21-01-2026

1001CJM210126EVE JM

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) The positive integer n, for which the solutions of the equation x(x+2) + (x + 2)(x + 4) + ....+(x +

2n – 2)(x+2n) =
are two consecutive even integers, is :-

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 9

2) Let f : R → R be a twice differentiable function such that f"(x) > 0 for all x∈R and f ' (a – 1) = 0,

where a is real number. Let g(x) = f (tan2x – 2tan x + a), 0 < x < .
Consider the following two statements :

(I) g is increasing in

(II) g is decreasing in
Then,

(A) Neither (I) nor (II) is True

(B) Only (II) is True
(C) Only (I) is True
(D) Both (I) and (II) are True

3) Let f(x) = x3 + x2 (1) + 2x (2) + (3), x ∈ R. Then the value of (5) is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4) In the line αx + 4y = , where α ∈ R, touches the ellipse 3x2 + 4y2 = 1 at the point P in the first
quadrant, then one of the focal distances of P is :

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

5) Let y2 = 12x be the parabola with its vertex at O. Let P be a point on the parabola and A be a point
on the x-axis such that ∠OPA = 90°. Then the locus of the centroid of such triangles OPA is :

(A) y2 – 6x + 4 = 0
(B) y2 – 9x + 6 = 0
(C) y2 – 2x + 8 = 0
(D) y2 – 4x + 8 = 0

6) Let one end of a focal chord of the parabola y2 = 16x be (16, 16). If P(α, β) divides this focal chord
internally in the ratio 5 : 2, then the minimum value of α + β is equal to :

(A) 22
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 16

7) Let the line L pass through the point (–3, 5, 2) and make equal angles with the positive coordinate

axes. If the distance of L from the point (–2, r, 1) is , then the sum of all possible values of r is :

(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 6
(D) 10

8) Let the line L1 be parallel to the vector and pass through the point (2, 6, 7) and the
line L2 be parallel to the vector and pass through the point (4, 3, 5). If the line L3 is parallel
to the vector and intersects the lines L1 and L2 at the points C and D, respectively,

then is equal to :

(A) 171
(B) 290
(C) 312
(D) 89

9) Let α and β be the roots of equation x2 + 2ax + (3a + 10) = 0 such that α < 1 < β. Then the set of
all possible values of a is :
(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

10) A random variable X takes values 0, 1, 2, 3 with probabilities ,b

respectively, where a, b ∈ R. Let μ and σ respectively be the mean and standard deviation of X such

that σ2 + μ2 = 2. Then is equal to :

(A) 30
(B) 3
(C) 60
(D) 12

11) If the area of the region {(x, y) : 1 – 2x≤y≤4–x2, x≥0,y≥0} is , α, β, ∈ N, gcd (α, β) = 1, then
the value of (α + β) is :

(A) 73
(B) 85
(C) 91
(D) 67

12) Let a1, ,…., be a G.P. of common ratio . If a1 + a2 +…+ a10= 62, then a1 is equal to :

(A)

(B)
(C)
(D)

13) Let A = {x : |x2 –10| ≤ 6} and B = {x : |x–2| > 1}.

Then

(A) A∪B = (–∞, 1] ∪ (2, ∞)

(B) A – B = [2, 3)
(C) A ∩ B = [–4, –2] ∪ [3, 4]
(D) B – A = (–∞, –4) ∪ (–2, 1) ∪ (4, ∞)

14) For the matrices and , if , then among the

following which one is true?
(A) x = 5, y = 7
(B) x = 18, y = 11
(C) x = 11, y = 2
(D) x = 16, y = 3

15) For a triangle ABC, let and . If and cosθ

= , where θ is the angle between
and , then is equal to:

(A) 340
(B) 220
(C) 410
(D) 200

16) Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation secx –2y = 2 + 3sinx, x∈ , y(0)

= – . Then is equal to:

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

17) Let A = {2, 3, 5, 7, 9}. Let R be the relation on A defined by x Ry if and only if 2x ≤ 3y. Let ℓ be
the number of elements in R, and m be the minimum number of elements required to be added in R
to make it a symmetric relation. Then ℓ + m is equal to:

(A) 23
(B) 25
(C) 21
(D) 27

18) If the system of equations

3x + y + 4z = 3
2x + αy – z = –3
x + 2y + z = 4
has no solution, then the value of a is equal to:

(A) 19
(B) 4
(C) 13
(D) 23

19) Let z be the complex number satisfying and having maximum positive principal
argument.

Then is equal to:

(A) 16
(B) 12
(C) 26
(D) 20

20) The largest n∈N, for which 7n divides 101!, is :

(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 15
(D) 19

SECTION-II

1) Let [·] denote the greatest integer function and f(x) = . Then is equal
to _______.

2) If (1–2x + 4x2)dx = a tan–1(2) – bloge(5), where a, b∈N, then(2a + b) is equal to _______

3) Let the maximum value of (sin–1x)2 + (cos–1x)2 for x∈ be , where gcd (m, n) = 1.
Then m + n is equal to _______.

4) If

, then 30α is equal to _____.

5) If P is a point on the circle x2 + y2 = 4, Q is a point on the straight line 5x + y + 2 = 0 and x – y +

1 = 0 is the perpendicular bisector of PQ, then 13 times the sum of abscissa of all such point P is
_____.

PART-2 : PHYSICS
 SECTION-I

1) Consider two identical metallic spheres of radius R each having charge Q and mass m. Their
centers have an initial separation of 4R. Both the spheres are given an initial speed of u towards
each other. The minimum value of u, so that they can just touch each other is :

(Take and assume kQ2 > Gm2 where G is the Gravitational constant)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

2) The charge stored by the capacitor C in the given circuit in the steady state is ………. μC.

(A) 12.5
(B) 10
(C) 7.5
(D) 5

3) The total length of potentiometer wire AB is 50 cm in the arrangement as shown in figure. If P is

the point where the galvanometer shows zero reading then the length AP is ………. cm.

(A) 15
(B) 30
(C) 25
(D) 20
4) A capacitor C is first charged fully with potential difference of V0 and disconnected from the
battery. The charged capacitor is connected across an inductor having inductance L. In t s 25% of
the initial energy in the capacitor is transferred to the inductor. The value of t is_______s.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

5) The r.m.s speed of oxygen molecules at 47°C is equal to that of the hydrogen molecules kept
at______°C. (Mass of oxygen molecule/mass of hydrogen molecule=32/2)

(A) –235
(B) –100
(C) –253
(D) –20

6) Two cars A and B each of mass 103 kg are moving on parallel tracks separated by a distance of 10
m, in same direction with speeds 72 km/h and 36 km/h. The magnitude of angular momentum of car
A with respect to car B is ___ J.s.

(A) 3.6 × 105

(B) 105
(C) 3 × 105
(D) 2 × 105

7) The pulley shown in figure is made using a thin rim and two rods of length equal to diameter of
the rim. The rim and each rod have a mass of M. Two blocks of mass of M and m are attached to two
ends of a light string passing over the pulley, which is hinged to rotate freely in vertical plane about
its centre. The magnitudes of the acceleration experienced by the blocks is____ (assume no slipping

of string on pulley.)

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

8) The kinetic energy of a simple harmonic oscillator is oscillating with angular frequency of 176

rad/s. The frequency of this simple harmonic oscillator is_____Hz.

(A) 14
(B) 88
(C) 28
(D) 176

9) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In a Young’s double slit experiment, the angular separation of fringes will increase as
the screen is moved away from the plane of the slits
Statement II : In a Young’s double slit experiment, the angular separation of fringes will increase
when monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of higher wavelength
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(D) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

10) A battery with EMF E and internal resistance r is connected across a resistance R. The power
consumption in R will be maximum when :

(A) R = 2r

(B)

(C)
(D) R = r

11) Keeping the significant figures in view, the sum of the physical quantities 52.01m, 153.2 m and
0.123 m is :

(A) 205 m
(B) 205.333 m
(C) 205.33 m
(D) 205.3 m

12) A spherical body of radius r and density σ falls freely through a viscous liquid having density ρ
and viscosity η and attains a terminal velocity v0. Estimated maximum error in the quantity η is :
(Ignore errors associated with σ, ρ and g, gravitational acceleration)
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

13) Surface tension of two liquids (having same densities), T1 and T2 , are measured using capillary
rise method utilizing two tubes with inner radii of r1 and r2 where r1 > r2 . The measured liquid
heights in these tubes are h1 and h2 respectively. [Ignore the weight of the liquid about the lowest
point of miniscus]. The heights h1 and h2 and surface tensions T1 and T2 satisfy the relation :

(A) h1 < h2 and T1 = T2

(B) h1 = h2 and T1 = T2
(C) h1 > h2 and T1 = T2
(D) h1 > h2 and T1 < T2

14) A river of width 200 m is flowing from west to east with a speed of 18 km/h. A boat, moving with
speed of 36 km/h in still water, is made to travel one-round trip (bank to bank of the river). Minimum
time taken by the boat for this journey and also the displacement along the river bank are ______ and
_____ respectively.

(A) 20 s and 100 m

(B) 40 s and 0 m
(C) 40 s and 200 m
(D) 40 s and 100 m

15) Two known resistance of R Ω and 2R Ω and one unknown resistance X Ω are connected in a
circuit as shown in the figure. If the equivalent resistance between points A and B in the circuit is X

Ω, then the value of X is ________ Ω.

(A)

(B) R

(C)

(D)

16) The energy of an electron in an orbit of the Bohr’s atom is –0.04E0eV where E0 is the ground
state energy. If L is the angular momentum of the electron in this orbit and h is the Planck’s

constant, then is __________ :

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

17) An infinitely long straight wire carrying current I is bent in a planer shape as shown in the
diagram. The radius of the circular part is r. The magnetic field at the centre O of the circular loop is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

18) A large drum having radius R is spinning around its axis with angular velocity ω, as shown in
figure. The minimum value of ω so that a body of mass M remains stuck to the inner wall of the

drum, taking the coefficient of friction between the drum surface and mass M is μ, is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

19) A body of mass 2 kg is moving along x-direction such that its displacement as function of time is
given by x(t) = αt2 + βt + γm, where α = 1 m/s2, β = 1 m/s and γ = 1m. The work done on the body
during the time interval t = 2 s to t = 3 s, is ________ J.
(A) 49
(B) 42
(C) 24
(D) 12

20) As shown in the diagram, when the incident ray is parallel to base of the prism, the emergent ray

grazes along the second surface. If refractive index of the material of

prism is the angle θ of prism is.

(A) 60°
(B) 75°
(C) 90°
(D) 45°

SECTION-II

1) An electromagnetic wave of frequency 100 MHz propagates through a medium of conductivity, σ

= 10 mho/m. The ratio of maximum conducting current density to maximum displacement current
density is _________.

2) The terminal velocity of a metallic ball of radius 6 mm in a viscous fluid is 20 cm/s. The terminal
velocity of another ball of same material and having radius 3 mm in the same fluid will be ________
cm/s.

3) A particle having electric charge 3 × 10–19 C and mass 6 × 10–27 kg is accelerated by applying an
electric potential of 1.21 V. Wavelength of the matter wave associated with the particle is
α × 10–12 m. The value of α is _________.
(Take Planck’s constant = 6.6 × 10–34 J.s)

4) In a Young’s double slit experiment set up, the two slits are kept 0.4. mm apart and screen is
placed at 1 m from slits. If a thin transparent sheet of thickness 20 mm is introduced in front of one
of the slits then centre bring fringe shifts by 20 mm on the screen. The refractive index of

transparent sheet is given by where α is ________.

5) A diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) does 100 J of work when it is expanded isobarically. Then the heat given
to the gas __________ J.
 PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) Consider the following spectral lines for atomic hydrogen:

A. First line of Paschen series
B. Second line of Balmer series
C. Third line of Paschen series
D. Fourth line of Bracket sereis
The correct arrangement of the above lines in ascending order of energy is:

(A) D < C < A < B

(B) A < B < C < D
(C) C < D < B < A
(D) D < A < C < B

2) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
Pair of Compounds Type of Isomers

A. 2-Methylpropene and but-1-ene I. Stereoisomers

B. Cis-but-2-ene and trans-but-2-ene II. Position isomers

C. 2-Butanol and diethyl ether III. Chain isomers

D. But-1-ene and but-2-ene IV. Functional group isomers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(C) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

3)
Consider the above sequence of reactions. The number of bromine atom(s) in the final product (P)
will be:

(A) 1
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 3
4) Aqueous HCl reacts with MnO2(s) to form MnCl2(aq), Cl2(g) and H2O(l). What is the weight (in g) of
Cl2 liberated when 8.7 g of MnO2(s) is reacted with excess aqueous HCl solution ? (Given Molar mass
in g mol–1 Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1)

(A) 7.1
(B) 71
(C) 21.3
(D) 14.2

5) By usual analysis, 1.00g of compound (X) gave 1.79g of magnesium pyrophosphate. The
percentage of phosphorus in compound (X) is: (nearest integer)
(Given, molar mass in g mol–1: O = 16, Mg = 24, P = 31)

(A) 50
(B) 30
(C) 20
(D) 40

6) Consider the following data:

(methane, g) = –X kJ mol–1
Enthalpy of sublimation of graphite = Y kJ mol–1
Dissociation enthalpy of H2 = Z kJ mol–1
The bond enthalpy of C – H bond is given by:

(A)

(B)

(C) X + Y + Z

(D)

7) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I
List-II
Reagents
Reaction Name (Involving aldehydes)

A. H2, Pd-BaSO4 I. Etard Reaction

B. SnCl2, HCl II. Rosenmund Reduction

C. CrO2Cl2, CS2 III. Gatterman – Koch Reaction

D. CO,HCl, Anhyd. AlCl3 IV. Stephen Reaction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

8) Decomposition of A is a first order reaction at T(K) and is given by A(g) → B(g) + C(g). In a closed
1 L vessel, 1 bar A(g) is allowed to decompose at T(K). After 100 minutes, the total pressure was 1.5
bar. What is the rate constant (in min–1) of the reaction ? (log 2 = 0.3)

(A) 6.9 × 10–1

(B) 6.9 × 10–3
(C) 6.9 × 10–2
(D) 6.9 × 10–4

9) The correct order of reactivity of the following benzyl halides towards reaction with KCN is:

(A) a > b > c > d

(B) b > a > d > c
(C) b > a > c > d
(D) a > b > d > d

10) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: The correct order in terms of atomic/ionic radii is Al > Mg > Mg2+ > Al3+.
Statement-II: The correct order in terms of the magnitude of electron gain enthalpy is Cl > Br > S
> O.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(B) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

11) The correct statements are:

A. Activation energy for enzyme catalysed hydrolysis of sucrose is lower than that of acid catalysed
hydrolysis.
B. During denaturation, secondary and tertiary structures of a protein are destroyed but primary
structure remains intact.
C. Nucleotides are joined together by glycosidic linkage between C1 and C4 carbons of the pentose
sugar
D. Quaternary structure of proteins represents overall folding of the polypeptide chain.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A, C and D Only

(B) A, B and D Only
(C) A and B Only
(D) B and C Only

12) The correct order of the rate of the reaction for the following reaction with respect to
nucleophiles is:

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

13) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) of [Cr(H2O)6]2+ is greater than that of
[Mn(H2O)6]2+.
Statement II: Potassium ferricyanide has a greater spin-only magnetic moment than sodium
Ferrocyanide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

14) The correct increasing order of C – H(A),

C – O(B), C = O(C) and C ≡ N(D) bonds in terms of covalent bond length is:

(A) A < B < C < D

(B) A < D < C < B
(C) D < C < B < A
(D) D < C < A < B

15) Given below are four compounds:

(a) n-propyl choride
(b) iso-propyl chloride
(c) sec-butyl chloride
(d) neo-pentyl chloride
Percentage of carbon in the one which exhibits optical isomerism is:

(A) 52
(B) 56
(C) 46
(D) 40

16) Given below are some of the statements about Mn and Mn2O7. Identify the correct statements
A. Mn forms the oxide Mn2O7 in which Mn is in its highest oxidation state.
B. Oxygen stabilizes the Mn in higher oxidation states by forming multiple bonds with Mn
C. Mn2O7 is an ionic oxide.
D. The structure of Mn2O7 consists of one bridged oxygen.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) A, B, C and D
(B) A, B and D Only
(C) A, C and D Only
(D) A, B and C Only

17) For a closed circuit Daniell cell, which of the following plots is the accurate one at a given
temperature ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

18) Given below are two statements :

Statement – I : Compound (X), shown below, dissolves in NaHCO3 solution and has two
chiral carbon atoms

Statement – II : Compound (Y), shown below, has two carbons with sp3 hybridization, one carbon
with sp2 and one carbon with sp hybridization
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(B) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

19) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The correct order in terms of bond dissociation enthalpy is Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
Statement II : The correct trend in the covalent character of the metal halides is [SnCl4 > SnCl2],
[PbCl4 > PbCl2] and [UF4 > UF6]
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

20) On heating a mixture of common salt and K2Cr2O7 in equal amount along with concentrated
H2SO4 in a test tube, a gas is evolved. Formula of the gas evolved and oxidation state of the central
metal atom in the gas respectively are :

(A) CrO2Cl2 and +5

(B) CrO2Cl2 and +6
(C) Cr2O2Cl2 and +6
(D) Cr2O2Cl2 and +3

SECTION-II

1) The first and second ionization constants of H2X are 2.5 × 10–8 and 1.0 × 10–13 respectively. The
concentration of X2– in 0.1 M H2X solution is ______ × 10–15 M. (Nearest Integer)

2) The osmotic pressure of a living cell in 12 atm at 300 K. The strength of sodium chloride solution
that is isotonic with the living cell at this temperature is _______ g L–1. (Nearest integer) Given : R =
0.08 L atm K–1 mol–1
Assume complete dissociation of NaCl
(Given : Molar mass of Na and Cl are 23 and 35.5 g mol–1 respectively.)

3) A substance ‘X’ (1.5 g) dissolved in 150 g of a solvent ‘Y’ (molar mass = 300 g mol–1) led to an
elevation of the boiling point by 0.5 K. The relative lowering in the vapour pressure of the solvent ‘Y’
is _________ × 10–2. (Nearest integer)
[Given : Kb of the solvent = 5.0 K kg mol–1]
Assume the solution to be dilute and no association or dissociation of X takes place in solution.

4) Identify the metal ions among Co2+, Ni2+, Fe2+, V3+ and Ti2+ having a spin-only magnetic
moment value more than 3.0 BM. The sum of unpaired electrons present in the high spin octahedral
complexes formed by those metal ions is ________.

5) MX is a sparingly soluble salt that follows the given solubility equilibrium at 298 K
; Ksp = 10–10
If the standard reduction potential for

is , then the value of the standard reduction potential for the

metal/metal insoluble salt electrode is _________ mV. (nearest integer)

[Given: ]
 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. A A D D C B D B D C A A D C D A B A D A

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 2 9 65 32 2

PART-2 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. A B B B C B C A C D D B A C A C B D C A

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1800 5 10 14 350

PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. D B C A A A D B B B C D A B A B B C A B

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 100 15 3 7 200
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

1) x(x+2) + (x+2)(x+4) + ….+ (x+2n-2) (x+2n) =

∵ |α–β| = 2 ⇒D=4

⇒ n2 = 9
⇒n=3

2) g(x) = f((tanx – 1)2 + a –1)

g'(x) = f'((tanx – 1)2 + a –1).2(tanx–1)sec2x
∵ f'(a–1) = 0 and f" (x) > 0
∴ f'((tanx – 1)2 + a –1) > 0
g'(x) > 0 if (tanx –1) > 0

g is increasing in
g'(x) < 0 if tanx–1 < 0

g is decreasing in

3) f′(x) = 3x2 + 2xf′(1) + 2f′′(2)

f′′(x) = 6x + 2f′(1)
f′′(2) = 12 + 2f′(1)
∴ f′(x) = 3x2 + 2xf′(1) + 2(12 + 2f′(1))
f′(x) = 3x2 + 2(x + 2)f′(1) + 24
Putting, x = 1
f′(1) = 3 + 6f′(1) + 24

–5f′(1) = 27 ⇒ f′(1) =

∴ f′′(2) = 12 + 2 = 12 – =
∴

4) αx + 4y – touches 3x2 + 4y2 = 1

∴ c2 = a2m2 + b2

⇒ α = 3, –3
Tangent is 3x + 4y –
Let the point of contact is P(x1y1)
∴ Tangent is 3xx1 + 4yy1 = 1

∴ ∴P

e=

PS = e (PM)

=e

PS′ = e (PM′) =

5)

Equation of AP is

Put y = 0 ⇒ x = 12 + 3t2
⇒ A(12 + 3t2, 0)
Let centroid of Δ OPA be G(h, k)
⇒ 3h = 0 + 3t2 + 12 + 3t2
3k = 0 + 6t + 0

⇒ , h = 2t2 + 4

⇒
⇒ Locus of (h, k) is
y2 = 2x – 8

6) y2 = 16x

∵ parameter of point A is t = 2

⇒ Parameter of point B is
⇒ Coordinates of B is (1, –4)

Case 1 :

⇒α+β=7

Case 2 :

,
α + β = 22
So minimum value of α + β = 7

7) Equation line is :
∴ General point R on line is R(λ–3, λ+5, λ+2)

≡ (λ –1, λ+5–r, λ+1)

Now
⇒ (λ – 1)1 + (λ + 5 – r)1 + (λ + 1)1 = 0
 ⇒ 3λ – r + 5 = 0

Now

⇒
⇒ (r2 – 16r + 64) + (100 + 4r2 – 40r) + (r2 – 4r + 4) = 42
⇒ 6r2 – 60r + 126 = 0
⇒ r2 – 10r + 21 = 0
⇒ r = 3, 7
sum of possible value of r is = 10

8)
Point C on L1: (–3λ1 + 2, 2λ1 + 6, 4λ1 + 7)

Point D on L2: (2λ2 + 4, λ2 + 3, 3λ2 + 5)

Dr’s of line L3 :

λ1 = –3, λ2 = 2
C (11, 0, –5)
D (8, 5, 11)

= 290

9) ∵ α < 1 < β
f(1) < 0
⇒ 1 + 2a + (3a + 10) < 0
⇒ 5a + 11 < 0

10)

x 0 1 2 3
=

24 a + 270 b = 57
8a + 90b = 19 ….(1)
Also

14 a + 30 b = 29 …(2)
Solving (1) & (2)

a = 2, b= ,

11)

Required area =

⇒ α + β = 73

12)
∴ a1, a2, a3,.,a10 are in G.P. with common ratio .

⇒ a1 =

13) |x2 – 10| ≤ 6

– 6 ≤ x2 – 10 ≤ 6
4 ≤ x2 ≤ 16
A = [–4, –2] ∪ [2, 4]
|x – 2| > 1
B = ( – ∞, 1) ∪ (3, ∞)
A ∪ B = (–∞, 1) ∪ [2, ∞)
A ∩ B = [–4, –2] ∪ (3, 4]
A – B = [2, 3]
B – A = (–∞, – 4) ∪ (–2, 1) ∪ (4, ∞)

14) Here

Now

⇒
⇒ 2x – 11y = 0

15)

=
=
=4

=
= 200

16) – 2y cos x = 2 cos x + 3 sin [Link] x

I.F. = e–2sinx
⇒

∵ y(0) = – ⇒C=0

17) A = {2,3,5,7,9}

to make it symmetric elements to be added are

{(5,2), (7,2), (9,2), (5,3),(7,3),(9,3),(9,5)}

18) for no solution Δ = 0

=0
⇒ 3(a + 2) + 1(–1 –2) + 4(4 – α) = 0
⇒ 19 – α = 0 ⇒
& for α = 19

Δx = = 3(21) + 1(–1)+4(–82)
≠0
∴ no solution for α = 19
19)
|z – 5| ≤ 3
For arg(z) to be maximum, z lies at P.
z ≡ (4cos θ, 4 sin θ)

Now,

20) Exponent of 7 in 101!

= +……
= 14 + 2 = 16

21)

22) Let
 …(1)
Applying king

…(2)
From (1) & (2)

Applying King

By parts

Let 1 + 4x2 = t
8xdx = dt

⇒ 4I = 4tan–12 – ℓn5
∴ 2a + b = 8 + 1 = 9

23)
 where

Then max value occurs at sin–1x =

Which is
⇒ m = 29 and n = 36
∴ m + n = 65

24) =

= =

= ⇒α=
⇒ 30α = 32

25)
Mid point of PQ lies on x – y + 1 = 0

2cosθ + α – 2sinθ + 5α + 2 + 2 = 0
cosθ – sinθ + 3α + 2 = 0 …(1)
∵ Slope of PQ is –1

2 sinθ + 5α + 2 = –2cosθ + α
sinθ + cosθ + 2α + 1 = 0 …(2)
eliminate α from (1) and (2)
⇒ cosθ + 5 sinθ = 1 , θ ∈ [0, 2π]

∴ = 0 ⇒ cosθ = 1
or

= 5 ⇒ cosθ = –

Sum of all possible values of abscissa of point P is = 2 × 1 + 2 =

∴ 13 times sum of all possible values of abscissa of point P is 2.
PART-2 : PHYSICS

26) Using energy conservation

27) in steady state

i = 2.5/5 = 0.5 A
VC = 4 × 0.5
VC = 2V
charge
Q = CVC
=5×2
= 10 μC

28) ;
….(i)

= 30 cm

29)

Qicos ωt = ⇒t=

t=

30) Vrms =
 = –253°C

31) L = [Link] r⊥

=
= 105 kg m2/s

32)
Mg – T2 = Ma …(1)
T1 – mg = ma …(2)

…(3)
(1) + (2) + (3)

Here

33) ω = 176 rad/sec

= 4 × 7 = 28 Hz
So frequency of oscillator

= 14 Hz
34) Angular fringe width =

35) For maximum power drawn across load

Resistance RLoad = Rinternal

36) L = 52.01 +153.2 + 0.123

= 205.333
= 205.3

37)

38)

If r1 > r2 ⇒ h2 > h1

39)
Minimum time :

For round trip = 40 sec.

Displacement along river bank = 40 × 5 = 200 m

40)
x2 + 2Rx – 2R2 = 0

41) Angular momentum

Energy
n2 = 25, n = 5

42)

43)
N = mω2r , mg = μN
μ × mω2r = mg

44)

x(t) = t2 + t + 1
v(t) = 2t + 1
a(t) = 2
F = 4N.
Displacement = x(3) – x(2)
= 13 – 7 = 6M
W = F.S = 4 × 6 = 24 J

45)
For grazing emergence
By Snell's Law at incident surface

r1 = 30
r1 + r2 = A
A = 75
75 + 45 + θ = 180°
θ = 60°

46) A
jc = σE
E ⇒ E0 sin(ωt – kx)
jc = σE0 sin(ωt – kx)
⇒ (jc)max = σE0 ….(i)

⇒ ε0 × E0ωcos (ωt – kx)

(jd)max ⇒ ε0E0ω ….(ii)
(i)/(ii)

⇒ 1800

47) We know :
Terminal velocity ∝ (radius)2

= 5 cm/sec

48)

λ = 10–11 m = 10 × 10–12 m
α = 10

49)

(µ – 1) ⇒ 0.4
µ ⇒ 1.4

, α = 14
 50) w = 100 J = nRDT for isobaric process.

Q = nCpΔT =

= .(100) = 350 Joule.

PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

51) ΔE = 13.6 Z2
Series n1 n2
st
(A) Paschen (1 line) 3 4
nd
(B) Balmer (2 line) 2 4
rd
(C) Paschen (3 line) 3 6
th
(D) Bracket (4 line) 4 8
So correct ascending order of energy of above lines is :
D<A<C<B

52)
53)
Number of Br atom in major product (P) = 5

54) MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O

Excess
= 0.1 mole 0.1 mole
Wt. of Cl2 obtained = 0.1 × 71 = 7.1 g

55) % of P =

=
= 49.99% 50%.

56) C(s) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g)

–x = (ΔHsub of carbon) + 2 × (B.E. of H – H)
–4 × (B.E. of C – H)
–x = y + 2z – 4 (B.E. of C – H)

B.E. of C – H = .

57) NCERT Name reaction theory based

58) Ag → Bg + Cg
1 – –
1–P P P
Ptotal = 1 + P
1.5 = 1 + P
P = 0.5
=
= 6.9 × 10–3 min–1

59) This is SN1 reaction.

Rate of SN1 reaction ∝ stability of carbocation

60) Correct order of size is Mg > Al > Mg2+ > Al3+

Atomic size depends mainly upon Zeffective and shell number.
Generally on moving down the group electron affinity decreases and on moving across the
period electron affinity increase.
In the periodic table Cl has maximum electron affinity. Halogen has higher electron affinity
than Chalcogen.
Cl > Br > S > O

61) Activation energy for enzyme catalysed hydrolysis of sucrose is lower than that of acid
catalysed hydrolysis.
During denaturation secondary and tertiary structures of a protein are destroyed but primary
structure remains intact.

62) Stability order of anion

ClO4¯ > > Ph–O¯ > OH¯ and nucleophlicity order reverse of stability of anion

OH¯ > Ph–O¯ > > ClO4¯

63) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ ⇒ CFSE value is zero because of d5 configuraiton with WFL in coordination
number 6 [Cr(H2O)6]2+.
[Cr(H2O)6]2+ ⇒ CFSE value is –0.6D0 because of d4 configuraiton with WFL in coordination
number 6.
For : K3[Fe(CN)6] ,
For : Na4[Fe(CN)6] ,

64) C–H (A) 107 pm

C≡N (D) 116 pm
C–O (B) 143 pm
C=O (C) 121 pm

65) 2-Chlorobutane is optically active and chiral molecule

Molecular formula ⇒ C4H9Cl
Molar mass = 48 + 9 + 35.5 = 92.5
%OC = = 51.89%

66) Mn2O7 : Mn in +7 oxidation state.

67) remain constant with time.

68)
Two chiral centre and due to presence of –COOH compound dissolves in NaHCO3.

69) Statement-I :
Bond energy order is Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
Bond energy increases with increase in bond order.
Statement-II
Correct order of covalent character
According to the Fajan’s rule, higher the charge on cation , greater is the covalent character.
PbCl2 < PbCl4 ,
UF6 > UF4 ,
SnCl4 > SnCl2

70) 4NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + 6H2SO4

2KHSO4 + 2CrO2Cl2 + 4NaHSO4 + 3H2O
(Chromyl chloride)
In Chromyl chloride Cr is in +6 oxidation state.

71) H2X H+ + HX–,

0.1–x x +y x–y

2.5 × 10–8 =
HX– H+ + X2–,
x–y x +y y

1 × 10–13 =
Approximate : So x > > y.
x + y x, x – y x

10–13 =
y = 10–13
[X2–] = 10–13
[X2–] = 100 × 10–15

72) π = iCRT
12 = 2 × C × 0.08 × 300
12 = 2 × C × 24

C = mole/L
then strength of NaCl solution

= × 58.5 g/L
= 14.625 g/L
= 15 g/L

73) ΔTb = i × Kb × m
0.5 = i × m × 5

i×m= = 0.1

i×a=
(where a = moles of solute)
Now,

= i Xsolute = i ×

= = = 3 × 10–2 = 3

74) V3+ = (Ar)18 3d2

Ti2+ = (Ar)18 3d2
Ni2+ = (Ar)18 3d8
Fe2+ = (Ar)18 3d6
Co2+ = (Ar)18 3d7
Only for Fe2+ and Co2+ μ is more than 3.0 B.M.

∴ Number of unpaired electrons = 4 + 3 = 7

75)

= 0.79 + log 10–10

= 0.79 – 0.59
= 0.20 V = 200 mV