actual mass of a molecule of CH4

is
& % carbon is CH4 is 75%

90) 1, 2 & 4 all belong to d-block.

BIOLOGY

91)

Forming face

92)

All cells arise from pre-existing cells

93)

SER – Glycoprotein and glycolipid synthesis

94)

Perpendicular

95)

Ca–Pectate
96)

Animal cell

97)

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

98)

Schwann and Schleiden

99)

Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect

100)

Autolysis of cell

101)

Bacteria cell

102)

a-p, b-s, c-r, d-q, e-t

103)

pH 5 .

104)

Ribosome

105)

RER, SER

106)

Inner membrane is relatively less permeable

107)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99

108) NCERT XI, Pg # 137

109)

20 – 40 .

110)

Robert Brown, 1831

111)

Inner membrane of mitochondria

112) NCERT Pg # 133

113) NCERT XI - Page No. 132 - 8.5.2.

114)

Cell wall .

115)

Nonpolar and hydrophobic

116)

Tonoplast

117)

Ribosomes

118)

Mitochondria

119)

RNA + Protein
 120)

The Golgi body (also known as the Golgi apparatus) is primarily concerned with secretion.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages proteins and lipids for secretion or delivery
to other parts of the cell. It plays a key role in the synthesis of materials that are then exported
out of the cell or used within different organelles.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Secretion.

121)

Solution:
Given this information, let's deduce the positions of P, Q and R:
• P could refer to the inner membrane (Since it is listed before the matrix and cristae).
• Q could refer to the Matrix, which is the space inside the inner membrane.
• R could refer to the Cristae, which are the folds of the inner membrane.

Hence,
Correct option: (1) 1

122) Analysis of the Composition of the Human RBC Membrane:

The human red blood cell (RBC) membrane is primarily composed of proteins and lipids, with
their approximate percentages being:

A. Proteins: About 52% of the RBC membrane is composed of proteins, which include transport
proteins, enzymes, and structural proteins.
B. Lipids: Around 40% of the RBC membrane is composed of lipids, mainly phospholipids and
cholesterol.

Correct Answer:
1. 52%, 40%

123)

(A)–(iv), (B)–(iii), (C)–(i), (D)–(ii)

124)

The correct answer is: 3. ER, lysosomes, Golgi body, and vacuoles.
Explanation: The endomembrane system in a eukaryotic cell includes structures involved in
the synthesis, modification, transport, and degradation of cellular materials. It consists of the
following components:
1. Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) - For protein and lipid synthesis.
2. Golgi Apparatus (Golgi body) - For modification, sorting, and packaging of proteins and
lipids.
3. Lysosomes - For degradation of macromolecules and cellular waste. 4. Vacuoles (in plant
cells and some protists) - For storage and maintaining cell homeostasis.

125)

A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

126)

Both Assertion and Reason are false.

127)

9+2 .

128)

Ribosome

129)

Mitochondria

130) Option (2)

131) Synthesis and storage of lipid

132) Option (3)

133) Option (3)

134)

Option (3)

135) Peptidoglycan

136)

Adipose tissue

137)

NCERT XIth Pg.#102

138)

NCERT XIth Pg.#103

139)
 Mucopolysaccharides

140) Both (1) and (2)

141)

Pg. No. 103, 104_XI NCERT

142) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

143) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

144) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 104, Fig- 7.6 (a, b)

145) NCERT Pg.#102

146) Question Explanation: Following Diagramme represent which type of connective tissue
?
Concept : Connective tissue.
Solution : Diagramme Represents Dense Irregular type of connective tissue. It has fibroblast
and many fibres (mostly collagen) that are oriented differently, This tissue is present in skn.
Final Answer : option (2). Dense irregular

147) Question Explanation: True statement about epitnelial tissue ?

Concept : Epithelial tissue
Solution : Let's analyse each statement
(i) Simple epithelium forms lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes. – true
(ii) In epithelial tissue, cells are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix. – False, because
cells are tishtty pocked.
(iii) Simple epithelium provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses. – false
because. It is function fo compound epithelium.
(iv) Gap junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together. – false, because
cementing is tunetion of Adhering junction.
Final Answer : option (4). One

148)

(B) Columnar cells are found in lining of stomach

(C) Ciliated epithelium is present in inner surface of hollow organs like oviduct

(D) Compound epithelium has limited role in secretion

149) A–Three, B–Six

150)
These glands secrete their secretion directly into the fluid bathing the gland.

151) NCERT XI Page # 101

152)

All of these

153) Module

154) NCERT-Pg. # 114

155) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

156) Ref. NCERT # 11th , Page # 119 & Allen's module(P-157)

157) NCERT XI, [Link]. 115

158) Explain Question :

Loose connective tissue found beneath the skin.

159)

Areolar tissue

160) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 116

161)

NCERT - 2023 -24 . Pg. 82

162) NCERT (E) Pg. # 116

163)

Option (4)

164)

Dorsal side of heart

165)

In frog fertilization is external and development is direct through the larval stage called
tadpole

166) Collateral gland

167) NCERT Pg No. # 80

168)

(i) - lower lip ; (ii) - hypopharynx

169)

NCERT-XI, Pg. #113, Fig. 7.17

170) NCERT Pg # 114 para 7.4.2

171)

Malpighian tubules – help in removed of excretory products from heamolymph

172)

Option (2)

173) NCERT-XI, Pg # 112-115

174) NCERT Pg # 113 para 7.4.2

175)

7, 8, 9th sternum

176) NCERT Pg.#112

177)

Cartilage - Areolar tissue

178) NCERT Pg No. # 81

179) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 101

180)

Helpful in flying