Module 11th Physics
Module 11th Physics
26. A car moves with zero initial velocity up to a velocity of 5 m/s with an acceleration of 10 m/s2. The
distance covered is __________
a) 1.25m b) 1.5m c) 1.6m d) 0m
27. Number of primary equations of motion is __________
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
28. A car moves for 60s covering 3600m with zero initial velocity. What is the acceleration in m/s2?
a) 2 b) 2.5 c) 3 d) 4.5
29. A coin and a bag full of rocks are thrown in a gravity less environment with the same initial speed.
Which one of the following statements is true about the situation?
a) The bag will travel faster b) The coin will travel faster
c) Both will travel with the same speed d) Bag will not move
30. The equations of motion are valid for which of the following types of motion?
a) Constant energy b) Uniformly accelerated
c) non-uniformly accelerated d) Motion along a curve
31. In uniformly accelerated motion, how many variables are required to fully describe the system?
a) 1 b) 3 c) 4 d) 2
32. A body moves 15 m in a 15mins, with an initial velocity of 0m/min. What is the final velocity in m/min?
a) 2 b) 8 c) 5 d) 6
33. Which of the following can be used to describe how fast an object is moving along with the direction of
motion at a given instant of time?
a) Instantaneous velocity b) Instantaneous speed
c) Average velocity d) Average speed
34. A ball is thrown up in the sky, at what position will the instantaneous speed be minimum?
a) Initial position b) Final position
c) Halfway through the whole trajectory d) After covering one fourth of the whole trajectory
35. A car is moving in a spiral starting from the origin with uniform angular velocity. What can be said
about the instantaneous velocity?
a) It increases with time b) It decreases with time
c) It remains constant d) It does not depend on time
36. What happen to the instantaneous velocity in a non-uniformly accelerated motion?
a) It increases b) It decreases
c) It varies as the acceleration d) It remains constant
37. Which of the following types of motion cannot describe the motion of a clock’s hands?
a) Rectilinear b) Circular c) Periodic d) Harmonic
38. When a body is in the state of complete rest, what kind of energy does it possess?
a) Potential energy b) Kinetic energy c) Total energy d) Heat energy
39. Which of the following are obtained by dividing total displacement by total time taken?
a) Average velocity b) Instantaneous velocity
c) Uniform velocity d) Speed
40. What will be the velocity v/s time graph of a ball falling from a height before hitting the ground look
like?
a) A straight line with positive slope b) A straight line with negative slope
c) A straight line with zero slope d) A parabola
41. Average speed of a car between points A and B is 20 m/s, between B and C is 15 m/s, between C and D is
10 m/s. What is the average speed between A and D, if the time taken in the mentioned sections is 20s,
10s and 5s respectively?
a) 17.14 m/s b) 15 m/s c) 10 m/s d) 45 m/s
42. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Average speed > Instantaneous speed b) Average speed >= Instantaneous speed
c) Average speed <= Instantaneous speed d) Average speed < Instantaneous speed
43. What happens to the average velocity when a body falls under gravity with terminal velocity?
a) It increases b) It decreases c) It remains constant d) It changes exponentially
44. A ball is thrown up in the sky. After reaching a height, the ball falls back. What can be said about the
average velocity?
a) It is nonzero b) It is zero
c) It is greater than zero d) It is less than zero
45. A particle moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration has a velocity 10 cm/sec and 8 seconds
later has a velocity 54 cm/sec. What will be the acceleration?
a) 1 cm/sec2 b) 2 cm/sec2
c) 3 cm/sec2 d) 4 cm/sec2
46. A particle moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration has a velocity 10 cm/sec and 8 seconds
later has a velocity 54 cm/sec. What will be the value of space described?
a) 172 cm b) 176 cm
c) 178 cm d) 174 cm
47. A particle moving in a straight line with uniform acceleration has a velocity 10 cm/sec and 8 seconds
later has a velocity 54 cm/sec. What will be the described by the particle during the 10th second of its
motion?
a) 38.5cm b) 37.5cm
c) 38cm d) 39.5cm
48. A bullet fired into a target loses half of its velocity after penetrating 2.5 cm. How much further will it
penetrate?
a) 0.85 cm b) 0.84 cm
c) 0.83 cm d) 0.82 cm
49. A particle moving in a straight line with uniform retardation described 7cm in 5th second and after
some time comes to rest. If the particle describes 1/64 part of the total path during the last second of its
motion, for how long was the particle in motion?
a) 6 seconds b) 8 seconds
c) 4 seconds d) 2 seconds
50. If a, b, c be the space described in the pth, qth and rth seconds by a particle with a given velocity and
moving with uniform acceleration in a straight line then what is the value of a(q – r) + b(r – p) + c(p –
q)?
a) 0 b) 1
c) -1 d) Can’t be determined
51. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 196 m/sec. What will the time of rise?
a) 10 sec b) 20 sec
c) 30 sec d) 40 sec
52. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 196 m/sec. How much will be the greatest
height?
a) 1930 m b) 1960 m
c) 1990 m d) 1995 m
53. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 196 m/sec. What will be its height from the
point of projection after 12 sec?
a) 1643.2 m b) 1645.4 m
c) 1644.2 m d) 1646.4 m
54. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 196 m/sec. How many times will it attain a
height of 1254.4 m after projection?
a) 0 b) 1
c) 2 d) 3
55. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 196 m/sec. What will be its velocity at the
end of 10 seconds?
a) 98 m/sec in the upward direction b) 98 m/sec in the downward direction
c) 99 m/sec in the upward direction d) 99 m/sec in the downward direction
56. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 196 m/sec. What will be its velocity at the
end of 30 seconds?
a) 98 m/sec in the upward direction b) 98 m/sec in the downward direction
c) 99 m/sec in the upward direction d) 99 m/sec in the downward direction
57. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 196 m/sec. When will its velocity be 49m/sec
in the downward direction?
a) Before 23 sec b) After 23 sec
c) Before 25 sec d) After 25 sec
58. A particle is moving in a straight line and its distance s cm from a fixed point in the line after t seconds
is given by s = 12t – 15t2 + 4t3. What is the acceleration of the particle after 3 seconds?
a) 41 cm/sec2 b) 42 cm/sec2
2
c) 43 cm/sec d) 44 cm/sec2
59. A particle is moving in a straight line is at a distance x from a fixed point in the straight line at time t
seconds, where x = 2t3 – 12t + 11. What is the acceleration of the particle at the end of 2 seconds?
a) 22 cm/sec2 b) 24 cm/sec2
2
c) 26 cm/sec d) 28 cm/sec2
60. A particle is moving in a straight line is at a distance x from a fixed point in the straight line at time t
seconds, where x = 2t3 – 12t + 11. What is the average acceleration of the particle at the end of 3
seconds?
a) 28 cm/sec2 b) 30 cm/sec2
c) 32 cm/sec2 d) 26 cm/sec2
61. A particle moves in a straight-line OA; the distance of the particle from O at time t seconds is x ft, where
x = a + bt + ct2 (a, b > 0). What will be the nature of motion of the particle when c > 0?
a) Uniform retardation b) Uniform speed
c) Uniform positive acceleration d) Uniform velocity
62. A particle moves in a straight-line OA; the distance of the particle from O at time t seconds is x ft, where
x = a + bt + ct2 (a, b > 0). What will be the nature of motion of the particle when c < 0?
a) Uniform retardation b) Uniform speed
c) Uniform acceleration d) Uniform velocity
63. A particle moves in a straight line and its velocity v at time t seconds is given by = 3t2 – 4t + 5 cm/second.
What will be the acceleration of the particle during first 3 seconds after the start?
a) 10cm/sec2 b) 12cm/sec2
c) 14cm/sec2 d) 16cm/sec2
64. A particle moves along the straight-line OX, starting from O with a velocity 4 cm/sec. At time t seconds
its acceleration is (5 + 6t) cm/sec2. What will be the velocity of the particle from O after 4 seconds?
a) 70 cm/sec b) 71 cm/sec
c) 72 cm/sec d) 73 cm/sec
65. A particle moves along the straight-line OX, starting from O with a velocity 4 cm/sec. At time t seconds
its acceleration is (5 + 6t) cm/sec2. What will be the distance from O after 4 seconds?
a) 110 cm b) 120 cm
c) 130 cm d) 140 cm
66. A body of mass m, projected at an angle of θ from the ground with an initial velocity of v, acceleration
due to gravity is g, what is the maximum horizontal range covered?
a) R = v2 (sin 2θ)/g b) R = v2 (sin θ)/2g
2
c) R = v (sin 2θ)/2g d) R = v2 (sin θ)/g
67. A body of mass 5 kg, projected at an angle of 60° from the ground with an initial velocity of 25 m/s,
acceleration due to gravity is g = 10 m/s2, what is the maximum horizontal range covered?
a) 54.13 m b) 49 m
c) 49.16 m d) 60 m
68. A body of mass 10 kg, projected at an angle of 30° from the ground with an initial velocity of 5 m/s,
acceleration due to gravity is g = 10 m/s2, what is the time of flight?
a) 0.5 s b) 1.86 s
c) 1.96 s d) 1.862 s
69. On calculating which of the following quantities, the mass of the body has an effect in simple projectile
motion?
a) Velocity b) Force
c) Time of flight d) Range
70. A ball of mass 100 g, projected at an angle of 30° from the ground with an initial velocity of 11 m/s,
acceleration due to gravity is g = 10 m/s2, what is the maximum height attained?
a) 1.5 m b) 3.0 m
c) 1.0 m d) 2.0 m
71. When do we get maximum range in a simple projectile motion?
a) When θ = 45° b) When θ = 60°
c) When θ = 90° d) When θ = 0°
72. When do we get maximum height in a simple projectile motion?
a) When θ = 45° b) When θ = 60°
c) When θ = 90° d) When θ = 0°
73. A football is projected at an angle of 45° from the ground with an initial velocity of 10 m/s, take
acceleration due to gravity is g = 10 m/[Link] is the time of flight?
a) 1.4142 s b) 1.5361 s
c) 1.8987 s d) 1.5651 s
74. A bag of mass 1000 g, projected at an angle of 90° from the ground with an initial velocity of 5 m/s,
acceleration due to gravity is g = 10 m/s2, what is the maximum height attained?
a) 1.25 m b) 3.0 m
c) 1.5 m d) 2.0 m
75. A body of mass 55 kg, projected at an angle of 45° from the ground with an initial velocity of 15 m/s,
acceleration due to gravity is g = 10 m/s2, what is the maximum horizontal range covered?
a) 22.5 m b) 25 m
c) 16 m d) 15 m
76. At what angle of projectile (θ) is the horizontal range minimum?
a) θ = 45° b) θ = 60°
c) θ = 90° d) θ = 75°
77. A body of mass 5 kg, projected at an angle of 45° from the ground covers a horizontal range of 45 m,
acceleration due to gravity is g = 10 m/s2, what is the velocity with which it was projected covered?
a) 21.21 m/s b) 20 m/s
c) 22 m/s d) 21.1 m/s
78. A big stone of mass 1000 g, projected at an angle of 30° from the ground it covers a maximum vertical
distance of 5 m, acceleration due to gravity is g = 10 m/s2, what is the velocity with which it was thrown?
a) 11.55 m/s b) 11.5 m/s c) 1.155 m/s d) 12.0 m/s
79. A soccer ball is projected at an angle of 60° from the ground. It attains its maximum height in 10s.
Considering acceleration due to gravity as g = 10 m/s2. What is the velocity with which it was projected?
a) 115.5 m/s b) 117 m/s c) 120 m/s d) 11.55 m/s
UNIT 3 LAWS OF MOTION
103. A man is standing still. The force by the man on the earth is F1. The force by the earth on the
man is F2. Which one of the following is true?
a) F=F2 b) F1=−F2 c) F1=5(F2) d) 2(F1) = F2
104. Two bodies moving with constant velocities collide with each other. Which of the following
quantities remain conserved?
a) Momentum b) Speed c) Force d) Velocity
105. A ball is moving with a constant velocity. After some time, it collides with a wall. Which one of
the following remains conserved except momentum?
a) Energy b) Displacement c) Power d) Force
106. A variable mass body with an initial mass of 5 kg is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s initially, after
some time the velocity increases to 10 m/s, what is the new mass if the body is moving in the absence of
any external force?
a) 2.5 Kg b) 5 Kg c) 7.5 Kg d) 10 Kg
107. Two bodies of masses 2 Kg and 7 Kg are moving with velocities of 2 m/s and 7 m/s respectively.
What is the total momentum of the system in Kg-m/s?
a) 50 b) 53 c) 28 d) 0
108. Two bodies are accelerating towards each other. After some time they collide. Which one of the
following statements is true about the system?
a) The total momentum remains conserved about the instant of collision
b) The total momentum remains conserved during collision
c) The total momentum does not remain conserved
d) The total momentum remains conserved
109. When a body collides with a wall or the ground, what assumption do we make?
a) The mass of the body is not negligible
b) The body is stationary
c) The mass of the body is negligible as compared to the mass of the wall or the ground
d) The body is perfect
110. A variable mass body with an initial mass of 10 kg is moving with a velocity of 7 m/s initially,
after some time the velocity increases to 14 m/s, what is the new mass if the body is moving in the
absence of any external force?
a) 2.5 Kg b) 5 Kg c) 7.5 Kg d) 10 Kg
111. The first condition of equilibrium of a body is __________
a) Sum of all force on a body should be zero b) Sum of all moments on a body should be zero
c) Sum of the initial and final force should be zero d) Relative difference of forces should be zero
112. The second condition of equilibrium of a body is _________
a) Sum of all force on a body should be zero b) Sum of all moments on a body should be zero
c) Sum of the initial and final force should be zero d) Relative difference of forces should be zero
113. What can be said about a body which is moving with a constant velocity?
a) It is in static equilibrium b) It is in dynamic equilibrium
c) It is in the state of non-equilibrium d) Its distance is conserved
114. Two forces are acting on a body. For the body to remain in equilibrium, the forces have to be
____
a) Equal in magnitude and opposite in direction
b) Equal in direction and opposite in magnitude
c) In the same direction d) In perpendicular directions
115. Two forces act on a ball. One of the forces is positive and acts towards right, the other one acts
towards left and is ______
a) Negative b) Positive c) Neutral d) Having a magnitude of 5 N
116. Two forces act on a body. One of them is 7î – 13ĵ. What is the value of the other force?
a) 7î – 13ĵ b) -7î + 13ĵ c) 7î + 13ĵ d) -7î – 13ĵ
117. Three forces act on a body. Two of them are 7î – 13ĵN and 2î – 11ĵ. What is the value of the other
force?
a) -9î + 24ĵ b) -24î + 9ĵ c) 24î + 9ĵ d) -9î – 24ĵ
118. If a body returns to its original state of equilibrium after giving it a small displacement, the
equilibrium is known as ______
a) Stable equilibrium b) Unstable Equilibrium
c) Neutral Equilibrium d) Simple equilibrium
119. A set of forces are acting on a body in equilibrium. Which one of the following is true?
a) The vector sum of the forces is zero b) The scalar sum of the force is zero
c) All the forces are zero
d) All the forces are equal and opposite in direction to each other
120. A stone tie with a string held at one end is being rotated at a constant angular velocity in the air.
The tangential velocity will remain constant if _______
a) The plane of motion of the stone is parallel to the ground
b) The plane of motion of the stone is perpendicular to the ground
c) The plane of motion of the stone is at an angle of 45 degrees to the ground
d) The tangential velocity is independent of the plane of motion
121. A ball tied at the end of a perfect string tied tightly (assume fixed) to a wooden bar at the other
end is rotating with constant angular velocity. Its tangential velocity will _______
a) Increase with time b) Decrease with time
c) Will remain constant d) Will decrease exponentially
122. A rocket takes off from the earth and continues to move in a circular orbit with the thrusters on.
What can be said about the angular velocity of the rocket?
a) It increases b) It decreases
c) It remains constant d) It changes abruptly
123. The radius of a body moving in a circle with constant angular velocity is given by r = 4t2, with
respect to time. What is the magnitude of the tangential velocity at t = 2s, if the angular velocity is 7
rad/s?
a) 112 b) 113 c) 56 d) 28
124. A car moving around a tree has the distance from the tree defined as r = 5t2 + 7. What is the
magnitude of the centripetal acceleration at t = 2s, if the angular velocity is 2 rad/s.
a) 102 b) 108 c) 59 d) 54
125. The tangential velocity in a circular motion change as v = 2t2 – 7 with the radius being equal to 3
m. What is the angular velocity at t = 1 s in rad/s?
a) -5/3 b) -2/3 c) 3 d) -3/5
126. The tangential velocity of a body in a non-uniform circular motion varies as v = 7t2 – 2v with the
radius being equal to 21 m. What is the angular acceleration at t = 2 s in rad/s2?
a) 4/3 b) 5/3 c) 4 d) 7/5
127. Which of the following is a suitable word to describe the motion of a rotating ball tied to rope
tied tightly to a fixed support?
a) Spiral motion b) Circular motion c) Elliptic motion d) Uniform motion
128. A block of mass 5 Kg, exhibits circular motion with the mass decreasing at the rate of 0.5 Kg/s.
At what time the centripetal force will be zero on the block?
a) At 10 s b) At 5 s c) At 1 s d) At 7 s
129. A box of mass 10 Kg moves in circular motion with the mass function as m = 7t. The function for
the radius is r = 2t2. By what factor does the centripetal force exceed the square of the tangential velocity
at t = 2 s?
a) 7/4 b) 7/5 c) 7/2 d) 7
130. The energy possessed by a body by the virtue of its motion is called ______
a) Kinetic energy b) Potential energy
c) Total energy d) Motion energy
131. The energy possessed by a body by the virtue of its position is called ______
a) Kinetic energy b) Potential energy
c) Total energy d) Position energy
132. Energy is ________
a) Work b) The ability to create work
c) Quantification of work d) Force multiplied by displacement
133. Power is ______
a) Rate of doing work b) Ability to do work
c) Rate of energy creation d) Equivalent to work
134. The unit of energy has been named after ______
a) James Prescott Joule b) John Prescott Joule
c) Jammie Joule d) Jessy Joule
135. In which category do potential and kinetic energy fall?
a) Mechanical energy b) Electrical energy
c) magnetic energy d) Usual energy
158. Two identical balls of mass “m” are released from rest from a height “h” on two ramps of
different inclinations as shown in the figure. Which of the following is true for this scenario? Assume all
surfaces to be smooth.
a) b)
c) d)
163. The kinetic energy of a man is half that of a boy whose mass is half that of the man. When the
man speeds up by 5 m/s, his kinetic energy doubles that of the boy’s kinetic energy. What is the initial
velocity of the man?
a) 5 m/s b) 10 m/s
c) 15 m/s d) 20 m/s
164. What kinetic energy should be imparted to an object of mass “m” to raise it to a height of 1000
meters? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
a) 10m J b) 100m J
c) 1000m J d) 10000m J
165. For an object of 1kg mass to escape the gravitational force of the earth, the kinetic energy
imparted to it from the surface of the earth is approximately _____
a) 5600 J b) 10200 J
c) 11200 J d) 12000 J
166. A body is projected up vertically with a velocity of 60 m/s. What percentage of its initial kinetic
energy is converted into potential energy after 3 seconds? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
a) 25 % b) 50%
c) 75% d) 100%
167. A body is falling freely from rest from a height of 100m. The ratio of kinetic energy after 2 and 5
seconds is _____
a) 2:5 b) 4:25
c) 25:4 d) 5:2
168. A particle of mass 1kg is moving with a velocity of 20ms-1 then its kinetic energy is ____
a) 200 J b) 200 kgm2s-1
c) 200 kgm-1s-2 d) 200 kgm-1s-1
169. A pendulum of mass 2kg is given an energy of 200J then the maximum height it will reach is
_____
a) 25m b) 20m
c) 15m d) 10m
170. What work must be done to stop a bullet moving with a velocity of 2000ms-1 and having a mass of
50g?
a) 105J b) 106J
c) 104J d) 107J
171. A particle of mass 200g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10ms-1, the work done by
force of gravity while the particle goes up is given by _____
a) 0.5J b) 5J
c) 10J d) 15J
172. If a solid sphere of mass 200g and radius 20cm is rotating with an angular velocity of 5 rad s-1, its
rotational kinetic energy is _____
a) 0.06J b) 0.04J
c) 0.03J d) 0.004J
173. For the given diagram, choose the correct statement.
Consider frictional forces absent.
a) Kinetic energy is being permanently lost
b) There is no energy loss
c) Initially, the particle has maximum potential energy
d) Potential energy is being permanently gained
a) 20 J
b) 40 J
c) 60 J
d) 80 J
177. The length of a smooth inclined plane of 30-degree inclination is 5 m. The work done in moving a
10 kg mass from the bottom of the inclined plane to the top is _____ Joules. (Assume g = 10m/s2)
a) 250 b) 1000
c) 1250 d) 500
178. A rope has a uniform mass density of 0.4 kg/m. The rope is 10 m long and is lowered into a 10 m
deep pit. The bottom part of the rope just touches the bottom of the pit. What is the work done to pull
the rope out of the well completely? (Assume g = 10m/s2)
a) 200 J b) 400 J
c) 2000 J d) 4000 J
179. A bucket filled with water weighing 20 kg is raised from a well of depth 20 m. If the linear
density of the rope is 0.2 kg/m, the work done is _____ (Assume g = 10m/s2)
a) 4000 J b) 4040 J
c) 4400 J d) 4800 J
180. A force F = (5i – 3j +2k) N moves a particle from r1 = (2i + 7j + 4k) m to r2 = (5i + 2j + 8k) m.
What is the work done by the force?
a) 18 J b) 28 J
c) 38 J d) 48 J
181. A person of mass 50 kg carrying a load of 20 kg walks up a staircase. The width and height of
each step are 0.25 m and 0.2 m respectively. What is the work done by the man in walking 20
steps?(Assume g = 10m/s2)
a) 800 J b) 1600 J
c) 2000 J d) 2800 J
182. A chain of length 4 m is kept on a table. 2 m of the chain hangs freely from the table’s edge. The
mass of the whole chain is 8 kg. What is the work done to pull the whole chain onto the table? (Assume g
= 10m/s2)
a) 20 J b) 40 J
c) 60 J d) 80 J
183. An object of mass 1kg is subjected to a variable force in x-direction. The force function is F =
2
x N. What is the work done in moving the object from x = 2 to 5?
a) 40 b) 39
c) 38 d) 69
184. For a body moving from position Xa to position Xb under a variable force, what is the work
done?
a) W = F * (X2 – X1) b) -W = F * (X2 – X1)
c) W = -F * (X2 – X1) d) W = F * (X1 – X2)
185. A car having a mass of 1 metric ton is moving with a speed of 30 m/s. It suddenly applies the
brakes and skids to rest in a certain distance d. The frictional force between the tyres and road is 6000
N. What is the value of d?
a) 25 m b) 50 m
c) 75 m d) 100 m
186. For the graph shown in the figure, what is the difference
between x-coordinate of A and B called?
a) Internal pressure
b) External pressure
c) Work
d) Power
187. An object of mass 5kg is taken from a height of 10 m to a height of 30 m. What is the increment
in its potential energy? (Assume g = 10m/s2)
a) 500 J b) 1000 J
c) 1500 J d) 2000 J
188. A 10kg object is raised to a height of 20m. What is the magnitude of its potential energy?
(Assume g = 10 m/s2)
a) 500 J b) 1000 J
c) 1500 J d) 2000 J
189. An object is thrown from the ground with a velocity of 5 m/s. If the object has a mass of 2kg,
what will be its potential energy at the top-most point of its trajectory? (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
a) 5 J b) 15 J
c) 25 J d) 50 J
190. Which of the following is true?
a) Potential energy decreases as altitude increases
b) Potential energy increases as altitude increases
c) Potential energy first increases and then decreases as altitude increases
d) Potential energy first decreases and then increases as altitude increases
191. Consider 2 balls A and B of the same mass. The potential energy of ball A is thrice that of ball B.
How high is ball A compared to ball B?
a) Same height as ball B b) Twice as high height as ball B
c) Thrice as high height as ball B d) Four times as high height as ball B
192. The potential energy of an object of constant mass and fixed reference is determined by its _____
a) mass b) gravitational acceleration
c) position d) velocity
193. Find the ratio of potential energy if an object is raised to thrice of its height and its mass is
tripled.
a) 1:1 b) 1:4
c) 1:9 d) 1:3
194. The potential energy possessed by a spring is also known as _____
a) Elastic potential energy b) Extensive potential energy
c) Compressive potential energy d) Deflection potential energy
195. An object is travelling at a velocity of 10 m/s. It has a mass
of 2 kg. It impacts a spring of spring constant “k” as shown in the
figure. What is the compression of the spring?
a) 10 x (2/k) 0.5
b) 10 x (200/k) 0.5
c) (200/k)
d) (200/k) 2
196. How much should a spring of indefinite length be compressed to have a potential energy
equivalent to a ball of mass 6 kg raised to a height of 120 m above the ground? Let the spring have a
stiffness of k = 100 N/m and assume g = 10 m/s2.
a) 6m b) 12m
c) 20m d) 144m
197. Assume a spring extend by “d” due to some load. Let “F” be the spring force and “k’ the spring
constant. Then, the potential energy stored is _____
a) 2d/F2 b) F2/2k
2
c) 2k/T d) F2/2d
198. A spring of length 1m has two cars connected to both of its ends. The two cars move towards
eachother such that the spring is compressed to 0.5m. If the spring constant is 500 N/m, what is the
elastic potential energy stored?
a) 125 J b) -125 J
c) 62.5 J d) -62.5 J
199. What is the increase in potential energy storage when the compression distance is doubled in a
spring obeying Hooke’s law?
a) No increase b) 100% increase
c) Cannot be determined d) 4 times
200. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Energy can be created and destroyed b) Energy cannot be created but only destroyed
c) Energy cannot be destroyed but only created d) Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
201. Which of the following is not true?
a) Energy of an open system can be varied b) Energy cannot be created
c) Energy cannot be destroyed d) Energy cannot be transformed
202. The energy possessed by an object because of its motion is termed _____
a) potential energy b) kinetic energy
c) nuclear energy d) solar energy
214. A body of mass 3 kg starts from rest with a uniform acceleration of unknown magnitude. If the
body has a velocity of 30 m/s in 6 seconds, what is the power consumed in 3 seconds?
a) 125 W b) 225 W
c) 325 W d) 425 W
215. The force required to tow a vehicle at constant velocity is directly proportional to the magnitude
of velocity raised to the first power. It requires 1000 W to tow with a velocity of 10 m/s. How much
power is required to tow at a velocity of 8 m/s?
a) 320 W b) 640 W
c) 160 W d) 80 W
216. What is the coefficient of restitution (e)?
a) Ratio of final to initial relative velocities b) Ratio of initial to final relative velocities
c) Ratio of final to initial velocity of a body d) Product of initial to final relative velocities
217. For what value of e is a collision perfectly elastic?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 0.5 d) 0
218. For what value of e is a collision perfectly inelastic?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 0.5 d) 0
219. For what value of e is a collision partially elastic?
a) 0 < e < 1 b) 1
c) e > 1 d) 0
220. A ball of mass 100 g is moving with a velocity of 3 m/s towards east. A cube of mass 200 gram is
moving towards west with a velocity of 7 m/s. If the collision is perfectly elastic, what is the magnitude of
the final momentum of the system in Kg-m/s?
a) 1700 b) 1500
c) 1300 d) 1100
221. A ball of mass 100 g is moving with a velocity of 3 m/s towards east. A cube of mass 200 gram is
moving towards west with a velocity of 7 m/s. If the collision is perfectly elastic, what is the final velocity
of the cube in m/s?
a) 7 b) 5
c) 3 d) 11
222. A ball of mass 100 g is moving with a velocity of 3 m/s towards east. A cube of mass 200 gram is
moving towards west with a velocity of 7 m/s. If the collision is perfectly elastic, what is the final velocity
of the ball in m/s?
a) 7 b) 5
c) 31/3 d) 11/3
223. A car of mass 1ton is moving with a velocity of 25 m/s towards left. A truck of mass 5 ton is
moving towards left with a velocity of 3 m/s. If the collision is perfectly elastic, what is the final velocity
of the truck in m/s?
a) 11 b) 25
c) 3 d) 10
224. When two same masses travelling in opposite directions with different velocities collide perfectly
elastically, their velocities ______
228. An asteroid enters the atmosphere of the earth and breaks into two pieces. One of the pieces is larger
than the other. Which of the following is true considering the centre of mass of both the pieces together?
a) The centre of mass shifts horizontally towards the larger piece
b) The centre of mass shifts horizontally towards the smaller piece
c) The centre of mass remains in the same trajectory as before breaking apart of the asteroid
d) Depends on the velocity of the asteroid
229. Consider a system on which there are external forces acting. If the vector sum of all these external
forces is zero, then the centre of mass _____
a) must not move b) may move
c) may accelerate d) must accelerate
230. For an object with the centre of mass at the origin, the x-coordinates of particles of the object _____
a) may be all positive b) may be all negative
c) may be all non-negative d) cannot be predicted
231. Two bodies of masses 5 kg and 3 kg are moving towards each other at velocities of 3 m/s and 5 m/s,
respectively. What is the velocity of their centre of mass?
a) 0.25 m/s towards 3 kg b) Unpredictable
c) The centre of mass is stationary d) 0.5 m/s towards 5 kg
232. The velocities of three particles of masses 10 kg, 20 kg and 30 kg are 10i, 10j and 10k m/s,
respectively. What is the velocity of their centre of mass?
a) (i + 2j + 3k) m/s b) 10 (i + j + k) m/s
c) (10i + 20j + 30k) m/s d) (3i + 2j + k) m/s
233. A system consists of 2 particles of the same mass. Let one particle be at rest and another particle have
an acceleration of “2a”. What would be the acceleration of the centre of mass of the system?
a) a/4 b) a/2
c) a d) 2a
234. Two particles A and B, initially at rest, start moving towards each other under a mutual force of
attraction. When the speed of A is “10 m/s” and the speed of B is “800 m/s”, what is the speed of their centre
of mass?
a) 0 b) 0.8v
c) 80v d) 8v
235. A uniform free rectangular steel plate is heated from 273 to 373 kelvin. The initial area of the plate is
15 sq. cm. What is the shift of the centre of mass?
a) 0 cm b) 1 cm
c) 2 cm d) 3 cm
236. In the figure shown below, all the contact surfaces are perfectly smooth. “M” and “m” indicate mass.
When the object of mass “m” starts sliding down due to the force of gravity, then the centre of mass will
_____
a) remain unchanged
b) change horizontally
c) change vertically
d) change both horizontally and vertically
237. Consider a hollow cubical box of uniform density half-filled with water and the other half filled with
air as shown in the figure. Which of the marked points are the likely positions of the
centre of mass of the system?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D
238. Numerous particles in a system are placed at a distance of “D” from the origin. The position of the
centre of mass will definitely be _____
a) Equal to D b) Lesser than or equal to D
c) Greater than D d) Greater than or equal to D
239. The centre of masses of two particles with masses 2 kg and 1 kg located at (1,0,1) and (2,2,0) is located
at _____
a) 4/3, 2/3, 2/3 b) 2/3, 4/3, 2/3
c) 2/3, 2/3, 4/3 d) 1/3, 2/3, 2/3
240. Two bodies of masses 5kg and 15kg are located in the cartesian plane at (1,0) and (0,1). What is the
location of their centre of mass?
a) 1/4, ¼ b) 3/4, 3/4
c) 3/4, ¼ d) 1/4, ¾
241. The coordinates of the centre of mass of objects of mass 10, 20, 30 kg are (1,1,1) m. Where should an
object of mass 40 kg be placed such that the centre of mass of this new system lies at (0,0,0)?
a) 3/2, 3/2, 3/2 b) -3/2, -3/2, -3/2
c) 3/4, 3/4, ¾ d) -3/4, -3/4, -3/4
242. Masses 1 kg, 1.5 kg, 2 kg, and “M” kg are situated at (2,1,1), (1,2,1), (2,-2,1) and (-1,4,3). What is the
value of “M” if their centre of mass is at (1,1,3/2)?
a) 1 kg b) 1.5 kg
c) 2 kg d) 2.5 kg
243. Particles of masses 1 kg and 3 kg are at (2i+5j+13k) m and (-6i+4j-2k) m. What is the position of their
centre of mass?
a) 1/4 (-16i + 17j + 7k) m b) 1/4 (-8i + 17j + 7k) m
c) 1/4 (-6i + 17j + 7k) m d) 1/4 (-6i + 17j + 5k) m
244. Three objects of mass 1 kg each are placed at corners of a right-angled triangle
AOB as shown in the figure. Consider ‘O’ as the origin and OA = OB = 1m. Determine the
position of the centre of mass of this system.
251. The coordinates of the centre of mass of the system shown in the figures are _____
a) (0, 0) b) (1.33L, 0.167L)
c) (L, L) d) (0.33L, 1.67L)
252. From the figure, find out the perpendicular distance of the centre of mass of the system from side AB.
ABCD is a square of side 2 m.
a) 1.33 m
b) 1 m
c) 1.5 m
d) 0.33 m
253. A boy of mass 50kg is standing on a frictionless surface. He throws a ball of mass 2kg away from him
with a speed of 10m/s. Find the final speed of the centre of mass.
a) 0m/s b) 20m/s
c) 10m/s d) 0.4m/s
254. A ball of mass 3kg is thrown at an angle of 30° with the horizontal & a speed of 10m/s. At the highest
point the ball breaks into two parts, having mass ratio 2:1, due to internal forces. If the heavier part falls at a
distance of 10m from the start, find the x coordinate of the second part.
a) 5.98m b) 6.34m
c) 8.66m d) 7.99m
255. A ball of mass 2kg is moving with a speed of 10m/s along a flat surface. It collides with another ball of
mass 3kg and comes to rest, what will be the speed of the second ball after collision?
a) The above said situation is not possible b) 20m/s
c) Zero d) 6.67m/s
256. In the given figure, ball 1 has an initial velocity of 5m/s. Ball 2 is initially at rest. After collision ball 2
moves with a speed of 2m/s in the direction shown & ball 1 moves at an angle A. What is the value of angle
A?
a) tan-1(1/3√3)
b) sin-1(1/3√3)
c) tan-1(1/√3)
d) tan-1(√3)
257. A radioactive particle at rest, having mass 10g, breaks into 2 fragments (1&2) in the mass ratio 2:3
respectively. If the first one moves with a velocity of 10m/s what will be the speed of the second particle?
a) 4.33 m/s b) -4.33 m/s
c) -6.67 m/s d) 6.67 m/s
258. There are two external forces acting on a system of particles. Select the correct statement.
a) Linear momentum is necessarily not conserved
b) Linear momentum may be conserved
c) Linear momentum is zero
d) Centre of mass will move with increasing speed
259. Regarding the velocity of a particle in uniform circular motion about a fixed axis, select the correct
option. w & r angular velocity and radius vectors respectively. ‘X’ & ‘ . ’ represent cross & dot products
respectively.
a) v = r X w b) v = w X r
c) v = w.r d) w = v.r
260. Which of the following statements is false?
a) Cross product is commutative b) Cross product is distributive over addition
c) Dot product of two vectors gives a scalar d) Dot product is commutative
261. Find the vector product (a X b) of the two given vectors: a = 2i + 3j + 4k, b = 3i + 5j. Here, i, j &
k are unit vectors along three mutually perpendicular axes.
a) -20i + 12j + k b) 10i + 6j + 1/2k
c) 20i – 12j – k d) 10i – 6j -1/2k
262. Moment of inertia, of a spinning body about an axis, doesn’t depend on which of the following factors?
a) Distribution of mass around axis b) Orientation of axis
c) Mass d) Angular velocity
263. Two cylinders have the same mass and radius. One is hollow and the other is solid. Which one will
have the greater moment of inertia about the central axis?
a) Hollow cylinder b) Solid cylinder
c) Same for both d) Depends on length of cylinder
264. A solid disc has a mass of 10kg and radius 1m. Find its radius of gyration.
a) 1.414m b) 0.707m
c) 1m d) 1.732
265. What is the moment of inertia of a rod about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to its
central axis? Given that mass of rod is 1kg, length = 10cm.
a) 0.00083kgm2 b) 0.0833kgm2
c) 0.0033kgm2 d) 0.00033kgm2
266. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere is 10kgm2. What will be the moment of inertia of a very thin
spherical shell of the same mass and radius as that of the solid sphere?
a) 16.67kgm2 b) 6kgm2
c) 10kgm2 d) 20kgm2
267. What is the ratio of moment of inertia of a ring to a disc? Given that both have masses in the ratio 2:1
& radii in the ratio 1:2 respectively.
a) 1:1 b) 2:1
c) 1:2 d) 1:4
268. Moment of inertia, of a spinning body about an axis, doesn’t depend on which of the following factors?
a) Distribution of mass around axis b) Orientation of axis
c) Mass d) Angular velocity
269. Two cylinders have the same mass and radius. One is hollow and the other is solid. Which one will
have the greater moment of inertia about the central axis?
a) Hollow cylinder b) Solid cylinder
c) Same for both d) Depends on length of cylinder
270. A solid disc has a mass of 10kg and radius 1m. Find its radius of gyration.
a) 1.414m b) 0.707m
c) 1m d) 1.732
271. A planar body is lying in the xz plane. What is the relation between its moment of inertia along the x, y
& z axes?
a) Iz = Ix + Iy b) Ix = Ix + Iz
c) Iy = Ix + Iz d) Iz = Ix = Iy, because body is planar
272. Perpendicular axis theorem can be applied for which of the following bodies?
a) Ring having radius R & negligible cross section b) Disc of radius R and thickness t
c) Cylinder of radius R and height h d) A cube of side ‘a’
273. Consider two perpendicular axis in the plane of a planar body, such that I1 = 2 I2. The moment of
inertia about an axis perpendicular to the plane and passing through intersection of I1 & I2 is 9kgm2. Find the
value of I1& I2.
a) I1 = 9kg m2, I2 = 4.5kgm2 b) I1 = 3kg m2, I2 = 6kg m2
c) I1 = 6kg m2, I2 = 3kg m2 d) I1 = 18kg m2, I2 = 9kg m2
274. The moment of inertia of a planar disc about a diameter is 8kgm2. What is the moment of inertia about
an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc?
a) 8kgm2 b) 16kgm2
c) 4kgm2 d) 2√2kgm2
275. Let I1 be the moment of inertia about the centre of mass of a thick asymmetrical body. Let I2 be the
moment of inertia about an axis parallel to I1. The distance between the two axes is ‘a’ & the mass of the body
is ‘m’. Find the relation between I1 & I2.
a) I2 = I1 – ma2 b) I1 = I2 – ma2
c) I2 = I1 d) Parallel axis theorem can’t be used for a thick
asymmetrical body
276. What is the moment of inertia of a rod, of mass 1kg & length 6m, about an axis perpendicular to rod’s
length and at a distance of 1.5m from one end?
a) 0.75kgm2 b) 3kgm2
c) 5.25kgm2 d) 14.25kgm2
277. The moment of inertia of a ring about a tangent is 4kgm2. What is the moment of inertia about an axis
passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular to its plane? Mass of the ring is 2kg & diameter is 2m.
a) 2kgm2 b) 4kgm2
c) 8kgm2 d) 1kgm2
278. The rate of change of angular speed is constant. What will be the expression for change in angular
speed after time dt, if angular acceleration is ‘a’? The initial angular speed is ‘w’.
a) a*dt b) w – a*dt
c) w + a*dt d) There is no change
279. The angular speed of a body is 2rpm. What should be the angular acceleration for the angular speed to
double up in 5s?
a) -2π/75 rad/s2 b) -π/75 rad/s2
c) π/75 rad/s2 d) 2π/75 rad/s2
280. A body has a moment of inertia = 5kgm2 about an axis. What should be the torque for increasing its
angular speed from 0 to 10rad/s in 4s? Assume that the body rotates purely about that axis.
a) 25Nm b) 2.5Nm
c) 12.5Nm d) 1.25Nm
281. A body is in pure rotational motion about an axis. Its angular acceleration is given by: a = 2t. What is
the angular distance covered by the body from t=2s to t=3s? It starts from rest at t=0.
a) 19/3 rad b) 0 rad
c) 2/3 rad d) 5/3 rad
282. A circular disc is rotating about a central axis perpendicular to its diameter with a speed of 5rad/s. If a
constant force of 2N is applied tangentially on it, in how much time will it come to a stop? Radius of disc = 1m
& mass = 1kg.
a) 0.257s b) 5s
c) 1.25s d) 2.5s
283. A body is under an angular deceleration of 5rad/s2. Its initial speed is 3rad/s. How much angular
distance ‘θ’ will it cover before coming to rest?
a) 0.8 rad b) 0.9 rad
c) 9 rad d) 2 rad
284. A ring of diameter 1m is rotating about a central axis perpendicular to its diameter. It is rotating with a
speed of 10rad/s. What force should be applied on it tangentially to stop it in exactly 3 rotations? Let the mass
of the ring be 2kg.
a) 10 N b) 25/3π N
c) 50/3π N d) 12.5/3 N
285. The angular acceleration of a body = 3t2. What will be its speed at t=10s, if initial speed = 10rad/s?
a) 1010 rad/s b) 300 rad/s
c) 1310 rad/s d) 1000rad/s
286. A rigid body is rotating about an axis. One force F1 acts on the body such that its vector passes through
the axis of rotation. Another force F2 acts on it such that it is perpendicular to the axis of rotation and at a point
5cm from the axis. This force F2 is perpendicular to the radius vector at its point of application. Find the net
torque on the body. Let F1 = 10N & F2= 5N.
a) 0 b) 10.25Nm
c) 0.25Nm d) 10Nm
287. A ring is rotating about a diameter. The radius = 5cm & mass of ring = 1kg.
A force is applied on the ring such that it is perpendicular to the axis and vector AB
as shown in the figure. The magnitude of force is 10N. Find the work done by the torque
when the ring rotates by 90°.
a) 0.25π J b) 0.15π J
c) 0.2π J d) 0
288. A ring of radius 7cm is rotating about the central axis perpendicular to its plane. A force acts on it,
tangentially, such that it does a work of 10J in a complete rotation. Find the value of that force.
a) 0.5/7π N b) 35π N
c) 500/7π N d) 0.7 N
289. A disc of radius 10cm is rotating about the central axis perpendicular to its plane. A force of 5N acts
on it tangentially. The disc was initially at rest. Calculate the value of power supplied by the force when the
disc has rotated by 30°.The mass of the disc is 2kg.
a) 1.28W b) 1.8W
c) 3.9W d) 2.63W
290. A rod is rotating about one end. If a force F1 acting on the other end produces a torque T & supplies
power P, find the value of force F2 that will produce the same amount of power when it acts at the midpoint of
the rod. Assume that all forces are perpendicular to the axis of rotation & axis of rod. The rod starts from rest.
a) = F1 b) > F1
c) < F1 d) No force acting at any other point will produce the same power
291. Which of the following quantities is zero if torque on a particle is zero?
a) Angular momentum of the particle b) Angular speed of the particle
c) Change in kinetic energy of the particle d) Rate of change of angular momentum
292. A particle of mass 5kg is rotating about an axis in a circle with a speed of 10m/s. What should be its
radius so that the component of angular momentum about the axis is 5kgm2/s?
a) 0.1cm b) 10cm
c) 5cm d) 0.5m
293. A disc is rotating with ω =10rad/s about a fixed central axis which is perpendicular to its plane. The
disc has a mass =2kg & radius =10cm. A small particle of mass 100gm is put slowly on the disc’s outer
circumference. There is sufficient friction between the disc and the particle. What will be the new angular
velocity of the system?
a) 10 rad/s b) 9.09 rad/s
c) 9.51 rad/s d) Can’t conserve angular momentum because of friction
294. A hollow rod has frictionless inner walls. Inside the rod are two small spheres that are kept on either
side of the centre of rod. The rod is rotated about its central axis which is perpendicular to the plane of
rotation. If the rod had been rotated by an impulsive torque which gave it an instantaneous angular velocity of
5rad/s, what will be the angular velocity after some finite but long time ‘t’? Assume no external forces act on
rod after the impulse. Also state what will happen to the spheres in the centre of the rod. The rod has a mass
=2kg & length =10cm. The two spheres have a mass =1kg each.
a) 2.5 rad/s, spheres will stay where they are as there is no friction to move them
b) 0 rad/s, spheres will move outwards and decrease velocity of rod to zero
c) 1.25 rad/s, spheres will move to opposite ends of rod
d) 2.5 rad/s, spheres will move to opposite ends of rod
295. A ring and a disc having masses in the ratio 1:2 are made to rotate about their central axes. Both are
acted upon by the same torque when they are at rest. Which one will have more angular velocity when torque
has been removed from both after the same time? Both have the same radius.
a) Ring b) Disc
c) Same for both d) Depends on ratio of mass and radius
296. A disc is under pure rolling motion on a horizontal surface. The speed of the topmost point at an
instant is 5m/s w.r.t the centre of the disc. What is the velocity of the centremost point? The radius of the disc
is 10cm.
a) 5m/s b) 0m/s
c) 2.5m/s d) 2m/s
297. A disc is undergoing pure rolling motion on a flat surface. The radius of the disc is 5cm & velocity of
centre of mass is 10m/s. What is the ratio of kinetic energy as seen from the ground frame to a frame moving
along the disc with a speed of 10m/s?
a) 1:1, kinetic energy is frame independent b) 3:1
c) 2:1 d) 1:3
298. What is the displacement of the centre of the wheel in one rotation? Let the radius of the wheel be R.
a) R b) πR
c) 2Πr d) 0
299. The diagram given below shows a ring rolling purely on a flat surface,
what is the ratio of velocity of points A to point B?
a) 1:2 b) 2:1
c) √2:1 d) 1:√2
300. A ring, disc and solid sphere are left from the top of an incline which has sufficient friction for pure
rolling. Which will reach the bottom first, if they all have the same mass ‘M’ & radius ‘R’?
a) Ring b) Disc
c) Solid sphere d) All will reach together
UNIT 6 GRAVITATION
301. For which of the following does the graph denote the variation of
force of gravity “F” along a distance “r”?
a) Solid sphere
b) Spherical shell
c) Plate
d) Point
302. What is the gravitational force experienced by an object of 10kg 200m away from an object weighing 1
ton?
a) 1.6675 N b) 2.6675 N
c) 3.6675 N d) 4.6675 N
303. Which scientist introduced the universal law of gravitation?
a) Albert Einstein b) Isaac Newton
c) Stephen Hawking d) Nikola Tesla
304. What will be the value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth if the radius of the earth
suddenly decreases to 60% of its present value, keeping the mass of the earth unchanged?
a) 9.81 m/s2 b) 5.89 m/s2
c) 16.35 m/s2 d) 27.25 m/s2
305. The value of acceleration due to gravity of earth at the equator is less than that of the poles due to
_____
a) inversely proportional to r1
b) inversely proportional to r2
c) directly proportional to r1
d) directly proportional to r2
318. Assume that the earth is a perfect sphere but of non-uniform interior density. Then, acceleration due to
gravity on the surface of the earth _____
a) will be towards the geometric centre
b) will be different at different points on the surface
c) will be equal at all points on the surface and directed towards the geometric centre
d) cannot be zero at any point
319. Consider an object of mass “M” moving through a tunnel dug in the earth passing through the centre of
the earth as shown. Which of the following is true?
324. At what height above the surface of the earth, the acceleration due to the gravity of the earth becomes
5% of that of the surface?
a) h = 0.5 R b) h = 1.5 R
c) h = 2.5 R d) h = 3.5 R
325. An object of mass “m” is displaced from the surface of the earth
of radius “R” as shown below. The object’s weight in its new position is
50% of that when it was on the surface of the earth. What is the value of
“h” if R = 6400km?
a) h = 1600km
b) h = 2600km
c) h = 3600km
d) h = 4600km
326. The time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of the earth is “T”. What will be the time period
of the same pendulum at a height of 2 times the radius of the earth?
a) T b) 2T
c) 3T d) 4T
327. Let the radius of the earth be R. Now, assume that the earth shrunk by 20% but the mass is the same.
What would be the new value of acceleration due to gravity at a distance R from the centre of the earth if the
value at the same distance in the previous case was “g’”?
a) g’ b) 2g’
c) 3g’ d) 4g’
328. The acceleration of the moon towards the earth is approximately 0.0027 m/s2. The moon revolves
around the earth once approximately every 24 hours. What would be the acceleration due to gravity of the
earth of the moon towards the earth if it were to revolve once every 12 hours?
a) Become half in magnitude
b) double in magnitude
c) Change direction but remain the same in magnitude
d) Remains unchanged
329. Conventionally, the magnitude of gravitational potential energy for an object at infinity from the earth
is _____ ((M = Mass of the earth; m = Mass of the object at infinity; R = Radius of the earth).
a) -(G*M)/R2 b) -(G*M)/R
c) -(G*M*m)/R d) Zero
330. A dam produces electricity from the gravitational potential energy of the water stored in it. The same
dam has 50 cubic km of water stored 50 meters above the ground. What is the work done by gravity relative to
the ground? (Assume g = 10 m/s2)
a) 1.5 x 1016 J b) 2.5 x 1016 J
c) 3.5 x 1016 J d) 4.5 x 1016 J
331. The gravitational potential energy of a body at a distance “r” from the centre of the earth is V. Its
weight at a distance “2r” from the centre of the earth is _____
a) V/r b) V/4r
c) V/2r d) 4V/r
332. The value of the gravitational field in a region is given by g = 2i + 3j. What is the change in
gravitational potential energy of a particle of mass 5kg when it is taken from the origin O(0,0) to a point P(10,
-5)? (Letters in bold are vectorial representations)
a) 5 J b) 10 J
c) 25 J d) 50 J
333. The ratio of the radius of a planet A to that of a planet B is “r”. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity
on the planets is “p”. The ratio of escape velocities of the two planets is _____
a) (pr)1/2 b) (p/r)1/2
c) (pr) d) (p/r)
334. What is the minimum velocity required for an object of mass “m” to escape the gravitational pull of a
planet of mass “M” and radius “R” from its surface?
a) [(G*M)/R]1/2 b) [(2*G*M)/R] 2
c) [(G*M*m)/R]1/2 d) [(2*G*M)/R]1/2
335. An object is projected vertically upwards with a velocity (gr) 1/2. What is the maximum height reached
by the object if “R” is the radius of the earth and “g” is the acceleration due to gravity?
a) R/2 b) R
c) 2R d) 4R
336. The escape velocity of the earth is “v”. If an object is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity “kv”,
what is the speed of the object at infinity?
a) v/(k2-1)1/2 b) v(k2-1)1/2
c) v2/(k2-1) d) v2 (k2-1)
337. The earth is able to retain its atmosphere because of _____
a) the mean velocities of atmospheric gas molecules which is less than that of the earth’s escape velocity
b) the mean velocities of atmospheric gas molecules which is greater than that of the earth’s escape velocity
c) the gravitational effect of the moon
d) the earth’s magnetic field
338. The escape velocity at the event horizon of a black hole is 3×108 m/s, i.e., the velocity of light. What is
the mass of the black hole if the distance from its centre to the event horizon is 18km?
a) 12.15 x 10-30 kg b) 12.15 x 1030 kg
c) Infinity d) Cannot be determined
339. The radius of the moon is approximately 3.7 times smaller than the radius of the earth. Assuming that
their densities are same, what is the escape velocity of the moon compared to earth?
a) 0.07 times b) 0.7 times
c) 7 times d) 3.7 times
340. A planet as a radius “R” and density “P”. The escape velocity of this planet is _____
a) directly proportional to P b) inversely proportional to P
c) directly proportional to P1/2 d) inversely proportional to P1/2
341. A particle is kept at a distance R above the earth’s surface. What is the minimum speed with which it
should be projected so that it does not return?
a) [(G*M)/(4*R)]1/2 b) [(G*M)/(2*R)]1/2
c) [(G*M)/R] ½ d) [(2*G*M)/R]1/2
342. The radius of Jupiter is approximately 11 times larger than the earth. Jupiter has a mass 316 times that
of earth. What is the approximate escape velocity of Jupiter compared to earth?
a) 100 times greater b) 12 times greater
c) 5 times greater d) Equal to that of the earth
343. If the earth lost 99% of its mass, the escape velocity would _____
a) increase 10 times b) decrease 10 times
c) decrease 90 times d) increase 90 times
344. The satellites orbiting the earth, eventually fall to the earth when they are left unsupervised or
unattended because _____
a) their power supply runs out
b) of viscous forces causing the speed of the satellite and hence height to gradually decrease
c) the laws of gravitation predict such a trajectory
d) of collisions with other satellites
345. Consider 2 satellites A and B having time periods 16 hours and 1 hour, respectively. What is the ratio
of the radius of their orbits?
a) 4:1 b) 8:1
c) 16:1 d) 64:1
346. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius R while a second satellite is launched into an orbit
of radius 1.02R. What is the percentage change in the time periods of the two satellites?
a) 0.7 b) 1
c) 1.5 d) 3
347. The time period of a satellite of earth is 90 minutes. If the separation between the earth and the satellite
is quadrupled, the new time period will be _____________
a) 90 minutes b) 180 minutes
c) 560 minutes d) 720 minutes.
348. The time period of a satellite depends on _____
a) the mass of the satellite
b) radius of its orbit
c) both mass of satellite and radius of the orbit
d) neither mass of satellite nor radius of the orbit
349. Consider two satellites A and B. Both move around the earth in the same orbit but the mass of B is
twice that of the mass of A.
a) Orbital speeds of A and B are equal
b) The orbital speed of A is twice that of B
c) The orbital speed of B is twice that of A
d) The kinetic energy of both A and B are equal
350. Two satellites of masses 50 kg and 100 kg revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii 9R and
16R. What is the ratio of speeds of the two satellites?
a) 3:4 b) 4:3
c) 9:16 d) 16:9
351. A satellite is seen after every 8 hours. If it rotates opposite to that of the earth, what is its angular
velocity about the centre of the earth? Assume the earth is perfectly spherical and the satellite is in the
equatorial plane.
a) pi/2 b) pi/4
c) pi/6 d) pi/8
352. If a satellite is orbiting as close to the earth’s surface as possible _____
a) its speed is maximum b) its speed is minimum
c) it’s kinetic energy will be minimum d) it is not possible to quantify its kinetic energy
353. The orbital velocity of a satellite orbiting the earth is half the escape velocity of the earth. What is the
height above the surface of the earth at which it is orbiting? (Let the radius of the earth (R) = 6400 km).
a) 6400 km b) 3200 km
c) 9600 km d) 4800 km
354. What is the magnitude of the ratio of KE and PE of a satellite revolving around a planet in a circular
orbit of radius “R”?
a) 1:4 b) 1:2
c) 2:1 d) 3:2
355. What is the total energy possessed by a satellite of mass “m” orbiting above the earth of mass “M” and
radius “R” at a height “h”?
a) [(GMm)/2(R+h)] b) -[(GMm)/2(R+h)]
c) [(GMm)/(R+h)] d) -[(GMm)/(R+h)]
356. A satellite of mass “m” is in a circular orbit of radius 1.5R around the earth of radius R. How much
energy is required to move it to an orbit of radius 2R?
a) -(G*M*m)/12R b) (G*M*m)/12R
c) -(G*M*m)/4R d) (G*M*m)/4R
357. A satellite revolves around the earth in a circular orbit with a velocity “v”. What is the total energy of
the satellite? Let “m” be the mass of the satellite.
a) – (mv2)/2 b) (mv2)/2
c) (3mv2)/2 d) – (mv2)
358. The figure shows the variation of energy with the orbital radius “r” of a satellite around a spherical
planet.
a) The curve A denotes the variation of kinetic energy with radius “r”
b) The curve A denotes the variation of potential energy with radius “r”
c) The curve A denotes the variation of total energy with radius “r”
d) The curve A denotes the variation of sum of potential energy and
kinetic energy with radius “r”
359. The figure shows the variation of energy with the orbital radius “r” of a satellite around a spherical
planet.
a) C shows the total energy, B the kinetic energy and A the potential energy
b) A shows the kinetic energy, B the total energy and C the potential energy
c) A shows the kinetic energy, B the potential energy and S the total energy
d) C shows the kinetic energy, A the potential energy and B the total energy
360. If the kinetic energy of a satellite is halved, its orbital radius becomes _____
a) 1/2 times b) 2 times
c) 4 times d) infinity
361. A satellite of mass “m” orbits a planet “P” in an elliptical orbit. The satellite is then transferred to
another circular orbit of radius “r” as shown in the figure. Which of the following hold true in this scenario?
a) The kinetic energy of the satellite is increased and the potential energy of the satellite is decreased in the
new orbit
b) The kinetic energy of the satellite is decreased and the potential energy of the satellite is increased in the
new orbit
c) Both kinetic and potential energy of the satellite is decreased on the new orbit
d) Both kinetic and potential energy of the satellite is increased on the new orbit
362. Most waves used for communication purposes rely on geostationary satellites because _____
a) they cannot transmit data at long distances due to curvature of the earth
b) they are reflected by the atmosphere
c) they are very cheap
d) it does not occupy space on the earth’s surface
363. Polar satellites are used for high-resolution imaging of the earth’s surface because _____
a) they have better cameras
b) they are very high above the surface of the earth and travel slowly to gather more information
c) they are closer to the surface of the earth and can cover vast areas very quickly
d) they can be launched by most countries in the world
364. How much is a polar orbit’s inclination with the earth’s equatorial plane?
a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees
c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees
365. For an object experiencing weightlessness _____
a) its weight force is non-zero
b) it has inertia
c) it experiences a value of acceleration greater than the acceleration due to gravity
d) it experiences a value of acceleration lesser than the acceleration due to gravity
366. Why do the astronauts in the international space station experience weightlessness?
a) The acceleration due to gravity at that height is zero
b) They are falling towards the earth
c) They have specially designed spacesuits for this purpose
d) The gravity of the moon and earth cancel out at that altitude
367. A person sitting in a chair in a satellite feels weightless because _____
a) the earth does not attract the objects in a satellite
b) the normal force by the chair on the person balances the earth’s attraction
c) the normal force is zero
d) the person in the satellite is not accelerated
368. How do astronauts define “up” or “down” in space?
a) There is no “up” or “down” in space
b) The side facing the earth is “down” and the opposite side is ‘up”
c) “up’ or “down” is decided by the control centre on earth
d) The direction of the spacecraft’s power source is “up” and the opposite side is “down”
a) 1.05*10-5m b) 2*10-5m
c) 3*10-5m d) 0.5*10-5m
373. This is a diagram for which type of material?
a) Perfectly elastic
b) Partially elastic
c) Completely plastic
d) Perfectly rigid
374. Select the correct order with regard to elasticity of materials.
a) Steel > Glass > Rubber b) Glass > Rubber > Steel
c) Rubber > Glass > Steel d) Rubber > Steel > Glass
375. The forces responsible for a body regaining its shape after removal of deforming forces are ________
a) gravitational forces between atoms b) electromagnetic forces between atoms
c) nuclear forces within an atom d) combination of gravitational & nuclear forces between atoms
376. Hooke’s law states that _________
a) stress is always proportional to strain b) stress is proportional to strain before ultimate tensile strength
c) stress is proportional to strain under elastic limit d) stress and strain are never directly proportional
377. Which of the following options is correct?
a) 4 radians b) 4 degrees
c) 2 radians d) 2 degrees
389. Which of the following stresses causes change in density, as long as force acts on the body?
a) Shear stress b) Compressive Stress
c) Tensile stress d) Volumetric stress
390. A wire has a cross sectional area ‘A’, length ‘L’ and young’s modulus ‘Y’. It is pulled by a force ‘F’
which causes a total extension of length ‘l’. The force F is so adjusted that the wire is only slowly stretched.
Find the work done by the force in pulling the string by a length ‘dx’ when extension is x (0 > x > l).
a) ½*stress*strain*volume b) (AY/L)xdx
c) F*l d) ½*stress * strain
391. Which device is used to measure pressure?
a) Odometer b) Barometer
c) Dynamometer d) Hydrometer
392. Which of the following quantities has the same S.I. unit as that of pressure?
a) Work b) Energy / Velocity
c) Energy / Displacement d) mass X (velocity)2/Volume
393. Assume a force of 30 N is distributed over a surface of area 2m2 in such a way that at each point force
can be considered to act at an angle of 30° to the normal at that point. What will be the value of pressure on
that plane?
a) 7.5 Pa b) 7.5√3 Pa
c) 15 Pa d) 15√3Pa
394. A car containing a beaker of water is moving horizontally on a level road. Consider two points, A & B,
inside the water such that they are on the same horizontal level and are separated by a distance L. Which of the
following options is correct regarding the pressure differences between those two points?
a) If car is accelerating with acceleration a, PA – PB = ρgL
b) If car is accelerating with acceleration a, PA – PB = 0
c) If car is moving with constant velocity, PA – PB = 0
d) If car is moving with constant acceleration a, PA – PB = ρ (g+a)L
395. Fluid C has a relative density of 10, while fluid D has a relative density of 15. If the height of liquid C
is 7cm, what will be the difference in heights of liquid D in the two tubes? In the diagram point 1 is in liquid D
just after the end of liquid C.
a) 5cm b) 10.5cm
c) 15cm d) 4.67cm
a) 20 Pa
b) 40 Pa
c) 5 Pa
d) 10 Pa
401. 3 containers A, B, C are filled with water as shown in the figure. What is the relation between the
pressures at 1, 2, 3? Assume that all jars are stationery.
a) 1:1:1 b) 1:2:3
c) 3:2:1 d) 1:2:1
402. Pascal’s Law is valid only for _____
a) water b) metals
c) fluids d) gases
403. What is Pascal’s Law?
a) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction
b) Force is the time rate of change of momentum
c) For an ideal gas, the pressure is directly proportional to temperature and constant volume and mass
d) A pressure change at any point in the fluid is transmitted throughout the fluid such that the same change
occurs everywhere
404. From which of the following is the working of hydraulic machines based on?
a) Pascal’s Law b) Newton’s Law of Cooling
c) Law of Gravitation d) Ideal Gas Law
405. Choose the correct option regarding a streamline.
a) Speed, not velocity, at all points of a streamline is same
b) Two streamlines can intersect in case of laminar flow
c) There is no friction between streamlines in case of steady flow
d) In a given streamline, velocity of a point can vary with time
406. On which of these following options is the continuity equation based?
a) Work energy theorem b) Law of conservation of energy
c) Conservation of mass d) Conservation of momentum
407. In which one of the following cases can the equation of continuity be used?
a) Compressible flow b) Incompressible flow
c) Turbulent flow d) Viscous flow
408. Consider a tank of height 20m filled with liquid of density 100kg/m3. The area of tank is 10m2. If the
tank has a hole of area 2m2 at the bottom, find the speed of the liquid flowing out through the hole when the
height of liquid in the tank is 10m . Assume speed of liquid descending at top of tank is 5m/s.
a) 20m/s b) 14.14m/s
c) 15m/s d) 20.615m/s
409. In which of the following conditions can the Bernoulli equation not be used?
a) Viscous flow b) incompressible fluid
c) steady flow d) laminar flow
410. The speed of efflux, in case of a tank with a hole at the bottom, depends upon which of the following
factors? Assume that the area of the tank is > > area of hole.
a) area of tank b) density of liquid
c) height of hole from liquid d) atmospheric pressure value
411. What will be the relation between H & L?
a) H = L b) H > L
c) H < L d) depends on the horizontal distance between the two tubes
412. A cylindrical tank of Height H has a hole on its side. It is kept on a flat surface. Assuming that hole’s
area is much smaller than the area of the tank, what should be the distance of the hole below the top surface so
that water coming out of the hole travels the maximum horizontal distance at the instant when the height of
water is H?
a) H b) H/3
c) H/2 d) same for all positions
413. Water having density ‘⍴’ is flowing (steadily) downwards in the given tube. What is the relation
between PA & PB?
a) PA = PB b) PA < PB
c) PA > PB d) PA – PB= ⍴gh
414. Area 1 = 10m , Area 2 = 5m , rate of flow is 50m3/s. Find the value of H if the tubes contain mercury.
2 2
a) 28cm b) 28m
c) 5.1cm d) 5.1m
415. Assume a ball is flying through air at rest. The speed of the centre of the ball is 5m/s (î). If the ball is
spinning as shown below, find PB – PA. The ball has a radius (R) of 0.1m. Consider the speed of the ball to be
constant as it passes through air. Let density of air be 1kg/m3. ω = 1(ĵ X î) rad/s.
a) 0.2Pa b) 2Pa
c) 0.1Pa d) 1Pa
416. . A cylindrical tank, filled with water, has an area of 10m2. A piston covers its entire top surface. A
uniformly distributed load of 1000N is applied on the piston from top. A hole of area 0.001m2is at the bottom
of the tank. Find the speed of efflux when the height of water level is 0.1m .
a) 24.5m/s b) 1.48m/s
c) 0.2m/s d) 2m/s
417. A cylindrical tank, filled with water, has an area of 10m2. A piston covers its entire top surface. A
uniformly distributed load of 1000N is applied on the piston from top. A hole of area 0.001m2is at the bottom
of the tank. Find the speed of efflux when the height of water level is 0.1m .
a) 24.5m/s b) 1.48m/s
c) 0.2m/s d) 2m/s
418. A cylindrical tank of area 5m contains water filled to a height of 10cm. A hole of area 0.005m2 is
2
present at the bottom. What is the time required for the water level to become half?
a) 100s b) 10s
c) 1min d) 10min
419. Viscosity is said to be internal friction between fluid layers. What type of force is it?
a) Electromagnetic b) Gravitational
c) Weak Nuclear forces d) Strong Nuclear forces
420. What is the unit of coefficient of viscosity?
a) Ns/m2 b) Nm/s
c) Ns/m d) Nm/s2
421. 1 poise = _________ Ns/m2. Fill in the blanks.
a) 0.01 b) 0.1
c) 1 d) 10
422. What is the effect of temperature increase on viscosity of liquids and gases?
a) Increases for both liquids and gases
b) Increases for liquids and decreases for gases
c) Increases for gases and decreases for liquids
d) Decreases for both liquids and gases
423. A block of mass 2kg is going down an incline over a fluid having some viscosity. The block moves
with a constant speed of 5m/s. Assuming that the temperature of fluid remains constant, find the coefficient of
viscosity of the fluid. Angle of incline is 30° & block is a cube of side 1m. Also given that the thickness of
fluid is 1cm.
425. On which these factors does air/fluid resistance force, acting on a spherical body, not depend?
a) Radius of body b) Velocity of body
c) Coefficient of viscosity d) Density of body
426. What will be the terminal velocity of a rain drop of radius (r) 1mm and mass (M) 0.001g falling
through air. The coefficient of viscosity of air (η) is 1.8 X 10-5Ns/m2? Neglect buoyant force.
a) 20 m/s b) 29.47 m/s
c) 35.8 m/s d) 40 m/s
427. Surface energy is ________________
a) kinetic energy of the surface molecules
b) the force per unit length acting on surface particles
c) the energy of the molecules inside the beaker
d) the extra energy that the molecules at the surface have relative to molecules inside the liquid
428. Consider two lines on the surface of water kept in a beaker. The length of one line is twice the others.
A force will be acting on the lines from either side. What is the ratio of magnitude of F1 & F2?
a) 2:1 b) 1:1
c) 1:2 d) 2:3
429. The unit of surface tension is same as that of _________
a) surface energy per unit volume b) force per unit area
c) surface energy per unit area d) surface energy per unit length
430. A U-shaped frame consists of a sliding rod connecting its two arms. It is dipped in a soap solution and
then placed horizontally. The weight of the sliding rod is 100gm. Surface tension (S) = 0.05 & length of
sliding wire = 20cm. If the sliding rod starts from rest at t=0, find its velocity at t=5s. Assume that there are no
resistive forces.
a) 0.1259 J b) 0.1141 J
c) 0.2356 J d) 0.1765 J
432. Consider a spherical drop of liquid having radius ‘R’. Assume a diametric cross-section which divides
the drop into two hemispheres. The hemispheres pull each other due to surface tension along the circumference
of the diametrical cross-section. What is the value of this force?
a) 2πRS b) πR2 S
c) 2RS d) 0
433. What is the value of pressure inside the bubble of radius 1cm, if the bubble is in water at a depth (H) of
1m? Assume atmospheric pressure to be 1atm, surface tension = 0.075N/m & density of water = 1000kg/m3.
a) 110015 Pa b) 109985 Pa
c) 26 atm d) 4 atm
434. A soap bubble contains two surface layers. What is the excess pressure just inside the first layer when
seen from outside the bubble?
a) 2S/R b) 4S/R
c) -2S/R d) -4S/R
435. The contact angle determines whether liquid will rise or get depressed along a solid surface. Select the
correct statement regarding the same.
a) If contact angle is found to be less than 90°, the liquid will have raise along the solid surface
b) If contact angle is found to be greater than 90°, then liquid will have depressed along the solid surface
c) Liquid always rises along solid surface, irrespective of contact angle
d) Liquid always gets depressed along solid surface, irrespective of contact angle
436. Consider a capillary tube in which water has risen. The contact angle is θ. The radius of the capillary
tube is ‘r’. The surface tension is ‘S’. And the density of water is ‘ρ’. What is the expression for the height of
water risen in the tube? Assume the radius of meniscus to be ‘R’. Let the height of water risen in the tube be
‘h’.
a) 2Ssinθ / Rρg b) 2S / Rρg
c) 2Scosθ / Rρg d) 2S / rρg
437. Boyle’s law and Charle’s law together form which law?
a) PV/T = constant b) PV2/T = constant
c) PV = constant d) V/T = constant
438. Why can any low density gas be used in a constant volume gas thermometer?
a) All low density gases show the same expansion behaviour
b) They are easy to handle
c) Their pressure variation is proportional to square of the change in temperature
d) The given statement is not true
439. For a constant volume gas thermometer select the correct statement.
a) It doesn’t use mercury for pressure measurement
b) We actually measure the pressure at constant volume and the scale is calibrated to give the temperature
reading
c) Any high density gas can be used
d) Pressure ∝ Temp2
449. What is the value of coefficient of volume expansion for an ideal gas?
a) (ΔV/V)/Δ T b) 2*coefficient of linear expansion
c) 1/3 * coefficient of linear expansion d) (V/ΔV)/ Δ T
450. What is the relation between coefficient of area expansion(A) and coefficient of volume expansion(B)?
a) B = 1.5A b) A = 1.5B
c) A = 3B d) B = 3A
451. A rod is lying on the ground with both ends free. It has a length of 1m. Coefficient of linear expansion
equal to 1.1*10-5per °C. Calculate the strain when the change in temperature is 10K.
a) 11*10-5 b) 1.1*10-5
c) 0 d) 311.3*10-5
452. What is the principle of a calorimeter?
a) Heat loss rate is directly proportional to temperature difference
b) The total heat lost by a hot body is same as the total heat gained by the cold body provided no heat is lost to
the surroundings
c) Heat loss depends only on specific heat of a substance
d) For the same amount of heat flow from a sample to two different samples of same mass is a product of their
specific heats and temperature difference
453. What is the definition of 1 calorie?
a) It is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1g of water from 14.5°C to 15.5°C at 760mm Hg
b) It is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1g of any substance by 14.5°C to 15.5°C at 760mm Hg
c) It is the heat required to raise temperature of 1g of water by 1°C at 760mm Hg
d) It corresponds to the heat supplied at 760mm Hg for 1°C raise in temperature
454. The temperature of 50g of water has to be risen from 15°C to 85°C by using steam at 120°C. What is
the amount of steam, in gms, required for the same? Sw= 1cal/ g°C, Lvap = 540cal/g, Ssteam =0.48cal/g°C.
a) 6.29g b) 8.34g
c) 7.22g d) 6.19g
455. 30g water at 30°C is mixed with 1g of steam at 100℃. Calculate the final temperature of the mixture.
Sw = 1cal/ g°C, Lvap= 540cal/g.
a) 49.67°C b) 38.33°C
c) 53.67°C d) 41.33°C
456. What should be the temperature of 1g of ice, so that when it’s added to 9g of water, lowers the
temperature of water by 10°C? Sw = 1cal/ g°C, Sice = 0.5cal/ g°C, Lfus= 80cal/g.
a) 20°C b) -20°C
c) 0°C d) 10°C
457. Same amount of heat is added to two substances of same mass having specific heat capacities s1 &
s2 such that s1 > s2. Select the correct statement.
a) The change in temperature of 1 is greater than the change in temperature of 2
b) The change in temperature of 1 is less than the change in temperature of 2
c) Both will have the same change in temperature
d) Temperature changes can’t be related with specific heat capacities
respectively. KS = 50 J/smK & KC =384 J/smK. Calculate equivalent thermal conductivity of the combined
bar.
a) 63°C b) 63K
c) 336°C d) 36K
467. What is the expression for heat current? Q is heat, t is time, T is temperature.
a) ΔQ/Δt b) ΔQ/ΔT
c) ΔT/Δt d) ΔQ/ΔTΔt
468. Select the correct statement.
a) Radiation doesn’t require any medium
b) Convection involves heat transfer by vibration of particles at their position
c) Conduction involves movement of particles to transfer heat
d) Radiation is responsible for heat of gas flame heating the cooking pan
469. What is the value of Wien’s constant?
a) 2.9*10-3mK b) 2.9*10-4mK
c) 2.9*10-3cmK d) 2.9*10-4cmK
470. What is the net amount of energy per unit time being received by a body having a temperature of 40
°C in a surrounding of 60°C? (The surface area of body = 2m2, σ = 5.67*10-8W/ m2K4 & emissivity of 0.4).
a) 122.4W b) 0.47W
c) 33W d) 86W
471. The sun emits light having maximum intensity at a wavelength 468nm. Assume emissivity of sun is 1.
Calculate its surface temperature. σ= 5.67*10-8W/m2K4.
a) 6800K b) 3400K
c) 6196K d) 7200K
472. If we hold a metal rod from one end and dip the other in a source of fire, what will happen to the
temperature of the rod at steady state?
a) Be uniform
b) Decrease with time
c) Remain constant at a single value throughout the length of the rod
d) Stay nonuniform
473. Two spheres, A & B, are made up of the same material. The radius of A is twice that of B, while the
temperature of A is half that of B. What is their ratio of energy emitted per unit time (EA : EB)?
a) 1 b) 1/4
c) ½ d) 1/16
474. A liquid cools from 65°C to 55°C in 5 mins. If the surrounding temperature is 35℃, calculate the time
taken for temperature to fall from 45°C to 35°C.
a) 25sec b) 25min
c) 30min d) 30sec
UNIT 8 THERMODYNAMICS
a) 4m3
b) 1.5m3
c) 3m3
d) 8m3
482. In the given system, 20J of heat is supplied to the gas molecules. The spring is
initially not elongated or compressed. If the spring gets compressed by 1cm. Calculate
the change in internal energy of the system. Spring constant = 200N/m. Assume piston
moves slowly.
a) 19J
b) -19J
c) 21J
d) -21J
483. At constant pressure P the volume of a gas increases from V1 to V2 when ‘Q’
amount of heat is removed from the system. What will happen to internal energy?
a) Remain the same if Q = P(V1 – V2)
b) Decrease by an amount P(V2 – V1) – Q
c) Decrease by an amount Q + P(V2 – V1)
d) Increase by some unknown amount
484. Zeroth law of thermodynamics helped in the creation of which scale?
a) Temperature b) Heat energy
c) Pressure d) Internal energy
485. Internal energy of a system is defined as?
a) The sum of kinetic energies of all molecules of the system
b) The sum of kinetic and potential energies of all molecules of the system
c) The sum of potential energies of the system
d) The average kinetic energy of all molecules
486. Select the correct statement.
a) Internal energy is a path variable b) Heat is a path variable
c) Work done is a state variable d) Internal energy is a microscopic variable
487. A box contains 10 molecules. The average kinetic energy of each molecule is 0.5*10-6J. With respect
5
to an observer at rest the box, having a mass of 1kg, is moving with a velocity of 2m/s. What is the value of
kinetic energy that will contribute to the internal energy?
a) 0.05J b) 2.05J
c) 0 d) 2J
488. Which of the following types of kinetic energies contribute to internal energy?
a) Translational b) Rotational
c) Vibrational d) Translational, Vibrational & Rotational
489. A body has 15J of heat energy in a particular state. At the same state it has an internal energy of 30J.
Assume no work is done, what will happen to the internal energy if 5J of heat is added to the system?
a) Heat energy = 20J, Internal energy = 35J b) Heat energy = 15J, Internal energy = 30J
c) Heat energy = 15J, Internal energy = 35J d) A body cannot have heat energy in a particular state
490. Which of the following variables is intensive?
a) Internal energy b) volume
c) Temperature d) Total mass
a) 0.196L
b) 0.243L
c) 0.296L
d) 0.187L
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Remain same d) Depends on value of heat supplied
a) 3.2J b) -3.2
c) 4.8J d) -4.8J
500. What is the relation between heat supplied in the 3 processes?
a) V = 0 b) PV = constant
c) V/T = constant d) PT = constant
502. What is the expression for work done in the given cycle? Let the number of moles of gas be ‘n’.
Process starts at 1 and ends at 4 going in the clockwise direction.
a) 0
b) nR(T4/V1 – T1/V1) (V1 -V2)
c) nR(T4/V4 – T1/V1) (V2 – V1)
d) nR(T4/V3 – T1/V2) (V1 – V2)
503. If an engine takes 5J of heat energy from a reservoir and rejects 3J to the surroundings, what is its
efficiency?
a) 2/5 b) 3/5
c) 1/5 d) 0
504. What is the coefficient of performance of a refrigerator? Let Q1 be the heat released to hot reservoir,
Q2 be the heat extracted from a cold reservoir & W be the work done on the refrigerator.
a) Q1/W b) Q1/Q2
c) Q2/W d) Q2/Q1
505. Select the correct order of steps in which a working substance(gas) goes through in a refrigerator.
a) Expansion of gas, absorption of heat, heating of vapour, release of heat
b) Absorption of heat, expansion of gas, heating of vapour, release of heat
c) Heating of vapour, expansion of gas, absorption of heat, release of heat
d) Heating of vapour, absorption of heat, expansion of gas, release of heat
506. 20J of heat energy is extracted from a cold reservoir when 30J of work is done on a refrigerator. What
is the coefficient of the refrigerator?
a) 2/3 b) 5/3
c) 3/5 d) 1/3
507. What is a quasi-static process?
a) Irreversible b) Reversible
c) In equilibrium at every state d) Not involving friction
508. What is the relation between work obtained in an reversible and irreversible process?
a) Wrev > Wirr b) Wrev < Wirr
c) Wrev = Wirr d) It depends on change in temperature
509. Which of the following is an example of reversible process?
a) Wood to ashes b) Burning of matchstick
c) Making roti from wheat flour d) Frictionless to and fro motion
510. Find work done by one mole of a gas in one cycle. V1 = 1m3, V2 = 4m3, V3 = 6m3, V4 =3m3.
Temperature is given in °C.
a) 303Rln(4) J
b) 303Rln(2) J
c) 30Rln(2) J
d) 30Rln(4) J
511. What is the correct order of steps for a carnot cycle?
a) Isothermal expansion, adiabatic expansion, isothermal compression, adiabatic compression
b) Isothermal compression, adiabatic expansion, isothermal expansion, adiabatic compression
c) Adiabatic compression, adiabatic expansion, isothermal expansion, isothermal compression
d) Adiabatic compression, isothermal expansion, adiabatic expansion, isothermal compression
512. What will be the value of temperature of hot reservoir in a carnot cycle, if the temperature of cold
reservoir is 25°C, heat absorbed from hot reservoir is 12J and heat rejected to cold reservoir is 4J?
a) 684K b) 333.33K
c) 894K d) 433.33K
513. A carnot engine extracts 1200J of energy from a hot reservoir. What is the amount of work done by it?
Temperatures of hot and cold reservoirs are 200K and 150K respectively.
a) 800J b) 900J
c) 600J d) 850J
514. The efficiency of a carnot engine is 50%. The temperature of the hot reservoir is kept constant. By
what amount should the temperature of the cold reservoir be decreased so that efficiency becomes 60%.
a) 1K b) 2K
c) 30K d) 83K
522. Consider a gas enclosed in a box. Let the walls have an area of 0.01m2. Let’s say a few molecules
having their x-component of velocity =2m/s, hit a wall parallel to the yz plane. What will be the value of force
on the wall in time dt? Let the number of molecules per unit volume be 10 & mass of each molecule be 10-
20
kg.
a) 4*10-19N b) 4*10-21N
c) 4/3*10-21N d) 4/3*10-19N
523. Consider a gas inside a box. It exerts some pressure on its walls. Find this value. GIven that number of
molecules per unit volume be 20, mass of each molecule 10-20kg, vx2 = 1m2/s2.
a) 20*10-20Pa b) 20/3*10-20Pa
c) 20/3*10-19Pa d) 20*10-19Pa
524. Which of the following is not an assumption of KTG?
a) Time spent during collision is negligibly small
b) All gases are made up of molecules moving randomly in all directions
c) Molecules do not collide with each other
d) Molecules collide elastically with the wall
525. The number of molecules per unit volume in the sample is 20. The mass of each molecule is 10-20kg.
The mean of speed squared is 4m2/s2. What is the value of internal energy of the gas? Assume volume of
container is 0.02m3.
a) 0.8*10-20J b) 0.53*10-20J
c) 0.01*10-20J d) 0.45*10-20J
526. Average kinetic energy of a gas depends on which of the following factors?
a) Nature of gas b) Temperature
c) Pressure d) Volume
527. A container has 3 gases whose mass ratio is 1:3:5. What is the ratio of mean square speed of the
molecules of two gases? Their atomic masses are 20u, 30u & 40u corresponding to the order in which the
ratios are given.
a) 2:3:4 b) 4:3:2
c) 2:√3:√2 d) √2:√3:2
528. What is the number of molecules in 3 cubic metre of a gas at 3atm & 27°C?
a) 2.17*10-20 b) 6.38*10-20
c) 3.86*10-20 d) 4.58*10-20
529. How many degrees of freedom are there in a monatomic gas?
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 0
530. What is the ratio of specific heats for a monatomic gas?
a) 5/3 b) 5/2
c) 7/5 d) 9/5
531. How many degrees of freedom are there in a diatomic gas?
a) 2 b) 5
c) 3 d) 1
540. Which of the following variables has zero value at the extreme position in SHM?
a) Acceleration b) Speed
c) Displacement d) Angular frequency
541. A particle is initially at the centre and going towards the left. Let T be the time period of the SHM it is
undergoing. What will be its position and velocity at time 3T/4, if it starts from the centre at t=0?
a) 4T1 = T2 b) T1 = 2T2
c) 2T1 = T2 d) T1 = 4T2
547. A particle starts from the extreme position, at t = 0, in a SHM. If the time period of motion is 2s &
maximum speed is 5m/s, find the equation of motion.
a) x = 1.59cos(πt) b) x = 1.59sin(πt)
c) x = 2.5sin(2t) d) x = 2.5cos(2t)
548. What is the amplitude of motion for x = 2sin(2t) + 4sin2t ?
a) 2√2 m b) 4 m
c) 2 m d) The given equation is not that of an SHM
549. In SHM, what is the phase difference between velocity and acceleration?
a) 0 b) π
c) π/2 d) π/3
550. In the given phasor diagram what should be the minimum velocity of particle 2 at mean position so that
it catches particle 1 before it reaches the extreme position? The projection of motion of particle 1 on x-axis is
governed by the equation: x = 4sin(2t).
a) 8m/s b) 16m/s
c) 4m/s d) 12m/s
551. A ball tied to the end of a string of length 10cm is rotated with constant speed of 2m/s in a circle about
the origin. Find the equation of projection of the ball on the x-axis. At t=0, the ball makes an angle of 45° with
the x-axis & is travelling in anticlockwise direction.
a) 0.1sin(20t + 3π/4) b) 0.1cos(20t + π/4)
c) 10sin(20t + π/4) d) 10cos(20t – 3π/4)
552. If a body in uniform circular motion covers the given angle in 0.5s, what is the time period of
projection, on the x-axis, undergoing SHM? Assume it moves anti-clockwise.
a) 4s b) 1s
c) 2s d) 3s
553. A particle is executing SHM and currently going towards the amplitude. If it is at A/2, what is the
relation between the direction of velocity and acceleration?
a) Both vectors point towards the amplitude
a) 8cos(πt) b) -8cos(πt)
c) 0.81sin(πt) d) -0.81sin(πt)
557. A particle is undergoing a SHM of amplitude 10cm. What should be the minimum value of
acceleration at an extreme position for maximum speed at centre to be 5m/s?
a) 20m/s2 b) 5m/s2
c) 0 d) 250m/s2
558. A particle in uniform circular motion is projected on its diameter. The motion of projection will be
simple harmonic. Select the correct option regarding speed and acceleration of the particle in circular motion.
a) Speed is constant, acceleration is zero b) Speed is constant, acceleration is non-zero
c) Speed changes, acceleration is non-zero d) Speed changes, acceleration is zero
559. The curves given below are that of position(x), velocity(v) & acceleration(a) vs time. What can we
infer about the value of angular frequency ‘f’ from the given curves?
a) f > 1 b) f < 1
c) f = 0 d) We need the time period in order to find ‘f’
560. Force on particle, of mass ‘m’, undergoing SHM is given by: F = -kx. What is the relation between x
and angular frequency w?
a) k = w2w b) k = m√w
2
c) m = k/w d) m = k2/w
561. Select the correct statement regarding the force on a particle in SHM.
a) It is linearly proportional to velocity b) It is linearly proportional to position
c) It is directed away from the mean position d) It is in the direction of velocity
562. The force acting on a particle of mass 1kg is -2x, where x is the displacement from the mean position
of SHM. What is the time period of oscillations?
a) 2π s b) π√2 s
c) π s d) 2√2π s
563. What is the time period of kinetic energy of a particle in SHM,if the time period of SHM is 4s?
a) 2s b) 1s
c) 4s d) 0s
564. Consider a particle undergoing an SHM of amplitude A & angular frequency w. What is the magnitude
of displacement from the mean position when kinetic energy is equal to the magnitude of potential energy?
a) A/2 b) A/√2
c) A/3 d) A/4
565. The graph given below represents energy as a function of position. What is the energy of the particle in
SHM at x = +1? Given mass of the particle is 2kg, time period =2s, A=1m.
a) 4.87J b) -5J
c) 9.87J d) 5J
566. A particle is undergoing SHM. If its potential energy is given by: U = kx2. What will be the value of x
for potential energy to be 1/3rd of kinetic energy? Assume k is force constant.
a) A/√7 b) A/√6
c) A/√3 d) A/√2
567. A particle is performing a SHM. If its mass is doubled keeping the amplitude and force constant the
same, total energy will become how many times the initial value?
a) 2 b) 1/2
c) 4 d) 1
568. A particle is in SHM. When displacement is ‘a‘ potential energy is 8J. When displacement is ‘a‘
potential energy is 18J. What will be the potential energy when displacement is ‘a+b’?
a) 50J b) 26J
c) 10J d) 30J
569. If the potential energy of the particle is given by: U = x2-8x+16. It starts from rest from x=0. What will
be its maximum speed during SHM? Assume the mass of the particle to be 1kg.
a) 4√2m/s b) 8m/s
c) 2√2m/s d) 2√6m/s
570. A spring block system is on a horizontal plane. If spring constant is 2N/m & mass of block is 1kg. By
what amount should the block be extended from equilibrium position such that maximum velocity at mean
position is 2m/s?
a) 2√2 m b) 3√2 m
c) 4√2 m d) 2 m
571. The springs in the given diagram are fixed to the walls. If the block is displaced by a distance x from
the mean position, find the time period of oscillations in seconds. Assume that there is no friction.
a) 2π √(2m/3k)
b) 2π √(7m/3k)
c) 2π √(2m/7k)
d) 2π √(2m/5k)
572. If the block is displaced by ‘x’ from the mean position, what will be the time period of oscillations?
a) 2π √(2m/3k) s
b) 2π √(3m/k) s
c) 2π √(m/k) s
d) 2π √(4m/k) s
573. Find the effective spring constant.
a) 8/5
b) 8/31
c) 5/8
d) 31/8
574. A spring mass system is on a horizontal plane. Spring constant is 2N/m & mass of block is 2kg. The
spring is compressed by 10cm and released. A small ball is released from a height of 2m above the block on
the horizontal plane. At what time should the ball be left if the block is released from the extreme position at
t=0, given that the ball has to fall on the block when the speed of block is maximum?
a) 1.57s b) 0.94s
c) 0s d) 0.63s
575. A spring mass system is hanging from the ceiling of a lift. It has been like this for quite some time.
Suddenly the cables holding the lift are cut. What will be the amplitude of oscillation of the block when
observed by a person standing (of mass M) in the lift?
a) mg/k b) (M-m)g/k
c) The observer will not observe a SHM d) 2mg/k
576. A spring block system is on a horizontal surface. The block is compressed by 10cm. What should be
the coefficient of friction between the block and ground such that the block comes to a stop at the mean
position? Mass of block = 0.5kg & spring constant = 3N/m.
a) 0.03 b) 0.06
c) 0.12 d) 0.05
577. Two springs in horizontal spring mass systems have spring constants in the ratio 2:3. By what ratio
should they be extended from their mean positions so that they have the same value of maximum speed? The
masses of blocks are the same in both cases.
a) 3/2 b) √3 / √2
c) 9/4 d) 4/9
578. A spring is fixed to the ground as shown below. A block of mass m is fixed to the spring. The spring is
compressed by 5cm. Imagine that we can remove the spring suddenly and the block will fly off with the speed
it has at that instant. The spring has to be removed at such a position that the distance travelled upwards by the
block relative to that position is maximum. Find that position.
a) Mean position
b) 2cm above mean position
c) 4cm above mean position
d) 2cm below mean position
579. Which of the following factors affects the time period of a simple pendulum?
a) Mass of bob b) Shape of bob
c) Length of string d) Angle of release from 0° to 20°
580. A simple pendulum,hanging from the ceiling, is released from an angle . What is the restoring force?
a) mg b) mgcosθ
c) mgsinθ d) mgtanθ
581. What is the length of a seconds pendulum?
a) 1m b) 2m
c) 9.8m d) 0.5m
582. Two simple pendulums of the same length are released from 10° & 20° respectively. Select the correct
statement.
a) The second pendulum have will have a double time period than that of the first
b) They both will reach the mean position at the same time
c) The first pendulum will have a double time period than that of the second
d) Their maximum speed will be the same
583. What will happen to the time period of a simple pendulum if temperature of the surroundings is
significantly increased?
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Remain the same d) The oscillations come to a stop
584. What is the frequency with which forced periodic oscillations oscillate?
a) Frequency of forced oscillator
b) Their natural frequency
c) No specific frequency
d) Sum of frequency of forced oscillator & their natural frequency
585. If a string wave encounters a completely fixed end, what happens to its phase?
a) Stays the same b) Changes by π
c) Changes by π/2 d) Waves gets destroyed
586. The equation of a wave is: y = 2sin(4x-3t). What will be the equation of the reflected wave from a free
surface?
a) y = 2sin(4x+3t) b) y = 2sin(3t-4x)
c) y = 2cos(4x+3t) d) y = 2sin(4x-3t)
587. What is the minimum distance between a node & an antinode in a standing wave?
a) λ b) λ/2
c) 2λ d) λ/4
588. If a standing wave is vibrating in the fourth harmonic and the wavelength is λ, what is the length of the
string.
a) 2λ b) λ
c) 4λ d) λ/4
589. Consider the case of normal modes of vibration for the air column with only one end closed. What is
the length of the air column for the fundamental harmonic?
a) λ/2 b) λ
c) 2λ d) λ/4
590. A pipe is open at both ends. What should be its length such that it resonates a 10Hz source in the 2nd
harmonic? Speed of sound in air = 340m/s.
a) 34m b) 68m
c) 17m d) 51m
591. Consider standing waves in an air column with one end closed. What is a pressure node?
a) Pressure variation is maximum b) Displacement variation is minimum
c) Same as displacement node d) Least pressure change
592. A pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency of 2Hz. If the pipe is closed at one end and half
filled with water, what will be the fundamental frequency?
a) 0.5Hz b) 2Hz
c) 4Hz d) 1Hz
593. Electromagnetic waves are considered to be which of the following types?
a) Transverse b) Longitudinal
c) Both Transverse & Longitudinal d) Neither longitudinal nor transverse
594. What does the given equation: x = Asin(ky+wt+a) represent?
a) Wave travelling along positive x direction
b) Wave travelling along negative x direction
a) 0 b) π
c) π/2 d) 2π
597. A sinusoidal wave has an amplitude of 2cm. It is travelling in the negative x-direction. The distance
between two crests is 2cm. The angular frequency is πs-1. What is the displacement of the particle at x =
20.5cm, at t = 10s? Assume that at t=0 & x=0 the particle was at the mean position and going downwards. ‘x’
&’y’ are in cm.
a) 0cm b) 1cm
c) -1cm d) -2cm
598. The equation of a wave is given by y = 3sin(4x-2t). What is the time period and wavelength of the
wave?
a) T = 2π, λ = 2π b) T = π, λ = 2π
c) T = π, λ = π/2 d) T = π/2, λ = π
599. What is the expression for wave speed in the given equation: y = Asin(kx-wt + π)?
a) dy/dt b) w/k
c) 2πw/k d) 2πk/w
600. A string has a mass of 100gm & is under a tension of 10N. What should be its length if the speed of
transverse waves is to be 10m/s on the string.
a) 1.8m b) 10m
c) 1m d) 2m
601. Why is the speed of longitudinal waves sound in solids greater than that in liquids?
a) Solids have lesser bulk modulus
b) Gases have lesser density
c) Solids have greater bulk modulus and density than gases but increase in bulk modulus dominantes over
increase in density
d) Gases don’t have lesser particles in a given volume and therefore transfer sound energy slowly
602. The speed of sound in air is 330m/s. What is the mass of 1 mole of air? Assume it is an ideal gas.
a) 28gm b) 38gm
c) 20.56gm d) 29gm
603. What is the ratio of speed of sound in air when measured after laplace correction to that measured by
Newton’s formula?
a) 1.18 b) 0.84
c) 1.4 d) 0.71
a) 0 b) 4J
c) 2J d) 1J
608. Consider the phenomenon of beats & select the correct statement.
a) It occurs when frequencies are close or equal
b) It correspond to the change in intensity we hear due to interference of 2 waves having close frequencies
c) It corresponds to a constant intensity sound heard during wave interference
d) Beat frequency is variable
609. Two interfering waves have a frequency of 2Hz & 6Hz. What is the beat frequency?
a) 8Hz b) 4Hz
c) 2Hz d) 0
610. Let’s say we can hear a beat frequency of 2Hz from two tuning forks. The first tuning fork has a
frequency of 100Hz. If wax is applied on the 2nd tuning fork, the beat frequency becomes 4Hz, what is the
frequency of the 2nd tuning fork?
a) 100Hz b) 98Hz
c) 106Hz d) 104Hz
611. Two longitudinal waves: s1 = 3cos(11t) & s2 = 3cos(10t) interfere. What is the amplitude of the
resulting wave?
a) 6cos(0.5t) b) 6sin(0.5t)
c) 6cos(10.5t) d) 6sin(10.5t)
612. An observer is standing stationary in air moving at a speed of 2m/s. A source of frequency 20Hz is
moving in the direction of wind with speed 10m/s towards the observer. What will be the frequency as heard
by the observer? Speed of sound in air is 330m/s.
a) 20.62Hz b) 19.40Hz
c) 21.68Hz d) 22.63Hz
613. A train with a frequency ‘f’. What will be the frequency heard by a person sitting in the train? Speed of
the train is ‘v’.
a) f b) f(330+v)/330
c) fv/(330-v) d) fv/(330+v)
614. A passenger is standing on a platform. A train is arriving with speed =100m/s. It whistles at point B
while the passenger is at point A. What is the frequency heard by the passenger if the whistle frequency is
100Hz? Speed of sound = 330m/s.
a) 132Hz
b) 80.48Hz
c) 124Hz
d) 164Hz
615. A source of sound moves towards an observer. What happens to the speed of sound in the medium?
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains the same d) Depends on speed with which source moves
616. A source moves towards a stationary observer with a speed of 10m/s. If the frequency of the source is
10Hz what will be the wavelength of sound heard by the observer? Speed of sound = 330m/s.
a) 32m b) 34m
c) 33m d) 31m
617. A source of frequency 50Hz is moving towards an observer with a deceleration of 2m/s2. If its initial
speed is 20m/s, what will be the maximum frequency heard by the observer? Initial distance between source
and observer is 100m. Speed of sound = 330m/s.
a) 47.14Hz b) 0
c) 53.22Hz d) 53.03Hz
618. A man jumps from a building with a source of sound. When he reaches halfway down, he starts the
siren of frequency 100Hz. A person standing below him on the ground hears the first sound to be of frequency
120Hz. What is the height of the building? Speed of sound = 330m/s. Take g=9.81m/s2.
a) 154m b) 308m
c) 77m d) 500m
619. A man is moving towards a wall with a source of sound in his hand. Frequency of source = 50Hz.
Speed of man = 8m/s. If the man sends one pulse of sound, what will be the frequency heard by him after
sound reflects off the wall? Speed of sound = 330m/s.
a) 53.86Hz b) 52.48Hz
c) 51.24Hz d) 52.45Hz
620. Let’s say we can hear a beat frequency of 2Hz from two tuning forks. The first tuning fork has a
frequency of 100Hz. If wax is applied on the 2nd tuning fork, the beat frequency becomes 4Hz, what is the
frequency of the 2nd tuning fork?
a) 100Hz b) 98Hz
c) 106Hz d) 104Hz