21-01-2026

1001CJM210126MRG JM

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) If the domain of the function f(x) = cos–1 + sin–1(2x2 – 3x + 1) is the interval [α, β], then
α + 2β is equal to :

(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 2

2) The area of the region, inside the ellipse x2 + 4y2=4 and outside the region bounded by the curves
y = |x| – 1 and y = 1 – |x|, is :

(A) 2(π – 1)

(B)

(C) 3(π – 1)
(D) 2π – 1

3) The number of relations, defined on the set {a, b, c, d}, which are both reflexive and symmetric, is
equal to:

(A) 256
(B) 16
(C) 1024
(D) 64

4) Let a point A lie between the parallel lines L1 and L2 such that its distances from L1 and L2 are 6
and 3 units, respectively. Then the area (in sq. units) of the equilateral triangle ABC, where the
points B and C lie on the lines L1 and L2 respectively, is :

(A)
(B) 27
(C)
(D)

5) Let and be a vector such that . If = 4, then

is equal to :
(A) 33
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 27

6) Let a1, a2, a3,….. be a G.P. of increasing positive terms such that a2.a3.a4 = 64 and a1 + a3 + a5 =

.
Then a3 + a5 + a7 is equal to :

(A) 3256
(B) 3252
(C) 3244
(D) 3248

7) Let and be vectors such that and = . If λ1, λ2(λ1

2 2 2
> λ2) are the possible values of , then the equation K x +(K –5K+λ1)xy +

–8x+12y+λ2= 0 represents a circle, for K equal to :

(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) –1
(D) 2

8) Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the differential equation (1+ x2)dy + (y – tan–1x)dx = 0, y(0) =
1. Then the value of y(1) is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

9) The number of strictly increasing functions f from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} to the set (1, 2, 3,…,9)
such that f(i) ≠ i for 1 < i < 6 is equal to

(A) 21
(B) 27
(C) 22
(D) 28

10) Let f : R → (0, ∞) be a twice differentiable function such that f(3) = 18, f'(3) = 0 and f "(3) = 4.
Then is equal to :

(A) 1
(B) 9
(C) 2
(D) 18

11) Let the foci of hyperbola coincide with the foci of the ellipse = 1. If the eccentricity of
the hyperbola is 5, then the length of its latus rectum is:

(A) 12
(B) 16

(C)

(D)

12) The value of dx is equal to

(A) 2π
(B) 4π
(C) 8π
(D) 6π

13) Let the mean and variance of 7 observations 2, 4, 10, x, 12, 14, y, x > y, be 8 and 16 respectively.
Two numbers are chosen from
{1, 2, 3, x–4, y, 5} one after another without replacement, then the probability, that the smaller
number among the two chosen numbers is less than 4, is:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

14) Let (α, β, γ) be the co-ordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (5, 4, 2) on
the line
Then the length of the projection of the vector on the vector is :

(A)
(B) 4

(C)

(D) 3

15) Let PQ and MN be two straight lines touching the circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 3 = 0 at the points A
and B respectively. Let O be the centre of the circle and ∠AOB = π/3. Then the locus of the point of
intersection of the lines PQ and MN is :

(A) 3(x2 + y2) – 18x – 12y + 25 = 0

(B) x2 + y2 – 12x – 18y – 25 = 0
(C) x2 + y2 – 18x – 12y – 25 = 0
(D) 3(x2 + y2) – 12x – 18y – 25 = 0

16) If the coefficient of x in the expansion of (ax2 + bx + c)(1 – 2x)26 is – 56 and the coefficients of x²
and x³ are both zero, then a + b + c is equal to

(A) 1300
(B) 1500
(C) 1403
(D) 1483

17) If x2 + x + 1 = 0, then the value of

is :

(A) 128
(B) 162
(C) 175
(D) 145

18) The value of cosec10° sec10° is equal to:

(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 8
(D) 6

19) The sum of all the roots of the equation (x–1)2 – 5 |x – 1| + 6 = 0, is:

(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 5

20) Let O be the vertex of the parabola x2 = 4y and Q be any point on it. Let the locus of the point P,
which divides the line segment OQ internally in the ratio 2: 3 be the conic C. Then the equation of
the chord of C, which is bisected at the point (1, 2), is:

(A) 5x–y–3=0
(B) 4x–5y+ 6 = 0
(C) x–2y + 3 = 0
(D) 5x–4y+3=0

SECTION-II

1) Let f : R→R be a twice differentiable function such that the quadratic equation f(x)m2 – 2f '(x)m +
f''(x)=0 in m, has two equal roots for every x∈R. If f(0)=1, f '(0) = 2 and (α, β) is the largest interval
in which the function f(loge x – x) is increasing, then α + β is equal to

2) Let a1 = 1and for n > 1, a n + 1

= Then is equal to ______.

3) Let S={(m, n): m, n ∈ {1, 2, 3, ....., 50}}. If the number of elements (m, n) in S such that 6m + 9n is
a multiple of 5 is p and the number of elements (m, n) in S such that m + n is a square of a prime
number is q, then p + q is equal to……..

4) For some α, β ∈ R, let A = and B = be such that A2 – 4A + 2I = B2 – 3B + I =

O.
Then (det(adj(A3 – B3)))2 is equal to ………

5) is equal to……..

PART-2 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) Potential energy (V) versus distance (x) is given by the graph, Rank various regions as per the
magnitudes of the force (F) acting on a particle from high to low.

(A) FBC > FCD > FDE > FAB

(B) FCD > FAB > FBC > FDE
(C) FCD > FDE > FAB > FBC
(D) FBC > FAB > FDE > FCD

2) A gas based geyser heats water flowing at the rate of 5.0 litres per minute from 27°C to 87°C.
The rate of consumption of the gas is ____ g/s.
(Take heat of combustion of gas = 5.0 × 104 J/g specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg. °C)

(A) 2.1
(B) 4.2
(C) 0.42
(D) 0.21

3) A conducting circular loop of area 1.0 m2 is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field which varies
as B = sin(100 t) Tesla. If the resistance of the loop is 100 Ω , then the average thermal energy
dissipated in the loop in one period is ______J.

(A)

(B) 2π
(C) π
(D) π2

4) Water flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. The difference in height between
the water columns in vertical tubes is 5 cm and the area of cross-sections at A and B are 6 cm2 and 3
cm2 respectively.

The rate of flow will be_____cm3/s. (take g = 10 m/s2)

(A)

(B)
(C)
(D)

5) In an experiment the values of two spring constants were measured as k1 = (10 ± 0.2) N/m and k2
= ( 20 ± 0.3) N/m. If these springs are connected in parallel, then the percentage error in equivalent
spring constant is :

(A) 2.67%
(B) 2.33%
(C) 1.33%
(D) 1.67%

6) A 4 kg mass moves under the influence of a force N where t is the time in second.
If mass starts from origin at t = 0, the velocity and position after t = 2s will be :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7) Consider a modified Bernoulli equation.

= constant
If t has the dimension of time then the dimensions of A and B are _____, _____respectively.

0 0
(A) [ML T–1] and [M LT]
0 0
(B) [ML T–1] and [M LT–1]
0 0
(C) [ML T–2] and [M LT–2]
0 0
(D) [ML T–2] and [M LT–1]

8) A current carrying solenoid is placed vertically and a particle of mass m with charge Q is released
from rest. The particle moves along the axis of solenoid. If g is acceleration due to gravity then the
acceleration (a) of the charged particle will satisfy :

(A) a = g
(B) a > g
(C) a = 0
(D) 0 < a < g

9) A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance C, when there is vacuum within the parallel plates.

A sheet having thickness of the separation between the plates and relative permittivity K is
introduced between the plates. The new capacitance of the system is :
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

10) The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by :

Ey = 69 sin[0.6 × 103x – 1.8 × 1011t] V/m.
The expression for magnetic field associated with this electromagnetic wave is_____T.

–7 3 11
(A) Bz = 2.3 × 10 sin[0.6 × 10 x – 1.8 × 10 t]
–7 3 11
(B) Bz = 2.3 × 10 sin[0.6 × 10 x + 1.8 × 10 t]
3 11
(C) By = 69 sin[0.6 × 10 x + 1.8 × 10 t]
–7 3 11
(D) By = 2.3 × 10 sin[0.6 × 10 x – 1.8 × 10 t]

11) In a double slit experiment the distance between the slits is 0.1 cm and the screen is placed at
50 cm from the slits plane. When one slit is covered with a transparent sheet having thickness t and
refractive index n(= 1.5), the central fringe shifts by 0.2 cm. The value of t is ____ cm.

(A) 8 × 10–4
(B) 6.0 × 10–3
(C) 5.6 × 10–4
(D) 5.0 × 10–3

12) A light wave described by E = 60sin(3 × 1015)t + sin(12 × 1015)t] (in SI units) falls on a metal
surface of work function 2.8 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron is
(approximately) _________ eV. (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s. and e = 1.6 × 10–19C)

(A) 5.1
(B) 3.8
(C) 6.0
(D) 7.8

13) If an alpha particle with energy 7.7 MeV is bombarded on a thin gold foil, the closest distance
from nucleus it can reach is ________ m.

(Atomic number of gold = 79 and = 9 × 109 in SI units)

(A) 2.95 × 10–14

(B) 2.95 × 10–16
(C) 3.85 × 10–16
(D) 3.85 × 10–14
14) A uniform rod of mass m and length l suspended by means of two identical inextensible light
strings as shown in figure. Tension in one string immediately after the other string is cut, is _______.

(g acceleration due to gravity)

(A) mg/2
(B) mg/4
(C) mg/3
(D) mg

15) An aluminium and steel rods having same lengths and cross-sections are joined to make total
length of 120 cm at 30°C. The coefficient of linear expansion of aluminium and steel are 24 × 10–6/°C
and 1.2 × 10–5/°C, respectively. The length of this composite rod when its temperature is raised to
100°C, is _____ cm.

(A) 120.20
(B) 120.15
(C) 120.03
(D) 120.06

16) A 1 m long metal rod AB completes the circuit as shown in figure. The area of circuit is
perpendicular to the magnetic field of 0.10 T. If the resistance of the total circuit is 2Ω then the force
needed to move the rod towards right with constant speed (v) of 1.5 m/s is ________ N.

(A) 7.5 × 10–2

(B) 5.7 × 10–3
(C) 5.7 × 10–2
(D) 7.5 × 10–3

17) The given circuit works as :

(A) AND gate

(B) NOR gate
(C) NAND gate
(D) OR gate

18) Two strings (A, B) having linear densities μA = 2 × 10–4 kg/m and μB = 4 × 10–4 kg/m and lengths
LA = 2.5 m and LB = 1.5 m respectively are joined. Free ends of A and B are tied to two rigid
supports C and D, respectively creating a tension of 500 N in the wire. Two identical pulses, sent
from C and D ends, take time t1 and t2, respectively, to reach the joint. The ratio t1/t2 is :

(A) 1.08
(B) 1.90
(C) 1.67
(D) 1.18

19) Initially a satellite of 100 kg is in a circular orbit of radius 1.5RE. This satellite can be moved to a
circular orbit of radius 3RE by supplying α × 106J of energy. The value of α is ___________.
(Take Radius of Earth RE = 6 × 106 m and g = 10 m/s2)

(A) 150
(B) 500
(C) 100
(D) 1000

20) A point charge of 10–8 C is placed at origin. The work done in moving a point charge 2 μC from
point A(4, 4, 2) m to B(2, 2, 1) m is __________J.

( = 9 × 109 in SI units)

(A) 45 × 10–6
(B) 0
(C) 30 × 10–6
(D) 15 × 10–6

SECTION-II

1) A collimated beam of light of diameter 2 mm is propagating along x-axis. The beam is required to
be expanded in a collimated beam of diameter 14 mm using a system of two convex lenses. If first
lens has focal length 40 mm, then the focal length of second lens is ______________ mm.

2) The heat generated in 1 minute between points A and B in the given circuit, when a battery of 9V

with internal resistance of 1 Ω is connected across these points is _________ J.

3) Two identical thin rods of mass M kg and length L m are connected as shown in figure. Moment of
inertia of the combined rod system about an axis passing through point P and perpendicular to the
plane of the rods is ML2 kg m2. The value of x is __________.

4) 10 mole of oxygen is heated at constant volume from 30°C to 40°C. The change in the internal
energy of the gas is _______ cal. (The molecular specific heat of oxygen at constant pressure, Cp = 7
cal./mol °C and R = 2 cal./mol °C.)

5) In a microscope the objective is having focal length f0 = 2 cm and eye-piece is having focal length
fe = 4 cm. The tube length is 32 cm. The magnification produced by this microscope for normal
adjustment is ___________.

PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) Consider the following reactions.

PbCl2 + K2CrO4 → A + 2KCl
(Hot solution)
A + NaOH ⇌ B + Na2CrO4
PbSO4 + 4CH3COONH4 → (NH4)2SO4 + X
In the above reactions, A, B and X are respectively.

(A) Na2[Pb(OH)2],PbCrO4 and (NH4)2[Pb(CH3COO)4]

(B) PbCrO4, Na2[Pb(OH)4] and [Pb(NH3)4]SO4
(C) Na2[Pb(OH)2], PbCrO4 and [Pb(NH3)4]SO4
(D) PbCrO4, Na2[Pb(OH)4] and (NH4)2[Pb(CH3COO)4]

2) Which of the following represents the correct trend for the mentioned property ?
A. F > P > S > B – Frist Ionization Energy
B. Cl > F > S > P – Electron Affinity
C. K > Al > Mg > B – Metallic character
D. K2O > Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 – Basic character
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(A) A, B and D only

(B) A, B, C and D
(C) A and B only
(D) B and C only
3) Identify A in the following reaction.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4) A hydrocarbon ‘P’ (C4H8) on reaction with HCl gives an optically active compound ‘Q’ (C4H9Cl)
which on reaction with one mole of ammonia gives compound ‘R’ (C4H11N). ‘R’ on diazotization
followed by hydrolysis gives ‘S’. Identify P, Q, R and S.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The number of pairs among [SiO2, CO2], [SnO, SnO2], [PbO, PbO2] and [GeO, GeO2],
which contain oxides that are both amphoteric is 2.
Statement II : BF3 is an electron deficient molecule can act as a lewis acid, forms adduct with NH3
and has a trigonal planar geometry.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false Statement II is true.

6) 80 mL of a hydrocarbon on mixing with 264 mL of oxygen in a closed U-tube undergoes complete

combustion. The residual gases after cooling to 273 K occupy 224 mL. When the system is treated
with KOH solution, the volume decreases to 64 mL. The formula of the hydrocarbon is :

(A) C2H4
(B) C4H10
(C) C2H2
(D) C2H6

7) 14.0 g of calcium metal is allowed to react with excess HCl at 1.0 atm pressure and 273 K.
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
[Given : Molar mass in g mol–1 of Ca–40, Cl–35.5,H–1]

(A) 0.35 mol of H2 gas is evolved.

(B) 7.84 L of H2 gas is evolved.
(C) 33.3 of CaCl2 is produced.
(D) The limiting reagent is calcium metal.

8) In Carius method, 0.75 g of an organic compound gave 1.2 g of barium sulphate, find percentage
of sulphur (molar mass 32 g mol–1). Molar mass of barium sulphate is 233 g mol–1.

(A) 4.55%
(B) 10.30%
(C) 21.97%
(D) 16.48%

9) Elements P and Q form two types of non-volatile, non-ionizable compounds PQ and PQ2. When 1 g
of PQ is dissolved in 50 g of solvent ‘A’. ΔTb was 1.176 K while when 1 g of PQ2 is dissolved in 50 g of
solvent ‘A’, ΔTb was 0.689 K. (Kb of ‘A’ = 5 K kg mol–1). The molar masses of elements P and Q (in g
mol–1) respectively, are :

(A) 70, 110

(B) 65, 145
(C) 60, 25
(D) 25, 60

10) An organic compound (P) on treatment with aqueous ammonia under hot condition forms
compound (Q) which on heating with Br2 and KOH forms compound (R) having molecular formula
C9H7N. Names of P, Q and R respectively are.

(A) Benzoic acid, benzamide, aniline

(B) Toluic acid, methylbenzamide, 2-methylaniline
(C) Benzoic acid,4-methylbenzamide,4-methylaniline.
(D) Phenylethanoic acid, phenylethanamide, benzamine

11) An organic compound “P” of molecular formula C6H12O3 gives positive lodoform test but negative
Tollen’s test. When “P” is treated with dilute acid, it produces “Q”. “Q” gives positive Tollen’s test
and also iodoform test. The structure of “P” is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

12) From the following, the least stable structure is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

13) , in acidic medium, disproportionates to :

(A) Mn2O7 and MnO2

(B) and MnO
(C) and MnO2
(D) Mn2O7 and MnO
14) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The number of species among SF4, , [NiCl4], XeF4, [PtC14]2–, SeF4 and [Ni(CN)4]2–,
that have tetrahedral geometry is 3.
Statement II: In the set [NO2, BeH2, BF3, AIC13], all the molecules have incomplete octet around
central atom. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:

(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

15) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Among [Cu(NH3)2+, [Ni(en)3)]2+, [Ni(NH3)6]2+ and [Mn(H2O)6]2+, [Mn(H2O)6]2+, has the
maximum number of unpaired electrons.
Statement II: The number of pairs among {[NiCl4]2–, [Ni(CO)4]}, {[NiCl4]2–, [Ni(CN)4]2– and
{[Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2–} that contain only diamagnetic species is two.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

16) Identify correct statement from the following :

A. Propanal and propanone are functional isomers.
B. Ethoxyethane and methoxypropane are metamers.
C. But-2-ene shows optical isomerism.
D. But-1-ene and but-2-ene are functional isomers.
E. Pentane and 2, 2-dimethyl propane are chain isomers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) B, C and D only

(B) A, B and C only
(C) A, B and E only
(D) C, D and E only

17) Identify the correct statements.

A. Arginine and Tryptophan are essential amino acids.
B. Histidine does not contain heterocyclic ring in its structure.
C. Proline is a six membered cyclic ring amino acid.
D. Glycine does not have chiral centre.
E. Cysteine has characteristic feature of side chain as MeS-CH2-CH2-.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Option

(A) C and E Only

(B) B and E Only
(C) C and D Only
(D) A and D Only

18) Which of the following graphs between pressure ‘P’ versus volume ‘V’ represent the maximum
work done ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19) For the reaction, N2O4 2NO2, graph is plotted as shown below. Identify correct statements.
A. Standard free energy change for the reaction is –5.40 kJ mol–1.
B. As ΔG⊖ in graph is positive, N2O4 will not dissociate into NO2 at all.
C. Reverse reaction will go to completion.
D. When 1 mole of N2O4 changes into equilibrium mixture, value of Δ = –0.84 kJ mol–1
E. When 2 mole of NO2, changes into equilibrium mixture, for equilibrium mixture is –6.24 kJ
mol–1. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
:

(A) D and E only

(B) C and E only
(C) A and D only
(D) B and C only

20) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: When an electric discharge is passed through gaseous hydrogen, the hydrogen
molecules dissociate and the energetically excited hydrogen atoms produce electromagnetic
radiation of discrete frequencies.
Statement II: The frequency of second line of Balmer series obtained from He+ is equal to that of
first line of Lyman series obtained from hydrogen atom.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

SECTION-II

1) Pre-exponential factors of two different reactions of same order are identical. Let activation
energy of first reaction exceeds the activation energy of second reaction by 20 kJ mol–1. If k1 and k2

are the rate constants of first and second reaction respectively at 300 K, then In will be
……... (nearest integer) [R=8.3 J K–1 mol–1]

2) The pH and conductance of a weak acid (HX) was found to be 5 and 4 × 10–5 S, respectively. The
conductance was measured under standard condition using a cell where the electrode plates having
a surface area of 1 cm2 were at a distance of 15 cm apart. The value of the limiting molar
conductivity is ……….. S m2 mol–1. (nearest integer)
(Given: degree of dissociation of the weak acid (a) << 1)

3) Use the following data :

Substance
 AB(g) 32 222

A2(g) 6 146

B2(g) X 280
One mole each of A2(g) and B2(g) are taken in a 1L closed flask and allowed to establish the
equilibrium at 500K.
A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 2AB(g)
The value of x (in kJ mol–1) is ……….. (Nearest integer)
(Given: log K=2.2 R=8.3 JK–1 mol–1)

4) Consider the following reaction sequence

The percentage of nitrogen in product ‘T’ formed is ________%. (Nearest integer)

(Given molar mass in g mol–1 H:1, C:12, N:14, O:16)

5) Consider the following reactions:

NaCl+K2Cr2O7+H2SO4→A+KHSO4+NaHSO4+H2O
A + NaOH → B + NaCl + H2O
B + H2SO4 + H2O2 → C + Na2SO4 + H2O
In the product 'C', 'X' is the number of units, 'Y' is the total number oxygen atoms present
and 'Z' is the oxidation state of Cr. The value of X + Y + Z is ______ .
 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. B A D C D B B A D C C B B C D C D A A D

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 1 2 1333 225 17

PART-2 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. D C C C D B B A A A A A A B B D C D D C

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 280 1080 17 500 100

PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. D A C C A C C C D A B C C C D C D B A A

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 8 6 70 20 13
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

1) f(x) = cos–1 + sin–1 (2x2 – 3x + 1)

–1 ≤ ≤1
2
–1 ≤ 2x – 3x + 1 ≤ 1
2x2 – 3x + 2 ≥ 0, 2x2 – 3x ≤ 0

x∈xÎ .....(i)

+1≥0 –1≤0

≥0 ≤0

≥0

x∈ ∪

x∈ ∪ [6, ∞)
intersection

x∈ ∪ [6, ∞) ...(ii)

Intersection of (i) & (ii) x ∈

α = 0, β = ⇒ a + 2β = 3

2)
Required area = area of ellipse – shaded area
=π×2×1–4 = 2π – 2

3) Number of relation which are reply and sym. both = 14 × 26 = 64

(a, a) (a, b) (a, c) (a, d)
(b, a) (b, b) (b, c) (b, d)
(c, a) (c, b) (c, c) (c, d)
(d, a) (d, b) (d, c) (d, d)

4)

sin θ =

sin (60º + θ) =

cos θ + sin θ =

+ =
a=

Area of ΔABC = a2 = × 84 = 21

5) =
=
=
= ⇒ (2c3 – 2c2) + (c3 + 2c1)
– (c2 + 2c1) =
2c3 – 2c2 = 8, c3 + 2c1 = 7, c2 + 2c1 = 3
(c1 + c2 + c3 ) . =4
⇒ c1 + c2 + c3 = 4, c1 = 2, c2 = –1, c3 = 3
= = 27

6) ar . ar2 . ar3 = 64
a3r6 = 64 ⇒ ar2 = 4

a + ar2 + ar4 =
r2 = 28
ar2 + ar4 + ar6 = ?
ar2 (1 + r2 + r4) = 4 (1 + 28 + 784) = 3252
7) =
=λ(
λ=±1
λ(–14 + 6 + 12) = 4λ , λ1 = 4, λ2 = –4
k2x2 + (k2 – 5k + 4) xy + (3k – 2) y2 – 8x + 12y – 4
=0
is circle
k2 – 5k + 4 = 0 ⇒ k = 1, 4
k2 = 3k – 2 ⇒ k = 1, 2
k=1

8)
I.f. =

y× =
y× = tan-1x ( )– +c
y (0) = 1 ⇒ c = 2

y(1) =

9) f(i) ≠ i, f(x) is strictly increasing function

f : A → B, where A {1,2,3…….6}
B {1,2,3,……9}, then number of function
f : A → B is equal to

f(i) ≠ i Case – i f(1) = 2 ⇒ 7C5 = 21

Case- ii f(1) = 3 ⇒ 6C5 = 6
Case- iii f(1) = 4 ⇒ 5C5 = 1
No of function A to B = 21 + 6 + 1 = 28

10) Let T = ; 1∞ form

⇒T=

⇒T=

⇒T= apply L’ pital

⇒T= apply L’ pital

⇒T= ;= = e2
⇒ loge (T) = 2

11) Let e1 be eccentricity of ellipse

⇒ e1 =

So ae1 = 6.

Now H :
p.e = ae1
p. 5 = 2

So length of LR

12) let x + = t dx = dt

13) Mean (Given)

⇒ x + y = 14 ….(1)….
Variance (σ2) = 16 (Given)

⇒ x2 + y2 = 100 …..(2)…..
∵ (x + y)2 = x2 + y2 + 2xy
⇒ xy = 48 (sum is 14 product is 48)
Since problem states x > y
∴ x = 8 and y = 6
Now set X = {1,2,3,4,6,5}
Now we choose two numbers one after author without replacement total outcomes = 6 × 5 =
30
We want the prob. That the smaller number among the two is less than 4
P(smaller < 4) = 1 – P (smaller ≥ 4)

14)

Any general point P on the line is

(2λ – 1, 3λ + 3, –λ + 1)
Let the given point is A (5,4,2)

Line (L)

∴
2(2λ – 6) + 3(3λ – 1) – 1(-λ – 1) = 0
⇒λ=1
∴ α=1
β=6
γ=0
Let the vector

&

So projection = =

15) Given circle

x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 3 = 0
C(2,3) & r = 4

cos 30° =

⇒ OR =
Now
OR2 = (h – 2)2 + (k – 3)2
⇒ 3(x2 + y2) – 12x – 18y – 25 = 0

16) (ax2 + bc + c)
0
Coeff. of x2 : a.26C0 (– 2) + b.26C1(–2) +
c.26C2(–2)2=0
⇒ a – 52b + 1300c = 0 … (1)
Coeff. of x3 : a.26C1 (– 2) + b.26C2(–2)2 +
c.26C3(–2)3=0
⇒ – 52 a + 1300 b – 20800 c = 0 … (2)
Coeff. of x = – 56
0
⇒ b.26C0 (– 2) + c.26C1(–2)1 = – 56
b – 52c = – 56 … (3)
After solving (1), (2) & (3)
a = 1300, b = 100, c = 3
⇒ a + b + c = 1403

17) x2 + x + 1 = 0
⇒ x = ω or ω2
∴ α = ω & β = ω2
= (ω + ω2)4 + (ω2 + ω4)4 + (ω3 + ω6)4 +…+
(ω25 + ω50)4
= [(ω + ω2)4 + (ω2 + ω4)4 + (ω4 + ω8)4 +….+
(ω25 + ω50)4] + [(ω3 + ω6)4 + (ω6 + ω12)4 +
(ω9 + ω18)4+ … + (ω24 + ω48)4]

= +
= 17 + 128
= 145

18) =

=4

=4
=4

19)

Let |x –1| = t
t2 – 5t + 6 = 0

t=2&t=3

|x – 1| = 2 & |x – 1| = 3

x–1±2&x–1=±3

x=1±2&x=1±3

∴ root = 3, –1, 4, –2
∴ Sum of root = 3 + (–1) + 4 + (–2) = 4.

20) h =

k=
8k = 5h2
⇒ 5x2 = 8y
T = S1
5(xx1) – 4 (y + y1) = 5x12 – 8y1
5(x) – 4(y + 2) = 5 – 8.2
5x – 4y + 3 = 0

21) Given quadratic equation has equal roots, thus

D = 0 ⇒ (f′(x))2 = f′′(x) · f(x)

Integrate
ℓn (f(x)) = ℓn (f'(x)) + ℓnC ⇒ f(x) = c.f'(x)
Put = x = 0

1 = c.2 ⇒ c =
Now 2f(x) = f’(x)

⇒ =2
Integrate
ℓn (f(x)) = 2x + d
⇒d=0
⇒ ℓn (f(x)) = 2x ⇒ f(x) = e2x
Now let g(x) = f(ℓn x – x) = e2(ℓnx – x)
∴ g’(x) = 2

⇒
⇒ x ∈ (0,1]
⇒ a = 0, β = 1
α + β = 1.

22) an+1 – an = =

⇒ =

n = 1, a2 – a1 = –

22

2n–2

2n–1
Adding

an+1 = ⇒ an =

⇒ ⇒ =2

23) S = {1, 2, 3,….50}

p = (6m + 9n) is divisible by 5
No. of ways
6m = (5λ + 1)m = 5k + 1
9n = (10 – 1)n = 10µ – 1 if n is odd
⇒ n must be odd
10µ + 1 if n is even
⇒ No. of ways = 50 × 25 = 1250
q ⇒ (m + n) is square of a prime

q = 3 + 8 + 24 + 48 = 83
= p + q = 1250 + 83 = 1333

24) Tr (A) = 4 ⇒ a + 2 = 4 ⇒ a = 2
 Tr (B) = 3 ⇒ b + 1 = 3 ⇒ b = 2
A2 – 4A + 2I = O
A3 = 4A2 – 2A = 16A – 8I – 2A
14A – 8I

= +

= A3 =
B2 – 3B + I = O
B2 = 3B – I
⇒ B3 = 3B2 – B = 3(3B – I) – B = 8B – 3I

B3 = =

A3 – B3 = =

⇒ = 105 – 120 = – 15

⇒ = –15

⇒ = 225

25) dx

dx

I=
Put cosx = t, –sinx dx = dt

I=

I=
I = 17

PART-2 : PHYSICS

26) Slope of potential energy v/s position curve gives negative of force.
∴ FBC > FAB > FDE > FCD
27) Water flow rate = 5 ℓ/min = kg/s

∴ Power of heater
∴ Let rate of consumption of gas be x g/s.

∴
⇒ x = 4200 × 10–4 = 0.42 g/s

28) Area of the loop = 1 m2

B = sin(100 t)
∴ ϕ = BA = sin(100t)

∴
∴ Thermal energy dissipated in 1 time period

29) From continuity equation

AAVA = ABVB ⇒ 6VA = 3VB ⇒ VB = 2VA
Applying Bernoullis equation between A & B,

⇒ Volume flow rate = AAVA = cm3/sec

= 200 cm3/sec

30) For parallel combination of spring,

Keq = K1 + K2 = 30 N/m
ΔKeq = ΔK1 + ΔK2 = 0.2 + 0.3 = 0.5 N/m
∴ %Error in = 1.67%

31)

32) ⇒ [P] = .....(1)

⇒ [h] = [Bt] .....(2)

⇒ [B] =
Putting B is equation (1)

33) Since the solenoid is placed vertically, the magnetic field inside the solenoid will be either
along – y or +y axis.

⇒ Particle will gain velocity along –y axis.

⇒
⇒
⇒
⇒

34)

Ceq =

Ceq =

35)
⇒ because phase of electric field is function of x.
⇒
⇒

|B| = 2.9 × 10–7

= 2.9 × 10–7 sin(0.6 × 103 x – 1.8 × 1011t)
(phase is same as that of electric field)

36) dsinθ = (μ–1)t

t = 8 × 10–4 cm

37) ω1 = 3 × 1015 rad/sec

ω2 = 12 × 1015 rad/sec

∵
Ephoton = hν = 6.6 × 10–34 × 1.91 × 1015
= 1.26 × 10–18 J

Kmax = Emax – ϕ0
= 7.9 – 2.8
Kmax = 5.1 eV

38)

Energy conservation
Ki + Ui = Kf + Uf
7.7 × 106 × 1.6 × 10–19 + 0

=0+
r = 2.95 × 10–14

39)

…(1)
mg – T = mac
T = mg – mac
40) ℓfinal = ℓ0(1 + αA ΔT) + ℓ0(1 + αBΔT)

= 120.15 cm

41) To maintain constant speed

= 7.5 × 10–3 N

42)

⇒ NAND Gate

43) Given LA = 2.5 m,

LB = 1.5 m,
T = 500 N

= =

= =

∴ = = = 1.18

44) Energy of a satellite in a circular orbit is given as

 ; r = radius of circular orbit
Required energy to be supplied =

Now, ⇒

= 1000 × 106
α = 1000

45) Work done by external agent :

ΔU → Change in potential energy in taking the charge from initial to final configuration

Now, =3m

=6m

∴
= 3 × 10–5
= 30 × 10–6 J

46)

⇒ f = 280 mm

47)
 ∴
= (3)2 × 2 × 60 = 1080 J

48)

∴ x = 17

49)
=
= 10(7 – 2) (40 – 30)
ΔU = 500

50)

=
m = 100

PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

51) + K2CrO4 → + 2KCl

PbCrO4 + 4NaOH (excess)

→ + Na2CrO4
PbSO4 + 4CH3COONH4

→ + (NH4)2SO4
52) ⇒ On moving left to right in a period IE increases and from top to bottom in a group IE
decreases.
F > P > S > B (IE order)
⇒ On moving left to right in a period metallic and basic character decreases.
K > Mg > Al > B (Metallic character order)
⇒ On moving top to bottom in a group metallic and basic character increases.
K2O > Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
⇒ EA : Group 17 > Group 16 > Group 15
Cl > F > S > P

53)

54)

55) ⇒ SiO2 , CO2 , GeO , GeO2 are acidic in nature.

SnO, SnO2 , PbO , PbO2 are amphoteric in nature.
⇒ BF3 is lewis acid acoording to lewic octet theory and has sp2 hybridization with trigonal
planar geometry and it can accept lone pair from ammonia to form adduct.

56)
t=0 80 264 0 -

t=tfinal - 80x -
264 – 80x – 40 = 64
x=2

57)
= 0.35 mole 0.35 mole 0.35 mole
Volume of H2(g) evolved = 0.35 × 22.4 = 7.84 L
(3) is wrong because weight of CaCl2 = .35 × 111 = 38.85 gm

58)

= 21.97%

59) (ΔTb)PQ = Kbm

M1 = 85.03

= 0.689
M2 = 145.13
Let molar mass of P & Q are MP and MQ respectively
MP + MQ = 85.03
MP + 2MQ = 145.13
MP = 24.93 ≈ 25
MQ = 60.1 ≈ 60

60)

61)
62)
This resonating structure having +ve charge on adjacent atoms so it is least stable.

63)

64) Statement-I
SF4 (See-saw)
XeF4 (square planar),
[PtCl4]2– (square planar),
[NiCl4]2– (Tetrahedral),
[Ni(CN)4]2– (square planar),
SeF4 (See-saw)
(Tetrahedral)
Statement-II
NO2 (seven electrons on N)
BeH2 (four electrons on Be)
BF3 (six electrons on B)
AlCl3 (six electrons on Al)

65) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ ⇒ d9, dsp2 one unpaired electron

[Ni(en)3]2+ ⇒ d8, sp3d2 two unpaired electrons
[Ni(NH3)6]2+ ⇒ d8, sp3d2 two unpaired electrons
[Mn(H2O)6]2+ ⇒ d5, sp3d2 five unpaired electrons
[Ni(CO)4] (diamagnetic)
[NiCl4]–2 (paramagnetic)
[Ni(CN)4]–2 (diamagnetic)

66) are Functional isomer

CH3–CH=CH–CH3 & CH3–CH2–CH=CH2
Are Positional isomer
CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 & CH3–CH2–CH2–O–CH3
are Metamer
CH3–CH=CH–CH3 does not have optical isomer

Chain isomer

67) · Histidine does contain heterocyclic ring.

· Proline is a five membered cyclic ring amino acid.
· Cysteine has characteristic feature of side chain as CH2 –SMe
68) Ans. (2) or (4)
Area under the P v/s V curve, is equal to magnitude of work.
In option (2) work done is zero while in remaining options net work done is negative due to
expansion.
NTA has given the answer without considering the negative sign that is considered only
magnitude.

69)
(A) ΔrG° = G°B – G°A = +ve
(B) ΔrG° = +ve, N2O4 will partially dissociates into NO2.
(C) For reverse reaction
It is partially completed as there is equilibrium at E.
(D) For 1 mole N2O4; ΔrG° = – 0.84 kJ mol–1
(E) For 2 mole NO2 ; ΔG° = – 5.4 – 0.84
= – 6.24 kJ mol–1.

70)
For Ist line of lyman series in H-atom

for 2nd line of Balmer series of He+

As λ and λ’ is equal so frequency of these lines will be also equal.

71)

Assuming ‘A’ same for both reaction.

ln k1 = lnA –

ln k2 = lnA –

= 8.032
72) pH = 5
[H+] = 10–5 = [HX].α

K = G.G* = = 6× 10–4 [Link]–1

= 60000 S.cm2 mol-1

= 6 S.m2 mol-1

73) logK = 2.2

ΔH° = (2 × 32) – (6 + x) = (58 – x) kJ
ΔS° = (2 × 222) – (146 + 280) = 18 Joule
ΔG° = –RTlnK

ΔG° = –21.06
ΔH° – TΔS° = –21.06

x = 70.06 KJ/mol

74)
Mol. wt = 6 × 12 + (6 × 1) + (2 × 14) + (2 × 16)
= 138

75) A → CrO2Cl2
B → Na2CrO4
C → CrO5
X = 2 , Y = 5 and Z = 6