VIDHYADEEP INSTITUTE OF PHARMACY

VIDHYADEEP UNIVERSITY, ANITA, SURAT

B. PHARMACY

SEMESTER-VI

Academic Year: 2025-2026

Mid-II ASSIGNMENT
ALL SUBJECT
 VIDHYADEEP INSTITUTE OF PHARMACY
VIDHYADEEP UNIVERSITY, ANITA, SURAT

VISION:
College committed to Create Ethically, Technically Competent & Empowered Pharmacist for
Betterment of Health Care System.

MISSION:
• Mission 1: To create an environment that will produce competent pharmacist catering
to needs of the academia, research, regulators, industry and society
• Mission 2: To enhance creativity and innovation in pharmaceutical science through
advanced technical updates that propels the students towards professional excellence
• Mission 3: To inspire and sustain the students to be sensitive towards social needs and
contribute to the wellbeing of society.
• Mission 4: To strengthen the industry institution interaction to explore, substantiate and
integrate native medicinal knowledge with modern pharmaceutical technology.

FACULTY AND SUBJECT DETAILS

S. No. Subject Name and Code Name of the Subject Inchage
1 Medicinal Chemistry-III (BP601TP) Dr. Twinkle Rana
2 Pharmacology-III (BP602TP) Dr. Achla Vyas
3 Herbal Drug Technology (603TP) Ms. Nikita Thakar
4 Biopharmaceutics and Ms. Hardi R. Vasvaria
Pharmacokinetics (BP604TT)
5 Industrial Pharmacy-I (BP605TP) Ms. Mehul D. Luhar
 VIDHYADEEP INSTITUTE OF PHARMACY

ACADEMIC YEAR: 2025-2026

2ND MID THEORY ASSIGNMENT FOR SEM EXAMINATION

COURSE [Link]
CLASS 6TH semester
SUBJECT NAME & CODE Medicinal Chemistry III (BP601TP)

ASSIGNMENT: 2
[Link] CONTENT ANSWER

Unit-3 Urinary tract anti-infective agents

1 What is the primary mechanism of action of rifampicin, a first-line anti-tuberculosis A

agent?
(A) Inhibition of RNA synthesis
(B) Interference with DNA replication
(C) Inhibition of protein synthesis
(D) Disruption of cell membrane function
2 The first person who discovered Mycobacterium tuberculosis was B
(A) Louis Pasteur
(B) Robert Koch
(C) Edward Jenner
(D) None of the above
3 The drug which causes skin to pigmentation is C
(A) Capreomycin
(B) Rifampicin
(C) Clofazimine
(D) Dapsone
4 Select the drug indicated for extended drug resistance tuberculosis A
(A) Linezolid
(B) Moxifloxacin
(C)Vancomycin
(D) Azithromycin
5 Which of the following is an injectable antitubercular drug? C
(A) Ethionamide
(B) Pyrazinamide
(C)Kanamycin
(D) Ethambutol
6 The sporozoites are present in the part of female anopheles’ mosquitoes. C
(A) Brain
(B) face
(C) salivary gland
(D) none
7 Which of the following drugs is NOT commonly used as a urinary tract anti-infective? D
(A) Nitrofurantoin
(B) Fosfomycin
(C) Ciprofloxacin
(D) Paracetamol
8 Norfloxacin differs from nalidixic acid because it: C
A. Lacks fluorine

1
 B. Is inactive orally
C. Contains fluorine at C-6 position
D. Is not used in UTIs
9 Enoxacin belongs to which generation? B
A. First generation quinolone
B. Second generation (fluoroquinolone)
C. Third generation
D. Fourth generation
10 The mechanism of action of quinolones is: C
A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
C. Inhibition of DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV
D. Protein synthesis inhibition
11 Which quinolone is mainly restricted to urinary tract infections due to limited systemic A
activity?
A. Nalidixic acid
B. Enoxacin
C. Norfloxacin
D. Levofloxacin
12 The 3-carboxylic acid group in quinolones is important for: B
A. Protein binding
B. DNA gyrase inhibition
C. Lipid solubility
D. Reducing toxicity
13 The presence of fluorine at C-6 converts quinolones into: C
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Sulfonamides
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Cephalosporins
14 Modification at N-1 position of quinolones primarily affects: A
A. Spectrum of activity
B. Color of drug
C. Solubility only
D. Route of administration
15 The essential pharmacophore required for quinolone antibacterial activity is: B
A. Beta-lactam ring
B. 4-quinolone nucleus with 3-carboxylic acid
C. Macrolide ring
D. Sulfonamide group
16 Substitution of fluorine at position 6 of quinolones results in: C
A. Decreased potency
B. Increased gram-positive activity
C. Increased antibacterial potency and better tissue penetration
D. Loss of activity
17 Nitrofurantoin acts by: B
(A) Inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase
(B) Damaging bacterial DNA through reactive intermediates
(C) Inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis
(D) Blocking folic acid synthesis
18 Which urinary tract anti-infective agent is administered as a single-dose therapy? A
(A) Fosfomycin
(B) Nitrofurantoin
(C) Trimethoprim

2
 (D) Ciprofloxacin

19 Which of the following statements about nitrofurantoin is FALSE? C

(A) It is effective in treating lower urinary tract infections
(B) It achieves high concentrations in the kidneys
(C) It is effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(D) It is contraindicated in renal impairment
20 Acyclovir is primarily used for the treatment of infections caused by: B
(A) Hepatitis B virus
(B) Herpes simplex virus
(C) Influenza virus
(D) HIV
21 The antiviral mechanism of action of Remdesivir involves: A
(A) Inhibition of viral RNA polymerase
(B) Inhibition of neuraminidase
(C) Blocking viral entry
(D) Inhibiting protease enzymes
22 Acyclovir acts by: B
A. Inhibiting reverse transcriptase
B. Inhibiting viral DNA polymerase after phosphorylation
C. Inhibiting protease enzyme
D. Blocking viral attachment
23 Which drug is activated by viral thymidine kinase? C
A. Ribavirin
B. Zidovudine
C. Acyclovir
D. Saquinavir
24 Amantadine is primarily used against: C
A. HIV
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Influenza A virus
D. Cytomegalovirus
25 Rimantadine is structurally related to: B
A. Zidovudine
B. Amantadine
C. Acyclovir
D. Saquinavir
26 Idoxuridine is mainly used for: C
A. Oral herpes
B. HIV infection
C. Herpes keratitis (topical use)
D. Influenza
27 Ganciclovir is particularly effective against: B
A. HSV-1
B. CMV
C. Influenza
D. Hepatitis B
28 Zidovudine belongs to which class? C
A. Protease inhibitor
B. NNRTI
C. NRTI
D. Integrase inhibitor
29 Didanosine and Zalcitabine are classified as: C
A. Protease inhibitors
3
 B. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
C. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
D. Fusion inhibitors
30 Lamivudine is active against: B
A. Influenza only
B. HIV and Hepatitis B
C. Herpes only
D. CMV only
31 Loviride and Delavirdine belong to which class? C
A. Protease inhibitors
B. NRTIs
C. NNRTIs
D. Integrase inhibitors
32 Saquinavir, Indinavir, and Ritonavir are: C
A. NRTIs
B. NNRTIs
C. Protease inhibitors
D. Entry inhibitors
33 Ribavirin is considered: B
A. HIV protease inhibitor
B. Broad-spectrum antiviral
C. Anti-herpes drug only
D. Influenza B vaccine
34 Which of the following is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)? B
(A) Acyclovir
(B) Zidovudine
(C) Amantadine
(D) Oseltamivir
35 Which of the following antiviral drugs is an adamantane derivative? A
(A) Amantadine
(B) Lamivudine
(C) Ribavirin
(D) Tenofovir
UNIT:4 Anti-fungal Agent

36 Which of the following is a polyene antifungal agent? B

(A) Fluconazole
(B) Amphotericin B
(C) Ketoconazole
(D) Terbinafine
37 Which antifungal agent is commonly used for treating systemic fungal infections? C
(A) Clotrimazole
(B) Nystatin
(C) Fluconazole
(D) Griseofulvin
38 The main mechanism of action of amphotericin B is: C
(A) Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis
(B) Inhibition of β-glucan synthase
(C) Binding to ergosterol and forming pores in fungal membranes
(D) Inhibition of thymidylate synthase
39 Metronidazole is primarily used to treat infections caused by: B
(A) Plasmodium
(B) Giardia lamblia
(C) Trypanosoma
4
 (D) Leishmania

40 Which of the following anti-malarial drugs is effective against the hypnozoite stage of C
Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale?
(A) Chloroquine
(B) Mefloquine
(C) Primaquine
(D) Artemether
41 Which anthelmintic drug acts by increasing calcium permeability in the parasite, C
leading to paralysis?
(A) Mebendazole
(B) Albendazole
(C) Praziquantel
(D) Levamisole
42 Which anthelmintic acts by inhibiting fumarate reductase in helminths? A
(A) Niclosamide
(B) Ivermectin
(C) Levamisole
(D) Mebendazole
43 Amphotericin B acts by: B
A. Inhibiting fungal DNA synthesis
B. Binding to ergosterol and forming pores in fungal cell membrane
C. Inhibiting protein synthesis
D. Inhibiting folic acid synthesis
44 Nystatin is primarily used for: B
A. Systemic fungal infections
B. Oral and topical candidiasis
C. Viral infections
D. Tuberculosis
45 Griseofulvin acts by: B
A. Damaging fungal cell membrane
B. Inhibiting mitosis by disrupting microtubules
C. Inhibiting ergosterol synthesis
D. Inhibiting RNA polymerase
46 Amphotericin B is the drug of choice for: B
A. Mild skin infections only
B. Life-threatening systemic fungal infections
C. Bacterial infections
D. Viral infections
47 Natamycin is commonly used for: B
A. Oral candidiasis
B. Fungal keratitis (eye infection)
C. Systemic mycosis
D. HIV infection
48 Griseofulvin is mainly effective against: B
A. Candida species
B. Dermatophytes
C. Aspergillus
D. Cryptococcus
49 Which antifungal is NOT absorbed orally and is used only topically? C
A. Amphotericin B
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nystatin
D. Fluconazole
5
50 Polyene antifungals include: A
A. Amphotericin B and Nystatin
B. Griseofulvin and Natamycin
C. Ketoconazole and Fluconazole
D. Terbinafine and Itraconazole
51 Metronidazole acts by: C
A. Inhibiting folic acid synthesis
B. Disrupting protozoal cell membrane
C. Forming toxic free radical metabolites that damage DNA
D. Inhibiting protein synthesis
52 Tinidazole and Ornidazole belong to which class? B
A. 8-Hydroxyquinolines
B. Nitroimidazoles
C. Diamidines
D. Sulfonamides
53 Metronidazole should not be taken with alcohol because it may cause: B
A. Hypertension
B. Disulfiram-like reaction
C. Severe hypoglycemia
D. Kidney failure
54 The drug of choice for trichomoniasis is: C
A. Iodoquinol
B. Pentamidine
C. Metronidazole
D. Diloxanide
55 Mebendazole acts by: B
A. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
B. Blocking glucose uptake by inhibiting microtubule synthesis
C. Increasing membrane permeability to calcium
D. Paralyzing worms via GABA
56 Ivermectin acts by: B
A. Stimulating nicotinic receptors
B. Blocking glutamate-gated chloride channels
C. Inhibiting microtubules
D. Damaging parasite DNA
57 Albendazole is the drug of choice for: A
A. Neurocysticercosis
B. Malaria
C. Giardiasis
D. Amoebiasis
58 Which drugs belong to the benzimidazole class? A
A. Albendazole and Mebendazole
B. Ivermectin and Praziquantel
C. Niclosamide and Oxamniquine
D. Diethylcarbamazine and Ivermectin
59 Niclosamide is mainly used for: B
A. Roundworms
B. Tapeworms
C. Filarial worms
D. Schistosoma
60 Diethylcarbamazine citrate is primarily used for: C
A. Tapeworm infection
B. Schistosomiasis

6
 C. Filariasis
D. Hookworm
61 What is the mechanism of action of Ivermectin? B
(A) Inhibits microtubule synthesis
(B) Enhances GABA-mediated neurotransmission
(C) Inhibits cholinesterase
(D) Blocks DNA synthesis
62 Which of the following statements about Niclosamide is true? B
(A) It is effective against nematodes
(B) It inhibits glucose uptake in worms
(C) It is absorbed systemically
(D) It acts on the neuromuscular junction
63 The mechanism of action of sulphonamides is due to their structural similarity to: B
(A) Thymine
(B) Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
(C) Tetrahydrofolic acid
(D) Dihydrofolate reductase
64 Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of sulphonamides? D
(A) Crystalluria
(B) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
(C) Hemolytic anemia
(D) Hepatotoxicity
65 Sulphonamides exert their antibacterial action by inhibiting the synthesis of: C
(A) DNA
(B) RNA
(C) Folic acid
(D) Peptidoglycan
66 Which of the following is an ultra-short-acting sulphonamide? C
(A) Sulfamethoxazole
(B) Sulfadiazine
(C) Sulfisoxazole
(D) Sulfapyridine
67 Which of the following is a folate reductase inhibitor? A
(A) Methotrexate
(B) Penicillin
(C) Ciprofloxacin
(D) Rifampicin
68 Folate reductase inhibitors mainly act by inhibiting which enzyme? A
(A) Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) Acetylcholinesterase
69 Which molecular property is commonly used in QSAR studies? D
(A) Log P (Partition coefficient)
(B) Molecular weight
(C) Hydrogen bond donors and acceptors
(D) All of the above
70 Hammett’s equation is used to correlate: B
(A) Acid-base strength of compounds
(B) Electronic effects on reaction rates and equilibrium constants
(C) Drug solubility in water
(D) Lipophilicity of drugs
71 The Hammett constant (σ) for para-substituted electron-donating groups (like –OCH₃, C
–CH₃) is generally:
7
 (A) Positive
(B) Zero
(C) Negative
(D) Undefined
72 A pharmacophore is: B
(A) A specific receptor in the body
(B) A 3D arrangement of functional groups responsible for biological activity
(C) A drug that binds to multiple receptors
(D) A molecular weight measurement tool
73 Structure-based pharmacophore modeling is useful when: C
(A) No receptor structure is known
(B) Only the ligand structures are available
(C) The receptor (target protein) structure is available
(D) Only solubility data is available
74 Molecular docking is used to: A
(A) Predict how a drug interacts with a target protein
(B) Measure drug solubility
(C) Analyze drug metabolism
(D) Determine drug absorption
75 Prodrugs can be used to improve which of the following drug properties.. D
A) Oral bioavailability.
B) Reduced pain on injection.
C) Targeted drug delivery.
D) All of the above.

76 Which of the following is a common pharmacophore feature? B

A) Molecular weight.
B) Hydrogen bond donor.
C) Boiling point.
D) Density
77 Ligand based drug design, heavily utilizes. C
A) X-ray crystallography
B) Protein sequencing.
C) Pharmacophore modeling
D) Mass spectrometry
78 Which of the following is a major type of receptor? C
A) Lipids.
B) Carbohydrates.
C) G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs).
D) Nucleic acids
79 What is the importance of understanding receptor subtypes in drug design? B
A) To increase the drug's toxicity.
B) To minimize off-target effects and improve selectivity.
C) To accelerate drug metabolism.
D) To enhance drug absorption
80 "Selectivity" in drug design refers to.. A
A) A drug's preference for binding to a specific receptor subtype.
B) A drug's ability to bind to multiple receptors.
C) The rate of drug elimination.
D) The drug's chemical stability

8
81 Which of the following is a common technique used in combinatorial chemistry? C
A) X-ray crystallography.
B) Mass spectrometry.
C) Solid-phase synthesis.
D) Gel electrophoresis.
82 What is the term for the individual chemical building blocks used in combinatorial B
synthesis?
A) Polymers
B) Monomers
C) Ligands
D) Enzymes
83 What is a common chemical linkage used in carrier prodrugs? D
A) Peptide bonds.
B) Ether linkages.
C) Ester linkages.
D) All of the above.
84 Dapsone acts by: B
A. Inhibiting DNA gyrase
B. Inhibiting folic acid synthesis
C. Disrupting bacterial cell wall
D. Inhibiting protein synthesis
85 Dapsone is structurally similar to: C
A. Penicillins
B. Tetracyclines
C. Sulfonamides
D. Macrolides
86 Dapsone is used in combination therapy for leprosy with: A
A. Rifampicin and Clofazimine
B. Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide
C. Ciprofloxacin and Amoxicillin
D. Ethambutol only
87 Dapsone is also used for prophylaxis of: A
A. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
B. Influenza
C. Hepatitis B
D. Herpes simplex
88 Dapsone may cause which serious blood disorder? B
A. Thrombocytosis
B. Agranulocytosis
C. Polycythemia
D. Leukocytosis
89 Dapsone belongs to which class of drugs? A
A. Sulfone
B. Macrolide
C. Aminoglycoside
D. Fluoroquinolone
90 A major adverse effect of Dapsone is: B
A. Hepatitis
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Ototoxicity

9
91 Trimethoprim selectively inhibits: C
A. Dihydropteroate synthase
B. DNA gyrase
C. Dihydrofolate reductase
D. RNA polymerase
92 Cotrimoxazole is a combination of: B
A. Trimethoprim + Sulfadiazine
B. Trimethoprim + Sulfamethoxazole
C. Sulfamethoxazole + Penicillin
D. Trimethoprim + Tetracycline
93 The ratio of Trimethoprim to Sulfamethoxazole in Cotrimoxazole is: B
A. 1:1
B. 1:5
C. 5:1
D. 2:3
94 The mechanism of action of Cotrimoxazole is: C
A. Inhibition of protein synthesis
B. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
C. Sequential blockade of folic acid synthesis
D. Disruption of cell membrane
95 Trimethoprim primarily acts on: C
A. Gram-positive bacteria only
B. Gram-negative bacteria only
C. Bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
D. Human dihydrofolate reductase equally
96 Cotrimoxazole shows: B
A. Antagonistic action
B. Synergistic bactericidal action
C. Only bacteriostatic action
D. No effect on bacteria
97 Cotrimoxazole is commonly used in the treatment of: B
A. Tuberculosis
B. Urinary tract infections
C. Malaria
D. Fungal infections
98 Trimethoprim belongs to which chemical class? B
A. Sulfonamide
B. Diaminopyrimidine
C. β-lactam
D. Macrolide
99 Sulfamethoxazole inhibits: B
A. Dihydrofolate reductase
B. Dihydropteroate synthase
C. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D. Peptidyl transferase
100 Diethylcarbamazine is mainly effective against: B

A. Adult tapeworms
B. Microfilariae
C. Cestode larvae
D. Hookworms

10
101 Mebendazole belongs to which chemical class? B
A. Piperazine derivative
B. Benzimidazole derivative
C. Isoquinoline derivative
D. Macrocyclic lactone
102 Albendazole acts by: B
A. Blocking acetylcholine receptors
B. Inhibiting microtubule polymerization
C. Increasing chloride ion permeability
D. Inhibiting folate synthesis
103 Niclosamide is primarily used for: C
A. Roundworm infection
B. Hookworm infection
C. Tapeworm infection
D. Filariasis
104 Praziquantel is highly effective against: B
A. Nematodes only
B. Trematodes and cestodes
C. Protozoa
D. Fungi
105 Praziquantel acts by: B
A. Inhibiting ATP synthesis
B. Causing increased calcium permeability leading to paralysis
C. Blocking DNA replication
D. Inhibiting protein synthesis
106 Oxamniquine is specifically used for: A
A. Schistosoma mansoni infection
B. Ascariasis
C. Enterobiasis
D. Strongyloidiasis
107 Ivermectin acts by: B
A. Blocking sodium channels
B. Increasing GABA-mediated chloride influx
C. Inhibiting folate synthesis
D. Inhibiting tubulin synthesis
108 Thiabendazole is mainly effective against: A
A. Nematodes
B. Trematodes
C. Cestodes
D. Protozoa
109 Which drug is poorly absorbed from the intestine and acts locally? B
A. Albendazole
B. Niclosamide
C. Ivermectin
D. Diethylcarbamazine

Unit:5 Introduction to Drug Design

11
110 Drug design primarily aims to: B
A. Increase drug color stability
B. Discover molecules with optimal efficacy and minimal toxicity
C. Reduce manufacturing cost only
D. Increase molecular weight
111 Rational drug design is based on: B
A. Trial and error method
B. Knowledge of biological target structure
C. Random screening only
D. Plant extraction
112 Which approach uses information about the 3D structure of the biological target? B
A. Ligand-based design
B. Structure-based drug design
C. Random screening
D. Ethnopharmacology
113 In ligand-based drug design, the design is based on: B
A. Receptor crystal structure
B. Known active ligands
C. Animal testing
D. Metabolic pathways only
114 Molecular modification of a lead compound is done to improve: B
A. Taste only
B. Pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic properties
C. Packaging
D. Color
115 QSAR establishes a relationship between: B
A. Drug color and taste
B. Chemical structure and biological activity
C. Price and potency
D. Brand and efficacy
116 Partition coefficient (P) indicates: B
A. Drug acidity
B. Lipophilicity of a compound
C. Molecular weight
D. Hydrogen bonding only
117 Log P value is a measure of: B
A. Water solubility only
B. Lipid–water distribution
C. Drug toxicity
D. Steric hindrance
118 Hammett’s electronic parameter (σ) represents: C
A. Steric effect
B. Lipophilic effect
C. Electronic effect of substituents
D. Molecular size
119 Hansch equation correlates biological activity with: C

A. Molecular weight only

B. Steric factor only
C. Lipophilic, electronic, and steric parameters
D. Temperature and pressure

12
 120 Hansch analysis correlates biological activity with: C
A. Only lipophilicity
B. Only steric factors
C. Lipophilic, electronic, and steric parameters
D. Molecular weight only
121 In Hansch equation, the term log P represents: C
A. Electronic parameter
B. Steric factor
C. Hydrophobic parameter
D. Acid dissociation constant
122 A pharmacophore is defined as: B
A. Complete drug molecule
B. Essential features responsible for biological activity
C. Toxic group in a drug
D. Metabolite of drug
123 Common pharmacophoric features include: B
A. Color and density
B. Hydrogen bond donors, acceptors, hydrophobic groups
C. Molecular weight only
D. Boiling point
124 Pharmacophore modeling is mainly used for: B
A. Drug storage
B. Virtual screening of compounds
C. Tablet compression
D. Stability testing
125 Molecular docking predicts: B
A. Drug metabolism rate
B. Binding orientation of ligand to receptor
C. Drug color
D. Shelf life
126 Docking score indicates: B
A. Drug price
B. Strength of ligand–receptor interaction
C. Molecular weight
D. Toxicity
127 Structure-based drug design commonly uses: B
A. Pharmacognosy data
B. X-ray crystallography of target protein
C. Animal extraction
D. Clinical trial data only
128 Taft’s steric parameter (Es) mainly measures: B

A. Electronic effect of substituents

B. Steric effect of substituents
C. Hydrogen bonding ability
D. Resonance effect
129 The primary goal of combinatorial chemistry in drug discovery is to: B
A. Replace clinical trials
B. Generate chemical diversity for screening
C. Improve packaging
D. Reduce tablet size
13
130 Combinatorial chemistry is most closely associated with: B
A. Virtual screening only
B. High-throughput screening (HTS)
C. Animal testing
D. Pharmacovigilance
131 A major application of combinatorial chemistry is in: B
A. Stability testing
B. Lead identification and optimization
C. Drug pricing
D. Toxic waste management
132 Combinatorial libraries are useful for: A
A. Identifying structure–activity relationships
B. Increasing drug color
C. Reducing molecular weight only
D. Determining melting point
133 The major advantage of solid phase synthesis is: B
A. Difficult purification
B. Easy purification by simple filtration
C. High solvent consumption
D. Slow reaction rate
134 Merrifield resin is commonly used in: B
A. Solution phase synthesis
B. Solid phase peptide synthesis
C. Gas chromatography
D. Spectroscopy
135 A key limitation of solid phase synthesis is: B
A. Complex purification
B. Limited reaction monitoring
C. No need of reagents
D. Inability to form bonds
136 Compared to solid phase synthesis, solution phase synthesis generally: B
A. Has simpler purification
B. Requires chromatographic purification
C. Uses no solvent
D. Is always faster
137 The main advantage of solution phase synthesis is: B
A. Easier automation
B. Better reaction monitoring and characterization
C. No purification needed
D. No by-products formed
138 Split-and-mix technique is associated with: B
A. Classical synthesis
B. Combinatorial chemistry
C. Fermentation

14
 D. Distillation
139 Combinatorial chemistry is mainly used for: B
A. Purification of compounds
B. Synthesis of large numbers of compounds rapidly
C. Structure determination
D. Separation of mixtures
140 The pioneer of solid-phase peptide synthesis is: B
A. Robert Burns Woodward
B. Robert Bruce Merrifield
C. Linus Pauling
D. Dorothy Hodgkin
141 A collection of diverse chemical compounds generated by combinatorial B
methods is called:
A. Chemical batch
B. Chemical library
C. Reaction set
D. Molecular mixture
142 Taft equation is primarily applied to: B
A. Aromatic compounds
B. Aliphatic compounds
C. Heterocyclic compounds
D. Organometallic compounds
143 Taft separated steric and polar effects using: B
A. Substituted benzene derivatives
B. Ester hydrolysis reactions
C. Grignard reactions
D. Friedel–Crafts reactions
144 In Taft’s equation, the steric substituent constant is denoted by: C
A. σ
B. π
C. Es
D. ρ
145 A bulky substituent will generally have: B
A. Positive Es value
B. Negative Es value
C. Zero Es value
D. Infinite Es value
146 Taft equation is expressed as: B
A. log (k/k₀) = ρσ
B. log (k/k₀) = ρσ + δEs
C. log P = π + σ
D. log (k) = Es

15
147 Hansch analysis is mainly used in: C
A. Polymer chemistry
B. Spectroscopy
C. QSAR studies
D. Thermodynamics
148 The lipophilic substituent constant in Hansch analysis is denoted by: B
A. σ
B. π
C. Es
D. k
149 Hansch equation is generally written as: A
A. log (1/C) = aπ + bσ + cEs + constant
B. log P = σ + Es
C. Es = σ + π
D. log C = π²
150 Bioisosterism involves: A
A. Replacing a functional group with a similar one to improve activity
B. Combining two drugs
C. Increasing lipophilicity only
D. Reducing steric bulk

16
 Set. Assignment Enroll No/Roll No
Short Question
1. Write short notes on computer aided drug design.
2. Give synthesis of Trimethoprim and Nitrofurantoin.
3. Give the IUPAC name, synthesis and mechanism of Albendazole.
Set. A 4. Write synthesis of Tolnaftate. 1 to 36

5. Write IUPAC name and synthesis of the following drugs : (i) Miconazole (ii) Mebendazole.
Long Question:
1. Write down mode of action and therapeutic use of azole class of antifungal agents.
2. Define drug design. Give brief note on physicochemical parameters used in QSAR.
3. Describe SAR of quinolines. Explain mechanism of chloroquine.
4. Define and classify antiviral agents with structural examples of any five drugs.
5. Give classification of anti-HIV agents and write a brief note on NNRTIs.
6. Explain the mechanism of action of Co-trimoxazole. Write synthesis of Trimethoprim and
Sulfamethoxazole.
7. Write a note on pharmacophore modeling in drug design.
Short Question
1. Classify the antifungal agents with chemical structures.
2. Write brief note on Combinatorial Chemistry.
Set. B 3. Write uses and synthesis of the following drugs : (i) Ciprofloxacin (ii) Acyclovir
4. Write about pharmacophore modeling in drug design.
5. Give name and structure of any five drug containing imidazole ring system. 37 to Onwards

Long Question:
1. Give synthesis of Chloramphenicol and Chloroquine.
2. What is anthelmintic? Explain mechanism of benzimidazole as anthelmintic.
3. Write a note on drugs used for the treatment of HIV. Discuss synthesis of Acyclovir.
4. Explain SAR of Quinolones.
5. Write a short note on anti-protozoal agents.
6. Write about molecular docking techniques.
7. Write a note on SAR of Sulfonamides.

Note: All questions are compulsory.

All students submit assignment in hard copy.

Subject In-charge
Dr. Twinkle Rana

17
 VIDHYADEEP INSTITUTE OF PHARMACY

ACADEMIC YEAR: 2025-2026

QUESTION BANK (MID-II)

COURSE: B. PHARMACY
SEMESTER: 6TH
SUBJECT NAME & CODE: PHARMACOLOGY-III & BP602TP

Assignment for MID SEMESTER Examination- II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

[Link] CONTENT ANSWER

UNIT-3 CHEMOTHERAPY
1. 1. Acyclovir is primarily active against:
A. Influenza virus
B. HIV C
C. Herpes simplex virus
D. Hepatitis C virus
2. 2. Acyclovir requires activation by:
A. Viral thymidine kinase
B. Host RNA polymerase
A
C. Reverse transcriptase
D. Viral protease

3. 3. Oseltamivir acts by inhibiting:

A. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymerase D
C. Protease
D. Neuraminidase
4. 4. Zidovudine belongs to which class?
: A. NNRTI
B. Protease inhibitor C
C. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Dr. D. Integrase inhibitor

5. 5. Drug of choice for CMV infection:

A. Acyclovir
B. Ganciclovir B
C. Lamivudine
D. Ribavirin

6. 6. Major adverse effect of Zidovudine:

A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity C
C. Bone marrow suppression
D. Hemolysis
7. Albendazole acts by:
A. Blocking folate synthesis
B. Inhibiting glucose uptake in worms B
C. Increasing chloride permeability
D. DNA intercalation
8. 8. Drug of choice for Enterobius vermicularis:
A. Praziquantel
B. Ivermectin D
C. Diethylcarbamazine
D. Mebendazole
9. 9. Ivermectin is mainly used for:
A. Onchocerciasis
B. Amoebiasis A
C. Malaria
D. Tapeworm infection
10. 10. Praziquantel increases membrane permeability to:
A. Sodium
B. Potassium D
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
11. 11. Diethylcarbamazine is the drug of choice for:
A. Hydatid disease
B. Filariasis B
C. Strongyloidiasis
D. Ascariasis
12. 12. Drug of choice for Strongyloides stercoralis:
A. Albendazole
B. Praziquantel C
C. Ivermectin
D. Pyrantel pamoate
13. 13. The most severe malaria is caused by:
A. P. vivax
B. P. malariae D
C. P. ovale
D. P. falciparum
14. 14. Chloroquine acts on:
A. Liver hypnozoites
B. Sporozoites C
C. Blood schizonts
D. Gametocytes only
15. 15. Drug used for radical cure of P. vivax:
A. Primaquine
B. Quinine A
C. Artemisinin
D. Mefloquine
16. 16. Primaquine can cause hemolysis in:
A. Asthma
B. Hypertension C
C. G6PD deficiency
D. Diabetes
17. 17. Artemisinin is derived from:
A. Cinchona bark
B. Digitalis C
C. Artemisia annua
D. Neem plant
18. 18. Proguanil inhibits:
A. Protease
B. Dihydrofolate reductase B
C. DNA gyrase
D. Neuraminidase
19. 19. Malaria is transmitted by:
A. Aedes mosquito
B. Culex mosquito D
C. Sandfly
D. Anopheles mosquito
20. 20. Amoebiasis is caused by:
A. Giardia lamblia
B. Entamoeba histolytica B
C. Plasmodium
D. Leishmania
21. 21. Drug of choice for invasive amoebiasis:
A. Diloxanide furoate
B. Chloroquine C
C. Metronidazole
D. Albendazole
22. 22. Metronidazole acts by:
A. Cell wall inhibition
B. Protein synthesis inhibition D
C. Folate inhibition
D. DNA damage via free radicals
23. Luminal amoebicide is:
A. Diloxanide furoate
B. Metronidazole A
C. Chloroquine
D. Quinine
24. Chloroquine is useful in amoebiasis for:
A. Skin infection
B. Intestinal cysts C
C. Amoebic liver abscess
D. Helminth infection
25. Metronidazole may cause:
A. Bone marrow suppression
B. Ototoxicity C
C. Disulfiram-like reaction
D. Hemolysis
UNIT-4 CHEMOTHERAPY

26. Most common cause of uncomplicated UTI:

A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus A
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Proteus mirabilis
27. Drug of choice for uncomplicated cystitis:
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Nitrofurantoin B
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Amoxicillin
28. Nitrofurantoin should be avoided in:
A. Hypertension
B. Pregnancy (1st trimester) C
C. Renal failure
D. Diabetes
29. Single-dose therapy for uncomplicated gonorrhea:
A. Azithromycin
B. Doxycycline D
C. Penicillin G
D. Ceftriaxone
30. Drug of choice for Chlamydia infection:
A. Doxycycline
B. Cefixime A
C. Metronidazole
D. Ofloxacin
31. Drug used for syphilis (all stages):
A. Azithromycin
B. Benzathine penicillin G B
C. Ceftriaxone
D. Doxycycline
32. Mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones in UTI:
A. Inhibit folate synthesis
B. Inhibit DNA gyrase B
C. Inhibit protein synthesis (50S)
D. Cell wall inhibition
33. Metronidazole is effective against:
A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis C
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Chlamydia
34. Post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV includes:
A. Zidovudine monotherapy
B. Lamivudine alone C
C. Combination antiretroviral therapy
D. Protease inhibitor alone
35. Adverse effect of TMP-SMX:
A. Ototoxicity
B. Photosensitivity B
C. Nephrolithiasis
D. Tendinitis
36. PID treatment commonly includes:
A. Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline
B. Ciprofloxacin alone A
C. Penicillin V
D. Amoxicillin alone
37. Drug contraindicated in pregnancy for UTI:
A. Amoxicillin
B. Cephalexin D
C. Fosfomycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
38. Cyclophosphamide belongs to:
A. Antimetabolites
B. Alkylating agents B
C. Vinca alkaloids
D. Taxanes
39. Methotrexate inhibits:
A. DNA polymerase
B. Dihydrofolate reductase
C. Topoisomerase II B
D. Tubulin polymerization
40. Rescue therapy for high-dose methotrexate:
A. Folic acid
B. Vitamin B12 C
C. Leucovorin
D. Filgrastim
41. Doxorubicin major toxicity:
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Neurotoxicity D
C. Myelosuppression
D. Cardiotoxicity
42. Vincristine acts by:
A. Inhibiting microtubule formation
B. Alkylating DNA A
C. Inhibiting topoisomerase
D. Folate antagonism
43. Cisplatin adverse effect:
A. Pulmonary fibrosis
B. Nephrotoxicity B
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hypotension
44. Paclitaxel acts by:
A. Depolymerizing microtubules
B. Stabilizing microtubules B
C. Alkylating DNA
D. Inhibiting DHFR
45. Imatinib is used in:
A. Breast cancer
B. Colon cancer C
C. Chronic myeloid leukemia
D. Lung cancer
46. Tamoxifen is used in:
A. ER-positive breast cancer
B. Prostate cancer A
C. CML
D. Pancreatic cancer
47. 5-Fluorouracil inhibits:
A. Thymidylate synthase
B. Topoisomerase A
C. Tubulin
D. DNA gyrase
48. Bleomycin toxicity:
A. Cardiotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity C
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Ototoxicity
49. Rituximab targets:
A. HER2
B. VEGF D
C. EGFR
D. CD20
50. Trastuzumab is used in:
A. HER2-positive breast cancer
B. Lymphoma
C. CML A
D. Melanoma
51. Interferons are:
A. Immunosuppressants
B. Cytokines B
C. Vaccines
D. Antibodies
52. Cyclosporine acts by inhibiting:
A. mTOR
B. IL-2 transcription B
C. TNF-α
D. B cells
53. Tacrolimus mechanism:
A. Calcineurin inhibition
B. TNF blockade A
C. mTOR inhibition
D. DNA alkylation
54. Sirolimus acts by inhibiting:
A. Calcineurin
B. TNF C
C. mTOR
D. CD20
55. Drug used in rheumatoid arthritis (biologic):
A. Adalimumab
B. Methotrexate A
C. Prednisone
D. Azathioprine
56. Azathioprine inhibits:
A. Purine synthesis
B. Pyrimidine synthesis A
C. DNA gyrase
D. Microtubules
57. Major toxicity of cyclosporine:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity B
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Ototoxicity
58. BCG vaccine is an example of:
A. Passive immunity
B. Killed vaccine C
C. Live attenuated vaccine
D. Toxoid
59. Monoclonal antibodies are produced using:
A. Hybridoma technology
B. PCR A
C. ELISA
D. Western blot
60. Checkpoint inhibitor example:
A. Rituximab
B. Nivolumab B
C. Trastuzumab
D. Bevacizumab
61. Corticosteroids suppress immunity by:
A. Blocking cytokine transcription
B. Increasing IL-2 A
C. Activating T-cells
D. Stimulating macrophages
62. Filgrastim is:
A. Erythropoietin
B. G-CSF B
C. Interleukin-2
D. TNF inhibitor
63. Anakinra blocks:
A. TNF-α
B. VEGF D
C. CD20
D. IL-1 receptor
64. Basiliximab targets:
A. CD20
B. IL-2 receptor B
C. HER2
D. EGFR
65. Mycophenolate inhibits:
A. Inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase
B. DHFR A
C. Calcineurin
D. mTOR
66. Insulin is an example of:
A. Small molecule drug
B. Protein drug B
C. Vaccine
D. Alkaloid
67. Biosimilars differ from generics because they:
A. Are chemically identical
B. Are structurally complex biologics B
C. Have no immunogenicity
D. Are cheaper small molecules
68. Targeted therapy acts by:
A. Non-specific cell killing
B. Enhancing immunity C
C. Acting on specific molecular targets
D. Increasing DNA damage randomly
69. Bevacizumab targets:
A. HER2
B. CD20 D
C. EGFR
D. VEGF
70. Monoclonal antibodies ending in “-mab” are:
A. Antibiotics
B. Biologics B
C. Antifungals
D. Vaccines
71. Humanized monoclonal antibodies reduce:
A. Cost
B. Molecular weight C
C. Immunogenicity
D. Potency
72. Erythropoietin stimulates:
A. Platelet production
B. RBC production
C. WBC production B
D. T-cells
73. Pegylation of protein drugs:
A. Reduces half-life
B. Increases immunogenicity D
C. Shortens action
D. Prolongs half-life
74. CAR-T therapy is an example of:
A. Passive immunity
B. Gene-based targeted therapy B
C. Vaccine
D. Antibiotic therapy
75. Biosimilar approval requires:
A. Demonstration of similarity in efficacy & safety
B. Full new drug trial A
C. No clinical data
D. Animal study only
76. Acute toxicity studies typically involve exposure lasting:
A. Less than 24 hours
B. 14 days A
C. 90 days
D. 1 year
77. Subacute toxicity studies are usually conducted for:
A. 7 days
B. 28 days B
C. 6 months
D. 2 years
78. Chronic toxicity studies generally extend for:
A. 14 days
B. 30 days C
C. More than 6 months
D. 48 hours
79. LD50 represents:
A. Dose lethal to 100% animals
B. Dose lethal to 50% animals B
C. Maximum tolerated dose
D. Therapeutic dose
80. NOAEL stands for:
A. No Observed Adverse Effect Level
B. Normal Observed Acceptable Exposure Limit A
C. New Oral Acceptable Exposure Level
D. Non-Optimal Adverse Exposure Limit
81. Therapeutic index is calculated as:
A. ED50/LD50
B. LD50/ED50 B
C. TD50/ED50
D. ED50/TD50
82. Genotoxicity refers to:
A. Organ toxicity
B. Reversible mutation C
C. DNA damage
D. Fetal malformation
83. Carcinogenicity studies primarily assess:
A. Acute toxicity
B. Cancer-causing potential B
C. Fertility effects
D. Neurotoxicity
84. Teratogenicity refers to:
A. Mutation in germ cells
B. Birth defects B
C. DNA repair
D. Liver toxicity
85. Ames test is used to detect:
A. Carcinogenicity
B. Teratogenicity C
C. Mutagenicity
D. Neurotoxicity
86. Phase I reactions mainly involve:
A. Conjugation
B. Hydrolysis/oxidation B
C. Glucuronidation
D. Acetylation
87. Cytochrome P450 enzymes are primarily located in:
A. Mitochondria
B. Cytosol C
C. Smooth ER
D. Ribosomes
88. Idiosyncratic reactions are:
A. Dose-dependent
B. Predictable C
C. Genetically determined
D. Time-dependent
89. Tolerance develops due to:
A. Enzyme inhibition
B. Receptor upregulation C
C. Enzyme induction
D. Hypersensitivity
90. Bioaccumulation is common with:
A. Hydrophilic drugs
B. Lipophilic compounds B
C. Short half-life drugs
D. Highly ionized drugs
91. First step in poisoning management:
A. Antidote administration
B. Airway maintenance B
C. Gastric lavage
D. Activated charcoal
92. Universal antidote traditionally contains:
A. Charcoal, tannic acid, magnesium oxide
B. Atropine, pralidoxime A
C. Naloxone
D. EDTA
93. Naloxone is antidote for:
A. Barbiturate poisoning
B. Morphine poisoning B
C. OP poisoning
D. Arsenic poisoning
94. Morphine poisoning presents with:
A. Mydriasis
B. Hyperthermia C
C. Pinpoint pupils
D. Hypertension
95. Barbiturate overdose causes:
A. CNS depression
B. Seizures A
C. Tachycardia
D. Hyperreflexia
96. Organophosphorus compounds inhibit:
A. MAO
B. Acetylcholinesterase B
C. Dopamine receptors
D. GABA receptors
97. Atropine acts in OP poisoning by:
A. Regenerating AChE
B. Blocking muscarinic receptors B
C. Chelation
D. Blocking nicotinic receptors
98. Pralidoxime is most effective if given:
A. After aging
B. Within few hours B
C. After 24 hours
D. Only IV bolus
99. Lead poisoning causes:
A. Burton’s line
B. Kayser–Fleischer ring A
C. Cherry red skin
D. Garlic odor
100. Chelating agent for lead:
A. BAL
B. Deferoxamine C
C. CaNa2EDTA
D. Penicillamine
101. Arsenic poisoning presents with:
A. Severe diarrhea
B. Hypertension A
C. Bradycardia
D. Mydriasis
102. Dimercaprol (BAL) is used in:
A. Iron poisoning
B. Lead & arsenic poisoning B
C. Cyanide poisoning
D. Morphine poisoning
103. Gastric lavage is contraindicated in:
A. Early poisoning
B. Corrosive poisoning B
C. Unknown poisoning
D. Sedative overdose
104. Forced alkaline diuresis enhances elimination of:
A. Weak acids
B. Weak bases A
C. Heavy metals
D. Lipophilic toxins
105. Hemodialysis is useful in:
A. Lipid soluble toxins
B. Highly protein-bound drugs C
C. Methanol poisoning
D. Large molecular drugs
106. Cholinergic crisis includes:
A. Dry skin
B. Tachycardia C
C. Bronchospasm
D. Mydriasis
107. Chronopharmacology studies:
A. Drug interactions
B. Time-dependent drug effects B
C. Dose-response
D. Toxicity
108. Circadian rhythm duration is approximately:
A. 12 hours
B. 48 hours D
C. 7 days
D. 24 hours
109. Suprachiasmatic nucleus is located in:
A. Brainstem
B. Cerebellum C
C. Hypothalamus
D. Cortex
110. Biological clock regulates:
A. Only sleep
B. Hormone secretion D
C. Enzyme synthesis
D. All of the above
111. Cortisol levels peak in:
A. Early morning
B. Midnight A
C. Evening
D. Afternoon
112. Asthma symptoms worsen typically at:
A. Noon
B. Midnight B
C. Morning
D. Afternoon
113. Chronotherapy aims to:
A. Reduce dose
B. Increase toxicity C
C. Synchronize drug with biological rhythm
D. Prevent metabolism
114. Rheumatoid arthritis stiffness is worse in:
A. Morning
B. Evening A
C. Night
D. Noon
115. BP normally peaks in:
A. Night
B. Early morning B
C. Afternoon
D. Midnight
116. Melatonin secretion increases during:
A. Daylight
B. Night B
C. Afternoon
D. Morning
117. Chronotoxicology studies:
A. Time-dependent toxicity
B. Drug absorption A
C. Receptor binding
D. Enzyme kinetics
118. Chronokinetics refers to:
A. Time variation in pharmacokinetics
B. Drug metabolism only A
C. Receptor changes
D. Toxic effects
119. Chemotherapy is often given at specific times to:
A. Increase resistance
B. Reduce adverse effects B
C. Delay metabolism
D. Avoid absorption
120. Peak gastric acid secretion occurs at:
A. Night
B. Afternoon A
C. Morning
D. Noon
121. Shift work disorder affects:
A. Kidney
B. Liver C
C. Biological clock
D. Pancreas
122. Chronotherapy is most beneficial in:
A. Acute trauma
B. Hypertension B
C. Poisoning
D. Burns
123. Light acts as a:
A. Zeitgeber
B. Toxin A
C. Hormone
D. Enzyme
124. Desynchronization of rhythms leads to:
A. Improved efficacy
B. Homeostasis D
C. Reduced toxicity
D. Sleep disorders
125. The term “ultradian rhythm” refers to cycles that:
A. Occur once yearly
B. Last longer than 24 hours D
C. Are irregular and random
D. Repeat multiple times within 24 hours
126. The primary neurotransmitter involved in signaling from the retina to the
suprachiasmatic nucleus is:
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin C
C. Glutamate
D. GABA
127. In organophosphorus poisoning, “aging” refers to:
A. Increased metabolism of poison
B. Redistribution of toxin to fat C
C. Irreversible phosphorylation of acetylcholinesterase
D. Decrease in muscarinic symptoms
128. Succimer (DMSA) is primarily used in the management of:
A. Arsenic poisoning
B. Mercury poisoning D
C. Iron poisoning
D. Lead poisoning
129. TD₅₀ is defined as the dose that:
A. Produces toxic effect in 50% of the population
B. Causes death in 50% of animals A
C. Produces therapeutic effect in 50%
D. Produces no adverse effect
130. Which factor most significantly increases the risk of chronic toxicity?
A. Single high dose exposure
B. Repeated low-dose exposure with long half-life compound B
C. Rapid renal elimination
D. High water solubility
 VIDHYADEEP INSTITUTE OF PHARMACY

ACADEMIC YEAR: 2025-2026

QUESTION BANK (MID-II)

COURSE: B. PHARMACY
SEMESTER: 6TH
SUBJECT NAME & CODE: PHARMACOLOGY-III & BP602TP

Assignment for MID SEMESTER Examination- II

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Set – A (Enrollment No. 1-35)

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. Explain the life cycle of malarial parasite and describe the mechanism of action of antimalarial
drugs acting on different stages of its life cycle.
2. Describe clinical symptoms and management of Organophosphorus poisoning
3. What is HAART? Write a note on drugs used in the treatment of HIV infection.
4. Write a note on bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitors.
5. Write the MOA of the following drugs: (i.) Metoclopramide (ii.) Mesalazine (iii.) Etofamide (iv.)
Foscarnet (v.) Doxorubicin
6. Describe the following terms with examples: (i) Biosimilars (ii) Monoclonal antibodies (iii)
Chronopharmacology.
7. Explain the mechanism of action, adverse effects, and therapeutic uses of the following drugs (i.)
Zidovudine and (ii) Chloroquine
8. Discuss the role of antimetabolites in Cancer.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Define teratogenicity.
2. Describe in detail Acute toxicity, with the help of appropriate examples.
3. Define genotoxicity.
4. Explain the role of chronology in occurrence of various diseases.
5. Write note on general principles of chemotherapy.
6. Describe role of biological clock in chronotherapy.
7. Write a note on mutagenicity.
8. Write a note on lead poisoning.
 Set – B (Enrollment No. 36-73)

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. Write classification of anticancer drugs.
2. Define immunopharmacology and Classify immunosuppressant drugs. Explain the Mechanism of
action of Cyclosporine.
3. Classify cell cycle-specific inhibitors. Explain the mechanism of action and adverse effects of
Vinca alkaloids.
4. Explain the following terms: (i.) Gray baby syndrome (ii.) Kernictrus (iii.) Jarisch Herxheimer’s
reaction (iv.) Fancony-like syndrome (v.) Crystaluria.
5. Enlist Various anti-malarial drugs. Discuss pharmacology of Primaquine.
6. Discuss the symptoms and management of barbiturates and morphine poisoning.
7. Write a note on Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI).
8. Write a note on drugs used in Urinary Tract Infections.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
1. Explain the terms: Teratogenicity & Carcinogenicity
2. Describe Anthelmintics.
3. Write in detail about drugs used in Syphilis & Gonorrhea.
4. Discuss the management of UTI.
5. Write a note on therapeutic proteins.
6. Write a note on mercury and arsenic poisoning
7. Write a note on Chemotherapy.
8. Write a detailed note on Antiamoebic agents.

Dr. Achla Vyas

 VIDHYADEEP INSTITUTE OF PHARMACY
ACADEMIC YEAR: 2025-2026
QUESTION BANK (MID II)

COURSE: [Link] CLASS: Sem-VI, B. Pharm

SUBJECT NAME & CODE: Herbal Drug Technology (BP603TP)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

[Link] CONTENT ANSWER

Unit 3: Herbal Cosmetics, Herbal Excipients, Herbal Formulations:

1. Which chemical constituent is of Henna Responsible for coloring agent? B

A. Curcumin
B. Lawson
C. Gallic acid
D. Lawcic acid
2. Which Part of Santlum Album used as a drug? D
A. Wood
B. Bark
C. Bark wood
D. Heartwood
3. Which Drug has Soapnut as a Synonym? A
A. Aritha
B. Tulsi
C. Neem
D. Arnica
4. An Antidandruff shampoo is a C
A. Cosmetic
B. Drug
C. Both
D. None of the above
5. Which essential oil is commonly used in herbal cosmetics for its calming aroma and A
skin benefits?
A. Lavender oil
B. Diesel oil
C. Mineral oil
D. Motor oil
6. Which of the following is an example of a natural ingredient commonly used in B
herbal cosmetics for skin care?
A. Salicylic acid
B. Aloe Vera
C. Parabens
D. Silicone
 7. Which of the following herbs is commonly used in cosmetics for its anti- A
inflammatory and soothing properties?
A. Turmeric
B. Coal Tar
C. Formaldehyde
D. Petroleum Jelly
8. Neem is widely used in herbal cosmetics because of its ______ properties. A
A. Anti-fungal and antibacterial
B. Preservative
C. Whitening
D. Fragrance-enhancing
9. Which of the following is a natural binding agent commonly used in herbal A
formulations?
A. Acacia gum
B. Polyvinyl alcohol
C. Talc
D. Titanium dioxide
10. Which herbal excipient is often used as a natural sweetener in herbal formulations? D
A. Aspartame
B. Saccharin
C. Sucralose
D. Stevia
11. What is the primary objective of herbal formulation? B
A. To enhance the taste of herbs
B. To improve the efficacy, stability, and bioavailability of herbal ingredients
C. To replace synthetic drugs with herbal extracts
D. To reduce the cost of herbal medicine
12. Which of the following is NOT a common dosage form of herbal formulations? C
A. Tablets
B. Capsules
C. Injection
D. Syrups
13. What is the role of excipients in herbal formulations? B
A. To replace the active ingredients
B. To enhance stability, solubility, and bioavailability
C. To reduce production costs
D. To make herbal medicines less effective
14. Which extraction method is most commonly used in herbal formulations? B
A. Distillation
B. Solvent extraction
C. Sublimation
D. Crystallization
15. Which regulatory body oversees the quality of herbal formulations in India? C
A. FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
B. WHO (World Health Organization)
C. AYUSH (Ministry of Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and
Homeopathy)
D. NIH (National Institutes of Health)
16. Which plant is widely used as a natural moisturizer in cosmetics? C
A. Neem
B. Tulsi
C. Aloe vera
D. Senna
17. Botanical name of Neem is: A
A. Azadirachta indica
B. Ocimum sanctum
C. Emblica officinalis
D. Lawsonia inermis
18. Active constituent responsible for antibacterial activity of Neem: B
A. Eugenol
B. Azadirachtin
C. Menthol
D. Curcumin
19. Henna is obtained from: C
A. Root
B. Flower
C. Leaf
D. Bark
20. Botanical name of Henna: A
A. Lawsonia inermis
B. Azadirachta indica
C. Rosa indica
D. Hibiscus rosa-sinensis
21. Active principle of Turmeric: B
A. Menthol
B. Curcumin
C. Tannin
D. Saponin
22. Herbal face packs mainly act as: B
A. Emollient
B. Astringent
C. Preservative
D. Flavoring agent
23. Clove oil contains: B
A. Menthol
B. Eugenol
C. Linalool
D. Camphor
24. Herbal shampoos mainly contain: B
A. Alkaloids
B. Saponins
C. Glycosides
D. Resins
25. Acacia is obtained from: C
A. Leaves
B. Stem bark
C. Dried gummy exudate
D. Root
26. Tragacanth is used as: C
A. Preservative
B. Sweetener
C. Suspending agent
D. Coloring agent
27. Pectin is mainly used as: C
A. Binder
B. Disintegrant
C. Gelling agent
D. Lubricant
28. Guar gum is obtained from: B
A. Leaves
B. Seeds
C. Bark
D. Roots
29. Starch is used in formulation as: C
A. Lubricant
B. Diluent
C. Disintegrant
D. Preservative
30. Churna is a: B
A. Tablet
B. Powder
C. Syrup
D. Ointment
31. Avaleha is a: B
A. Liquid preparation
B. Semisolid preparation
C. Tablet
D. Capsule
32. Example of herbal ointment base: A
A. Beeswax
B. Gelatin
C. Sucrose
D. Talc
33. Taila is medicated: B
A. Water
B. Oil
C. Alcohol
D. Vinegar
34. Ghrita is medicated: C
A. Oil
B. Alcohol
C. Ghee
D. Honey
35. Standardization of herbal formulation ensures: C
A. Color only
B. Taste only
C. Quality, safety & efficacy
D. Odor only
36. Which parameter is important for quality control of herbal drugs? A
A. Ash value
B. Melting point only
C. Boiling point only
D. Density only
37. Extractive value indicates: B
A. Purity
B. Solubility of constituents
C. Color
D. Odor
38. Ash value determines: B
A. Organic matter
B. Inorganic matter
C. Moisture
D. Volatile oil
39. Aloe gel is obtained from: A
A. Leaf pulp
B. Root
C. Stem
D. Flower
40. Tulsi belongs to family: B
A. Zingiberaceae
B. Lamiaceae
C. Fabaceae
D. Apiaceae
41. Herbal creams are generally: B
A. Suspension
B. Emulsion
C. Solution
D. Aerosol
42. Natural colorant used in cosmetics: A
A. Curcumin
B. Talc
C. Starch
D. Gelatin
43. Natural preservative example: B
A. Sodium benzoate
B. Honey
C. Talc
D. Lactose
44. Which test detects adulteration in herbal drugs? A
A. Microscopy
B. Titration only
C. Distillation only
D. Evaporation
45. Volatile oils are obtained by: B
A. Maceration
B. Steam distillation
C. Fermentation
D. Sublimation
46. Herbal toothpaste may contain: A
A. Clove oil
B. Talc
C. Paraffin
D. Petrolatum
47. Shelf life of herbal formulation is not depends on: D
A. Packaging
B. Storage condition
C. Nature of ingredients
D. Odour
48. WHO guidelines are important for: B
A. Advertising
B. Standardization of herbal drugs
C. Packaging only
D. Coloring
49. In herbal formulations, what is the primary function of excipients like starch and C
cellulose?
A. To enhance the active ingredients' therapeutic effects.
B. To increase the shelf life of the formulation.
C. To help in the preparation and stability of the dosage form.
D. To make the product aromatic and pleasant.
50. Which herbal ingredient is often used in formulations aimed at soothing and healing B
skin irritations?
A. Ginger
B. Chamomile
C. Peppermint
D. Eucalyptus
UNIT 4: Evaluation of Drugs, Patent and Regulatory requirements of Natural Products, Regulatory Issue

51. Which ICH guideline deals specifically with stability testing of herbal drugs? A
A. ICH Q1A(R2)
B. ICH Q5C
C. ICH E6
D. ICH M4Q
52. Under WHO guidelines, herbal medicine safety assessment includes: A
A. Toxicological studies
B. Microbial contamination analysis
C. Heavy metal and pesticide residue analysis
D. All of the above
53. According to WHO, herbal medicines should be standardized based on: A
A. Active constituents and their bioavailability
B. Plant color and taste
C. Random selection of herbs
D. Market demand
54. WHO guidelines classify herbal medicines into how many categories? C
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
55. What is the key challenge in patenting natural products? B
A. Lack of commercial interest
B. Ethical concerns and biopiracy issues
C. Excessive government funding
D. Lack of demand for natural products
56. In Europe, which regulatory agency is responsible for herbal medicinal products? A
A. EMA (European Medicines Agency)
B. FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
C. ICH (International Council for Harmonisation)
D. WTO (World Trade Organization)

57. Which document is required for the patentability of a natural product formulation? A
A. Proof of novelty, inventive step, and industrial applicability
B. Traditional knowledge certificate
C. Farmer's consent
D. None of the above
58. The unethical practice of patenting traditional knowledge without proper C
authorization or benefit-sharing is known as:
A. Bioethics
B. Bioprospecting
C. Biopiracy
D. Bioengineering
59. Which global agreement includes provisions for the protection of traditional A
knowledge and genetic resources?
A. TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights)
B. GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade)
C. Kyoto Protocol
D. Hague Agreement
60. What is the significance of the neem and turmeric patent cases in global intellectual A
property rights?
A. They led to stricter patenting laws for natural products and traditional knowledge
B. They discouraged research on natural products
C. They promoted the patenting of all traditional medicines
D. They proved that traditional knowledge has no scientific basis
61. The Indian regulatory authority that governs herbal drugs is: C
A. USFDA
B. EMA
C. CDSCO (Central Drugs Standard Control Organization)
D. MHRA (Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency)
62. Organoleptic evaluation includes: C
A. Chemical tests
B. Biological tests
C. Color, odor, taste
D. Chromatography
63. Determination of moisture content is done by: B
A. Ash value
B. Loss on drying
C. Extractive value
D. Swelling index
64. Total ash value indicates: B
A. Organic matter
B. Inorganic impurities
C. Volatile oils
D. Alkaloids
65. Acid-insoluble ash determines: A
A. Silica content
B. Sugars
C. Tannins
D. Resins
66. Swelling index test is mainly for: C
A. Alkaloids
B. Glycosides
C. Mucilage-containing drugs
D. Volatile oils
67. Hemolytic activity test is used for: C
A. Tannins
B. Alkaloids
C. Saponins
D. Flavonoids
68. TLC stands for: A
A. Thin Layer Chromatography
B. Total Liquid Chromatography
C. Thermal Layer Chromatography
D. Titration Liquid Chromatography
69. HPTLC is mainly used for: C
A. Drying
B. Extraction
C. Fingerprinting of herbal drugs
D. Grinding
70. Swelling index is used for drugs containing: B
A. Alkaloids
B. Mucilage
C. Tannins
D. Glycosides
71. Chemical evaluation includes: B
A. Organoleptic tests
B. Chromatography
C. Macroscopy
D. Leaf constants
72. TLC is mainly used for: B
A. Isolation
B. Identification
C. Distillation
D. Extraction
73. Quantitative microscopy includes determination of: C
A. Odor
B. Taste
C. Stomatal index
D. Color
74. Biological evaluation is based on: C
A. Color
B. Odor
C. Pharmacological activity
D. Shape
75. Which is NOT patentable in India? C
A. New process
B. New formulation
C. Discovery of natural substance
D. Novel drug delivery system
76. Indian Patent Act was amended in: C
A. 1947
B. 1970
C. 2005
D. 2010
77. TRIPS stands for: A
A. Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights
B. Trade Regulation in Patent System
C. Technical Rights in Product Safety
D. None
78. Term of patent in India is: C
A. 10 years
B. 15 years
C. 20 years
D. 25 years
79. Patent protection is territorial means: B
A. Valid worldwide
B. Valid only in granted country
C. Valid in Asia
D. Valid in UN countries
80. Herbal drugs in India are regulated under: B
A. IPC
B. Drugs & Cosmetics Act 1940
C. Factory Act
D. Pharmacy Act
81. Schedule T is related to: B
A. Clinical trials
B. GMP for ASU drugs
C. Toxicity
D. Pricing
82. GMP stands for: A
A. Good Manufacturing Practice
B. General Medical Practice
C. Government Manufacturing Policy
D. None
83. Ayurvedic drugs fall under which ministry? B
A. Health Ministry
B. AYUSH
C. CSIR
D. ICMR
84. WHO guidelines for herbal medicines focus on: B
A. Packaging only
B. Quality, Safety, Efficacy
C. Advertisement
D. Pricing
85. Pharmacovigilance is related to: B
A. Pricing
B. Drug safety monitoring
C. Extraction
D. Cultivation
86. CDSCO stands for: A
A. Central Drug Standard Control Organization
B. Central Disease Study Control Organization
C. Clinical Drug Safety Committee
D. None
87. Stability studies are conducted to determine: B
A. Taste
B. Shelf life
C. Color
D. Odor
88. Stomatal index is determined under: C
A. Chemical evaluation
B. Biological evaluation
C. Microscopic evaluation
D. Physical evaluation
89. Naturally occurring substances in pure form are: B
A. Patentable
B. Not patentable
C. Always patentable
D. Copyrighted
90. Patent law in India is governed by: C
A. Drugs Act 1940
B. AYUSH Act
C. Indian Patents Act 1970
D. Pharmacy Act
91. CDSCO stands for: B
A. Central Drug Safety Control Office
B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization
C. Central Drug Supply Corporation
D. Chemical Drug Standard Control Office
92. In the USA, herbal products are regulated as: C
A. Antibiotics
B. Prescription drugs
C. Dietary supplements
D. Cosmetics
93. Heavy metal contamination is checked under: C
A. Organoleptic evaluation
B. Regulatory issues
C. Quality control
D. Biological test
94. Adulteration in herbal drugs leads to: C
A. Increased efficacy
B. Improved safety
C. Reduced quality
D. Better stability
95. Chromatographic fingerprinting ensures: B
A. Color testing
B. Batch-to-batch consistency
C. Taste evaluation
D. Moisture control
96. Pharmacovigilance of herbal drugs is mainly concerned with: C
A. Pricing
B. Marketing
C. Adverse drug reactions
D. Packaging
97. European herbal medicines are regulated by: C
A. CDSCO
B. WHO
C. European Medicines Agency
D. PCI
98. The primary objective of the patenting process for herbal drugs is to: B
A. Secure market dominance for the herbal drug.
B. Prevent competitors from copying the drug formulation.
C. Ensure long-term shelf stability of the herbal drug.
D. Promote the commercialization of herbal products without regulation.
99. In the regulatory framework for herbal drugs, which body is responsible for the A
approval of herbal medicines in India?
A. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
B. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
C. World Health Organization (WHO)
D. European Medicines Agency (EMA)
100. Which of the following is a requirement for obtaining a patent for a herbal drug A
formulation?
A. The formulation must be novel, non-obvious, and useful.
B. The formulation must be made entirely from synthetic chemicals.
C. The formulation must not be available in the public domain.
D. The formulation must have a proven clinical success rate of 50% or higher.

101. The process of ensuring that a herbal drug product does not cause harm to patients is B
called:
A. Clinical validation
B. Safety evaluation
C. Efficacy testing
D. Toxicological screening
 102. Which of the following organizations provides guidelines for the Good Manufacturing D
Practices (GMP) of herbal medicines in India?
A. Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC)
B. World Health Organization (WHO)
C. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MHFW)
D. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
103. Which of the following is a major factor that influences the regulation and C
standardization of herbal medicines globally?
A. The molecular structure of active compounds in herbs
B. The availability of plants in the wild
C. The quality and consistency of herbal raw materials used in the formulations
D. The ease of patenting herbal ingredients
104. Which of the following is a key challenge in the regulation of herbal products? A
A. Lack of scientific evidence for efficacy
B. High cost of manufacturing
C. Uniform global regulations for herbal medicines
D. Short shelf life

UNIT 5: General Introduction to Herbal Industry, Schedule T- GMP of Indian system of Medicine

106. What is a primary reason for the rejection of herbal drug applications by A
regulatory agencies?
A. Lack of proper documentation of safety and efficacy
B. High market demand for the herbal product
C. Presence of natural ingredients
D. Traditional use in ancient medicine
107. The herbal industry primarily deals with: B
A. Synthetic chemical-based medicines
B. Plant-based medicinal and wellness products
C. Only Ayurvedic medicines
D. Only traditional Chinese medicine
108. Which of the following is an example of a widely used herbal remedy? C
A. Paracetamol
B. Aspirin
C. Aloe Vera
D. Ibuprofen
109. What is the main challenge faced by the herbal industry? C
A. High cost of production
B. Lack of consumer interest
C. Standardization and quality control
D. Limited availability of herbs
110. The active compounds in herbal medicines are known as: A
A. Alkaloids, flavonoids, and tannins
B. Proteins and carbohydrates
C. Lipids and amino acids
D. None of the above
111. Which regulatory body oversees herbal medicine in the United States? B
A. WHO
B. FDA
C. ISO
D. ICMR
112. According to Schedule T, the raw material storage area should be: B
A. Open to natural air circulation
B. Hygienic, well-ventilated, and properly labeled
C. Stored with food products
D. Kept in direct sunlight
113. What is the role of quality control as per Schedule T? B
A. Ensuring only branded products are sold
B. Testing raw materials, in-process materials, and finished products
C. Focusing only on packaging design
D. Avoiding documentation for faster production
114. What type of records must be maintained under Schedule T? B
A. Employee attendance records only
B. Raw material procurement, batch manufacturing, quality control, and product
distribution records
C. Marketing and advertisement plans
D. None of the above
115. Under Schedule T, water used in the manufacturing process should be: B
A. Collected from any available source
B. Free from microbial contamination and meet potable water standards
C. Only sourced from rivers
D. Used without filtration or purification
116. What is the minimum area required for a small-scale manufacturing unit under C
Schedule T?
A. 50 sq. meters
B. 100 sq. meters
C. 200 sq. meters
D. 500 sq. meters
117. Which certification ensures the quality of herbal products in the global market? A
A. WHO-GMP
B. ISO 9001
C. FDA-Approved
D. HACCP
118. Which of the following is the main reason for the growth of the herbal industry? B
A. Increased demand for synthetic drugs
B. Growing consumer interest in natural and organic products
C. Low cost of synthetic drugs
D. Restrictive laws on pharmaceutical manufacturing
119. Which of the following regions has the highest demand for herbal products? C
A. North America
B. Europe
C. Asia-Pacific
D. Africa
120. In which country is the use of herbal medicine most regulated and standardized? C
A. India
B. United States
C. Germany
D. Brazil
121. Which of the following is NOT a product category commonly produced by the herbal C
industry?
A. Herbal drugs
B. Herbal cosmetics
C. Herbal pesticides
D. Herbal dietary supplements
122. Which of the following is a key challenge faced by the herbal industry? A
A. Standardization and quality control
B. High production costs
C. Lack of demand
D. Over-regulation by authorities
123. Which of the following plants is commonly used in the herbal industry for its medicinal D
properties?
A. Eucalyptus
B. Ginseng
C. Aloe Vera
D. All of the above
124. What does "phytochemistry" refer to in the context of the herbal drug industry? A
A. The study of chemical components in plants
B. The process of testing herbal products on animals
C. The extraction of plant oils
D. The cultivation techniques for medicinal plants

125. The herbal industry is expected to grow mainly due to: B

A. The declining interest in herbal remedies
B. The rising popularity of alternative medicine
C. The high cost of raw materials
D. Regulatory barriers in drug approval

126. Schedule T of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act governs the: B

A. Manufacturing standards of pharmaceutical drugs in India
B. Quality control of Ayurvedic, Siddha, and Unani medicines
C. Approval process for herbal patents
D. Import and export regulations for herbal medicines

127. Which of the following is the primary objective of Schedule T? B

A. To regulate the packaging of herbal medicines
B. To ensure the Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) for herbal medicine
C. To define the limits of herbal drug pricing
D. To restrict the sale of herbal medicines
128. According to Schedule T, herbal medicines must be manufactured under: C
A. Strict laboratory conditions only
B. Uncontrolled environmental conditions
C. Controlled hygienic conditions to avoid contamination
D. Any conditions that allow faster production
129. Which of the following is a requirement for the premises of a herbal drug A
manufacturing unit under Schedule T?
A. Proper ventilation and lighting
B. Presence of animals in the production area
C. Use of harmful chemicals in the production area
D. Limited storage for raw materials
130. The herbal drug industry often faces difficulty with: D
A. Extraction of active ingredients from herbs
B. Large-scale cultivation of medicinal plants
C. High levels of synthetic chemicals
D. Both a and b
131. The herbal industry is expected to grow mainly due to: B
A. The declining interest in herbal remedies
B. The rising popularity of alternative medicine
C. The high cost of raw materials
D. Regulatory barriers in drug approval
132. Which of the following is the primary objective of Schedule T? B
A. To regulate the packaging of herbal medicines
B. To ensure the Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) for herbal medicines
C. To define the limits of herbal drug pricing
D. To restrict the sale of herbal medicines
133. According to Schedule T, herbal medicines must be manufactured under: C
A. Strict laboratory conditions only
B. Uncontrolled environmental conditions
C. Controlled hygienic conditions to avoid contamination
D. Any conditions that allow faster production
134. Which of the following is a requirement for the premises of a herbal drug A
manufacturing unit under Schedule T?
A. Proper ventilation and lighting
B. Presence of animals in the production area
C. Use of harmful chemicals in the production area
D. Limited storage for raw materials
135. Under Schedule T, what is required for the training of personnel in a herbal drug B
manufacturing unit?
A. No specific training is required
B. Personnel should be trained in GMP and hygiene practices
C. Personnel should have only a basic understanding of herbal medicine
D. Personnel should be trained in synthetic chemistry
136. What is the minimum storage temperature for raw materials as per Schedule T B
regulations?
A. Below 10°C
B. Between 20°C and 25°C
C. Above 30°C
D. No temperature control is required
137. Schedule T ensures that herbal drug manufacturing units maintain records for: A
A. All raw materials, batches, and production processes
B. Only finished products
C. Only marketing and sales details
D. No record-keeping is necessary
138. Which of the following is part of the testing process for herbal products under A
Schedule T?
A. Testing for microbial contamination
B. Testing for efficacy in clinical trials only
C. Testing only for physical appearance
D. Testing for shelf life in the market
139. Under Schedule T, packaging for herbal products should: A
A. Be non-toxic and properly sealed to avoid contamination
B. Use only eco-friendly materials
C. Only use plastic packaging
D. Be lightweight for easy transportation
140. Which of the following is a GMP practice under Schedule T for personnel hygiene? A
A. Regular health checks and sanitation protocols
B. Allowing personnel to work without protective clothing
C. Not requiring personnel to wash hands before handling raw materials
D. No specific hygiene requirements for workers
141. Which of the following is required for the laboratory used in herbal product testing as A
per Schedule T?
A. The laboratory should be fully equipped with modern analytical equipmen
B. The laboratory should only be used for testing finished products
C. No specific laboratory conditions are required
D. The laboratory should be located in a remote area
142. Schedule T requires that manufacturing units for herbal drugs maintain: C
A. Records of herbal drug sales only
B. Records of employee working hours
C. Batch-wise records of production, including raw material and testing data
D. Only records of packaging material used
143. According to Schedule T, herbal formulations must undergo which type of testing? C
A. Toxicological testing
B. Sensory testing
C. Both a and b
D. No testing is required
144. Which of the following regulatory authorities enforces Schedule T guidelines in India? B
A. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MHFW)
D. All of the above
145. Which of the following must be displayed in a herbal drug manufacturing unit under B
Schedule T?
A. Records of employee attendance
B. License number and validity of GMP certification
C. Market share of the herbal products
D. Annual sales performance
146. Which of the following plants is commonly used in the herbal industry for its medicinal D
properties?
A. Eucalyptus
B. Ginseng
C. Aloe Vera
D. All of the above
147. The global herbal market is primarily driven by the demand for: B
A. Synthetic pharmaceuticals
B. Herbal supplements, cosmetics, and functional foods
C. Non-prescription drugs
D. Medical device

What does "phytochemistry" refer to in the context of the herbal drug industry? A
A. The study of chemical components in plants
B. The process of testing herbal products on animals
C. The extraction of plant oils
D. The cultivation technique for medicinal plant
 Sr. No Assignment 2 Enrollmen
Roll No
SET A LONG QUESTION: 1 to 35
1. Explain raw materials used as Perfumes and antioxidant in hair care products.
2. Write a note on the natural colorants and sweeteners used as excipient
3. Explain Phytosomes in detail.
4. Write a note on fixed oils, waxes, gums used in herbal formulations.
5. Write a short note on Herbal excipients. Explain Advantages and Disadvantages of
Herbal Excipient
6. Explain Case study of Curcuma in context to patenting aspects of Traditional
Knowledge and Natural Products
7. Explain term ASU DCC. Explain in detail about Schedule Z of Drugs and
Cosmetics Act for ASU drugs.
8. Give a brief account of plant based industries and various institution involved in
work on medicinal and aromatic plant in india.
SHORT QUESTION:
1. Name any two Natural Bleaching agent with biological source
2. Write the Characteristics of Hair dyes
3. Define following term i) Patent, ii) IPR, iii) Farmers right, iv) Breeders right, v)
Bioprospecting, vi) Biopiracy
4. Explain the term DTAB
5. Mention the Evaluation Parameter for Herbal Syrup
6. Write a note on concept of Schedule T

SET B LONG QUESTION: 36 to 73

1. Define Biopiracy. Give a detailed note on case study of Curcuma.

2. Define and classify Binders with suitable examples. Explain Starch as binder.
3. Define and classify the herbal cosmetics. Write in details on any two plants used for
skin cosmetics.
4. Enlist parameter for quality assessment of herbal drugs. Discuss physical evaluation
in detail with example
5. Write a note on stability testing of herbal drug as per WHO and ICH Guideline.
6. Discuss about requirement of infrastructure, staff and equipments for herbal drug
industry.
7. Discuss about Scope of Herbal drug industry.
8. Write a note on different chromatographic techniques used in evaluation of herbal
drug.
SHORT QUESTION:
1. Give the Source and active Constituent of Natural Binder
2. List out Natural excipient used as a sweetener with their biological source
3. Explain term Patent
4. Define IPR and Enumerate its compound
5. Explain Objective of GMP
6. List out the herbal cosmetics for Hair. write in detail any two plant used as a hair
growth promoter

Note: All questions are compulsory.

All students submit assignment in hard copy.

SUBJECT INCHARGE
Miss Nikita Thakar
 Vidhyadeep Institute of Pharmacy, Anita Surat
Academic year: 2025-2026
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
Mid Sessional Examination-II
COURSE: B. Pharm Class: B. Pharm-6TH SEM
SUBJECT NAME & Code: Biopharmaceutics and Pharmacokinetics (BP604TT)

Q. Content Answer
No
Unit 3
PHARMACOKINETICS
1 Pharmacokinetics mainly deals with: C
A. The mechanism of drug action
B. The effect of drugs on the body
C. The movement of drugs in the body
D. The interaction of drugs with receptors
2 Which of the following is not a major process of pharmacokinetics? D
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Drug-receptor binding
3 The study of ADME describes: C
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmaceutical chemistry
C. Pharmacokinetics
D. Toxicology
4 “What the body does to the drug” refers to: B
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Pharmacogenomics
D. Pharmacotherapy
5 The primary goal of pharmacokinetics is to: B
A. Determine drug potency
B. Optimize drug therapy and dosing
C. Identify drug targets
D. Study side effects
6 Which pharmacokinetic phase determines how much drug reaches systemic circulation? B
A. Distribution
B. Absorption
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
7 Bioavailability is defined as: B
A. Rate of drug elimination
B. Fraction of drug unchanged reaching systemic circulation
C. Speed of drug metabolism
D. Drug binding to receptors
 8 "First-pass metabolism" occurs primarily in: B
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Skin
9 Drug distribution depends mainly on: B
A. pH only
B. Protein binding & blood flow
C. Route of administration only
D. Taste of the drug
10 The process of chemical alteration of a drug in the body is: C
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
11 The main organ involved in drug excretion is: C
A. Heart
B. Skin
C. Kidney
D. Spleen
12 Half-life (t½) of a drug refers to: B
A. Time to complete absorption
B. Time to reduce drug concentration by 50%
C. Duration of action
D. Time taken to distribute drug
13 Clearance (Cl) of a drug signifies: B
A. The strength of drug binding
B. Volume of plasma cleared per unit time
C. Drug potency
D. Drug solubility
14 A drug following first-order kinetics is characterized by: B
A. Constant amount eliminated per hour
B. Constant fraction eliminated per hour
C. No elimination
D. Saturable elimination only
15 Volume of distribution (Vd) describes: B
A. The extent of drug dissolution
B. How widely a drug distributes in body tissues
C. Drug elimination rate
D. Drug therapeutic index
16 A compartment in pharmacokinetic modeling refers to: B
A. A real anatomical space
B. A hypothetical space representing drug distribution
C. A part of the GI tract only
D. Kidney only
17 Which model assumes rapid and uniform drug distribution throughout the body? C
A. Two-compartment model
B. Multi-compartment model
C. One-compartment model
D. Physiological model
18 The two-compartment model divides the body into: B
A. GI tract and liver
B. Central and peripheral compartments
C. Plasma and kidneys
D. Blood and lungs
19 In a two-compartment model, the central compartment usually includes: B
A. Skin & fat
B. Plasma, liver, kidney
C. Bone
D. Lymphatic system
20 The main assumption in compartment models is that: B
A. Drug distributes instantly everywhere
B. Drug distributes uniformly within each compartment
C. Drug does not eliminate
D. Drug follows nonlinear kinetics
21 The model that describes drug movement based on physiological organs is: C
A. Compartment model
B. Non-compartment model
C. PBPK model
D. Zero-order model
22 Which compartment model best describes drugs that show a rapid distribution phase followed by a B
slow elimination phase?
A. One-compartment
B. Two-compartment
C. Three-compartment
D. Zero-order
23 The one-compartment model elimination curve is: A
A. Linear
B. Biphasic
C. Triphasic
D. Sigmoidal
24 A biphasic plasma concentration–time curve is characteristic of: B
A. One-compartment kinetics
B. Two-compartment kinetics
C. Non-compartment analysis
D. Zero-order kinetics
25 Non-compartment models are also known as: C
A. Classical models
B. Model-dependent analysis
C. Model-independent analysis
D. Central analysis
26 Area under the curve (AUC) is most important in which model? D
A. Compartment model
B. Two-compartment model
C. Three-compartment model
D. Non-compartment model
27 The most common method for non-compartment analysis is: C
A. Wagner–Nelson method
B. Loo–Riegelman method
C. Statistical moment theory
D. Hepatic clearance model
28 Mean residence time (MRT) is a parameter used in: C
A. One-compartment analysis only
B. Compartment model
 C. Non-compartment model
D. Zero-order elimination
29 In a one-compartment open model, the body is considered as: B
A. Multiple interconnected compartments
B. A single, homogeneous compartment
C. Two compartments with equal distribution
D. Only blood compartment
30 The one-compartment model assumes: A
A. Instantaneous drug distribution throughout the body
B. Slow distribution after elimination
C. No elimination
D. Distribution only in the liver
31 The elimination of a drug in a one-compartment model generally follows: B
A. Zero-order kinetics
B. First-order kinetics
C. Mixed-order kinetics
D. Saturable kinetics
32 In a one-compartment model, the plasma concentration vs time curve after IV bolus shows: A
A. A straight line on semi-log paper
B. A parabolic curve
C. A curve with two phases
D. No change with time
33 The slope of the log plasma concentration-time curve represents: C
A. Volume of distribution
B. Absorption rate constant
C. Elimination rate constant (Ke)
D. Clearance
34 Which equation describes drug level after IV bolus in a one-compartment model? B
A. C = C₀e⁻ᵏᵃᵗ
B. C = C₀e⁻ᴋᵉᵗ
C. C = C₀ + kt
D. C = Dose / KaVd
35 What is the volume of distribution (Vd)? B
A. Measure of drug ionization
B. Hypothetical volume that relates drug in body to plasma concentration
C. Amount of drug excreted per hour
D. Actual anatomical body volume
36 Clearance (Cl) in first-order one-compartment models is defined as: B
A. Rate of drug distribution
B. Volume of plasma cleared per unit time
C. Proportion of drug bound to protein
D. Total body weight
37 Physiological pharmacokinetic models are also known as: C
a) Compartment models
b) Mammillary models
c) PBPK models
d) Linear models
38 In physiological models, drug distribution is based on: B
a) Body weight
b) Organ blood flow
c) Elimination rate only
d) Volume of injection
39 Physiological models classify tissues based on: B
a) Ionization
b) Perfusion rate
c) Toxicity
d) Solubility
40 A major advantage of physiological models is: B
a) They require limited physiological data
b) They give mechanistic understanding of drug distribution
c) They do not need organ parameters
d) They are simpler than compartment models
41 Physiological models are mainly used in: C
a) Bioavailability studies
b) Drug formulation only
c) Toxicokinetic and prediction studies
d) Tablet evaluation
42 In a one-compartment open model, the body behaves as: B
a) Multiple compartments
b) A single, homogeneous unit
c) Two units with equal distribution
d) A peripheral model
43 The drug elimination in one-compartment model follows: C
a) Zero-order kinetics
b) Non-linear kinetics
c) First-order kinetics
d) Mixed-order kinetics
44 After an IV bolus dose in one-compartment model, the plasma concentration–time curve shows: C
a) Biphasic decline
b) Zero decline
c) Monophasic exponential decline
d) No change
45 The primary parameter calculated in one-compartment open model is: B
a) Lag time
b) Volume of distribution (Vd)
c) Particle size
d) Bioadhesion
46 In one-compartment model, elimination occurs from: C
a) Peripheral tissues
b) Lymphatic system
c) Central compartment
d) Connective tissue
47 Which method is used to determine K in a one-compartment IV bolus model? C
a) Loo–Riegelman method
b) Wagner–Nelson method
c) Slope of log plasma concentration vs time plot
d) Statistical moment theory
48 The equation used for IV bolus one-compartment model is: B
a) C = C₀ + Kt
b) C = C₀ e⁻ᵏᵗ
c) C = C₀ Kt
d) C = K / C₀
49 The rate of elimination is equal to: B
a) K × dose
b) K × concentration
c) Dose / concentration
d) Vd × concentration
50 Half-life (t½) in one-compartment model is given by: C
a) 0.5 × K
b) K / 2.303
c) 0.693 / K
d) 2.303 / K
51 The central compartment includes: C
a) Skin and bone
b) Poorly perfused tissues
c) Plasma and highly perfused organs
d) Adipose tissue only
52 In IV bolus administration, the drug is: B
a) Given slowly over several hours
b) Given directly into the vein as a single dose
c) Applied on the skin
d) Given orally
53 In a one-compartment IV bolus model, the plasma concentration decreases in: C
a) Zero order
b) Biphasic manner
c) First-order kinetics
d) No decline
54 C₀ (initial concentration) after IV bolus is obtained by: A
a) Intercept of log C vs t plot
b) Direct measurement
c) Urine collection
d) Bioassay
55 During constant IV infusion, the rate of drug entry is: B
a) Exceeding elimination
b) Equal throughout the infusion
c) Variable
d) Zero
56 Steady-state concentration (Css) is achieved when: A
a) Rate of administration = Rate of elimination
b) Distribution is complete
c) Drug is fully metabolized
d) Ka = Ke
57 Time to reach steady-state in IV infusion depends on: C
a) Rate of infusion
b) Dose
c) Half-life
d) Bioavailability
58 Extravascular routes require an additional process: C
a) Distribution
b) Elimination
c) Absorption
d) Bioassay
59 Flip-flop kinetics occurs when: A
a) Ka < Ke
b) Ka > Ke
c) Ka = Ke
d) Vd is very high
60 Bioavailability (F) is calculated using: A
a) AUC (extravascular) / AUC (IV) × Dose IV / Dose Extravascular
b) Cmax / Tmax
c) Vd / Ke
d) Ka × Ke
61 Ke (elimination rate constant) is determined from: B
a) Cmax
b) Slope of terminal log concentration vs time plot
c) Urine data only
d) IV infusion data
62 Biological half-life (t½) is given by: B
a) 1 / Ke
b) 0.693 / Ke
c) Ke / 0.693
d) Vd / Ke
63 Volume of distribution (Vd) indicates: B
a) Strength of drug
b) Theoretical space available for drug distribution
c) Plasma binding
d) Bioassay value
64 Volume of distribution after IV bolus is calculated as: A
a) Dose / C₀
b) Dose × Ke
c) Cmax × AUC
d) Ke / Cl
65 Ka (absorption rate constant) applies ONLY to: C
a) IV bolus
b) IV infusion
c) Extravascular administration
d) All routes
66 Total body clearance (Clt) is defined as: B
a) Volume of plasma containing drug
b) Volume cleared of drug per unit time
c) Plasma concentration
d) Drug remaining in tissues
67 Renal clearance (CLR) involves: B
a) Filtration only
b) Filtration, secretion, reabsorption
c) Metabolism only
d) Biliary elimination
68 If CLR < GFR, the drug undergoes: B
a) Tubular secretion
b) Active reabsorption
c) No filtration
d) Enhanced metabolism
69 If CLR > GFR, the drug undergoes: B
a) Filtration only
b) Tubular secretion
c) Reabsorption
d) No elimination
 Unit 4
MULTICOMPARTMENT MODELS

70 In a two-compartment model, the body is divided into: B

a) Blood and tissues
b) Central and peripheral compartments
c) Liver and kidney
d) Intracellular and extracellular
71 Central compartment includes: C
a) Skin and fat
b) Bone
c) High perfusion organs
d) Muscle
72 The initial rapid decline in plasma drug levels is due to: C
a) Elimination
b) Absorption
c) Distribution
d) Metabolism
73 The slow terminal phase in two-compartment model represents: B
a) Distribution
b) Elimination
c) Absorption
d) Reabsorption
74 The slope of β-phase in log concentration vs time plot represents: C
a) Distribution rate
b) Absorption
c) Elimination rate
d) Reabsorption
75 Which constant represents distribution rate? A
a) α
b) β
c) Ka
d) Kel
76 The two-compartment model plasma concentration–time curve is: B
a) Single exponential
b) Biphasic
c) Linear
d) Flat
77 After IV bolus, C(t) in two-compartment model is: B
a) C = C₀ e⁻ᵏᵗ
b) C = Ae⁻ᵅᵗ + Be⁻ᵝᵗ
c) C = AUC × dose
d) C = Ke / Vd
78 The term A in the biexponential equation represents: B
a) Intercept of elimination phase
b) Intercept of distribution phase
c) Absorption intercept
d) Renal clearance
79 The parameter β in the equation corresponds to: A
a) Slow elimination phase
b) Rapid distribution phase
c) Absorption
d) Bioavailability
80 K12 represents: B
a) Elimination from central
b) Transfer from central to peripheral
c) Transfer from peripheral to central
d) Absorption
81 K21 represents: B
a) Drug loss
b) Movement from peripheral to central
c) Reabsorption
d) Bioavailability
82 K10 represents: A
a) Elimination from central compartment
b) Absorption
c) Tissue binding
d) Reabsorption
83 Drug elimination occurs mainly from: C
a) Peripheral compartment
b) Both compartments
c) Central compartment
d) Tissues
84 Vc is: B
a) Volume of distribution at steady state
b) Volume of central compartment
c) Volume of peripheral compartment
d) Total body volume
85 Vdss means: B
a) Volume of drug solution
b) Volume of distribution at steady state
c) Volume of extravascular fluid
d) Rate constant
86 Vβ (Varea) is mainly influenced by: C
a) Distribution only
b) Elimination only
c) Both distribution and elimination
d) Absorption
87 Vc is usually: B
a) Larger than Vβ
b) Smaller than Vβ
c) Equal to Vβ
d) Unrelated
88 Accumulation occurs when a drug is given: A
a) Before complete elimination
b) Only after full elimination
c) With high Vd
d) IV only
89 Steady state is achieved when: C
a) Ke increases
b) Ka = Ke
c) Rate in = rate out
d) Dose doubles
90 Time to reach steady state is dependent on: B
a) Dose
b) Half-life
c) Route
d) Vd
91 Number of half-lives needed for steady-state: D
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4–5
92 At steady state, plasma levels show: B
a) No fluctuation
b) Controlled fluctuation
c) Excess accumulation
d) Zero levels
93 Larger dosing interval (τ) causes: B
a) Greater accumulation
b) Less accumulation
c) No change
d) Faster steady-state
94 Cmin,ss depends on: B
a) Distribution
b) Clearance and dosing interval
c) Ka only
d) Bioavailability
95 Cmax,ss is affected by: B
a) Loading dose only
b) Dose & τ
c) Vd only
d) Absorption only
96 Loading dose is given to: B
a) Increase bioavailability
b) Quickly reach therapeutic concentration
c) Reduce toxicity
d) Stop elimination
97 Loading dose is primarily calculated to: B
A. Maintain steady-state concentration
B. Rapidly achieve therapeutic plasma concentration
C. Reduce drug toxicity
D. Prevent first-pass metabolism
98 Maintenance dose (MD) is calculated using which formula? B
A. MD = Css × Vd
B. MD = Cl × Css × τ / F
C. MD = Vd × F
D. MD = Css / Cl
(Where τ = dosing interval)
99 A drug has Vd = 40 L, desired plasma concentration (Css) = 10 mg/L, and F = 0.8. The loading dose is: C
A. 320 mg
B. 400 mg
C. 500 mg
D. 600 mg
Calculation:
LD = (10 × 40) / 0.8 = 400 / 0.8 = 500 mg
100 If clearance of a drug decreases due to renal impairment, the maintenance dose should be: B
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Unchanged
D. Doubled
101 Which pharmacokinetic parameter primarily determines maintenance dose? C
A. Volume of distribution
B. Half-life
C. Clearance
D. Bioavailability
102 Loading dose depends mainly on: B
A. Clearance
B. Volume of distribution
C. Half-life
D. Dosing interval
103 A loading dose is especially important for drugs with: B
A. Short half-life
B. Narrow therapeutic index only
C. Long half-life
D. Low bioavailability only
104 In IV administration (F = 1), loading dose formula becomes: A
A. LD = Css × Vd
B. LD = Cl × Css
C. LD = Css / Vd
D. LD = Vd / Cl
105 A drug with high Vd will require: B
A. Smaller loading dose
B. Larger loading dose
C. Smaller maintenance dose
D. No loading dose
106 The main purpose of calculating loading and maintenance doses in clinical settings is to: B
A. Reduce cost of therapy
B. Individualize drug therapy
C. Increase dosing frequency
D. Eliminate adverse effects completely
Unit 5
NONLINEAR PHARMACOKINETICS

107 Nonlinear pharmacokinetics is also known as: D

A. First-order kinetics
B. Zero-order kinetics
C. Dose-independent kinetics
D. Capacity-limited kinetics
108 In nonlinear pharmacokinetics, plasma concentration is: C
A. Directly proportional to dose
B. Inversely proportional to dose
C. Not proportional to dose
D. Independent of dose
109 The primary cause of nonlinear pharmacokinetics is: B
A. Rapid absorption
B. Enzyme saturation
C. Increased protein binding
D. High bioavailability
110 Which kinetics follows Michaelis–Menten equation? C
A. First-order
B. Zero-order
C. Capacity-limited
D. Linear one-compartment
111 The Michaelis–Menten equation is: B
A. Rate = Cl × C
B. Rate = Vmax × C / (Km + C)
C. Rate = Dose × F
D. Rate = Vd × C
112 Vmax represents: B
A. Minimum elimination rate
B. Maximum elimination rate
C. Volume of distribution
D. Bioavailability
113 Km is defined as the concentration at which: B
A. Rate is zero
B. Rate is half of Vmax
C. Rate is maximum
D. Elimination stops
114 When C << Km, elimination follows: B
A. Zero-order kinetics
B. First-order kinetics
C. Mixed-order kinetics
D. No elimination
115 When C >> Km, elimination approaches: B
A. First-order
B. Zero-order
C. Linear
D. Biphasic
116 Which drug shows nonlinear pharmacokinetics? A
A. Phenytoin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Atenolol
D. Ceftriaxone
117 A small increase in dose causing a large increase in plasma level indicates: B
A. Linear kinetics
B. Nonlinear kinetics
C. First-pass metabolism
D. High clearance
118 Saturable plasma protein binding may result in: B
A. Decreased free drug
B. Increased free drug
C. No change
D. Zero elimination
119 Which parameter changes with dose in nonlinear kinetics? A
A. Clearance
B. Vmax
C. Km
D. Molecular weight
120 In nonlinear kinetics, half-life is: C
A. Constant
B. Dose-independent
C. Dose-dependent
D. Always 24 hours
121 Graph of rate vs concentration in nonlinear kinetics is: B
A. Straight line
B. Hyperbolic curve
C. Parabolic
D. Exponential decay
122 Lineweaver–Burk plot is used to estimate: C
A. Clearance
B. Half-life
C. Vmax and Km
D. Bioavailability
123 Lineweaver–Burk equation is: A
A. 1/V vs 1/C
B. V vs C
C. Log C vs time
D. Dose vs response
124 In Lineweaver–Burk plot, slope equals: A
A. Km/Vmax
B. Vmax/Km
C. 1/Km
D. Km
125 Intercept on Y-axis in Lineweaver–Burk plot is: C
A. Km
B. Vmax
C. 1/Vmax
D. 1/Km
126 Which drug shows saturable metabolism at therapeutic dose? B
A. Warfarin
B. Phenytoin
C. Metoprolol
D. Ciprofloxacin
127 Ethanol elimination follows: B
A. First-order
B. Zero-order
C. Mixed-order
D. No elimination
128 Example of drug showing saturable protein binding: A
A. Valproic acid
B. Paracetamol
C. Ranitidine
D. Doxycycline
129 Capacity-limited elimination becomes clinically significant when: B
A. Dose is low
B. Dose is high
C. F is zero
D. Vd is small
130 Km has unit of: C
A. mg/hr
B. L/hr
C. mg/L
D. mg
131 Vmax has unit of: A
A. mg/hr
B. mg/L
C. L
D. hr
132 Which process rarely causes nonlinearity? C
A. Active transport
B. Saturable metabolism
C. Passive diffusion
D. Saturable renal secretion
133 In nonlinear kinetics, AUC increases: B
A. Proportionally with dose
B. More than proportionally
C. Less than proportionally
D. Independently
134 If Km is small, it indicates: B
A. Low affinity
B. High affinity
C. No affinity
D. Zero elimination
135 Which drug exhibits dose-dependent kinetics? A
A. Phenytoin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Cefixime
D. Losartan
136 Which characteristic confirms nonlinear pharmacokinetics? C
A. Constant clearance
B. Constant half-life
C. Dose-dependent clearance
D. Linear AUC
137 In nonlinear kinetics, steady-state concentration is achieved after: B
A. 4–5 half-lives (always constant)
B. Unpredictable time due to changing half-life
C. 1 half-life
D. 2 half-lives
138 If a drug shows saturable metabolism, doubling the dose will: C
A. Double plasma concentration
B. Less than double concentration
C. More than double concentration
D. Not change concentration
139 Which pharmacokinetic parameter remains constant in nonlinear kinetics? C
A. Clearance
B. Half-life
C. Vmax
D. AUC
140 When plasma concentration equals Km, elimination rate is: B
A. Maximum
B. Half of Vmax
C. Zero
D. Double Vmax
141 A drug with Km = 5 mg/L and concentration = 50 mg/L will follow mostly: B
A. First-order kinetics
B. Zero-order kinetics
C. No elimination
D. Linear kinetics
142 Nonlinearity due to absorption may occur because of: B
A. Passive diffusion
B. Saturable carrier transport
C. Increased solubility
D. High Vd
143 Which drug requires therapeutic drug monitoring due to nonlinear kinetics? A
A. Phenytoin
B. Cefuroxime
C. Pantoprazole
D. Azithromycin
144 In nonlinear pharmacokinetics, AUC is: B
A. Directly proportional to dose
B. Not proportional to dose
C. Independent of dose
D. Always constant
145 Saturation of plasma protein binding leads to: B
A. Decreased free fraction
B. Increased free fraction
C. No change in free fraction
D. Complete elimination
146 If Vmax = 500 mg/hr and Km = 10 mg/L, the elimination rate at C = 10 mg/L is: B
A. 500 mg/hr
B. 250 mg/hr
C. 100 mg/hr
D. 10 mg/hr
147 Which organ is mainly responsible for saturable metabolism? B
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lung
D. Skin
148 Mixed-order kinetics occurs when: C
A. C << Km
B. C >> Km
C. C ≈ Km
D. C = 0
 149 Which drug follows zero-order elimination at therapeutic dose? A
A. Ethanol
B. Aspirin
C. Cefixime
D. Metformin
150 Clearance in nonlinear kinetics: C
A. Remains constant
B. Increases with dose
C. Decreases with increasing dose
D. Equals Vmax

Students write Assignment for MID sessiSonal Examination- II for

Subject: Biopharmaceutics and Pharmacokinetics (BP604TT)

SR NO. ASSIGNMENT ENROLLMENT NO

LONG QUESTIONS

1. Explain MRT (mean residence time) and discuss advantage & dis-
advantage of non-compartment technique.
2. What is the influence of Ka and Ke on Cmax, Tmax and AUC?
3. Explain multi compartment model and give a detail note on kinetics of
multiple dosing.

Set A SHORT QUESTIONS 1 to 35

1. Define Pharmacokinetics. Explain the processes involved in ADME.
2. Define compartment models. Classify different types of
compartment models.
3. What is AUC (Area Under Curve)? State its importance in bioavailability
studies.
4. Differentiate between one-compartment and two-compartment
models
5. What are the characteristics of nonlinear pharmacokinetics?

LONG QUESTIONS

1. What are the Pharmacokinetic model? Explain the concept of

physiological pharmacokinetic model.
2. Describe plasma level time curve with parameter.
3. Discuss the cause of non-linearity in pharmacokinetic
SET B
SHORT QUESTIONS 36 to 73
1. Differentiate between Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics.
2. Define Volume of distribution (Vd). Mention its significance.
3. Write advantages and limitations of two-compartment modeling.
4. Define Loading Dose (LD). Write its formula and clinical
significance.
5. Define Michaelis–Menten equation in pharmacokinetics.
 Vidhyadeep Institute of Pharmacy, Anita, Surat
Academic year: 2025-2026
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
Mid Sessional Examination-II
COURSE: [Link]
Class: [Link] 6th Sem
SUBJECT NAME & Code: Industrial Pharmacy-I (BP605TP)
Subject Incharge: Mr. Mehul Luhar
Q. No Content Answer
Unit III
What is the primary raw material used in the production of hard gelatin capsule shells?
a) Starch
b) Gelatin B
1.
c) Cellulose
d) Pectin
Which of the following is NOT a method used for filling hard gelatin capsules?
a) Auger filling
b) Extrusion filling B
2.
c) Vibratory filling
d) Piston filling
What is the largest capsule size available in hard gelatin capsules?
a) 0
C
3. b) 1
c) 000
d) 4
What is the primary cause of brittleness in hard gelatin capsules?
a) High humidity
B
4. b) Low moisture content
c) Excessive lubrication
d) Use of plasticizers
What is the purpose of band sealing in hard gelatin capsules?
a) To increase dissolution rate
b) To prevent tampering and leakage B
5.
c) To increase moisture content
d) To reduce capsule size
In process quality control of hard gelatin capsules involves:
a) Weight variation, moisture content, and visual inspection
b) Friability, disintegration, and thickness A
6.
c) Tensile strength and fracture analysis
d) Adhesion testing and microbial load analysis
Which type of gelatin is derived from acid-treated precursor collagen?
a) Type A gelatin
b) Type B gelatin A
7.
c) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose
d) None of the above
 What is the main function of opacifiers in hard gelatin capsules?
a) To improve solubility
b) To protect light-sensitive drugs B
8.
c) To reduce moisture absorption
d) To increase the weight of the capsule
Which factor does NOT affect the dissolution rate of hard gelatin capsules?
a) Capsule size
b) Color of the gelatin shell B
9.
c) Hydrophilicity of the drug
d) Type of excipient used
Why are hard gelatin capsules stored in airtight containers?
a) To prevent moisture absorption and brittleness
b) To enhance drug solubility A
10.
c) To reduce microbial growth
d) To improve the appearance of the capsule
What is the primary reason for adding plasticizers to gelatin capsules?
a) To increase solubility
b) To enhance drug release C
11.
c) To improve capsule flexibility and reduce brittleness
d) To increase the weight of the capsule
What is the function of the locking grooves in hard gelatin capsules?
a) To prevent accidental separation of the cap and body
b) To enhance solubility A
12.
c) To improve bioavailability
d) To facilitate easy swallowing
Which material is commonly used for making hard gelatin capsule alternatives for vegetarians?
a) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC)
b) Starch A
13.
c) Pectin
d) Gelatin
What happens if the moisture content of a hard gelatin capsule falls below 10%?
a) Capsules become brittle
b) Capsules swell A
14.
c) Capsules melt
d) Capsules dissolve faster
What is the significance of the capsule size in formulation?
a) It affects dissolution only
b) It determines the drug dose capacity and ease of swallowing B
15.
c) It affects only weight variation
d) It has no impact on formulation
What is the most common defect observed in hard gelatin capsules due to high humidity?
a) Capsule softening and sticking
b) Capsule shrinking A
16.
c) Capsule hardening
d) Capsule becoming brittle
What is the most common defect observed in hard gelatin capsules due to high humidity? A
17. a) Capsule softening and sticking
 b) Capsule shrinking
c) Capsule hardening
d) Capsule becoming brittle
Why is titanium dioxide used in hard gelatin capsules?
a) As an opacifier to prevent light degradation
b) As a sweetening agent A
18.
c) As a preservative
d) As a lubricant
What is the effect of cross-linking on hard gelatin capsules?
a) Reduced dissolution rate
b) Increased fragility A
19.
c) Better bioavailability
d) Higher capsule weight
Which component in gelatin is responsible for its gel-forming ability?
a) Collagen
b) Cellulose A
20.
c) Pectin
d) Glycogen
Which size of hard gelatin capsule has the smallest volume?
a) 000
b) 0 D
21.
c) 4
d) 5
What is the role of sorbitol in capsule formulation?
a) Plasticizer to improve flexibility
b) Disintegrant A
22.
c) Preservative
d) Opacifier
Which plasticizer is commonly used in the formulation of soft gelatin capsule shells?
a) Glycerin
b) Talc A
23.
c) Sodium lauryl sulfate
d) Starch
Soft gelatin capsules are primarily used for:
a) Encapsulating liquid and semi-solid drugs
b) Encapsulating powders only A
24.
c) Storing hygroscopic drugs
d) Holding compressed tablets
Which factor is important in selecting a vehicle for soft gelatin capsules?
a) Base adsorption
b) Drug molecular weight A
25.
c) Capsule color
d) Capsule weight variation
What does the term "minim/gram factor" refer to in soft gelatin capsules?
a) The relationship between the volume and weight of the capsule fill A
26.
b) The moisture content of the shell
 c) The plasticizer content in the capsule shell
d) The capsule disintegration time
What is the main production method for soft gelatin capsules?
a) Rotary die process
b) Direct compression A
27.
c) Wet granulation
d) Dry granulation
Why are soft gelatin capsules packed in blister packs or airtight containers?
a) To prevent moisture absorption
b) To increase drug dissolution A
28.
c) To improve weight uniformity
d) To enhance bioavailability
Which test is performed to check for leaks in soft gelatin capsules?
a) Leak test
b) Weight variation test A
29.
c) Hardness test
d) Friability test
What is the primary disadvantage of soft gelatin capsules?
a) Higher cost of production
b) Poor bioavailability A
30.
c) Cannot encapsulate oily drugs
d) Low drug stability
What storage condition is recommended for soft gelatin capsules?
a) Cool and dry environment with controlled humidity
b) High temperature and high humidity A
31.
c) Freezing conditions
d) Direct sunlight exposure
Why is it important to control the pH of the fill material in soft gelatin capsules?
a) To prevent gelatin shell degradation
b) To improve solubility A
32.
c) To increase bioavailability
d) To prevent moisture absorption
What is the most common cause of soft gelatin capsule shell hardening over time?
a) Loss of plasticizer
b) Excessive moisture A
33.
c) Microbial contamination
d) Capsule rupture
Which of the following is NOT a plasticizer used in soft gelatin capsules?
a) Magnesium stearate
b) Glycerin A
34.
c) Sorbitol
d) Propylene glycol
What type of drugs are best suited for soft gelatin capsules?
a) Lipid-soluble and poorly water-soluble drugs
b) Highly water-soluble drugs A
35.
c) Dry powders
d) Tablets
 Which of the following capsule types has a pre-locking and locking system?
a) HGC
b) SGC A
36.
c) Both HGC and SGC
d) Neither HGC nor SGC
Which capsule type is more prone to microbial contamination?
a) SGC due to higher moisture content
b) HGC due to its porous shell A
37.
c) Both are equally prone
d) Neither type can be contaminated
Which of the following is a common filling material for HGC but not SGC?
a) Granules and powders
b) Oils A
38.
c) Suspensions
d) Emulsions
Which capsule type generally has a longer shelf life?
a) HGC, due to lower moisture content
b) SGC, due to its sealed structure A
39.
c) Both have equal shelf life
d) SGC, because it contains plasticizers
Which capsule type is commonly used for time-release formulations?
a) HGC with coated pellets inside
b) SGC with liquid formulation A
40.
c) HGC with liquid formulation
d) SGC with granules
What is the primary purpose of pelletization in pharmaceuticals?
a) To improve drug release and bioavailability
b) To increase drug viscosity A
41.
c) To enhance drug weight
d) To reduce drug potency
Which of the following is a key requirement for pellet formulation?
a) Good sphericity and uniform size distribution
b) High moisture content A
42.
c) High tablet hardness
d) Low drug solubility
What is the typical size range of pharmaceutical pellets?
a) 0.1-0.5 mm
b) 0.5-2.0 mm B
43.
c) 2.0-5.0 mm
d) 5.0-10.0 mm
Which of the following excipients is commonly used as a binder in pellet formulation?
a) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC)
b) Magnesium stearate A
44.
c) Talc
d) Lactose
Which pelletization process involves extruding a wet mass through a screen followed by A
45. rounding in a spheronizer?
 a) Extrusion-spheronization
b) Solution layering
c) Direct pelletization
d) Compression molding
Which pelletization technique is best for controlled-release drug formulations?
a) Extrusion-spheronization
b) Direct compression A
46.
c) Freeze-drying
d) Dry granulation
What is a major disadvantage of the extrusion-spheronization process?
a) High equipment cost and complex process
b) Low drug loading capacity A
47.
c) Poor mechanical strength of pellets
d) High friability
Which of the following is NOT a step in the extrusion-spheronization process?
a) Compression molding
b) Extrusion A
48.
c) Spheronization
d) Drying
What is the ideal characteristic of a pharmaceutical pellet?
a) Uniform size, smooth surface, and good mechanical strength
b) Irregular shape and large size distribution A
49.
c) High moisture content and soft texture
d) Variable hardness and rough surface
Which of the following factors does NOT significantly affect pellet size?
a) Capsule shell composition
b) Extruder screen size A
50.
c) Spheronization speed
d) Binder concentration
What is the role of MCC (Microcrystalline Cellulose) in extrusion-spheronization?
a) Acts as a spheronization aid to improve pellet formation
b) Increases capsule dissolution A
51.
c) Improves pellet friability
d) Reduces drug bioavailability
What is the primary function of the spheronizer in pelletization?
a) To convert cylindrical extrudates into spherical pellets
b) To dry the pellets A
52.
c) To coat the pellets
d) To compress pellets into tablets
What is the main difference between direct pelletization and extrusion-spheronization?
a) Direct pelletization does not require extrusion before shaping
b) Direct pelletization requires more moisture A
53.
c) Extrusion-spheronization is less time-consuming
d) Direct pelletization needs a fluidized bed processor
Which type of extruder is commonly used in the pharmaceutical industry for pellet production?
a) Screw extruder A
54.
b) Ball mill
 c) Jet mill
d) Hammer mill
Which of the following is NOT a key quality attribute of pharmaceutical pellets?
a) Low density and irregular shape
b) Good flow properties A
55.
c) Uniform size distribution
d) Controlled release potential
Unit IV
Which type of parenteral formulation is designed to deliver medication in large volumes,
typically over 100 mL?
a) Emulsions B
56.
b) Large volume parenterals (LVPs)
c) Small volume parenterals (SVPs)
d) Lyophilized powders
Which of the following is NOT a preformulation factor considered in parenteral product
development?
a) Solubility C
57.
b) Stability
c) Color
d) Compatibility with containers
Isotonicity in parenteral solutions is critical to avoid which of the following?
a) Precipitation of drug
C
58. b) Chemical degradation
c) Tissue irritation and cell lysis
d) Drug interaction with containers
Which of the following is a commonly used vehicle for lipophilic drugs in parenteral
formulations?
a) Water for injection B
59.
b) Lipids/Oils
c) Ethanol
d) Sodium chloride solution
Which sterilization method is ideal for heat-labile parenteral products?
a) Autoclaving
b) Dry heat sterilization C
60.
c) Filtration
d) Radiation
Which of the following describes lyophilization?
a) Use of dry heat for sterilization
B
61. b) Freeze-drying of a product to increase its shelf life
c) Heat-induced sealing of ampoules
d) Addition of preservatives for sterility
What is the purpose of a pyrogen test in parenteral formulations?
a) To check for microbial contamination
b) To detect fever-inducing substances B
62.
c) To assess stability
d) To ensure isotonicity
Which factor is critical in the selection of containers for parenteral formulations? 1
a) Transparency B
63.
b) Compatibility with the formulation
 c) Size of the container
d) Aesthetic appearance
Sterile powders used in parenteral formulations are not reconstituted with which of the
following before administration?
a) Normal saline C
64.
b) Water for injection
c) Alcohol
d) Dextrose solution
Which quality control test ensures that parenteral solutions are free from visible particulates?
a) Pyrogen testing
b) Particulate matter testing B
65.
c) Sterility testing
d) Endotoxin testing
Why is isotonicity important in intravenous solutions? 1
a) To enhance drug solubility
b) To avoid hemolysis of red blood cells B
66.
c) To increase shelf life
d) To improve taste
Which of the following describes the freezing and sublimation process used in parenteral
formulations?
a) Emulsification C
67.
b) Filtration
c) Lyophilization
d) Autoclaving
Which method is typically used to check for pyrogens in parenteral formulations?
a) Particulate matter testing
b) Limulus Amoebocyte Lysate test B
68.
c) Sterility testing
d) Dissolution testing
Which of the following is the primary environmental requirement in a parenteral production
facility?
a) High humidity C
69.
b) Controlled noise levels
c) Sterile environment
d) Low lighting
What is the classification of a cleanroom environment suitable for aseptic manufacturing of
parenterals according to ISO standards?
a) ISO Class 9 C
70.
b) ISO Class 5
c) ISO Class 7
d) ISO Class 8
What is the purpose of pressure differentials in cleanroom environments? 1
a) To lower energy costs
b) To prevent air contamination by controlling airflow between areas B
71.
c) To enhance product stability
d) To maintain low humidity
 Which of the following is used to monitor the particle count in the air of sterile manufacturing
facilities?
a) HEPA filter integrity test C
72.
b) Microbial bioburden test
c) Laser particle counter
d) Conductivity meter
Which process is used to control microbial contamination in the water used for parenteral
formulations?
a) Reverse osmosis and UV sterilization A
73.
b) Ultrafiltration and heating
c) Sedimentation and boiling
d) Ion exchange and filtration
Which schedule outlines the Good Manufacturing Practice requirements for sterile production
in India?
a) WHO GMP B
74.
b) Schedule M
c) ISO 9001
d) USFDA GMP
Which of the following is a key component of the HVAC system in sterile parenteral
production? 1
a) Condensers B
75.
b) HEPA filters
c) Air compressors
d) Dehumidifiers
Which of the following is NOT a requirement for ophthalmic preparations?
a) Must be highly viscous
b) Must be sterile A
76.
c) Must be isotonic
d) Must be free from pyrogens
Which type of container is most suitable for storing eye drops?
a) Sterile plastic or glass dropper bottles
b) Open glass containers A
77.
c) Plastic sachets
d) Metallic tubes
Which preservative is commonly used in ophthalmic preparations?
a) Benzalkonium chloride
b) Magnesium stearate A
78.
c) Talc
d) Starch
Which of the following is NOT a formulation requirement for ophthalmic preparations?
a) Must be opaque
b) Must be free from particulates A
79.
c) Must have a suitable viscosity
d) Must be isotonic with tears
Which of the following is added to ophthalmic preparations to adjust tonicity?
a) Sodium chloride A
80.
b) Talc
 c) Gelatin
d) Magnesium stearate

Which of the following ophthalmic preparations is used for prolonged drug action?
a) Eye lotions
b) Eye ointments B
81.
c) Eye drops
d) Eye solutions
What is the purpose of adding viscosity enhancers in ophthalmic formulations?
a) To increase retention time on the eye
b) To decrease drug absorption A
82.
c) To enhance the bitterness of the drug
d) To prevent microbial growth
Which of the following is NOT used as a viscosity enhancer in eye drops?
a) Talc
A
83. b) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (HPMC)
c) Methylcellulose
d) Polyvinyl alcohol
What is the primary advantage of ophthalmic ointments over eye drops?
a) Longer contact time with the eye
b) Faster onset of action A
84.
c) Lower irritation potential
d) No need for sterility
Which type of ophthalmic preparation is used for eye irrigation?
a) Eye lotions
b) Eye ointments A
85.
c) Suspensions
d) Eye gels
What is the primary disadvantage of using benzalkonium chloride as a preservative?
a) May cause irritation and damage to corneal cells
b) Has poor solubility A
86.
c) Cannot be used in solutions
d) Reduces drug absorption
Which ophthalmic preparation is used to remove foreign particles from the eye?
a) Eye lotions
b) Eye drops A
87.
c) Eye ointments
d) Eye suspensions
Which evaluation test is NOT commonly performed on ophthalmic preparations?
a) Friability test
b) Sterility test A
88.
c) Clarity test
d) pH determination
What is the function of humectants in ophthalmic formulations?
a) To prevent drying of the formulation A
89.
b) To act as an emulsifier
 c) To improve solubility
d) To provide color

Which factor affects the bioavailability of ophthalmic preparations the most?

a) Retention time on the cornea
b) Capsule shell composition A
90.
c) Drug molecular weight alone
d) Presence of dyes
What is the purpose of adding chelating agents in ophthalmic formulations?
a) To enhance the stability of the formulation
b) To act as a surfactant A
91.
c) To improve penetration into the eye
d) To increase viscosity
What is the function of a surfactant in ophthalmic formulations?
a) To improve drug solubility and spreading on the eye surface
b) To act as a preservative A
92.
c) To reduce microbial contamination
d) To enhance drug degradation
Which of the following is a major disadvantage of ophthalmic ointments?
a) Blurring of vision
b) Poor sterility A
93.
c) Fast elimination from the eye
d) Low bioavailability
What is the purpose of isotonicity in ophthalmic preparations?
a) To prevent irritation and discomfort
b) To enhance drug penetration A
94.
c) To decrease viscosity
d) To increase microbial resistance
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate container for ophthalmic ointments?
a) Glass bottles
b) Aluminum tubes A
95.
c) Plastic tubes
d) Laminated tubes
Which of the following tests is used to evaluate the clarity of ophthalmic solutions?
a) Visual inspection under light
b) Weight variation test A
96.
c) Hardness test
d) Disintegration test
Which of the following is used to evaluate the sterility of ophthalmic preparations?
a) Membrane filtration method
b) Friability test A
97.
c) Viscosity test
d) Content uniformity test
What is the recommended storage condition for ophthalmic preparations?
a) Cool, dry place away from direct light A
98.
b) Freezing temperature
 c) High humidity conditions
d) Exposed to sunlight
Which of the following is the most preferred method for sterilizing ophthalmic ointments?
a) Dry heat sterilization
b) Filtration A
99.
c) Autoclaving
d) Gamma radiation
Which test is essential for ophthalmic solutions to check for visible particulate matter?
a) Clarity test
b) pH determination A
100.
c) Sterility test
d) Osmolarity test
Which formulation type is preferred for drugs with poor aqueous solubility in ophthalmic use?
a) Ophthalmic suspension
b) Ophthalmic solution A
101.
c) Eye lotion
d) Ophthalmic powder
The tonicity of ophthalmic solutions should be equivalent to:
a) 0.9% NaCl solution
b) 5% NaCl solution A
102.
c) 2% dextrose solution
d) 50% glycerin solution
Which of the following ophthalmic dosage forms provides sustained drug release?
a) Ophthalmic ointments and gels
b) Eye lotions A
103.
c) Ophthalmic solutions
d) Ophthalmic suspensions without mucoadhesive agents
What is the most common vehicle used for ophthalmic solutions?
a) Purified water
b) Ethanol A
104.
c) Chloroform
d) Acetone
Which of the following is a commonly used antioxidant in ophthalmic preparations?
a) Sodium metabisulfite
b) Starch A
105.
c) Hydrochloric acid
d) Sodium hydroxide
Which of the following ophthalmic formulations requires a shaking instruction before use?
a) Ophthalmic suspensions
b) Ophthalmic solutions A
106.
c) Eye lotions
d) Ophthalmic ointments
Why are ophthalmic suspensions formulated with micronized drug particles?
a) To prevent irritation and ensure uniform drug dispersion
b) To enhance viscosity A
107.
c) To improve tonicity
d) To reduce drug solubility
 Which of the following is NOT a requirement for ophthalmic containers?
a) Must be made of metal
b) Must be sterile A
108.
c) Must prevent contamination
d) Must allow controlled dispensing
The most commonly used gel-forming polymer in ophthalmic formulations is:
a) Carbopol
b) Gelatin A
109.
c) Magnesium stearate
d) Talc
The addition of boric acid in ophthalmic preparations is mainly for:
a) Buffering and tonicity adjustment
b) Preservative action A
110.
c) Antioxidant effect
d) Enhancing viscosity
Which of the following is NOT a suitable vehicle for ophthalmic formulations?
a) Alcohol
b) Purified water A
111.
c) Polyethylene glycol
d) Propylene glycol
Which of the following is NOT a commonly used preservative in ophthalmic formulations?
a) Sodium bicarbonate
b) Benzalkonium chloride A
112.
c) Phenylmercuric nitrate
d) Chlorobutanol
The expiration date of ophthalmic eye drops after opening is usually:
a) 28 days
b) 1 year A
113.
c) 6 months
d) 3 months
The most commonly used vehicle in ophthalmic ointments is:
a) Petrolatum and mineral oil
b) Glycerin A
114.
c) Ethanol
d) Polyvinyl alcohol
Why are ophthalmic preparations packaged in single-dose units in some cases?
a) To eliminate the need for preservatives and enhance sterility
b) To improve viscosity A
115.
c) To increase shelf life
d) To reduce manufacturing costs
Which of the following is the BEST sterilization method for ophthalmic solutions?
a) Membrane filtration (0.22-micron filter)
b) Dry heat sterilization A
116.
c) Gamma radiation
d) Autoclaving
Unit V
 Which of the following is the main component of lipstick?
a) Wax
b) Talc A
117.
c) Alcohol
d) Gelatin
Which type of wax is commonly used in lipstick formulation?
a) Beeswax
b) Gelatin A
118.
c) Pectin
d) Paraffin
What is the main purpose of antioxidants in lipsticks?
a) To prevent rancidity of oils and fats
b) To enhance color A
119.
c) To improve texture
d) To provide fragrance
Which of the following ingredients gives shine and gloss to lipsticks?
a) Castor oil
A
120. b) Silica
c) Starch
d) Magnesium stearate
Which of the following is used as a coloring agent in lipsticks?
a) Lake pigments
b) Talc A
121.
c) Bentonite
d) Glycerin
Which of the following is NOT a common defect in lipsticks?
a) High friability
b) Sweating A
122.
c) Blooming
d) Breaking
What is the role of lanolin in lipstick formulations?
a) Acts as an emollient and moisturizer
b) Provides color A
123.
c) Works as a preservative
d) Improves hardness
What is the main ingredient in shampoo formulations?
a) Surfactants
A
124. b) Waxes
c) Preservatives
d) Alcohol
Which of the following is used as a pH adjuster in shampoos?
a) Citric acid
A
125. b) Sodium chloride
c) Talc
d) Bentonite
What is the role of conditioning agents in shampoos?
a) To improve hair texture and reduce static electricity
A
126. b) To increase foaming
c) To act as a thickener
d) To add color
 Which of the following surfactants is commonly used in shampoos?
a) Sodium lauryl sulfate (SLS)
A
127. b) Beeswax
c) Mineral oil
d) Paraffin
What is the main difference between cold cream and vanishing cream?
a) Cold cream is an emulsion with high oil content, whereas vanishing cream has a high
water content A
128.
b) Vanishing cream is oil-based, and cold cream is water-based
c) Cold cream is used for sun protection
d) Vanishing cream is primarily for dry skin
Which test is performed to evaluate the foaming ability of shampoos?
a) Ross-Miles test
A
129. b) Hardness test
c) Emulsification test
d) Spreadability test
Which of the following is the emulsifying agent used in cold creams?
a) Borax and beeswax
A
130. b) Gelatin
c) Sodium lauryl sulfate
d) Bentonite
What is the primary function of stearic acid in vanishing creams?
a) Acts as an emulsifier and thickening agent
A
131. b) Provides color
c) Works as a humectant
d) Acts as a foaming agent
What is the role of humectants in cosmetic creams?
a) To retain moisture and prevent drying
A
132. b) To act as a preservative
c) To provide fragrance
d) To increase viscosity
Which of the following is NOT an essential ingredient in cold cream formulation?
a) Alcohol
A
133. b) Emollients
c) Waxes
d) Preservatives
Which of the following is the main abrasive used in toothpaste?
a) Calcium carbonate
A
134. b) Starch
c) Bentonite
d) Paraffin
What is the purpose of fluoride in toothpaste?
a) Prevention of dental caries
A
135. b) Whitening effect
c) Flavoring
d) Foam formation
Which of the following is a common binding agent in toothpaste?
a) Carboxymethyl cellulose (CMC)
A
136. b) Talc
c) Alcohol
d) Paraffin
What is the main foaming agent used in toothpaste?
A
137. a) Sodium lauryl sulfate (SLS)
b) Magnesium stearate
 c) Beeswax
d) Bentonite
What test is used to measure the abrasiveness of toothpaste?
a) Relative Dentin Abrasivity (RDA) test
A
138. b) Spreadability test
c) Melting point test
d) Saponification test
What is the primary ingredient in permanent hair dyes?
a) Para-phenylenediamine (PPD)
A
139. b) Beeswax
c) Sodium chloride
d) Talc
Which of the following is responsible for oxidation in hair dyeing?
a) Hydrogen peroxide
A
140. b) Glycerin
c) Bentonite
d) Gelatin
What is the role of ammonia in hair dye formulations?
a) To open the hair cuticle for better color penetration
A
141. b) To enhance fragrance
c) To increase foaming
d) To act as a preservative
Which of the following is used as a natural hair dye?
a) Henna
A
142. b) Paraffin
c) Silica
d) Gelatin
What is the main function of sunscreens?
a) To protect the skin from UV radiation
A
143. b) To enhance skin moisture
c) To treat acne
d) To reduce skin pigmentation
Which of the following is a common physical sunscreen agent?
a) Titanium dioxide
A
144. b) Salicylic acid
c) Glycerin
d) Bentonite
What does SPF stand for in sunscreens?
a) Sun Protection Factor
A
145. b) Skin Pigment Formula
c) Sunscreen Penetration Factor
d) Skin Protection Formula
Which of the following is a chemical UV filter used in sunscreens?
a) Oxybenzone
A
146. b) Magnesium oxide
c) Zinc carbonate
d) Calcium carbonate
What is the function of emollients in sunscreen formulations?
a) To provide moisture and improve skin feel
A
147. b) To increase SPF value
c) To enhance UV absorption
d) To reduce sunburn
What is the role of zinc oxide in sunscreen formulations? A
148. a) To reflect and scatter UV rays
 b) To absorb UV rays
c) To act as a preservative
d) To increase SPF artificially
Which test is performed to determine the efficacy of sunscreen?
a) SPF testing using UV spectrophotometry
A
149. b) Spreadability test
c) Ross-Miles test
d) Dentin abrasion test
Which of the following is NOT a function of a sunscreen?
a) Bleaching of skin
A
150. b) Protection from UV radiation
c) Prevention of sunburn
d) Reducing the risk of skin cancer
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of pharmaceutical aerosols? A
a) Poor dose precision
151. b) Rapid onset of action
c) Reduced contamination risk
d) Bypass of first-pass metabolism
Pharmaceutical aerosols are primarily intended for: A
a) Inhalation, topical, and nasal administration
152. b) Oral administration only
c) Intravenous use
d) Rectal administration
What is the primary function of a propellant in aerosols? A
a) To create pressure and dispense the drug as a spray
153. b) To act as a surfactant
c) To bind the drug molecules together
d) To increase drug solubility
Which of the following is NOT a commonly used propellant in aerosols? A
a) Carbon dioxide alone
154. b) Hydrofluoroalkanes (HFAs)
c) Hydrocarbons (propane, butane)
d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
Why were chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) banned from pharmaceutical aerosols? A
a) Due to their ozone-depleting potential
155. b) Because they are non-volatile
c) They cause drug degradation
d) They are highly toxic to humans
Which propellant is commonly used as a replacement for CFCs in modern inhalers? A
a) Hydrofluoroalkanes (HFAs)
156. b) Propane
c) Dimethyl ether
d) Carbon dioxide
Which material is most commonly used for pharmaceutical aerosol containers? A
a) Aluminum
157. b) Glass
c) Paper
d) Rubber
What is the main advantage of using aluminum containers for aerosols? A
a) Lightweight and corrosion-resistant
158. b) Highly reactive with drugs
c) Allows gas permeability
d) Non-recyclable
 What is the function of a valve in an aerosol system? A
a) To control the release of the formulation
159. b) To increase pressure inside the container
c) To stabilize the propellant
d) To decrease viscosity
Which type of aerosol valve is commonly used in metered-dose inhalers (MDIs)? A
a) Metered valve
160. b) Continuous spray valve
c) Crimp-on valve
d) Dip tube valve
What is the purpose of an actuator in an aerosol system? A
a) To direct the spray pattern of the aerosol
161. b) To store the drug
c) To increase shelf life
d) To mix the formulation
Which of the following is NOT a type of actuator in aerosol formulations? A
a) Dropper actuator
162. b) Spray actuator
c) Foam actuator
d) Mist actuator
Which test is used to determine the amount of drug released per actuation in MDIs? A
a) Dose uniformity test
163. b) Leakage test
c) Spray pattern analysis
d) Particle size distribution
What test is performed to check the leakage of aerosol containers? A
a) Immersion test
164. b) Melting point test
c) Moisture determination test
d) Viscosity test
Why is particle size analysis important for inhalation aerosols? A
a) To ensure proper deposition in the respiratory tract
165. b) To improve container compatibility
c) To increase spray pressure
d) To stabilize emulsions
What is the purpose of spray pattern analysis in aerosol evaluation? A
a) To check uniformity and dispersion of the spray
166. b) To measure aerosol weight
c) To assess color stability
d) To evaluate propellant purity
What environmental factor significantly affects the stability of pharmaceutical aerosols? A
a) Temperature fluctuations
167. b) Light exposure only
c) Humidity alone
d) Color of the container
Which of the following is NOT a commonly used packaging material for pharmaceuticals? A
a) Wood
168. b) Glass
c) Plastic
d) Metal
Which type of glass is most commonly used for pharmaceutical packaging? A
169. a) Type I (Borosilicate glass)
b) Type II (Treated soda-lime glass)
 c) Type III (Soda-lime glass)
d) Type IV (General-purpose glass)
Which of the following plastics is widely used for pharmaceutical containers? A
a) Polyethylene (PE)
170. b) Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
c) Polyurethane (PU)
d) Polystyrene (PS)
What is the main advantage of using aluminum foil in pharmaceutical packaging? A
a) Provides an excellent moisture and light barrier
171. b) It is biodegradable
c) It enhances drug solubility
d) It improves the color of the drug
Blister packs are commonly made of: A
a) Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) and aluminum foil
172. b) Paper and glass
c) Polyurethane and rubber
d) Silicone and polystyrene
Which of the following is NOT a type of pharmaceutical packaging? A
a) Interactive packaging
173. b) Primary packaging
c) Secondary packaging
d) Tertiary packaging
What is the function of desiccants in pharmaceutical packaging? A
a) To absorb moisture and prevent drug degradation
174. b) To provide extra cushioning
c) To improve drug solubility
d) To increase product weight
Which of the following factors is MOST important when selecting a pharmaceutical container? A
a) Compatibility with the drug product
175. b) Color of the container
c) Manufacturing cost alone
d) Weight of the container
Which property is essential for glass containers used in pharmaceuticals? A
a) Chemical inertness
176. b) High thermal conductivity
c) Flexibility
d) Magnetic properties
Why is amber-colored glass preferred for pharmaceutical packaging? A
a) It protects light-sensitive drugs from degradation
177. b) It improves the aesthetic appeal
c) It enhances solubility
d) It reduces microbial growth
Why is high-density polyethylene (HDPE) commonly used in pharmaceutical bottles? A
a) It provides a good moisture barrier and chemical resistance
178. b) It is biodegradable
c) It reacts with acids and bases
d) It cannot be recycled
Which of the following drugs requires opaque or light-resistant packaging? A
a) Photosensitive drugs like riboflavin
179. b) Tablets with enteric coating
c) Effervescent tablets
d) Water-soluble vitamins
Which international organization provides guidelines on stability testing and packaging A
180. materials?
 a) ICH
b) USP
c) ISO
d) WHO
Which of the following statements is TRUE about pharmaceutical labeling requirements? A
a) Labeling must include drug name, strength, storage conditions, and batch number
181. b) Labels do not require storage conditions
c) Expiry dates are optional
d) Labels only include generic names, not brand names
Which of the following packaging materials is LEAST affected by temperature variations? A
a) Glass
182. b) Plastic
c) Aluminum
d) Paperboard
What is the primary cause of drug degradation in poorly stored pharmaceutical packaging? A
a) Moisture and light exposure
183. b) Vibration during transportation
c) Container weight
d) High mechanical strength
Which of the following is a critical stability factor in blister packaging? A
a) Moisture barrier property
184. b) Container weight
c) Hardness of the material
d) Container shape
Which type of packaging provides the highest level of moisture protection? A
a) Aluminum foil blister packs
185. b) Paperboard cartons
c) HDPE bottles
d) Glass bottles without desiccants
Which of the following packaging defects can affect the stability of pharmaceutical products? A
a) Cracks or pinholes in blister packs
186. b) Uniform thickness of containers
c) The color of the label
d) The weight of the container
What is the purpose of the leakage test in pharmaceutical packaging? A
a) To check the integrity of the container closure system
187. b) To measure the moisture content in tablets
c) To analyze microbial growth
d) To determine the melting point of the drug
Which test is used to evaluate the strength of a glass container? A
a) Impact resistance test
188. b) Friability test
c) pH determination
d) Viscosity test
Which of the following is a quality control test for plastic containers? A
a) Collapsibility test
189. b) Dentin abrasion test
c) Hardness test
d) Optical clarity test
What is the light transmission test used for in packaging materials? A
a) To check how much light passes through the container
190. b) To measure moisture content
c) To determine microbial contamination
d) To test weight variation
 What is the function of the crushing strength test for pharmaceutical packaging? A
a) To evaluate the mechanical durability of packaging material
191. b) To assess color stability
c) To measure microbial resistance
d) To improve drug solubility
What is the purpose of the moisture vapor transmission rate (MVTR) test? A
a) To measure how much moisture passes through the packaging material
192. b) To analyze the strength of glass containers
c) To check microbial contamination
d) To test weight variation
What type of packaging requires a tear resistance test? A
a) Aluminum foil blister packs and strip packs
193. b) Glass vials
c) HDPE bottles
d) Metal cans
What is the purpose of the compatibility test between packaging material and the drug? A
a) To ensure no chemical interaction occurs between the drug and packaging material
194. b) To test color stability
c) To determine storage conditions
d) To improve product weight
 Enrollment
Sr. No Assignment
No/Roll No

Short Questions

1. Compare and contrast Hard Gelatin Capsules and Soft Gelatin Capsules.
2. How many standard sizes of hard gelatin capsules exist, and what are their
volumes?
3. Why is moisture content important in hard gelatin capsules?
4. What are the in-process quality control test for hard gelatin capsules?
5. What role do plasticizers play in soft gelatin capsules?
6. Give rationale for selection of soft gelatin capsule dosage form?
7. What are the components of capsule shell?
8. Define extrusion and pelletization and give the equipment used for the process.
What are the key steps involved in extrusion-spheronization?
9. Explain the principle of LAL test for pyrogen testing.
SET A 10. What are the essential requirements for parenteral formulations? Why is it 1 to 35
important in parenteral products?

Long Questions

1. Write a note on manufacturing hard gelatin capsule shells.

2. Explain the manufacturing process of soft gelatin capsules using the rotary die
process.
3. What is Pelletisation? Discuss factors affecting pellet properties.
4. Discuss the in-process and final product quality control tests for capsules.
5. Explain the components of capsule shell.
6. Explain excipients used in parenteral dosage forms (SVP, LVP) with examples
and the significance of each category.
7. Classify ophthalmic preparations and write about their formulation
considerations in detail.
 Short Questions

1. Differentiate S.V.P and L.V.P.

2. Classify different types of glass as per USP.
3. Comment: Ophthalmic product should be used within one month after opening
the cap.
4. What is the role of tonicity-adjusting agents in ophthalmic formulations?
5. What are the advantages of single-dose over multi-dose ophthalmic packaging?
6. Classify propellants with suitable examples. What are the role of propellants in
pharmaceutical aerosols?
7. Enlist the factors affecting the choice of pharmaceutical containers.
8. Differentiate between vanishing and cold cream.
9. Write formulation ingredients with examples for shampoo, toothpaste, lipsticks,
SET B hair dyes, and creams. 36 to 71
10. Give components of an aerosol system.

Long Questions

1. Describe the production procedure of parenteral products.

2. Explain the sources of pyrogen in parenteral products. Discuss the principle of
the LAL test for pyrogen testing.
3. Explain quality control tests of ampoules, vials, and infusion bottles with their
acceptable limits.
4. Write about excipients used in cold cream and vanishing cream.
5. Write in detail about the quality control tests of aerosols.
6. Explain the components of an aerosol.
7. Define pharmaceutical aerosols. Explain the role of propellants in an aerosol
system and classify it.