05-04-2026

9610ZMD800312250015 MD

PHYSICS

1) A small telescope has objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5 cm. What
is the maximum magnifying power of the telescope?

(1) 28
(2) 32
(3) 39.3
(4) 33.6

2) An amateur lens grinder wants to grind a converging lens of crown glass (n = 1.52) with the same
curvature on both sides and of focal length 25 cm. What radius of curvature must he grind on each
face?

(1) 26 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 22 cm
(4) 14 cm

3) A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 7000 Å and 5500 Å is used to obtain interference
pattern in Young's double slit experiment. The distance between the slits is 2.5 mm and the distance
between the plane of slits and the screen is 150 cm. The least distance from the central fringe,
where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide, is
n × 10–5 m. The value of n is_________.

(1) 300
(2) 150
(3) 462
(4) 360

4) A satellite moves in elliptical orbit about a planet. The maximum and minimum velocities of
satellite are 3 × 104 m/s and 1 × 103 m/s respectively. What is the minimum distance of satellite from
planet if maximum distance is 4 × 104 km ?

(1) 4 × 103 km
(2) 3 × 103 km
(3) 4/3 × 103 km
(4) 1 × 103 km

5) A particle of mass 10 g is kept on the surface of a uniform sphere of mass 100 kg and radius 10
cm. Find the work to be done against the gravitational force between them, to take the particle far
away from the sphere :
(you may take G = 6.67 × 10–11 N-m2/ kg2 ) :-

(1) 13.34 × 10–10 J

(2) 3.33 × 10–10 J
(3) 6.67 × 10–9 J
(4) 6.67 × 10–10 J

6) The Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.4. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a
decrease of cross-sectional area by 2%. The percentage increase in its length is :-

(1) 3%
(2) 2.5%
(3) 1%
(4) 0.5%

7) A soap film of surface tension 3 × 10–2 N/m formed in a rectangular frame can support a wire as

shown in the figure. If g = 10 ms–2 then the mass of the wire is :-

(1) 0.006 g
(2) 0.06 g
(3) 0.6 g
(4) 6 g

8) A ball is projected with a velocity 10 ms–1, at an angle of 60° with the verticle direction. Its speed
at the highest point of its trajectory will be :-

(1)
(2) 5 ms–1
(3) 10 ms–1
(4) Zero

9) A body is projected vertically upwards if t1 and t2 be the times at which it is at height h above the
projection while ascending and descending respectively then h is-

(1)
g t1t2
(2) g t1t2
(3) 2g t1t2
(4) 2 hg
10) Figure shows the position-time (x-t) graph of one dimensional motion of a body of mass 500 g.
What is the time interval between two consecutive impulses received by the body?

(1) 2 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 6 s
(4) 8 s

11) A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms–1. The man holding it can exert
a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

12) For a particle U = x2 – 4x where U in joule and x is in meter. If mass of particle is 2 kg and its
mechanical energy is 12 J then find the maximum speed of particle.

(1) 4 m/sec
(2) 16 m/sec
(3) m/sec
(4) none of these

13) A body of masses 2kg moving with a velocity of m/s collides with another body of
mass 3kg moving with a velocity If they stick together, the velocity in m/s of the
composite body will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop made by a wire and carrying a current I is B1. If an
equilateral triangle is made by same wire and same current is flown in it, then magnetic field at the
centre is B2. Then ratio B1/ B2 will be.

(1) 2π/9
(2) 2π2/27
(3) 2π/27
(4) 4π2/9

15) Magnetic field at centre of long solenoid carrying current I is B. Now if the solenoid is divided
into two parts having length in ratio 1 : 2 & the two parts are now connected in parallel, then on
passing same current I to the combination, magnetic field at centre of smaller & bigger part
respectively is :-

(1) B, B

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Assertion : If a charged particle is moving a circular path in a perpendicular magnetic field, the
momentum of the particle is not changing.
Reason : Speed of the particle is not changing in the magnetic field.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and true reason is correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true.

17) Two similar voltmeters with large resistance are connected in a loop as shown. Inside the loop,
there is a cylindrical region through which magnetic flux is distributed uniformly. The magnetic field
increases uniformly with time. The voltmeters are bidirectional i.e. the needle deflects to right if
current in it flows from + terminal to – terminal and needle deflects to left if current in it flows from
– terminal to + terminal. Which of the following figures shows the readings of voltmeters correctly?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A constant current i is maintained in a solenoid. Which of the following quantities will not
increase if an iron rod is inserted in the solenoid along its axis ?

(1) Magnetic field at the centre

(2) Magnetic flux linked with the solenoid
(3) Self-inductance of the solenoid
(4) Rate of Joule heating

19) Assertion (A): In non-uniform circular motion, the net acceleration is not directed towards the
center.
Reason (R): Tangential acceleration changes the magnitude of velocity.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT correct.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

20) Assertion (A): The perpendicular axis theorem is applicable only to planar bodies.
Reason (R): For 3D bodies, the relationship> does not necessarily hold.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT correct.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

21) Assertion (A): A body can be in translational equilibrium but not rotational equilibrium.
Reason (R): A couple (two equal and opposite forces) has zero net force but non-zero torque.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT correct.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

22) Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R and 2R are charged such that both have same
charge density σ. The spheres are then connected by a thin conducting wire. If the new charge

density of the bigger sphere is σ'. The ratio is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) An electric field /C.

(1) 30
(2) 16
(3) 14
(4) 12

24) A solid sphere of radius R has a charge Q distributed in its volume with a charge density ρ = kra,

where k and a are constants and r is the distance from its centre. If the electric field at r = is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A and a second plate having a stair-like structure as

shown in figure. If the area of each stair is> and the height is d, the capacitance of the
arrangement is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Two metallic spheres are charged to the same potential. One of them is hollow and
another is solid, and both have the same radii. Solid sphere will have lower charge than the hollow
one.
Reason R: Capacitance of metallic spheres depends on the radii of spheres.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) A is false but R is true

(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

27) The figure shows a circuit having eight resistances of 1Ω each, labelled R1 to R8, and two ideal
batteries with emf = 12V. Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Current through R1 is 2.4A

(2) Current through R2 is zero
(3) Current through R3 is 4.8A
(4) Potential at node B is 5.8 V

28) The actual value of resistance R, shown in the figure is 30 Ω. This is measured in an experiment
as shown using the standard formula

(1) 600 Ω
(2) 570 Ω
(3) 35 Ω
(4) 350 Ω

29) In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across R is 100 volts and R = 1 kΩ with C = 2µF.
The resonant frequency ω is 200 rad/s. At resonance the voltage across L is -

(1) 2.5 × 10–2 V

(2) 40 V
(3) 250 V
(4) 4 × 10–3 V

30) An ac source of angular frequency ฀ is fed across a resistor r and a capacitor C in series. The
current registered is I. If the frequency of source is changed to ฀/3 (maintaining the same voltage),
the current in the circuit is found to be halved. Calculate the ratio of reactance to resistance at the
original frequency :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Power of point source is 18 mW. Find the intensity 2.5 m away from the source.

(1) 0.41 W/m2

(2) 9 mW/m2
(3) 0.23 W/m2
(4) 2.88 mW/m2

32) A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 GHz is propagating in vacuum along the z-
direction. At a particular point in space and time, the magnetic field is given by . The
corresponding electric field is (speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

1.66 × 10–16
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Assertion: Two simple harmonic motions are given by

and
.
These have amplitudes in ratio 1 : 1.
Reason: y2 represents two simple harmonic motions each of amplitude 5 and so total amplitude is
10, same as that of y1.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are false.

34) The potential energy of a particle of mass 1 kg in motion along the x-axis is given by U = 4(1 –
cos 2x) J . The period of small oscillation (in second) is : -

(1) 2π
(2) π
(3) π/2
(4)

35) The equation of a travelling wave is given as y = A sin (40πt – 0.2πx) in meters. The minimum
distance between two particles oscillating in the same phase is : -

(1) 10 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 2 m
(4) 1.5 m

36) A transverse wave is produced in a stretched string 0.9 m long and fixed at its ends. Find the
speed of transverse wave, when the string vibrates in second overtone of frequency 324 Hz : -

(1) 100 m/s

(2) 200 m/s
(3) 194.4 m/s
(4) 174 m/s

37) What is the reading of vernier scale shown is figure (Least count of vernier calliper is 0.1mm).
(1) 54.6 mm
(2) 53.3 mm
(3) 50.50 mm
(4) 52.6 mm

38) The ratio of the dimensions of Planck constant and that of moment of inertia has the dimensions
of : -

(1) Frequency
(2) Velocity
(3) Time
(4) Angular momentum

39) When radiation of wavelength l is incident on a metallic surface, the stopping potential is 4.8
volts. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of double the wavelength, then the stopping
potential becomes 1.6 volts. Then the threshold wavelength for the surface is:-

(1) 2λ
(2) 4λ
(3) 6λ
(4) 8λ

40) In a fission reaction + n + n, the binding energy per nucleon of X and Y is 8.5
MeV whereas of 236U is 7.6 MeV. The total energy liberated will be about :-​​

(1) 200 KeV

(2) 2 MeV
(3) 200 MeV
(4) 2000 MeV

41) When the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due to breaking of covalent bonds, the
semiconductor is called :

(1) Intrinsic
(2) Extrinsic
(3) P-type
(4) N-type
42) In the given circuit The current through the battery is

(1) 0.5A
(2) 1 A
(3) 1.5 A
(4) 2 A

43) A black body radiates heat energy at the rate of 2 × 105 joule/sec/m2 at a temperature 127°C.
The temperature of the black body, at which the rate of heat radiation is 32 × 105 joule/sec/m2 is :-

(1) 273°C
(2) 527°C
(3) 873°C
(4) 927°C

44) 4 moles of an ideal gas having γ = 1.67 are mixed with 2 moles of another ideal gas having γ =
1.4. Find the equivalent value of γ for the mixture :-

(1) 1.5
(2) 1.52
(3) 1.54
(4) 1.53

45) A copper block of mass 80 g is heated to 100°C and placed on a block of ice at 0°C. The specific
heat of copper is 0.1 cal g–1 °C–1 and latent heat of ice is 80 cal g–1. The amount of ice melted is

(1) 4 g
(2) 10 g
(3) 12 g
(4) 16 g

CHEMISTRY

1) A 0.003 M Al2(SO4)3 solution is isotonic with 0.01 M solution of glucose. The percentage
dissociation of aluminium sulphate will be :

(1) 75%
(2) 58.33%
(3) 23.97%
(4) 43.12%

2) The solubility product of sparingly soluble salt Ag2CrO4 is 4 × 10–12. The molar solubility of the salt
is:

(1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1

(2) 2 × 10–6 mol L–1
(3) 1 × 10–5 mol L–1
(4) 2 × 10–12 mol L–1

3) Calculate mass of the final solution obtained on heating a solution comprising of 0.5 moles of urea
in 2000 g of H2O to a temperature of 101°C if /

(1) 250 g
(2) 280 g
(3) 1030 g
(4) 530 g

4) If the molar conductance values of Ca2+ and Cl– at infinite dilution are respectively 118.88 × 10–4
m2 mho mol–1 and 77.33 × 10–4 m2 mho mol–1 then that of CaCl2 is :
(in m2 mho mol–1)

(1) 118.88 × 10–4

(2) 154.66 × 10–4
(3) 273.54 × 10–4
(4) 196.21 × 10–4

5) A vessel at 1000 K contains carbon dioxide with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of CO2 is converted
to CO on addition of graphite. Calculate the value of Kp if total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm.

(1) 18 atm
(2) 0.36 atm
(3) 1.8 atm
(4) 0.3 atm

6) Assertion (A) : If molecular formula of a compound is double than empirical formula, the
percentage of each element is doubled.
Reason (R) : The number of atoms of each element is double in the molecular formula than
empirical formula.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) A is wrong but R is correct.
7) The value of the reaction quotient Q, for the cell Zn(s)| Zn2+ (0.01 M) || Ag+ (1.25 M) | Ag(s) is : -

(1) 156
(2) 125
(3) 1.25 × 10–2
(4) 6.4 × 10–3

8) If low pressure and low temperature are the favourable conditions for the reaction:

then the true statements will be:

(1) (a + b) < (c + d) and ΔH = +x

(2) (a + b) > (c + d) and ΔH = +x
(3) (a + b) < (c + d) and ΔH = –x
(4) no relation between ΔH and Keq

9) Assertion (A) : Non-ideal solutions form azeotropic mixture.

Reason (R) : Boiling point of azeotropic mixture is higher than boiling points of its both
components.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

10) A particle moving with a velocity of 6.626 × 107 m/s has a de Broglie wavelength of 1 Å in a
circular path of radius 0.529 Å. The angular momentum of particle is (h = 6.626 × 10–34 J × sec) :

(1) 3.5 × 10–34 kg m2 sec–1

(2) 3.5 × 10–35 kg m2sec–1
(3) 3.5 × 10–31 kg m2sec–1
(4) 1.053 × 10–34 kgm2sec–1

11) The reaction between X and Y is first order with respect to X and zero order with respect to Y.
Value of M and L respectively-

Experiment

I. 0.1 0.1 2×10–3

II. L 0.2 4×10–3
III. 0.4 0.4 M×10–3
IV. 0.1 0.2 2×10–3
(1) 0.02, 8
(2) 8, 0.2
(3) 4, 0.1
(4) 0.1, 4

12) Elevation in b.p. of an aqueous solution urea solution is 0.52°C. (Kb = 0.52°C mol–1 kg) Hence,
mole fraction of urea in this solution is :

(1) 0.982
(2) 0.567
(3) 0.943
(4) 0.018

13) Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation as :

k = Ae–Ea/RT
In this equation, Ea represents

(1) the total energy of the reacting molecules at a temperature, T

(2) the fraction of molecules with energy greater than the activation energy of the reaction
(3) the energy above which all the colliding molecules will react
(4) the energy below which all the colliding molecules will react

14) Match List-I (Compounds) with List-II (Oxidation states of nitrogen) and select answer using the
codes given below the lists :-

List-I List-II
(a) NaN3 (1) +5
(b) N2H2 (2) +2
(c) NO (3) –1/3
(d) N2O5 (4) –1
Codes :-
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 3 4 2 1
(2) 4 3 2 1
(3) 3 4 1 2
(4) 4 3 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) For an endothermic reaction ΔS is positive. The reaction is -

(1) Feasible at all temperatures

(2) Feasible when TΔS > ΔH
(3) Feasible when ΔH > TΔS
(4) Not feasible at all
16) Which of the following reactivity order is correct towards electrophilic substitution reaction

(1) benzoic acid > chlorobenzene > benzene > phenol

(2) benzoic acid > phenol > > benzene > chlorobenzene
(3) phenol > chlorobenzene > benzene > benzoic acid
(4) phenol > benzene > Chlorobenzene > benzoic acid

17) Intermediate Dichloro carbene is formed by chloroform and KOH,

In which reaction involve this type of carbene :

(1) Kolbe’s reaction

(2) Reimer-tiemann reaction
(3) Carbyl amine reaction
(4) (2) and (3) both

18) Which of the following compounds is highly reactive towards decarboxylation :

(1) CH3–CH2–COOH
(2) CH3–CO–CH2–COOH

(3)

(4)

19) The correct stability order for the following carbocation is :-

(1) IV > I > III > II

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) I > III > IV > II

20) Which of the following compound will not give same product with markovnikov's &
antimarkovnikov's addition?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Match List I with List II

List-I List-II

(A) (I) Fittig reaction

(B) (II) Wurtz fittig reaction

(C) (III) Finkelstein reaction

(D) C2H5Cl + NaI → C2H5I + NaCl (IV) Sandmeyer reaction

(1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
(2) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I
(3) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I
(4) A – II, B –I, C – IV, D – III

22) In a set of reaction m-bromobenzoic acid gave a product D. Identify the product D :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The correct structure for compound B will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
(a) Fat soluble vitamin (p) Fingerprinting
(b) Water soluble vitamin (q) Vitamin A and vitamin D
(c) DNA (r) Uracil
(d) RNA (s) Vitamin B and vitamin C
(1) a - s, b - s, c - r, d - p
(2) a - q, b - s, c - p, d - r
(3) a - q, b - r, c - p, d - s
(4) a - q, b - s, c - r, d - p

25)
Number of alpha hydrogen in A + B + C + D

(1) 11
(2) 13
(3) 15
(4) 18

26) Find the product of the following reaction

Product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) An alkene A on reaction with O3 & Zn – H2O gives propanone & ethanal in equimolar ratio
addition of HCl to alkene A gives B as a minor product. The structure of product B.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In steam distillation, the vapour pressure of the volatile organic compound is:

(1) Equal to atmospheric pressure

(2) Less than atmospheric pressure
(3) More than atmospheric pressure
(4) None of these

29) Fehling’s solution can make distinction between following pairs

I. CH3COOH, HCOOH
II. CH3COOH, HCHO
III. C6H5CHO, HCHO
IV. CH3CHO, HCHO
Select the correct pairs (s) and choose the correct option.

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, III and IV
(3) Both II and III
(4) Only II

30) In the given reaction, (X) and (Y) will respectively be :

C6H5CHO + HCHO (X) + (Y)

(1) C6H5COOH and CH3OH

(2) C6H5CH2OH and HCOOH
(3) Only C6H5COOH
(4) Only CH3OH

31) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : K > Mg > Al > B is the correct order in terms of metallic character.
Statement II : Atomic radius is always greater than the ionic radius for any element.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

32) Which of the following represents the correct trend for the mentioned property?
A. F > P > S > B - First Ionization Energy
B. Cl > F > S > P - Electron Affinity
C. K > Al > Mg > B - Metallic character
D. K2O > Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 - Basic character
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) B and C only

(2) A, B and D only
(3) A and B only
(4) A, B, C and D

33) Which of the following statements are not correct?

A. The electron gain enthalpy of F is more negative than that of Cl.
B. Ionization enthalpy decreases in a group of periodic table.
C. The electronegativity value of an atom depends upon the atoms bonded to it.
D. Al2O3 and NO are examples of amphoteric oxides.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, C and D Only
(3) A, B and D Only
(4) B and D Only

34) Match list-I with list-II according to shape.

List – I List – II
A. XeO3 I. BrF5
B. XeF2 II. NH3
C. XeO2F2 III.
D. XeOF4 IV. SF4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
35) In which of the following processes, the bond order increases and paramagnetic character
changes to diamagnetic one?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) Consider the species CH4, and . Choose the correct option with respect to the these
species.

(1) They are isoelectronic and only two have tetrahedral structures.
(2) They are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral structures.
(3) Only two are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral structures.
(4) Only two are isoelectronic and only two have tetrahedral structures.

37) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Elements 'X' and 'Y' are the most and least electronegative elements, respectively
among N, As, Sb and P. The nature of the oxides X2O3 and Y2O3 is acidic and amphoteric,
respectively.
Statement II : BCl3 is covalent in nature and gets hydrolysed in water. It produces [B(OH)4]– and
[B(H2O)6]3+ in aqueous medium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

38) The strongest reducing agent among the following is :

(1) SbH3
(2) NH3
(3) BiH3
(4) PH3

39) The set of correct statements is :

(i) Manganese exhibits +7 oxidation state in its oxide.
(ii) Ruthenium and Osmium exhibit +8 oxidation in their oxides.
(iii) Sc shows +4 oxidation state which is oxidizing in nature.
(iv) Cr shows oxidising nature in +6 oxidation state.

(1) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
40) The 'f' orbitals are half and completely filled, respectively in lanthanide ions :
[Given : Atomic no. Eu, 63; Sm, 62; Tm, 69; Tb, 65; Yb, 70; Dy, 66]

(1) Eu2+ and Tm2+

(2) Sm2+ and Tm3+
(3) Tb4+ and Yb2+
(4) Dy3+ and Yb3+

41) An octahedral complex having molecular composition Co.5NH3.ClSO4 has two isomers A and B.
The solution of A gives a white precipitate with AgNO3 solution and the solution of B gives white
precipitate with BaCl2 solution. The type of isomerism exhibited by the complex is,

(1) Co-ordinate isomerism

(2) Ionisation isomerism
(3) Geometrical isomerism
(4) Linkage isomerism

42) Match List - I with List - II

List - I (Complex) List - II (Hybridisation & Magnetic characters)

2–
(A) [MnBr4] (I) d2sp3 & diamagnetic
3–
(B) [FeF6] (II) sp3d2 & paramagnetic
3–
(C) [Co(C2O4)3] (III) sp3 & diamagnetic
(D) [Ni(CO)4] (IV) sp3 & paramagnetic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

43) The complex that shows Facial - Meridional isomerism is :

+
(1) [Co(en)2Cl2]
(2) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
+
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]
3+
(4) [Co(en)3]

44) Formation of Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS], a purple coloured complex formed by addition of sodium

nitroprusside in sodium carbonate extract of salt indicates the presence of :

(1) Sulphide ion

(2) Sulphite ion
(3) Sulphate ion
(4) Sodium ion
45) When a solution of an inorganic salt was treated with freshly prepared ferrous sulphate in acidic
medium, a dark brown ring was formed. It contains :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which one of the following is not required in PCR?

(1) Oligonucleotide primers

(2) Helicase enzyme
(3) DNA template
(4) Taq polymerase

2) After the formation of products in the bioreactors, it undergoes through a series of processes
before it is ready for marketing as a finished product, is called ?

(1) Upstream processing

(2) Downstream processing
(3) Elution
(4) Transformation

3) Given below is a typical agarose gel in which electrophoresis had occurred.

In this agarose gel -

(1) Lane - 1 shows migration of digested DNA fragments

(2) Only Lane - 4 shows migration of digested DNA fragments
(3) Lane - 2 to 4 shows migration of digested set of DNA fragments
(4) Wells are always placed towards positive electrode during electrophoresis

4) In human insulin is synthesised as a prohormone, which contains an extra stretch called :-

(1) A-peptide
(2) C-peptide
(3) B-peptide
(4) α-peptide

5) The techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis :-

(1) Polymerase chain Reaction

(2) ELISA
(3) Recombinant DNA technology
(4) All of the above

6) The Indian parliament has recently cleared the ____ amendment of the Indian patents Bill that
takes such issues into consideration, including patent terms emergency provisions and research and
development initiative :-

(1) First
(2) Third
(3) Second
(4) Fifth

7) Bursting of lysosome digest the tail of tadpole of frog during metamorphosis, and this is an
example of :-

(1) Intra cellular digestion

(2) Extra cellular digestion
(3) Cellular digestion
(4) Autophagy

8) Assertion : Cilia are small structure which work like oars, Causing the movement of either the
cell or the surrounding fluid.
Reason : Cilia are found in fallopian tube, respiratory tract.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) Given below are two statements -

Statement - I :- Several Ribosomes may attached to a single mRNA and form a chain Polysome.
Statement - II :- Ribosomes are not associated with the plasma membrane of the cell in
Prokaryotes.
In the Light of the above statements, Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below -

(1) Statement - I is correct but Statement - II is incorrect.

(2) Statement - I is incorrect but Statement - II is correct.
(3) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are correct.
(4) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are incorrect.

10) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Cristae - Infolding of inner mitochondrial membrane.

(2) Thylakoids - flattened memberanous sac in stroma of plastids.
(3) Centromere - memberaneless cell organelle in animal cell
(4) Cisternae – Disc - shaped scis in Golgi apparatus

11)
Identify A to C.
A B C
(1) Meiosis N N
(2) Meiosis 2N 2N
(3) Mitosis N N
(4) Mitosis 2N 2N

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12)

The number of bivalents are 20. What will be the number of chromosomes during Anaphase-II at
each pole ?

(1) 40
(2) 20
(3) 60
(4) 10

13) All the following are the significances of equational division except :-

(1) Maintenance of the same number of chromosomes cell to cell

(2) Growth of multicellular organisms and cell repair/replacement
(3) Maintenance of the constant number of chromosomes generation to generation
(4) Restoration of nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio of cells

14) The Chromosomes do undergo some dispersion but do not reach the extremely extended state of
interphase nucleus, this feature depicts in -

(1) Anaphase - I
(2) Telophase - I
(3) Anaphase - II
(4) Telophase - II

15) Storage polysaccharide found in root of Dahlia and Artichoke has :-

(1) α-1'-2" glycosidic linkage

(2) α-1'-1" glycosidic linkage
(3) β-1'-4" glycosidic linkage
(4) β-1'-2" glycosidic linkage

16) How many sugars are reducing in given below :-

Glucose, Fructose, Galactose, Maltose, Sucrose, Trehalose, Lactose

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 7

17)

Match the following column correct :-

(A) Cellulose (i) Polymer of N-acetyl-D-glucosamine

(B) Inulin (ii) Polymer of α-D-glucose

(C) Glycogen (iii) Polymer of fructose

(D) Chitin (iv) Polymer of β-D-glucose

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

18) Match the scientists with their respective contributions to genetics:

Column-A Column-B

(i) Experimental verification of the chromosomal

A. Gregor Mendel
theory of inheritance

B. Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri (ii) Mapped the position of genes on the chromosome

C. Thomas Hunt Morgan (iii) Proposed the laws of inheritance in living organisms

(iv) Noted that the behaviour of chromosomes was

D. Alfred Sturtevant
parallel to the behaviour of genes
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)

19) In a test cross involving a pea plant heterozygous for flower colour (Vv), where violet (V) is
dominant over white (v), what will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?

(1) 3 Violet : 1 White

(2) 1 Violet : 1 White
(3) All Violet
(4) 1 Violet : 2 Pink : 1 White

20) Which of the following statements about human pedigree analysis is correct?

(1) A circle represents a male and a square represents a female.

Mating between relatives (consanguineous mating) is represented by a single horizontal line
(2)
between symbols.
(3) A solid (filled) symbol represents an affected individual.
(4) A diamond symbol represents five unaffected offspring.

21) Assertion (A): tRNA is called an adapter molecule.

Reason (R): It has an anticodon loop that has bases complementary to the code, and an amino acid
acceptor end to which it binds to specific amino acids.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

22) Statement I: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively
charged histone octamer to form a nucleosome.
Statement II: Histones are rich in the acidic amino acid residues glutamate and aspartate, which
carry positive charges.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

23) Choose the incorrect statement regarding the Meselson and Stahl experiment.

They grew E. coli in a medium containing 15NH4Cl as the only nitrogen source for many
(1)
generations.
(2) 15N is a radioactive isotope of nitrogen that can be separated from 14N based on densities.
(3) The DNA extracted after 20 minutes from the transfer to 14N medium had a hybrid density.
(4) The experiment proved that DNA in bacteria replicates semi-conservatively.

24) Identify the correct statement about the process of translation in eukaryotes.
(1) The ribosome consists of structural RNAs and about 80 different proteins.
(2) Translation begins when the large subunit of the ribosome encounters an mRNA.
(3) Amino acids are activated in the presence of ADP during the charging of tRNA.
(4) The UTRs (untranslated regions) are present only at the 3′-end after the stop codon.

25) Statement I. Cnidarians have a complete digestive tract.

Statement II. Cnidarians show metagenesis.

(1) Only 1 correct

(2) Only 2 correct
(3) Both correct
(4) Both incorrect

26) Animals with organ-system level of organisation are

(1) Porifera
(2) Cnidaria
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

27)

Column I (Phylum) Column II (Feature)

A. Porifera 1. Comb plates

B. Ctenophora 2. Canal system

C. Echinodermata 3. Water vascular system

D. Annelida 4. Metamerism
(1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(3) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

28) The matrix of bone is primarily rich in:

(1) Chondroitin salts and elastin

(2) Calcium salts and collagen fibres
(3) Magnesium salts and reticular fibres
(4) Sodium salts and keratin

29) Assertion (A): Cardiac muscle tissue contracts as a single, coordinated unit.
Reason (R): Intercalated discs containing gap junctions allow action potentials to spread rapidly
from one cardiac cell to the next.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false.

30) Frog’s eyes are protected in water by

(1) Tympanum
(2) Nictitating membrane
(3) Eyelids only
(4) Scales

31) Statement I: The forewings are called tegmina and are opaque and leathery.
Statement II: The hindwings are transparent, membranous, and are actively used in flight.

(1) Both statements are True.

(2) Both statements are False.
(3) Statement I is True, Statement II is False.
(4) Statement I is False, Statement II is True.

32) Which of the following are correct about urine formation?

1. Filtration occurs at glomerulus.
2. Reabsorption occurs only in PCT.
3. Secretion occurs in DCT and collecting duct.
4. 99% of filtrate is reabsorbed.

(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 1,3 and 4
(3) 2 ,3 and 4
(4) All of these

33) The main function of the ascending limb of Henle’s loop is:

(1) Water reabsorption

(2) Active NaCl reabsorption
(3) Urea secretion
(4) Glucose reabsorption

34) In the equation dN /dt = rN, 'r' represents.

(1) Environmental resistance

(2) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(3) Carrying capacity
(4) Population density at timet

35) Which statement about "Brood Parasitism" is FALSE?

(1) The host bird incubates the eggs of the parasite.

(2) The Cuckoo (Koel) is a classic example.
(3) The parasite eggs are usually much larger than the host's eggs.
(4) Parasite eggs have evolved to resemble the host's eggs.

36) Assertion: Tropical rain forests have high species diversity.

Reason: Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant/predictable.

(1) Both A and R are true; R explains A.

(2) Both A and R are true; R does not explain A.
(3) A is true; R is false.
(4) A is false; R is true.

37) Identify the correct sequence to fill the blanks:

"The Reservoir for the (P) cycle is located in the atmosphere, whereas the reservoir for the (Q) cycle
is located in the Earth's crust. (R) is a process where nutrients are lost from the ecosystem."

(1) (P) Carbon, (Q) Phosphorus, (R) Leaching

(2) (P) Phosphorus, (Q) Carbon, (R) Sedimentation
(3) (P) Nitrogen, (Q) Carbon, (R) Weathering
(4) (P) Sulfur, (Q) Phosphorus, (R) Humification

38) An ecologist observes a forest where a single large Banyan tree supports 500 herbivorous birds.
These birds are infested by thousands of ectoparasites (lice).
What will be the shape of the Pyramid of Numbers for this specific case?

(1) Upright
(2) Inverted
(3) Spindle-shaped
(4) Urn-shaped

39) If the Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) of an ecosystem is 100 k cal m–2 yr–1 and the respiration
loss (R) is 20 k cal m–2 yr–1, what is the Net Primary Productivity (NPP)?

(1) 120 k cal m–2 yr–1

(2) 100 k cal m–2 yr–1
(3) 80 k cal m–2 yr–1
(4) 20 k cal m–2 yr–1

40) Which of the following is NOT a feature of a stable community?

(1) High resilience to disturbances

(2) Resistance to invasion by alien species
(3) High year-to-year variation in productivity
(4) Constant biomass over time

41) Which of the following is an example of an "Alien Species" invasion in India?

(1) Nile Perch
(2) Parthenium (Carrot grass)
(3) African Catfish (Clarias gariepinus)
(4) Both (2) and (3)

42)

Based on taxonomic categories, match the organism with its correct Family.

i Man a. Poaceae

ii Housefly b. Muscidae

iii Mango c. Anacardiaceae

iv Wheat d. Hominidae
(1) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
(2) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(3) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c

43) Which group of protists has a protein-rich layer called a pellicle instead of a cell wall, making
their body flexible?

(1) Slime moulds

(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Chrysophytes

44) Under suitable conditions, slime moulds form an aggregation that may grow and spread over
several feet. What is this aggregation called?

(1) Plasmodium
(2) Fruiting body
(3) Mycelium
(4) Protonema

45) In 1971, T.O. Diener discovered a new infectious agent that caused potato spindle tuber disease.
What was the nature of this agent?

(1) A double-stranded DNA virus.

(2) An abnormally folded protein.
(3) A free RNA of low molecular weight lacking a protein coat.
(4) A flagellated protozoan.

46) In Phaeophyceae (brown algae), the plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a
holdfast. What are the stalk and the leaf-like photosynthetic organ called, respectively?
(1) Seta and capsule
(2) Stipe and frond
(3) Rhizome and macrophyll
(4) Axis and microphyll

47) Evolutionarily, which of the following groups are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular
tissues (xylem and phloem)?

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Angiosperms

48) In Gymnosperms, the roots are generally tap roots. In which genus are small specialised roots
called 'coralloid roots' associated with N2-fixing cyanobacteria?

(1) Pinus
(2) Sequoia
(3) Ginkgo
(4) Cycas

49) Pneumatophores are found in plants growing in swampy areas. An example of such a plant is:

(1) Banyan
(2) Rhizophora
(3) Maize
(4) Sugarcane

50) Assertion (A): In a cymose inflorescence, the main axis continues to grow indefinitely.
Reason (R): The flowers are borne in an acropetal succession.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

51) Arrange the following regions of the root tip in order from the tip upwards (proximal to distal):
(i) Region of maturation
(ii) Region of elongation
(iii) Region of meristematic activity
(iv) Root cap

(1) iv → iii → ii → i
(2) i → ii → iii → iv
(3) iv → ii → iii → i
(4) iii → iv → ii → i
52) Identify the type of vascular bundle as shown below :

(1) Conjoint closed

(2) Conjoint open
(3) Radial
(4) Hadrocentric

53) Match the following:

Column I Column II

A. Bulliform cells i. Dicot leaf

B. Stomata ii. Monocot leaf

C. Palisade parenchyma iii. Epidermis

D. Casparian strips iv. Endodermis

(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

54) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The process of splitting water is associated with PS I.
Statement II: It is located on the inner side of the thylakoid membrane.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

55) During the light reaction, for every CO2 molecule fixed in the Calvin cycle, how many ATP and
NADPH are required ?

(1) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH

(2) 2 ATP and 3 NADPH
(3) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
(4) 1 ATP and 1 NADPH

56) How many turns of the Calvin cycle are required for the net production of one molecule of
glucose?
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 12

57) Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the TCA cycle?

(1) It occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.

(2) The cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with OAA and water.
(3) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+ H+.
+
(4) There are two points in the cycle where FAD is reduced to FADH2.

58) Identify the correct sequence of electron flow in the ETS:

(1) Complex I → UQ → Complex III → Cyt c → Complex IV

(2) Complex II → Cytc → Complex III → UQ → Complex IV
(3) Complex I → Complex II → Complex III → Complex IV
(4) Complex IV → Cytc → Complex III → UQ →Complex I

59) Calculate the net gain of ATP molecules from one molecule of Glucose during fermentation to
lactic acid.

(1) 2 ATP
(2) 36 ATP
(3) 38 ATP
(4) 0 ATP

60) The term used to describe the requirement of a period of low temperature for flowering is:

(1) Photoperiodism
(2) Vernalization
(3) Senescence
(4) Plasticity

61) Which PGR is often called the "Stress hormone"?

(1) Gibberellin
(2) Auxin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Abscisic acid

62) Statement I: Biogas plant uses aerobic microbes.

Statement II: Methanogens are anaerobic.

(1) Both are correct

(2) Only I correct
(3) Only II correct
(4) Both are incorrect

63) Assertion (A): Coccygeal region has 1 fused vertebra.

Reason (R): Vertebral column protects spinal cord.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

64) Match Column I (Disorder) with Column II (Symptom).

Column I Column II

A. Myasthenia gravis P. Fractures increased

B. Osteoporosis Q. Joint inflammation

C. Gout R. Rapid spasms

D. Tetany S. Muscle paralysis

(1) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R
(2) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(3) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(4) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

65) In stages of cross-bridge, what happens after myosin head binds ATP (Sliding / rotation) ?

(1) Formation
(2) Rotation
(3) Breakage
(4) Hydrolysis

66) Match pCO2 values (mm Hg).

 Column A Column B

i. Atmosphere A. 45

ii. Alveoli B. 0.3

iii. Oxygenated blood C. 40

iv. Tissues
(1) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-C
(2) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-C
(3) i-C, ii-B, iii-C, iv-A
(4) i-B, ii-C, iii-C, iv-A

67) Arrange from conducting to exchange part.

(i) Trachea
(ii) Bronchi
(iii) Terminal bronchioles
(iv) Alveoli

(1) i, ii, iii, iv

(2) ii, iii, i, iv
(3) i, iii, ii, iv
(4) iv, iii, i, ii

68) The first heart sound 'lub' is due to closure of which valves?

(1) Semilunar
(2) Tricuspid and bicuspid
(3) Mitral only
(4) Aortic only

69) Myogenic heart means regulation by what?

(1) Neural centre in medulla

(2) Specialised muscles (nodal tissue)
(3) Hormones only
(4) ANS only

70) Which is false about midbrain?

1. Located between forebrain and hindbrain.
2. Has cerebral aqueduct.
3. Dorsal portion has corpora quadrigemina.
4. Controls respiration.

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) Only 2 and 3
(3) Only 4
(4) Only 1

71) Statement I: Autonomic neural system is sympathetic and parasympathetic.

Statement II: Somatic relays to involuntary organs.

(1) Only I is true

(2) Only II is true
(3) Both I and II are true
(4) Both I and II are false

72) Glucagon acts mainly on:

(1) Adipocytes
(2) Hepatocytes
(3) Muscle cells
(4) Kidney

73) Assertion: Thymus degenerates in old age.

Reason: Thymus degeneration leads to weakened immune response in elderly.

(1) Both true & II explains I

(2) Both true but II does not explain I
(3) I true, II false
(4) Both false

74) Sequence of steroid hormone action:

1. Hormone diffuses into cell
2. Binds intracellular receptor
3. Hormone-receptor complex binds DNA
4. mRNA synthesis → protein → effect

(1) 4 → 2 → 3 → 1
(2) 3 → 2 → 1 → 4
(3) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
(4) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4

75) Evaluate the statements regarding Spermatogenesis:

Statement I: One Primary Spermatocyte (2n) produces four functional Spermatozoa (n) through
two successive meiotic divisions.
Statement II: One Primary Oocyte (2n) produces four functional Ova (n) through two successive
meiotic divisions.

(1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.
76)

Arrange the following stages of fertilization and early development in the correct chronological
order:
1. Cortical Reaction (to prevent polyspermy)
2. Acrosomal Reaction (penetration of Zona Pellucida)
3. Formation of the Zygote
4. Amphimixis (fusion of pronuclei)

(1) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
(2) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3
(3) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
(4) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3

77) Consider the following statements regarding Parturition and Lactation:

Statement I: The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed fetus and the placenta,
which induce mild uterine contractions called the "fetal ejection reflex."
Statement II: Colostrum, the milk produced during the initial few days of lactation, contains the
antibody IgA, which provides active immunity to the newborn.

(1) Both Statement I and II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

78) To produce 200 zygotes in a human population, what is the minimum total number of primary
germ cells (primary spermatocytes and primary oocytes combined) are required?

(1) 200
(2) 250
(3) 300
(4) 400

79)

Consider the following four statements regarding reproductive health technologies and regulations:
I: Amniocentesis is a fetal sex determination test based on the chromosomal pattern in the amniotic
fluid surrounding the developing embryo, and it is legally permitted only for detecting genetic
disorders.
II: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered relatively safe up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy, and the MTP Amendment Act (2017) allows termination up to 24 weeks for specific
categories of women.
III: "Saheli" is a non-steroidal, "once-a-week" oral contraceptive pill developed by CDRI, Lucknow,
which works by preventing implantation through estrogen receptor modulation.
IV: In Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART), ZIFT involves the transfer of an embryo with more
than 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tube.
Which of the statements above are correct?

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, II and IV
(3) I, III and IV
(4) All of the above

80)

In IVF technique, if the doctor decides to transfer the embryo when it has reached the 16-cell stage,
where should it be placed?

(1) Fimbriae
(2) Ampulla
(3) Ovary
(4) Uterus

81) "Smack," also known as Heroin, is chemically diacetylmorphine. How does it affect the human
body?

(1) It is a stimulant that increases heart rate.

(2) It is a hallucinogen that alters perception.
(3) It is a depressant that slows down body functions.
(4) It increases the transport of dopamine in the synapse.

82)

Consider the following statements regarding the diagnosis and treatment of Cancer:
Statement I: Biopsy and histopathological studies involve cutting a piece of suspected tissue and
staining it for examination under a microscope by a pathologist.
Statement II: In "Alpha-interferon" therapy, patients are given biological response modifiers that
activate their own immune system to help in destroying the tumor.

(1) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

83) A patient presents with sustained high fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache,
and loss of appetite. If the condition is severe, intestinal perforation may occur. Which diagnostic
test is most likely to be used?

(1) ELISA
(2) Widal Test
(3) MRI
(4) Biopsy

84) A child is born with a genetic defect that prevents the development of the Thymus gland. Which
of the following immune responses will be most primarily and directly impaired?

(1) Differentiation of B-lymphocytes into plasma cells for humoral immunity.

(2) Phagocytosis and antigen presentation by Dendritic cells.
(3) Differentiation and maturation of T-lymphocytes into antigen-sensitive cells.
(4) Synthesis of interferons by virus-infected mucosal cells.

85) The idea of "Saltation" (single step large mutation) was proposed by:

(1) Charles Darwin

(2) Hugo de Vries
(3) Lamarck
(4) Thomas Malthus

86) Assertion (A): Genetic drift is a directional process that occurs in large populations to ensure
the survival of the fittest.
Reason (R): Gene flow and Genetic drift can both lead to a change in the allele frequencies of a
population over time.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

87) In a famous experiment, a scientist boiled nutrient broth in a flask with a long, curved neck.
Even after several months, no life appeared in the broth, because the "swan-neck" trapped airborne
dust and microbes. However, when the neck was broken off, the broth quickly teamed with life. This
experiment proved that:

(1) Life can arise spontaneously if given enough "vital force" from the air.
(2) Pre-existing life is the only source of new life, supporting the theory of Biogenesis.
(3) The primitive atmosphere of Earth was reducing and lacked oxygen.
(4) Heat-killed organisms can provide a "prebiotic soup" for chemical evolution.

88) A plant has 120 microspore mother cells in an anther. All undergo normal microsporogenesis
and all pollen grains are viable. The total number of male gametes produced will be :

(1) 240
(2) 480
(3) 960
(4) 1920

89) Which cell of the embryo sac contains two polar nuclei?

(1) Egg cell

(2) Synergid
(3) Central cell
(4) Antipodal cell

90) Which event occurs immediately after pollination?

(1) Double fertilization
(2) Pollen germination
(3) Zygote formation
(4) Endosperm formation
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 3 3 4 2 3 1 1 1 4 1 1 2 3 4 1 4 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 1 1 2 4 3 1 3 2 1 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 2 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 4 4 2 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 1 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 3 2 4 3 3 2 1 3 4 2 3 2 4 3 2 1 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 2 1 2 4 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 3 1 1 2 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 3 1 3 2 3 4 2 3 1 2 1 3 1 3 4 1 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 2 3 3 4 1 2 2 3 1 2 1 4 1 2 2 2 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) EXPLANATION : The maximum magnifying power (Mmax) of a telescope is achieved

when the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision (D), which is typically
25 cm.
CONCEPT : The maximum magnifying power of an astronomical telescope (Mmax) is
achieved for the strained eye (final image at D) and is given by the formula

0
, where f and fe are the focal lengths of the objective and eye-piece,
respectively, and D is the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm).
Solution :

=
= 33.6
Final Answer : (4)

2) EXPLANATION : This is an equiconvex lens (same curvature on both sides) which is a

converging lens. For an equiconvex lens, the radii of curvature are R1 = +R and R2 = –R.
CONCEPT : The relationship between the focal length (f), refractive index (µ), and radius of
curvature (R) for an equiconvex lens in air is given by the Lens Maker's Formula simplified to

.
Solution :

= 26 cm
Final Answer : (1)

3) Explanation: A YDSE uses two wavelengths (7000 Å and 5500 Å). The question asks for the
least distance from the center where their bright fringes coincide.
Concept: The condition for coincidence of bright fringes is . We find the
smallest non-zero integers n1,n2 that satisfy n1(700) = n2(5500), which is
. The distance is then calculated using the YDSE formula
.
Solution:
d = 2.5 mm, D = 150 cm

Fringe width
Let nth bright tringle of λ1 match with mth bright triangle of λ2
Distance where bright fringe will match

Final Answer: (3)

4) Explain Question : Find minimum distance of satellite from planet.

Concept : Kepler's second law
Solution :

3 × 104 × r = 1 × 103 × 4 × 104 r =

Final Answer : Option (3).

5) Explain Question :
Concept : Gravitational potential energy
Solution :

UR = –
where, R = 10 cm = 0.1 m
M = 100 kg
m = 10 g = 10-2 kg
Potential energy at infinity
U∞ = 0

Work done W = U∞ – UR =

=
= 6.67 × 10-10 J
Final Answer : (4)

6)

Explain Question : In this question, we are asked to find the percentage increase in length of
a wire using the given decrease in cross-sectional area and Poisson's ratio.
Concept : This question is based on Poisson's ratio.
Solution :
Given:
σ = 0.4

Decrease in area = 2% ⇒ = –2%

For circular cross-section:

(d = diameter of the wire)

So,

Poisson's ratio:
Percentage increase in length = 0.025 × 100 = 2.5%
Final Answer: option (2)

7) Explain Question : Find mass of the wire

Concept : Surface energy
Solution :

2Tℓ = Mg ⇒ M =

= = 0.6 g
Final Answer : (3)

8) Explaining : Find speed of particle at highest point of trajectory

Concept : This question is based on at highest point of parabolic trajectory vertical
component of velocity become zero only horizont component of velocity will be present.
Solution :

θ = 30° from horizontal

At highest point speed = U cos θ
= U cos 30°

=
=
Final Answer : (1)

9) Explaining : Calculate height h

Concept : This question is based on time of flight T = tA + tD =

& apply S = Ut +
Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

10) Explaining : Find the time gap between two successive impulse.
Concept : This question is based on, impulse.
Solution : Figure shows that slope of x-t graph changes from positive to negative at t = 2s,
and it change from negative to positive at t = 4s and so on. Thus, direction of velocity is
reversed after every two seconds. Hence, the body must be receiving consecutive impulses
after every two seconds.
Final Answer : (1)

11) Explaining : Find number of bullets fired per second.

Concept : This question is based on, average force.

Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

12)

Explaining : Find maximum speed of particle.

Concept : This question is based on, mechanical energy and F = – .

Solution : Potential energy U will be minimum at mean position

As we know
For equilibrium, F = 0 ⇒ –2x + 4 = 0
Mean position x = 2m
At x = 2,
Umin = –4J. At mean position potential energy = min and K.E. = maximum.
Hence, KE = TE – PE = 12 – (–4) = 16J

⇒ v = 4 m/sec
Final Answer : (1)

13) Concept:
Momentum of system is conserved in perfectly inelastic collision. The final velocity of the
combined body is obtained by equating the total initial momentum to the final momentum.
Formula:
• Conservation of momentum:
Calculation:

Final Answer : (1)

14) Explaining : To find ratio of B1 and B2.

Concept : This question is based on magnetic field.
Solution :
For B1

and ℓ = 2πR
For B2
∴ 3a = ℓ = 2πR

tan60° =

∴ B2 = 3B = [sin60° + sin60°]

∴ B2 = B1

⇒
Final Answer : (2)

15) Explaining : To find magnetic field at centre of smaller & bigger part.
Concept : This question is based on magnetic field of solenoid.
Solution : On cutting solenoid ; n → same but resistance ∝ ℓ.

0
B1 = μ n
 0
B2 = μ n
Final Answer : (3)

16) Explaining : To choose the correct option regarding motion of charge particle.
Concept : This question is based on motion in magnetic field.
Solution : Reason of zero work done is As
Final Answer : (4)

17) Explaining : To find the reading of voltmeter.

Concept : This question is based on Lenz's Law.
Solution : Since induce current will be in anticlock wise direction.
Final Answer : (1)

18) Explaining : To choose the quantity which will not increase if an iron rod is inserted.
Concept : This question is based on self induction.
Solution :
L will increase
ϕ = Li i → constant
ϕ → increases
B → increases

⇒ constant
Final Answer : (4)

19) Question Explanation: Clarify the components of acceleration when speed is not
constant.
Concept Involved: Dynamics Of Non-Uniform Circular Motion.
Solution: Net acceleration is the vector sum of radial (aC) and tangential (at) components.
Final Answer: (1)

20) Question Explanation: Note the dimensional limitations of MI theorems.

Concept Involved: Parallel And Perpendicular Axis Theorems.
Solution: The theorem is derived for z = 0 (2D plane).
Final Answer: (1)

21) Question Explanation: Distinguish between force balance and torque balance.
Concept Involved: Equilibrium Of Rigid Bodies.
Solution: A couple cancels ΣF but creates Στ.
Final Answer: (1)

22) Explanation: Given: Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R and 2R.
Asked: The ratio of charge density if the sphere is connected by a thin conducting wire.
Concept: In steady state potential of both the sphere should be same.
Solution:

∴
Final Answer: (4)

23) Explanation: Given: An electric field .

Asked: The electric flux through the cube of side 2m is placed in the space as per figure.
Concept:
Solution:
dnet = ϕin + ϕout = –16 + 32 = 16 Nm2 /c
Final Answer: (2)

24) Explanation: Given: A solid sphere with charge density ρ = kra.

Asked: The the electric field at r = .

Concept: Gauss Law.
Solution:

2a+1 = 23
a=2
Final Answer: (2)

25) Explanation: Given: A capacitor made of a flat plate as stair-like structure.

Asked: The capacitance of the arrangement.

Concept:
Solution:

Capacitance of capacitor with air between plate,

All capacitor are in parallel combination.
∴ Ceq = C1 + C2

Final Answer: (2)

26) Explanation:
Given: Two metallic spheres.
Asked: The Capacitance of metallic spheres.
Concept: The capacitance of a sphere depends only on its radius.
Solution:
Both the sphere will hold the same amount of charge. It is because, the two spheres has equal
capacitance. The capacitance of a sphere depends only on its radius. It does not matter
whether the sphere is hollow or solid.
Final Answer: (1)

27) Explanation: Given: A symmetric circuit.

Asked: The correct statement.
Concept: KCL and symmetricity.
Solution:
From symmetry : VB = VD

KCL at node x :

Now, v' = 12 –

Final Answer: (3)

28) Explanation: Given: A circuit with real voltmeter and ammeter.

Asked: The internal resistance of the voltmeter.
Concept: KVL and KCL and
Solution:

Using,

(measured value 5% less then internal resistance of voltmeter)

Or, 0.95 × 30 = 0.05 Rv
∴ Rv = 19 × 30 = 570 Ω
Final Answer: (2)

29) Explaining : In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across R is 100 volts and R = 1
kΩ with C = 2µF. The resonant frequency ω is 200 rad/s. At resonance the voltage across L is

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

L = 12.5

⇒ VL = iXL
⇒ VL = 0.1 × 200 × 12.5 ⇒ VL = 250
Final Answer : (3)

30) Explaining : An ac source of angular frequency ฀ is fed across a resistor r and a capacitor
C in series. The current registered is I. If the frequency of source is changed to ฀/3
(maintaining the same voltage), the current in the circuit is found to be halved. Calculate the
ratio of reactance to resistance at the original frequency

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

31) Explaining : Power of point source is 18 mW. Find the intensity 2.5 m away from the
source.

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

32) Explaining : A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 GHz is propagating in vacuum

along the z-direction. At a particular point in space and time, the magnetic field is given by
. The corresponding electric field is (speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
E = BC = 5 × 10–8 × 3 × 108 = 15 V/m

=
Final Answer : (2)

33) Explaining : find correct option for given assertion & reason
Concept : This question is based on super position of SHM
Solution :

So, A1 = 10
and A2 = .
Final Answer : (4)

34) Explaining : find period of small oscillation

Concept : This question is based on potential energy in SHM
Solution :
U = 4(1 – cos 2x)

F=
F = – 4 [2 {–(– sin 2x)}]
F = – 8 sin 2x
For small displacement sin 2x 2x
F = –16x
Compare with F = –kx
k = 16
mω2 = 16
Hence, motion is SHM.
and ω2 = 16 ⇒ ω = 4

T= .
Final Answer : (3)

35) Explaining : find minimum distance b/w two particles

Concept : This question is based on equation of progressive wave
Solution :
The distance between two successive particles vibrating in same phase is = λ
From equation, k = 0.2π

⇒ .
λ = 10 m.
Final Answer : (1)

36) Explaining : find speed of transverse wave

Concept : This question is based on stationary wave in string
Solution :
Harmonic = (overtone + 1)
=2+1
= 3rd harmonic
rd
3 harmonic = 324 Hz

ν=
ν = 194.4 m/s
Final Answer : (3)

37) Explaining : find reading in vernier callipers.

Concept : This question is based on vernier callipers.
Solution :
Reading = M.S.R + V.S.R
= (53 × 1 mm) + (3 × 0.1 mm)
= 53.3 mm
Final Answer : (2)

38) Explaining : find correct option for given situation

Concept : This question is based on dimensions of physical quantities
Solution :
 0
I = MR2 ⇒ [I] = [M1L2T ]

Ratio : ⇒ Frequency
Final Answer : (1)

39) PROBLEM EXPLANATION: Determining the threshold wavelength (λ0) given stopping
potentials for two different incident wavelengths (λ and 2λ).
CONCEPT USED: Einstein's Photoelectric Equation in terms of wavelength.

FORMULAS USED:
CALCULATION:

Case 1:

Case 2:

Dividing equations:
FINAL ANSWER: Option (2) 4λ

40)

PROBLEM EXPLANATION: Calculating energy liberated in a fission reaction of where

products X and Y have higher B/A than the reactant.
CONCEPT USED: Energy released = (Total final Binding Energy) - (Total initial Binding
Energy).
FORMULAS USED:
CALCULATION:

FINAL ANSWER: Option (3)

41)

PROBLEM EXPLANATION: Naming a semiconductor where conductivity is only due to

broken covalent bonds.
CONCEPT USED: Pure vs doped semiconductors.
FORMULAS USED: Theoretical definition: Intrinsic = pure.
CALCULATION: No doping involved, only thermal generation.
FINAL ANSWER: Option (1)

42) Question Explanation:

A circuit is shown -
Find the current through the battery
Concept:
Semi - conductor Diode and circuit based Questions.
Solution:
Equivalent circuit :-

Final answer: option (3)

43) Explaining : to find the temperature of the black body

Concept : This question is based on stefan's law & radiation
Solution :
P = A σT4 (black body)
 ⇒

⇒
⇒ T = 800 K = 527°C
Final Answer : (2)

44) Explaining : To find the equivalent value of γ for the mixture

Concept : This question is based on mixing of gas.
Solution :

γmix. =

=
Final Answer : (3)

45)

Question Explanation : A hot copper block is placed on ice, causing some ice to melt. find
the mass of ice melted.

Concept : This question is based on principle of calorimetry.

Formula : Heat lost by copper: Qcopper ​= mcopper​ × ccopper ​ × ΔTcopper​

Solution :
Heat gained by ice to melt: Qice​= mice​ × Lice​

By the principle of heat exchange, Qcopper​ = Qice​

Calculation : Qcopper​ = 80 × 0.1 × (100−0)=800 cal

800 = mice​×80
mice ​= 10 g

Final Answer : Option (2)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explaining : The percentage dissociation of aluminium sulphate will be :

Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
0.003 × (1 + 4α) = 0.01
⇒ α = 0.5833 = 58.33%
Final Answer (2)

47)

Explaining : molar solubility of the salt is:

Concept : This question is based on solubility
Solution :

If solubility of Ag2CrO4 is 'S',

then [Ag+] = 2 S and = S.
Ksp = 4S3
4 × 10–12 = 4S3
S = 1 × 10–4 M
Final Answer (1)

48)

Explaining : Calculate mass of the final solution obtained on heating a solution

Concept : This question is based on elevation in boiling point.
Solution :

⇒ x = 250
Solution = 250 + 30 = 280 g
Final Answer (2)

49)

Explaining : CaCl2 is.

Concept : This question is based on molar conductance.
Solution :
CaCl2 = λ° Ca2+ + 2λ°Cl–
= (118.88 × 10–4) + 2(77.33 × 10–4)
= 273.54 × 10–4 m2 mho mol–1
Final Answer (3)

50)

Explaining : Calculate the value of Kp.

Concept : This question is based on equilibrium constant.
Solution :
Final Answer (3)

51)

Explaining : Which is correct

Concept : This question is based on empirical formula.
Solution :
Correct A. The percentage of each element in empirical formula or molecular formula is same.
Final Answer (4)

52)

Explaining : The value of the reaction quotient Q.

Concept : This question is based on Nernst equation.
Solution :
Zn(s) → Zn2+ + 2e– (Anodic process)
2Ag+ + 2e– → 2Ag(s) (Cathodic process)

Q= = 6.4 × 10–3
Final Answer (4)

53)

Explaining : true statements will be:

Concept : This question is based on Le-Chatelier’s principle
Solution :
Low P ⇒ V increases in forward direction
Hence, (c + d) > (a + b)
Low T ⇒ Reaction must be exothermic or ΔH < 0
Final Answer (3)

54)

Explaining : Which is correct.

Concept : This question is based on azeotropic.
Solution : Non-ideal solutions form azeotropic mixture.
Final Answer (3)

55)

Explaining : The angular momentum of particle is.

Concept : This question is based on angular momentum.
Solution :

2πr = nλ ⇒ n =

= 0.529 × 6.626 × 10–34 = 3.5 × 10–34

Final Answer (1)

56)

Explaining : Value of M and L respectively.

Concept : This question is based on rate law.
Solution :
0
R = k[X][Y] = k[X]
Using I and II:

Using I and III:

Final Answer (2)

57)

Explaining : Mole fraction of urea in this solution is :

Concept : This question is based on elevation is B.P.
Solution :

⇒
Final Answer (4)

58)

Explaining : Ea represents.
Concept : This question is based on Arrhenius equation.
Solution :
In Arrhenius equation, Ea is the energy of activation, which is required by the
colliding molecules to react resulting in the formation of products.
Final Answer (3)

59)

Explaining : correct option.

Concept : This question is based on oxidation number.
Solution :
Final Answer (1)

60)

Explaining : Which is correct.

Concept : This question is based on ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
Solution :
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
ΔH = +ve ; ΔS = +ve
|TΔS| > |ΔH| for
Spontaneity.
Final Answer (2)

61)

Explaining : ESR
Concept : This question is based on ESR.
Solution :

Reactivity towards ESR ∝

Final Answer (4)

62)

Explaining : Reimer teimann reaction and carbylamine reaction.

Concept : This question is based on Reimer teimann reaction and carbylamine reaction.
Solution :
Reacting species of Reimer teimann reaction and carbylamine reaction is dichloro carbene i.e.
: CCl2.
Reimer-tiemann & carbylamines reaction involves carbene intermediate.
Final Answer (4)

63)

Explaining : Decarboxylation
Concept : This question is based on decarboxylation.
Solution :
β – keto acid is highly reactive for decarboxylation
Final Answer (2)

64)

Explaining : C⊕ stability.
Concept : This question is based on C⊕ stability.
Solution :

(I)
(Stabilized by 2° carbocation and +M of –O group)

(II)
(Stabilized by 2° carbocation)

(III)
(Stabilized by 3° carbocation)

(IV)
(Stabilized by 1° carbocation and +M of –O group)
So, stability order ⇒ I > IV > III > II
Final Answer (3)

65)

Explaining : Markovnikov's & Antimarkovnikov's addition?

Concept : This question is based on Markovnikov's & Antimarkovnikov's addition.
Solution : Unsymmetric alkene gives different product with Markovnikov's & Anti-
markovnikov's addition.
Final Answer (4)

66)

Explaining : Match list I with List-II.

Concept : This question is based on Match list I with List-II.
Solution : A – II, B –I, C – IV, D – III
Final Answer (4)

67)

Explaining : Mixed concept.

Concept : This question is based on mixed concept.
Solution :
Final Answer (3)

68)

Explaining : Mixed concept.

Concept : This question is based on mixed concept.
Solution :

Final Answer (2)

69)

Explaining : Mixed
Concept : This question is based on mixed.
Solution : a - q, b - s, c - p, d - r
Final Answer (2)

70)

Explaining : No of α-Hydrogen.
Concept : This question is based on No of α-Hydrogen.
Solution : 1 + 7 + 3 + 4
Final Answer (3)

71)
Explaining : E2.
Concept : This question is based on E2.
Solution : -

Final Answer (3)

72)

Explaining : Ozonolysis of alkene.

Concept : This question is based on ozonolysis of alkene.
Solution :

Final Answer (3)

73)

Explaining : Steam distillation.

Concept : This question is based on steam distillation.
Solution : Volatile liquids are those liquids which vapourise before their boiling point.
Final Answer (2)

74)

Explaining : Fehling’s solution.

Concept : This question is based on Fehling’s solution.
Solution :
Fehling’s solution is reduced by
CH3COOH No
HCOOH Yes
HCHO Yes
C6H5CHO No
CH3CHO Yes
Thus, pair I can be distinguished
Pair II can be distinguished
Pair III can be distinguished
Pair IV cannot be distinguished
Final Answer (1)

75)

Explaining : Cannizzaro reaction.

Concept : This question is based on Cannizzaro reaction.
Solution : -
In cross Cannizzaro reaction if one of the aldehyde is formaldehyde then the formaldehyde will
undergo oxidation.

Final Answer (2)

76) Explaining : Evaluate given statements.

Concept : This question is based on atomic radii and metallic character.
Solution :
Metallic character means the tendency of an element to lose electrons and form a positive ion.
In general, metallic character is more in s-block elements than in p-block elements.
So, elements like K and Mg (s-block) show more metallic character than Al and B (p-block).
Now, compare atomic radius and ionic radius: if an atom forms a cation, its ionic radius
becomes smaller than the atomic radius. If an atom forms an anion, its ionic radius becomes
larger than the atomic radius.
Therefore, ionic radius is not always smaller than atomic radius. Specifically, anionic
radius is greater than atomic radius, but cationic radius is always less than atomic radius for
any element.
Final Answer : (3)

77)

Explaining : Which of the following represents the correct trend for the mentioned property?
Concept : This question is based on periodic properties.
Solution :
Ionisation Energy (Option A)

A. Across a period (left → right) atoms get smaller and the nucleus pulls more strongly, so
the first ionisation energy (IE) goes up.

B. Down a group (top → bottom) atoms get bigger, so the IE goes down.

F > P > S > B (IE order)

Metallic Character (Option C)

A. Metallic character means how easily an atom loses electrons.

B. Across a period it falls because atoms hold their electrons more tightly.

C. Down a group it rises because outer electrons are farther from the nucleus.

K > Mg > Al > B (Metallic character order)

Basic Nature of Oxides (Option D)

A. Metal oxides are basic; non-metal oxides are acidic.

B. As metallic character increases down a group, basic strength of the oxides also
increases.

K2O > Na2O > MgO > Al2O3

Electron Affinity (Option B)

A. Electron affinity (EA) usually becomes more negative from left to right because atoms
want to gain electrons.

B. Among the main-group elements, EA follows Group 17 > Group 16 > Group 15.

Cl > F > S > P

Final Answer : (2)

78)

Explaining : Which of the following statements are not correct?

Concept : This question is based on nature of oxides and periodic properties.
Solution :
A. The electron gain enthalpy of F is more negative than that of Cl.
This statement is incorrect. The electron gain enthalpy of F is less negative than that of Cl due
to its small size, which leads to increased electron-electron repulsion when an electron is
added.
B. Ionization enthalpy decreases in a group of the periodic table.
This statement is correct. Ionization enthalpy generally decreases down a group of the
periodic table due to the increase in atomic size, which results in a weaker attraction between
the nucleus and the outermost electrons.
C. The electronegativity of an atom depends upon the atoms bonded to it.
This statement is incorrect. Electronegativity is a property of an atom that depends on the
effective nuclear charge and the distance of the outermost electrons from the nucleus. While
the difference in electronegativity between atoms in a bond can affect the bond's polarity, the
electronegativity itself does not depend on the atoms bonded to it.
D. Al2O3 and NO are examples of amphoteric oxides.
This statement is incorrect. Al2O3 is an example of an amphoteric oxide, meaning it can react
with both acids and bases.
However, NO is not an amphoteric oxide; it is a neutral oxide.
Hence, the incorrect statements are A, C, and D.
Final Answer : (2)

79)

Explaining : Match the column-

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR Theory.
Solution :
XeF2 and have 2 bond pairs and 3 lone pairs on the central atom (total 5 electron pairs).
In this case, the molecular shape becomes linear.
XeOF4 and BrF5 have 5 bond pairs and 1 lone pair on the central atom (total 6 electron
pairs). This gives a square pyramidal shape.
XeO2F2 and SF4 have 4 bond pairs and 1 lone pair on the central atom (total 5 electron
pairs). This leads to a see-saw shape.
XeO3 and NH 3 have 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair on the central atom (total 4 electron
pairs). So, the shape is pyramidal.
Final Answer : (3)

80)

Explaining : In which of the following processes, the bond order increases and paramagnetic
character changes to diamagnetic one?
Concept : This question is based on MOT.
Solution :
Option A:
The bond order of O2 is 2 and it is paramagnetic. When two electrons are added to form ,
the bond order becomes 1 (decreases) and it becomes diamagnetic. This option does not meet
the required conditions.
Option B:
The bond order of N2 is 3 and it is diamagnetic. When one electron is removed to form , the
bond order becomes 2.5 (decreases) and it remains diamagnetic. This option does not meet the
required conditions.
Option C:
The bond order of NO is 2.5 and it is paramagnetic. When one electron is removed to form
NO+, the bond order becomes 3 (increases) and it becomes diamagnetic. This option meets the
required conditions.
Option D:
The bond order of O2 is 2 and it is paramagnetic. When one electron is removed to form ,
the bond order becomes 2.5 (increases) and it remains paramagnetic. This option does not
meet the required conditions.
Therefore, the correct answer is .
Final Answer : (3)

81) Explaining : Consider the species CH4, and . Choose the correct option with
respect to the these species.
Concept : This question is based on shape and geometry.
Solution :

All are tetrahedral and each have 10 electrons.

Final Answer : (2)

82)

Explaining : Evaluate given statements.

Concept : This question is based on electronegativity and nature of oxides.
Solution :
Electronegativity order : N > P > As > Sb
↑ ↑
Most Least
electronegative electronegative
X=N X2O3 = N2O3 (Acidic)
Y = Sb} Y2O3 = Sb2O3 (Amphoteric)
Statement-I is true
BCl3 + 3H2O → B(OH)3 + 3HCl
Statement-II is false
Final Answer : (2)

83) Explaining : The strongest reducing agent among the following is :

Concept : This question is based on reducing power of hydrides.
Solution :
In general, the stability of hydrides decreases as we move down the group in the periodic
table, which means that heavier hydrides are less stable and hence act as stronger reducing
agents. This trend is primarily due to the increase in the size of the central atom as we move
down the group, leading to weaker bonds between the central atom and hydrogen in the
hydride. As the bond strength decreases, the hydrides can more readily release hydrogen in
the form of protons (H+) or hydride ions (H−), making them stronger reducing agents.
The order of reducing strength for Group 15 hydrides is typically as follows:
BiH3 > SbH3 > PH3 > NH3
Final Answer : (3)

84)

Explaining : The set of correct statements is :

Concept : This question is based on stability of oxidation states.
Solution :
(i) Mn2O7 → Mn in (+7) oxidation state
(ii) It is also correct
(iii) Sc only shows +3 oxidation state
(iv) Cr+6 is oxidising in nature
Final Answer : (4)

85) Explaining : The 'f' orbitals are half and completely filled, respectively in lanthanide ions :
Concept : This question is based on electronic configuration of f-block elements.
Solution :
Tb → 4f9 6s2
Tb+4 → 4f7
Yb → 4f14 6s2
Yb+2 → 4f14
Hence, the pair Tb+4 and Yb+2 have half filled and completely filled f subshells respectively.
Final Answer : (3)

86)

Explaining : An octahedral complex having molecular composition Co.5NH3.ClSO4 has two

isomers A and B. The solution of A gives a white precipitate with AgNO3 solution and the
solution of B gives white precipitate with BaCl2 solution. The type of isomerism exhibited by
the complex is,
Concept : This question is based on isomerism in coordination compounds.
Solution :
In this octahedral complex with the molecular composition [Link].SO4, two isomers, A and
B, are present.
Isomer A is represented as [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Cl. When this isomer is dissolved in solution, it
reacts with AgNO3, forming a white precipitate of silver chloride (AgCl).
Isomer B is written as [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4. In solution, it reacts with BaCl2, forming a white
precipitate of barium sulfate (BaSO4).
These two isomers demonstrate ionisation isomerism. This type of isomerism occurs when the
exchange of ions inside and outside the coordination sphere of a complex leads to the
formation of isomers with different chemical behaviors in solution.
Final Answer : (2)

87) Explaining : Match the column.

Concept : This question is based on hybridisation and magnetic nature.
Solution :
(A) [MnBr4]2– - (IV) sp3 & paramagnetic
(B) [FeF6]3– - (II) sp3d2 & paramagnetic
(C) [Co(C2O4)3]3– - (I) d2sp3 & diamagnetic
(D) [Ni(CO)4] - (III) sp3 & diamagnetic
Final Answer : (3)

88) Explaining : The complex that shows Facial - Meridional isomerism is :

Concept : This question is based on isomerism in coordination compounds.
Solution :
Ma3b3 type complexes show Facial - Meridional isomerism
 (i) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] ⇒ Ma3b3
(ii) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ ⇒ Ma4b2
(iii) [Co(en)3]3+ ⇒ M(AA)3
(iv) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ ⇒ M(AA)2b2
Final Answer : (2)

89) Explaining : Formation of Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS], a purple coloured complex formed by

addition of sodium nitroprusside in sodium carbonate extract of salt indicates the presence of :
Concept : This question is based on qualitative analysis.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

90) Explaining : When a solution of an inorganic salt was treated with freshly prepared
ferrous sulphate in acidic medium, a dark brown ring was formed. It contains :
Concept : This question is based on qualitative analysis.
Solution :
The inorganic salt gives a dark brown ring when treated with ferrous sulphate in acidic
medium. This is a characteristic reaction of nitrate ions ( ). The brown ring is due to the
2+
formation of a complex between NO and Fe .
Therefore, it contains nitrate ( ) ions.
Final Answer : (2)

BIOLOGY

91) Explanation:
This is not required. Helicase is used to unwind DNA in cellular replication, but in PCR, heat
is used for denaturation (separating the DNA strands).

The answer is option 2: Helicase enzyme.

92) Solution : After the formation of products in the bioreactors, it undergoes through a
series of processes before it is ready for marketing as a finished product, is called downstream
processing.
Final Answer : (2)

93) Explanation:
DNA moves from wells towards the right in the gel. Lanes 2, 3, and 4 show DNA
movement. So, lanes 2-4 have digested DNA.

The correct answer is option 3. Lane - 2 to 4 shows migration of digested set of DNA
fragments

94) Explanation :
 What is the extra stretch present in the prohormone form of human insulin?

Concept :
understanding of the structure of insulin and its precursor.

Solution :
Human insulin is initially synthesized as a prohormone, which includes an extra peptide
sequence called the C-peptide. The prohormone undergoes enzymatic cleavage to remove the
C-peptide, resulting in the active A and B chains of insulin.

Hence, option (2) is correct.

95) Solution : The techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis polymerase chain
reaction, ELISA and recombinant DNA technology.
Final Answer : (4)

96)

The correct answer is option (3) Second

Solution/Explanation :
The Indian Patents Bill has undergone several amendments to align with international
standards and address various issues :

A. Second Amendment (2002) : Introduced provisions related to patent terms, emergency

provisions, and research and development initiatives.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

97) Solution : Lysosomes causes cellular death by digestion due to presence of hydrolytic
enzymes.
Final Answer : (3)

98) Solution : Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
Final Answer : (2)

99)

Question Explanation : Check correctness of statements about polysomes and ribosome

association in prokaryotes.
Concept : The question is based on ribosome
Solution : The correct answer is option 1:

A. Statement I: Several Ribosomes may attached to a single mRNA and form a chain
Polysome
A. Correct. Polysomes (polyribosomes) are formed when multiple ribosomes simultaneously
translate a single mRNA.
B. Statement II: Ribosomes are not associated with the plasma membrane of the cell in
Prokaryotes
A. Incorrect. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are free in the cytoplasm and can attach to the
plasma membrane during protein synthesis.

Final Answer : Option 1

100) Solution : Centromere - Primary constriction.

Final Answer : (3)

101) Solution : A - Mitosis; B - 2N; C - 2N.

Final Answer : (4)

102)

Question Explanation
The question is asking about the number of chromosomes present at each pole during
anaphase II, given that the number of bivalents is 20.

Concept
Meiosis II chromosome number

Solution
Twenty bivalents indicate a diploid number of forty chromosomes, so the haploid number is
twenty. After meiosis I, each cell has twenty chromosomes, each consisting of two sister
chromatids. During anaphase II, the sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles,
and each chromatid is counted as an individual chromosome. Therefore, each pole receives
twenty chromosomes.

Final answer: Option 2

103)

Question Explanation
The question is asking which option is not a significance of equational division (mitosis).

Concept
Significance of equational division

Solution
Equational division (mitosis) maintains the same number of chromosomes in daughter cells
and ensures growth, cell repair, and restoration of nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio. However,
maintaining the constant number of chromosomes from generation to generation is a feature
of meiosis, not mitosis.

Final answer: Option 3

104)

Question Explanation
The question is asking about the meiotic stage in which chromosomes start to disperse but do
not completely decondense to the interphase state.

Concept
Telophase I

Solution
During telophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes have reached opposite poles and
begin partial decondensation. However, they do not become as extended as chromosomes in
the interphase nucleus, unlike telophase II where decondensation is more complete.

Final answer: Option 2

105) Solution : Inulin is present in root of Dahlia and Artichoke.

Final Answer : (4)

106) Solution : All are reducing except sucrose and trehalose.

Final Answer : (3)

107)

Question Explanation :
Each polysaccharide has a specific monomer.

Concept :
Polysaccharides ( Biomolecules)

Explanation :
• Cellulose → polymer of β-D-glucose.
• Inulin → polymer of fructose.
• Glycogen → polymer of α-D-glucose.
• Chitin → polymer of N-acetyl-D-glucosamine.

Final Answer : Option 2 – A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)

108) Solution : Gregor Mendel proposed the laws of inheritance. Walter Sutton and Theodore
Boveri noted that the behaviour of chromosomes during meiosis was parallel to the behaviour
of genes. Thomas Hunt Morgan provided experimental verification of the chromosomal theory
of inheritance using Drosophila. Alfred Sturtevant mapped the positions of genes on
chromosomes.
Final Answer : (1)

109) Solution : A test cross involves crossing the dominant phenotype (heterozygous Vv) with
the homozygous recessive parent (vv). The offspring produced will be 50% Vv (Violet) and 50%
vv (White), giving a 1 : 1 phenotypic ratio.
Final Answer : (2)

110) Solution : In pedigree analysis symbols, a solid or filled symbol (square, circle, or
diamond) represents an affected individual. A square represents a male, a circle represents a
female, and consanguineous mating is shown by double horizontal lines.
Final Answer : (3)

111) Solution : Francis Crick postulated the presence of an adapter molecule that reads the
mRNA code and binds to specific amino acids. tRNA serves this exact role through its
complementary anticodon loop and amino acid acceptor end, perfectly justifying the assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

112) Solution : Statement I is correct as DNA wraps around a histone octamer to form a
nucleosome.
Statement II is incorrect because histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues lysine and
arginine, which carry positive charges.
Final Answer : (3)

113) Solution : 15N is a heavy isotope of nitrogen, but it is not radioactive. It can be separated
from 14N strictly based on density differences using a cesium chloride density gradient.
Final Answer : (2)

114) Solution : The ribosome consists of structural RNAs and about 80 different proteins.
Translation begins when the small subunit encounters mRNA; amino acids are activated by
ATP during tRNA charging; and UTRs are present at both 5′ and 3′ ends.
Final Answer : (1)

115) Solution : They have an incomplete (blind-sac) gut; metagenesis occurs in some like
Obelia.
Final Answer : (2)

116) Solution : From aschelminthes onwards has organ system level of organisation.
Final Answer : (4)

117) Solution : Each feature is unique to the listed phylum.

Final Answer : (2)

118) Solution : The hardness of bone comes from inorganic calcium phosphates, while the
collagen fibers give it slight flexibility and resistance to shattering.
Final Answer : (2)

119) Solution : Gap junctions electrically couple cardiac cells, meaning when one cell is
stimulated, the impulse immediately flows into adjacent cells.
Final Answer : (1)

120) Solution : Transparent third eyelid (nictitating membrane) covers eye while swimming
without obstructing vision.
Final Answer : (2)

121) Solution : Both are true. The heavy forewings serve as protective covers for the delicate
hindwings when the insect is at rest.
Final Answer : (1)

122) Solution : Reabsorption happens throughout the tubule; secretion fine-tunes

composition.
Final Answer : (2)

123) Solution : Being impermeable to water, it dilutes the filtrate while pumping salts into the
medulla.
Final Answer : (2)

124) Solution : r is the birth rate minus the death rate, representing the biotic potential or
intrinsic rate of natural increase.
Final Answer : (2)

125) Solution : To avoid detection, parasite eggs evolve to match the size and color of host
eggs.
Final Answer : (3)

126) Solution : Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant which allows
better speciation and have high species diversity.
Final Answer : (1)

127) Solution : Carbon/Nitrogen are gaseous (Atmosphere), Phosphorus are sedimentary

(Crust). Leaching removes nutrients from the reachable soil layers.
Final Answer : (1)

128) Solution : Inverted.

Producer (1 Tree) = Smallest base.
Herbivores (500 birds) = Wider middle.
Parasites (Thousands) = Widest top.
Final Answer : (2)

129) Solution : Formula: NPP = GPP – R

NPP = 100 – 20 = 80 k cal m–2 yr–1
Final Answer : (3)

130) Solution : A stable community should NOT show too much variation in productivity from
year to year.
Final Answer : (3)
131) Solution : Parthenium, Lantana, and Eichhornia (Water Hyacinth) are invasive plants;
Clarias gariepinus is an invasive fish.
Final Answer : (4)

132) Solution : According to Table 1.1: Man belongs to Hominidae, Housefly to Muscidae,
Mango to Anacardiaceae, and Wheat to Poaceae.
Final Answer : (A)

133) Solution : Instead of a cell wall, they have a protein rich layer called pellicle which
makes their body flexible. This is a characteristic of Euglenoids.
Final Answer : (3)

134) Solution : Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation called plasmodium which
may grow and spread over several feet.
Final Answer : (1)

135) Solution : In 1971, T.O. Diener discovered a new infectious agent that was smaller than
viruses and caused potato spindle tuber disease. It was found to be a free RNA; it lacked the
protein coat that is found in viruses, hence the name viroid. The RNA of the viroid was of low
molecular weight.
Final Answer : (3)

136) Solution : The plant body is usually attached to the substratum by a holdfast, and has a
stalk, the stipe and leaf like photosynthetic organ the frond.
Final Answer : (2)

137) Solution : Evolutionarily, they are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues -
xylem and phloem. This refers to the Pteridophytes.
Final Answer : (3)

138) Solution : Roots in some genera have fungal association in the form of mycorrhiza
(Pinus), while in some others (Cycas) small specialised roots called coralloid roots are
associated with N2-- fixing cyanobacteria. Final Answer : (4)

139)

Solution: In plants like Rhizophora growing in swampy areas, many roots come out of the
ground and grow vertically upwards to help get oxygen for respiration. These are
pneumatophores.
Final Answer: (2)

140)

Solution: In cymose inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower, hence growth is
limited. Flowers are borne in a basipetal order. Both statements are false.
Final Answer: (3)

141)

Solution: The root is covered at the apex by the root cap. Above that is the meristematic zone,
followed by the elongation zone, and finally the maturation zone.
Final Answer: (1)

142)

Solution: This shows a conjoint open vascular bundle because it possesses cambium between
the xylem and phloem, which is characteristic of dicot stems.
Final Answer: (2)

143)

Solution: Bulliform cells are in monocot leaves; stomata are epidermal structures; palisade is
in dicot leaves; Casparian strips are
in the endodermis.
Final Answer: (1)

144)

Solution: Water splitting is associated with PS II (not PS I). It occurs on the inner side (lumen
side) of the thylakoid membrane.
Final Answer: (3)

145)

Solution: For every CO2 molecule entering the Calvin cycle, 3 molecules of ATP and 2 of
NADPH are required. (To make 1 glucose, 6 × these amounts are needed).
Final Answer: (1)

146)

Solution: Six turns of the cycle are required for the removal of one molecule of glucose from
the pathway because each turn fixes
only one carbon atom from CO2.
Final Answer: (3)

147)

Solution: There is only one point in the TCA cycle where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2 (during
the conversion of succinate to fumarate).
Final Answer: (4)
148)

Solution: Electrons from NADH (Complex I) are transferred to Ubiquinone (UQ). UQ also
receives electrons from Complex II. Then to Complex III, then to the mobile carrier
Cytochrome c, and finally to Complex IV.
Final Answer: (1)

149)

Solution: In both alcoholic and lactic acid fermentation, the only ATP-yielding steps occur
during glycolysis. The net gain is only 2 molecules of ATP for each molecule of glucose.
Final Answer: (1)

150)

Solution: Vernalization is the phenomenon where flowering is either quantitatively or

qualitatively dependent on exposure to low temperature.
Final Answer: (2)

151)

Solution: Abscisic acid (ABA) stimulates the closure of stomata and increases the tolerance of
plants to various kinds of stresses, hence the name.
Final Answer: (4)

152) Explanation: Biogas plants use anaerobic microbes, especially methanogens →

Statement I is false. Methanogens (e.g., Methanobacterium) function in anaerobic conditions →
Statement II is true.
Final Answer : (3)

153) Solution: A true (coccyx 1 fused); R true but general function.

Final Answer : (2)

154) Solution: A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R

Gravis — Paralysis; Osteo — Fractures; Gout — Inflammation; Tetany — Spasms
Final Answer : (3)

155) Solution: New ATP binds, breaks cross-bridge.

Final Answer : (3)

156) Solution :
Final Answer : (4)

157) Solution: (i) Trachea

(ii) Bronchi
(iii) Terminal bronchioles
(iv) Alveoli
Final Answer : (1)

158) Solution: Lub associated with closure of tricuspid and bicuspid (AV) valves.
Final Answer : (2)

159) Solution: Normal activities regulated intrinsically by nodal tissue, hence myogenic.
Final Answer : (2)

160) Solution: Respiration control is in medulla (hindbrain), not midbrain.

Final Answer : (3)

161) Solution: Somatic to skeletal (II false).

Final Answer : (1)

162) Solution: Glucagon acts mainly on Hepatocytes and initiate

Glycogenolysis: Breaking down stored glycogen into glucose.
Gluconeogenesis: Synthesizing new glucose from non-carbohydrate sources (like amino acids).
Final Answer : (2)

163) Solution: The biological importance of thymus degeneration in old age lies exactly in this
decline in T-cell output, which directly causes the weakened immune response mentioned in
the Reason.
Final Answer : (1)

164) Solution: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
1. Hormone diffuses into cell
2. Binds intracellular receptor
3. Hormone-receptor complex binds DNA
4. mRNA synthesis → protein → effect
Final Answer : (4)

165) Solution: In males, the division is equal, producing 4 sperm. In females, oogenesis is
unequal, producing only one functional ovum and two or three non-functional polar bodies.
Final Answer : (1)

166) Solution: The acrosomal enzymes must first digest the egg's layers (2). As soon as the
first sperm touches the membrane, the cortical reaction occurs (1) to block others. Then, the
genetic material fuses (4), and only then is the single-cell diploid Zygote (3) officially formed.
Final Answer : (2)

167) Solution: Colostrum provides Passive Immunity, not active immunity. Passive immunity
is when you receive pre-formed antibodies (like IgA from mother's milk); active immunity is
when your own body produces them.
Final Answer : (2)

168) Solution: To get 200 zygotes, you need 200 sperm and 200 ova.
Sperm: 1 Primary Spermatocyte produces 4 sperm. Thus, 200 sperm require 200 / 4 = 50
Ova: 1 Primary Oocyte produces 1 functional ovum. Thus, 200 ova require 200
Total: 50 + 200 = 250
Final Answer : (2)

169) Solution: Statement IV is incorrect because ZIFT (Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer)

involves the transfer of the zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian
tube. If the embryo has more than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into the uterus via IUT
(Intra-Uterine Transfer).
Final Answer : (1)

170) Solution: According to standard ART protocols, embryos up to 8 blastomeres can be

transferred into the Fallopian tube (ZIFT), but embryos more than 8 blastomeres (like the 16-
cell stage) must be transferred into the uterus (IUT - Intra-Uterine Transfer).
Final Answer : (4)

171) Solution: Heroin is an opioid that binds to specific receptors in the CNS and GI tract,
acting as a potent depressant.
Final Answer : (3)

172) Solution: Both statements are correct.

Final Answer : (3)

173) Solution: The symptoms describe Typhoid fever, caused by Salmonella typhi. The
standard serological test for its confirmation is the Widal test.
Final Answer : (2)

174) Solution : Thymus is responsible for differentiation and maturation of T-lymphocytes.

Final Answer : (3)

175) Solution: De Vries worked on evening primrose and suggested that mutations, not minor
variations, are the cause of evolution.
Final Answer : (2)

176) Solution: Genetic drift is a non-directional (random) process, not a directional one. It
occurs primarily in small populations due to sampling error, and it does not "ensure" the
survival of the fittest (that is the role of Natural Selection).
Final Answer : (4)

177) Solution: This experiment by Louis Pasteur demonstrated that the "vital force" in the air
was actually just microscopic organisms. By trapping them in the curved neck, he showed that
the broth stayed sterile, disproving spontaneous generation.
Final Answer : (2)

178) Solution :
1 MMC → meiosis → 4 microspores
120 MMC →
120 × 4 = 480 pollen grains
Each pollen grain → 2 male gametes
480 × 2 = 960 male gametes
Final Answer : (3)

179) Solution : Central cell contains two polar nuclei that participate in triple fusion.
Final Answer : (3)

180) Solution : After pollination → pollen grain germinates on stigma forming pollen tube.
Final Answer : (2)