INORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following is a Brønsted–Lowry base?

Correct Answer: C. A proton acceptor
Explanation: A Brønsted–Lowry base is a substance that accepts a proton (H⁺).
2. Which of the following describes the difference between a strong base and a
weak base?
Correct Answer: A. A strong base completely ionizes in a solution, while a
weak base partially ionizes.
Explanation: Strong bases dissociate fully in water; weak bases dissociate only
partially.
3. What is a characteristic of acids?
Correct Answer: D. They are corrosive and have a sour taste.
Explanation: Acids typically taste sour, are corrosive, and have pH values less than
7.
4. What are the products of a neutralization reaction between an acid and a
base?
Correct Answer: C. Water and a salt
Explanation: Neutralization reactions produce water and an ionic salt.
5. A reaction between an acid and a base that produces a salt and water is
called a:
Correct Answer: C. Neutralization reaction
Explanation: This type of reaction neutralizes acidic and basic properties.
6. Which of the following will conduct an electric current?
Correct Answer: B. Strong acid solution
Explanation: Strong acids ionize completely in water, producing ions that conduct
electricity.
7. What is a strong acid?
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Strong acids completely dissociate in water, have low pH, and produce
high concentrations of H⁺ ions.
8. Which of the following is an extensive property of matter?
Correct Answer: D. Mass
Explanation: Extensive properties depend on the amount of matter present.
9. Which of the following is a state function?
Correct Answer: C. Enthalpy
Explanation: State functions depend only on the initial and final states, not the path
taken.
10. The ability of an atom to attract electrons in a chemical bond is known as:
Correct Answer: B. Electronegativity
Explanation: Electronegativity measures how strongly an atom attracts bonding
electrons.
11. Which element is the most electronegative?
Correct Answer: B. Fluorine (F)
Explanation: Fluorine has the highest electronegativity on the periodic table.
12. Based on periodic trends, which element is the most electronegative?
Correct Answer: C. Fluorine (F)
Explanation: Electronegativity increases across a period and decreases down a
group.
13. Which substance is an example of an inorganic compound?
Correct Answer: C. CO₂ (Carbon dioxide)
Explanation: CO₂ is considered inorganic despite containing carbon.
14. What is the chemical name of H₂SO₄?
Correct Answer: C. Sulfuric acid
Explanation: H₂SO₄ is sulfuric acid, a strong mineral acid.
15. What is the chemical name of Ca(ClO₃)₂?
Correct Answer: B. Calcium chlorate
Explanation: ClO₃⁻ is the chlorate ion.
16. What is the name of the compound MgCl₂?
Correct Answer: A. Magnesium chloride
Explanation: Ionic compounds are named using the metal name followed by the
nonmetal with “-ide”.
17. Which of the following is a white sulfide precipitate?
Correct Answer: B. ZnS
Explanation: Zinc sulfide forms a white precipitate.
18. Which of the following is a slow chemical reaction?
Correct Answer: B. Rusting of iron
Explanation: Rusting occurs slowly over time through oxidation.
19. Chemical reactions can only occur when reacting particles _____ with each
other.
Correct Answer: A. Collide
Explanation: According to collision theory, particles must collide to react.
20. The rate of reaction can be measured by measuring the _____ over time.
Correct Answer: A. Amount of product produced
Explanation: Reaction rate is the change in amount or concentration per unit time.
21. White and red phosphorus are _____ forms of phosphorus.
Correct Answer: C. Allotropic
Explanation: Allotropes are different physical forms of the same element.
22. What is the oxidation state of Co in [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺?
Correct Answer: C. +3
Explanation: NH₃ is neutral; therefore, Co must account for the +3 charge.
23. A ligand that can bind through two different atoms is called an:
Correct Answer: B. Ambidentate ligand
Explanation: Ambidentate ligands can attach using either of two donor atoms.
24. What is the shape of SO₂ according to VSEPR theory?
Correct Answer: C. Bent
Explanation: Lone pair repulsion on sulfur causes a bent molecular geometry.
25. What happens during electrolysis of aqueous CuSO₄ using platinum
electrodes?
Correct Answer: A. Copper will deposit at the cathode.
Explanation: Cu²⁺ ions gain electrons at the cathode to form solid copper.
26. Which group do alkali and alkaline earth metals belong to?
Correct Answer: B. Groups 1 and 2, respectively
Explanation: Alkali metals are in Group 1; alkaline earth metals are in Group 2.
27. Solubility trend of Group 2 metal hydroxides down the group:
Correct Answer: A. Solubility increases down the group.
Explanation: Larger ions reduce lattice energy, increasing solubility.
28. What is the mass of 20.0 mL solution with density 1.84 g/mL?
Correct Answer: D. 36.8 g
Explanation: Mass = density × volume = 1.84 × 20.0.
29. Which p-orbital statement is FALSE?
Correct Answer: C. They are found in all principal energy levels.
Explanation: p orbitals begin at n = 2, not n = 1.
30. What is TRUE about a neutral hydrogen-1 atom?
Correct Answer: C. It lacks neutrons.
Explanation: Hydrogen-1 (protium) has 1 proton and 1 electron only.
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
1. What is the functional group present in an ester?
Correct Answer: A. Carbonyl
Explanation: Esters contain the functional group –COO–, which includes a carbonyl
(C=O) bonded to an oxygen atom.
2. What is the correct IUPAC name for the compound CH₃CH₂CH(CH₃)CH₂CH₃?
Correct Answer: A. 3-methylpentane
Explanation: The longest carbon chain has five carbons (pentane) with a methyl
substituent on carbon 3.
3. Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural
formulas are called:
Correct Answer: C. Isomers
Explanation: Isomers have identical molecular formulas but different arrangements of
atoms.
4. Which term describes mirror-image isomers that are non-superimposable?
Correct Answer: C. Enantiomers
Explanation: Enantiomers are chiral molecules that are mirror images but cannot
overlap.
5. What is the major product of the acid-catalyzed hydration of propene?
Correct Answer: C. 2-propanol
Explanation: Markovnikov’s rule applies, placing the OH group on the more
substituted carbon.
6. The addition of HBr to 2-butene will result in:
Correct Answer: B. 2-bromobutane
Explanation: HBr adds across the double bond following Markovnikov’s rule.
7. Which reaction involves the replacement of a functional group with another
functional group?
Correct Answer: C. Substitution reaction
Explanation: A substitution reaction replaces one atom or group with another.
8. Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?
Correct Answer: C. Butanol
Explanation: Butanol forms hydrogen bonds, increasing its boiling point.
9. The reactivity of the carbonyl group (C=O) in propanal is primarily due to:
Correct Answer: A. The ability of oxygen to acquire electrons
Explanation: Oxygen pulls electron density, making the carbon electrophilic.
10. What is the functional group of aldehydes?
Correct Answer: b. –CHO
Explanation: Aldehydes contain a terminal carbonyl group bonded to hydrogen.
11. What is the correct IUPAC name for CH₃CHO?
Correct Answer: b. Acetaldehyde
Explanation: CH₃CHO is commonly called acetaldehyde (IUPAC: ethanal).
12. The IUPAC suffix for aldehydes is:
Correct Answer: b. –al
Explanation: Aldehydes are named using the suffix –al.
13. Which of the following can be prepared by the oxidation of a primary
alcohol?
Correct Answer: b. Aldehydes
Explanation: Mild oxidation of primary alcohols produces aldehydes.
14. What is the common name for CH₃CHO?
Correct Answer: b. Acetaldehyde
Explanation: The common name of CH₃CHO is acetaldehyde.
15. A positive Tollens’ test indicates the compound is a:
Correct Answer: b. Aldehyde
Explanation: Aldehydes reduce Tollens’ reagent, forming a silver mirror.
16. What is the IUPAC name for CH₃CH₂COOH?
Correct Answer: B. Propanoic acid
Explanation: The compound has three carbons and a carboxylic acid group.
17. Which reaction occurs between a carboxylic acid and an alcohol?
Correct Answer: B. Esterification
Explanation: This reaction forms an ester and water.
18. Which reaction distinguishes aldehydes from ketones?
Correct Answer: A. Oxidation with acidified potassium dichromate
Explanation: Aldehydes oxidize easily, while ketones do not.
19. The molecular formula of pentanoic acid is:
Correct Answer: D. C₅H₁₀O₂
Explanation: Carboxylic acids follow the general formula CₙH₂ₙO₂.
20. Which carboxylic acid has the highest boiling point?
Correct Answer: d. Decanoic acid
Explanation: Longer carbon chains increase intermolecular forces and boiling point.

BIOCHEMISTRY
1. The order and sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide determines which
protein structure?
Correct Answer: A. Primary
Explanation: The primary structure is the linear sequence of amino acids.
2. Amino acids that cannot be synthesized by the organism are called:
Correct Answer: B. Essential amino acids
Explanation: These amino acids must be obtained from the diet.
3. Which of the following is a precursor of vitamin A?
Correct Answer: B. Beta-carotene
Explanation: Beta-carotene is converted into vitamin A in the body.
4. The enzyme inhibition where the inhibitor competes with the substrate at the
active site is called:
Correct Answer: C. Competitive inhibition
Explanation: The inhibitor and substrate compete for the same active site.
5. Denaturation of a protein is a result of:
Correct Answer: B. Changes in pH or temperature
Explanation: Extreme conditions disrupt protein structure without breaking peptide
bonds.
6. Which of the following is a five-carbon sugar?
Correct Answer: Ribose
Explanation: Ribose is a pentose sugar used in RNA.
7. What is the optimum pH of pepsin?
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation: Pepsin works best in the acidic environment of the stomach.
8. Which statement about catabolic enzymes is true?
Correct Answer: They cleave a molecule into two or more parts.
Explanation: Catabolism involves breaking down complex molecules.
9. Which statement about anabolic enzymes is true?
Correct Answer: They join two or more substances into a larger molecule.
Explanation: Anabolism builds complex molecules from simpler ones.
10. An allosteric enzyme has which property?
Correct Answer: Its activity is regulated by binding of an effector at a site other
than the active site.
Explanation: Allosteric regulation controls enzyme activity.
11. A proteolytic enzyme has which property?
Correct Answer: It cleaves protein molecules into smaller units.
Explanation: Proteolytic enzymes digest proteins into peptides or amino acids.
12. Amylase has all of the following properties except:
Correct Answer: It cleaves proteins into amino acids.
Explanation: Amylase breaks down starch, not proteins.
13. Which is the primary determiner of protein function?
Correct Answer: Its spatial conformation
Explanation: The 3D shape of a protein determines its function.
14. Which is not involved in protein biosynthesis?
Correct Answer: Amylase
Explanation: Amylase is an enzyme, not part of protein synthesis machinery.
15. Amino acids in a protein are joined by:
Correct Answer: Peptide bonds
Explanation: Peptide bonds link amino acids together.
16. Protein catabolism can yield which of the following?
Correct Answer: Glucose
Explanation: Amino acids can be converted to glucose via gluconeogenesis.
17. Omega-3 fatty acids have which characteristic?
Correct Answer: A double bond three carbons from the end of the chain
Explanation: This defines omega-3 fatty acids.
18. Fatty acids are esterified into mono-, di-, or triglycerides by attaching to:
Correct Answer: Glycerol
Explanation: Glycerol forms the backbone of triglycerides.
19. Vitamin important in nitrogen transfer reactions:
Correct Answer: c. Vitamin B6
Explanation: Vitamin B6 is required for transamination reactions.
20. Vitamin used in high doses to treat hypercholesterolemia:
Correct Answer: b. Niacin
Explanation: Niacin lowers LDL cholesterol and increases HDL.

PHYSICS/ASTRONOMY
1. The Fahrenheit thermometer scale is
Correct Answer: No more accurate than the Celsius scale
Explanation: Accuracy depends on the thermometer, not on whether the scale is
Fahrenheit or Celsius.
2. The heat involved in the change of phase from solid ice to liquid water is
called
Correct Answer: Latent heat of fusion
Explanation: Fusion refers to the change from solid to liquid without temperature
change.
3. The energy supplied to a system in the form of heat, minus the work done
by the system, describes the
Correct Answer: First law of thermodynamics
Explanation: It states that energy is conserved: ΔU=Q−W\Delta U = Q -
WΔU=Q−W.
4. “Heat is supplied to a gas by a flame produces positive heat.” Is the
statement true?
Correct Answer: True, because supplying heat increases the internal energy of the
gas
Explanation: Adding heat increases the internal energy and usually the
temperature.
5. What is true of all combinations of resistors arranged in parallel?
Correct Answer: Current splits and voltage is constant
Explanation: In parallel circuits, current divides while voltage remains the same
across each branch.
6. What will be your charge if you scrape electrons from your feet while
scuffing across a rug?
Correct Answer: Positive
Explanation: Losing electrons leaves an excess of positive charge.
7. How will the electric force change if the distance between two charged
spheres is doubled?
Correct Answer: The force becomes one-fourth as large
Explanation: Coulomb’s law shows force is inversely proportional to the square of
the distance.
8. Which statement about the North magnetic pole of the Earth is true?
Correct Answer: It corresponds to the south pole of a bar magnet
Explanation: Opposite magnetic poles attract, so Earth’s north magnetic pole acts
like a south pole.
9. A coil of wire is placed in a changing magnetic field. If the number of turns is
decreased, what happens to the induced voltage?
Correct Answer: Decrease
Explanation: Induced voltage is directly proportional to the number of coil turns.
10. When an object vibrates at its natural frequency due to an external wave,
what occurs?
Correct Answer: Resonance
Explanation: Resonance happens when frequencies match, causing large
amplitude vibrations.
11. Sound waves that humans cannot hear have frequencies
Correct Answer: Below 20 Hz and above 20,000 Hz
Explanation: These are infrasonic and ultrasonic frequencies.
12. Sound travels faster in
Correct Answer: Solids compared to gases
Explanation: Particles are closest together in solids, allowing faster wave
transmission.
13. A ray of light enters glass at 36° from air. What is the refracted angle?
Correct Answer: 18°
Explanation: Light bends toward the normal when entering a denser medium.
14. Light rays enter a material and scatter. What happens to the light rays?
Correct Answer: Spread out in all directions
Explanation: Scattering causes light to travel in many random directions.
15. How does blackbody radiation change as temperature increases?
Correct Answer: Maximum intensity increases and peak wavelength decreases
Explanation: Hotter objects emit more energy and peak at shorter wavelengths.
16. Which statement about red and violet light is necessarily true?
Correct Answer: A single photon of violet light has more energy than a single
photon of red light
Explanation: Photon energy depends on frequency; violet light has higher
frequency.
17. Light has all of the following except
Correct Answer: Mass
Explanation: Photons have no rest mass but do have energy and momentum.
18. Under what condition can the exact position and velocity of an electron be
known at the same time?
Correct Answer: Never
Explanation: The Heisenberg uncertainty principle forbids this.
19. Fission fragments are typically
Correct Answer: Beta emitters
Explanation: Fission products are neutron-rich and undergo beta decay.
20. A reference system used to locate objects in the sky is
Correct Answer: Celestial coordinates
Explanation: Astronomers use coordinates like right ascension and declination.
21. The brightness of a star at a standard distance is called
Correct Answer: Absolute magnitude
Explanation: It measures intrinsic brightness at 10 parsecs.
22. How many degrees above the horizon is a star halfway to the zenith?
Correct Answer: 45°
Explanation: Horizon is 0°, zenith is 90°.
23. Planets are classified according to all except
Correct Answer: Inhabitants
Explanation: Classification is based on physical properties, not life.
24. The most widely accepted theory of solar system origin is
Correct Answer: Protoplanet nebular theory
Explanation: The solar system formed from a rotating cloud of gas and dust.

PHYSICS
1. Who advanced the mathematical theory that unified electricity and
magnetism?
Answer: Maxwell
Explanation: Maxwell’s equations unified electricity and magnetism into one theory
called electromagnetism.
2. Whose work laid the foundation for electric field lines and induction?
Answer: Faraday
Explanation: Faraday introduced field lines and discovered electromagnetic
induction.
3. A student increases voltage and current increases proportionally. What does
this show?
Answer: It obeys Ohm’s law
Explanation: Ohm’s law states that current is directly proportional to voltage at
constant resistance.
4. A massive star ends its life in a supernova. If the core is extremely massive,
what forms?
Answer: Black hole
Explanation: Extreme gravity causes the core to collapse into a black hole.
5. A ray strikes a smooth mirror at 40°. What is the angle of reflection?
Answer: 40°
Explanation: The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence.
6. A spectral line shifts toward red when a star moves away. What does this
indicate?
Answer: Lower observed frequency
Explanation: Redshift increases wavelength and decreases frequency.
7. Who first used a telescope to observe Jupiter’s moons?
Answer: Galileo
Explanation: Galileo discovered the four largest moons of Jupiter.
8. A nucleus emits an alpha particle. What happens to the nucleus?
Answer: Mass drops
Explanation: An alpha particle contains two protons and two neutrons.
9. Who stated that entropy of an isolated system never decreases?
Answer: Clausius
Explanation: This is the Second Law of Thermodynamics.
10. A thermos minimizes which heat transfer methods?
Answer: Conduction, convection, and radiation
Explanation: Vacuum insulation and reflective walls reduce all heat transfer modes.
11. Who invented the first chemical battery?
Answer: Volta
Explanation: Alessandro Volta invented the voltaic pile.
12. What happens to relative humidity at the dew point?
Answer: It reaches 100%
Explanation: Air becomes fully saturated with water vapor.
13. Two blocks of the same material are heated equally. Block A is 1 kg, Block
B is 2 kg. Which heats more?
Answer: Block A increases more
Explanation: Smaller mass results in a larger temperature change.
14. What mainly determines fringe spacing in Young’s double-slit experiment?
Answer: Wavelength
Explanation: Fringe spacing depends on the wavelength of light.
15. Which statement best describes temperature?
Answer: Average kinetic energy of particles
Explanation: Temperature measures particle motion, not total energy.
16. A gas is slowly compressed with no heat exchange. What happens to
internal energy?
Answer: Increases
Explanation: Work is done on the gas, increasing internal energy.
17. Which process describes heat transfer by direct contact?
Answer: Conduction
Explanation: Energy transfers through molecular collisions.
18. How can induced current be increased when pushing a magnet into a coil?
Answer: Move the magnet faster
Explanation: Faster motion causes a greater change in magnetic flux.
19. Who proposed the heliocentric model of the solar system?
Answer: Copernicus
Explanation: He placed the Sun at the center of the solar system.
20. A coin appears shallower in water because of what property of light?
Answer: Refraction
Explanation: Light bends when passing from water to air.
21. Alternating loud and soft spots from two speakers are caused by what?
Answer: Destructive interference
Explanation: Sound waves cancel at certain points.
22. Why does a compass needle point north–south?
Answer: Earth’s magnetic field
Explanation: The needle aligns with Earth’s magnetic field lines.
23. Increased compass deflection near a wire indicates what?
Answer: Stronger magnetic field
Explanation: Higher current creates a stronger magnetic field.
24. Heavy rain on the windward side and dry conditions on the leeward side is
called what?
Answer: Rain shadow
Explanation: Mountains block moist air, causing uneven rainfall.
25. Who explained the photoelectric effect?
Answer: Einstein
Explanation: He showed that light behaves as particles.
26. A charged particle moving perpendicular to a magnetic field follows what
path?
Answer: Circular path
Explanation: Magnetic force is perpendicular to velocity.
27. Who demonstrated the wave nature of light using the double-slit
experiment?
Answer: Young
Explanation: Interference patterns proved light behaves as a wave.
28. After a long time, what happens to current in a DC circuit with a capacitor?
Answer: It becomes zero
Explanation: A fully charged capacitor blocks DC current.
29. Why do isotopes of an element have different masses?
Answer: Different neutrons
Explanation: The number of protons stays the same, neutrons vary.
30. Photoelectric effect shows energy depends on what?
Answer: Frequency
Explanation: Photon energy depends on frequency, not intensity.
31. Who discovered the neutron?
Answer: Chadwick
Explanation: Discovered the neutron in 1932.
32. What change reverses the magnetic force on a current-carrying wire?
Answer: Reverse the current
Explanation: Force direction depends on current direction.
33. Gamma radiation mainly differs by having what property?
Answer: No mass
Explanation: Gamma rays are electromagnetic waves.
34. First human-made object to reach interstellar space?
Answer: Voyager 1
Explanation: It crossed the heliopause in 2012.
35. Copper heats faster than water because
Answer: Water has a higher specific heat capacity
Explanation: Water needs more energy to change temperature.
36. In an ideal step-up transformer, what happens to the current?
Answer: It decreases
Explanation: Power is conserved as voltage increases.
37. Cool air trapped near the ground at night forms what?
Answer: Radiation fog
Explanation: Ground cools by radiation at night.
38. Planets farther from the Sun take longer to orbit due to what law?
Answer: Kepler’s third law
Explanation: Orbital period increases with distance.
39. Who discovered the relationship between current and voltage?
Answer: Ohm
Explanation: Ohm’s law relates voltage, current, and resistance.
40. Who proposed the wave theory of light early on?
Answer: Huygens
Explanation: He suggested light propagates as waves.
41. A lens forming a real, inverted image must be what type?
Answer: Converging
Explanation: Only convex lenses form real images.
42. A wave entering a heavier rope changes how?
Answer: Slower speed
Explanation: Greater mass per length reduces wave speed.
43. Why do both poles of a magnet attract iron clips?
Answer: The clips become temporary magnets
Explanation: Magnetism is induced in the clips.
44. A total solar eclipse occurs when what alignment exists?
Answer: Moon between Sun and Earth
Explanation: The Moon blocks sunlight from reaching Earth.
45. Winds curve to the right in the Northern Hemisphere because of what?
Answer: Coriolis effect
Explanation: Earth’s rotation deflects moving air.
46. A star appears redder because
Answer: It is moving away
Explanation: This is due to Doppler redshift.
47. Light exceeds the critical angle in a denser medium. What happens?
Answer: Total internal reflection
Explanation: Light reflects completely inside the medium.
48. Increasing electron beam energy affects wavelength how?
Answer: It decreases
Explanation: Higher momentum shortens wavelength.
49. What happens during adiabatic expansion of a gas?
Answer: Temperature decreases
Explanation: The gas does work without heat input.
50. Three resistors in series (2 Ω, 3 Ω, 6 Ω) carry 2 A. What is the voltage?
Answer: 22 V
Explanation: Total resistance is 11 Ω, V = IR.
51. Why can a neutral metal sphere be attracted by a charged rod?
Answer: Polarization by induction
Explanation: Charges rearrange inside the sphere.
52. Who stayed in orbit during Apollo 11?
Answer: Michael Collins
Explanation: He piloted the command module.
53. What can be concluded about internal energy for different paths between
the same states?
Answer: It is the same
Explanation: Internal energy is a state function.
54. Who showed light is an electromagnetic wave?
Answer: Maxwell
Explanation: His equations predicted electromagnetic waves.
55. Where is the electric field zero between +q and +4q?
Answer: Closer to +q
Explanation: The stronger charge needs less distance to balance.
56. Who developed the distribution of particle energies in gases?
Answer: Maxwell
Explanation: This is the Maxwell–Boltzmann distribution.
57. Higher pitch as an ambulance approaches is due to what?
Answer: Doppler effect
Explanation: Frequency increases as the source approaches.
58. Why does ice melt at constant temperature?
Answer: Heat breaks molecular bonds
Explanation: Energy increases potential energy, not kinetic energy.
59. First human to orbit Earth in 1961?
Answer: Yuri Gagarin
Explanation: He flew aboard Vostok 1.
60. Earth’s axial tilt directly causes what?
Answer: Uneven sunlight
Explanation: Leads to seasonal changes.
61. Most effective way to strengthen an electromagnet?
Answer: Increase the number of turns
Explanation: More turns increase magnetic field strength.
62. Light stretched by the expansion of the universe is called what?
Answer: Cosmological redshift
Explanation: Space itself expands.
63. Who formulated the law of electric force between charges?
Answer: Coulomb
Explanation: Coulomb’s law describes electric force.
64. A neutron splitting a nucleus releases energy by what process?
Answer: Fission
Explanation: The nucleus breaks into smaller parts.
65. A wire stretched to twice its length with constant volume changes
resistance how?
Answer: Four times
Explanation: Length doubles and area halves.
66. Who introduced the idea that energy comes in discrete packets?
Answer: Planck
Explanation: Foundation of quantum theory.
67. Blue light bends more than red light in a prism because of what?
Answer: Higher refractive index
Explanation: Shorter wavelengths bend more.
68. Who discovered that the universe is expanding?
Answer: Hubble
Explanation: Observed galaxy redshifts.
69. What is the internal energy change in a cyclic process?
Answer: Zero
Explanation: The system returns to its original state.
70. A standing wave with four antinodes represents which harmonic?
Answer: Fourth harmonic
Explanation: Harmonic number equals antinodes.
71. Light enters a medium and its wavelength shortens while frequency stays
the same. What does this mean?
Answer: Light travels slower
Explanation: Speed decreases in denser media.
FACILITATING LEARNER-CENTERED TEACHING – REVIEWER

1. A class where students are praised for effort, persistence, and risk-taking
fosters what principle?
Answer: Intrinsic motivation
Explanation: Praising effort encourages students to learn for personal growth and
satisfaction.
2. If a teacher encourages students to take charge of goal-setting and self-
assessment, she is strengthening which element of learner-centered teaching?
Answer: Balance of power
Explanation: Students share responsibility and decision-making in the learning
process.
3. Which learner-centered philosophy emphasizes experience and problem-
solving as the heart of education?
Answer: Progressivism
Explanation: Progressivism focuses on learning by doing and solving real-world
problems.
4. Which teacher role aligns best with a learner-centered classroom?
Answer: Facilitator of inquiry
Explanation: The teacher guides learning instead of simply delivering information.
5. Which example best shows authentic assessment in a learner-centered
lesson?
Answer: A project where learners create a campaign on climate change
Explanation: Authentic assessment involves real-life, meaningful tasks.
6. A teacher uses project-based learning where students design a community
garden. This is most effective because it:
Answer: Promotes real-world application and collaboration
Explanation: Students apply knowledge while working together.
7. A teacher provides real-world case studies and lets students explore
solutions collaboratively. This reflects which dimension?
Answer: Function of content
Explanation: Content is used to develop problem-solving and thinking skills.
8. Which lesson objective best reflects learner-centeredness?
Answer: Students will use subject-verb agreement rules to compose their own
sentences
Explanation: Focuses on application, not memorization.
9. In blended learning, which approach ensures true learner-centeredness?
Answer: Learners interact with digital simulations and discuss in class
Explanation: Encourages active learning and reflection.
10. A teacher uses debates and gamification to engage students. Which
principle is illustrated?
Answer: Learner-centered instructional strategies
Explanation: Students are actively engaged in meaningful learning activities.
11. A student is consistently distracted; the teacher offers flexible seating and
targeted support. This is an example of:
Answer: Student-specific intervention
Explanation: Instruction is adapted to individual learner needs.
12. Which practice demonstrates balance of power?
Answer: Students help design grading rubrics
Explanation: Learners participate in assessment decisions.
13. Which classroom practice best applies social influences on learning?
Answer: Group collaboration to solve real-world problems
Explanation: Learning is enhanced through interaction with peers.
14. A student-specific discipline strategy includes:
Answer: Tailored interventions based on individual needs
Explanation: Discipline is adjusted based on learner behavior and context.
15. Which classroom routine builds a motivating learning environment?
Answer: Daily reflection journals
Explanation: Reflection increases motivation and self-awareness.
16. Peer critique using rubrics belongs to which planning element?
Answer: Evaluation
Explanation: Students assess learning progress.
17. Emphasizing fairness, respect, and care strengthens:
Answer: Social environment of learning
Explanation: A positive environment supports collaboration.
18. Allowing time to reflect before punishment illustrates:
Answer: Time for resolution
Explanation: Students learn self-regulation and responsibility.
19. Which stage aligns objectives, activities, and assessments?
Answer: Lesson planning
Explanation: Alignment is done before teaching begins.
20. Peer feedback using rubrics is an example of:
Answer: Learner-centered assessment
Explanation: Students actively participate in evaluation.
21. MISOSA is best suited for:
Answer: Elementary pupils who miss classes but continue through modules
Explanation: Designed for younger learners with home-based support.
22. Which best shows logical consequences?
Answer: Student who litters cleans the area
Explanation: The consequence is related to the behavior.
23. Which objective reflects HOTS?
Answer: Students will analyze the effects of pollution
Explanation: Analysis is a higher-order thinking skill.
24. Inquiry-based learning where students generate questions reflects:
Answer: Problem-based learning
Explanation: Students investigate and seek solutions independently.
25. Which part of the lesson plan explains how success is measured?
Answer: Assessment and evaluation
Explanation: This section determines how objectives are achieved.
26. Adapting activities for cultural and learning differences reflects:
Answer: Individual differences and diversity
Explanation: Instruction respects learner uniqueness.
27. A perennialist teacher emphasizes:
Answer: Mastery of classical works
Explanation: Focuses on timeless knowledge and truths.
28. Which ADM supports high school students who cannot attend regularly?
Answer: OHSP
Explanation: Provides flexible learning for secondary students.
29. Open-ended questions promote:
Answer: Critical and reflective thinking
Explanation: Encourages deeper reasoning and analysis.
30. Classroom rules co-created by students reflect:
Answer: Collaborative class norms
Explanation: Students share responsibility for classroom management
.
31. Flexible seating clusters best support:
Answer: Group learning
Explanation: Encourages collaboration and discussion.
32. A mobile ALS teacher reflects which principle?
Answer: Flexible learning
Explanation: Learning adapts to learners’ location and needs.
33. Best modality for remote areas with limited internet:
Answer: Distance learning with modules
Explanation: Does not rely on internet access.
34. Key pre-planning question in learner-centered teaching:
Answer: What prior knowledge do students bring?
Explanation: Builds new learning on existing understanding.
35. Constructivist activity example:
Answer: Learners design experiments
Explanation: Students actively construct knowledge.
36. Reflecting on learning strategies demonstrates:
Answer: Metacognition
Explanation: Thinking about one’s own thinking.
37. Calm-down space supports:
Answer: Emotional regulation
Explanation: Helps students manage emotions effectively.
38. Allowing small successes before harder tasks reflects:
Answer: Incremental scaffolding
Explanation: Support is gradually reduced as confidence grows.
39. Real-life problem integration highlights:
Answer: Context of learning
Explanation: Learning becomes meaningful when connected to life.
40. Jigsaw strategy emphasizes:
Answer: Collaboration and accountability
Explanation: Each learner contributes to group learning.
41. Designing own experiments after demo reflects which 5E stage?
Answer: Explore
Explanation: Students investigate concepts actively.
42. RA 10533 emphasizes:
Answer: Developing holistic, lifelong learners
Explanation: Focuses on cognitive, emotional, and social growth.
43. Creating test questions highlights:
Answer: Learner-centered evaluation
Explanation: Students take part in assessment.
44. Aligning objectives, activities, and assessment ensures:
Answer: Lesson coherence
Explanation: All lesson parts work toward the same goal.
45. Learners motivated by curiosity show:
Answer: Intrinsic motivation
Explanation: Motivation comes from enjoyment of learning.
46. Authentic assessment example:
Answer: Poster presentation on climate action
Explanation: Applies learning to real-world issues.
47. Learners creating podcasts or videos exemplify:
Answer: Learner-created media
Explanation: Students produce content to show understanding.
48. Inquiry through questioning strategy:
Answer: Inquiry-based learning
Explanation: Encourages curiosity and exploration.
49. Responsibility for learning emphasizes:
Answer: Student ownership
Explanation: Learners manage and monitor their progress.
50. Learner-centered classroom responsibility:
Answer: Take ownership of learning
Explanation: Students are active participants, not passive receivers.
51. Role play and simulation are effective because they:
Answer: Engage learners in experiential and applied learning
Explanation: Students practice real-life scenarios actively.
52. A learner-centered teacher who values students’ prior experiences is most
aligned with:
Answer: Constructivism
Explanation: Builds new knowledge from learners’ existing understanding.
53. Which factor strongly impacts persistence and resilience in learners?
Answer: Emotional and motivational influences
Explanation: Motivation and emotional support affect perseverance.
54. When a learner struggles, the teacher adapts strategies to meet their
needs. This shows:
Answer: Differentiated support
Explanation: Teaching is tailored to individual learner needs.
55. A teacher asking students to build mental diagrams of processes is using:
Answer: Mental models
Explanation: Helps learners visualize and organize knowledge.
56. Which lesson objective demonstrates application of knowledge?
Answer: Students will design a recycling program for their school
Explanation: Students apply learning to solve real-world problems.
57. Which strategy involves group experts teaching peers?
Answer: Jigsaw
Explanation: Promotes collaboration and accountability among learners.
58. A learner uses prior knowledge about local culture to better understand a
story. This applies:
Answer: Context of learning
Explanation: Learning is more meaningful when connected to personal experience.
59. A learner-centered lesson plan differs from a teacher-centered one because
it:
Answer: Prioritizes student engagement and responsibility
Explanation: Learners are active participants rather than passive receivers.
60. Which delivery modality uses digital tools primarily?
Answer: Technology-based e-learning
Explanation: Relies on digital platforms and online resources.
61. Which ADM requires parents, community, and teachers working together?
Answer: e-IMPACT
Explanation: Collaborative approach to support learning.
62. Which is a key feature of cooperative learning?
Answer: Group accountability and positive interdependence
Explanation: Learners share responsibility and support each other.
63. Which of the following shows the role of the instructor in a learner-
centered classroom?
Answer: Serving as facilitator and guide for inquiry
Explanation: Teacher guides learning rather than delivering content only.
64. A perennialist teacher would MOST likely emphasize:
Answer: Mastery of classical works and enduring truths
Explanation: Focus on timeless knowledge.
65. A class debate where students apply philosophical perspectives is an
example of:
Answer: Experiential learning
Explanation: Students actively apply knowledge in meaningful situations.
66. A learner creates flashcards to improve memory and checks progress
weekly. This illustrates:
Answer: Strategic thinking
Explanation: Learner plans, monitors, and evaluates their own learning.
67. Allowing students to suggest logical consequences for misbehavior
reflects:
Answer: Collaborative norms
Explanation: Students participate in maintaining fair discipline.
68. Learners working collaboratively and learning from each other reflects:
Answer: Social influences on learning
Explanation: Peer interaction enhances learning.
69. A teacher provides multiple pathways (visual, auditory, kinesthetic) to learn
a concept. This reflects:
Answer: Individual differences in learning
Explanation: Instruction adapts to learners’ strengths and preferences.
70. A class where students design their own rubrics for performance tasks
reflects which principle?
Answer: Balance of power
Explanation: Students share authority in assessment decisions.
71. A teacher adjusts expectations for younger learners versus older learners.
This shows sensitivity to:
Answer: Developmental influences
Explanation: Activities match learners’ cognitive and age-related abilities.
72. A calm space in class is MOST useful for:
Answer: Allowing students to self-regulate emotions
Explanation: Supports emotional regulation and reflection.
73. Peer review activities in class emphasize:
Answer: Collaborative assessment
Explanation: Learners assess each other to support growth.
74. In a learner-centered model, assessment is primarily used to:
Answer: Support learning and improvement
Explanation: Assessment guides growth rather than punishing or ranking learners.

EDUC 10 21st Century Literacy & Financial Literacy

1. What type of literacy refers to an understanding of ethnic groups and the
complex issues of diversity and citizenship?
Answer: Multicultural literacy
Explanation: Focuses on understanding cultural diversity, equity, and citizenship.
2. The 21st Century Curriculum has the following attributes EXCEPT ONE
Answer: Teacher-centered
Explanation: 21st-century curriculum is learner-centered, emphasizing
collaboration, inquiry, and active learning.
3. What does developing strong literacy skills among students require?
Answer: Integrating technology-enhanced educational tools into their work
Explanation: Strong literacy today involves the use of technology to support
reading, writing, research, and communication skills.
4. Emotional Intelligence (EQ) according to Goleman (1986) is having the
ability to
Answer: Manage emotions
Explanation: EQ emphasizes regulating one’s own emotions and handling
relationships effectively.
5. Globalization in the context of new literacies refers to
Answer: The increasing interconnectedness of people and cultures around the world
Explanation: Focuses on global communication, culture, and information exchange,
especially via technology.
6. Eco-literacy, or environmental literacy, is the ability to
Answer: Understand natural systems and the impact of human actions on them
Explanation: Promotes awareness of environmental systems and sustainable
practices.
7. The term "21st Century Skills" is often used interchangeably with new
literacies and includes
Answer: Critical thinking, communication, collaboration, and creativity
Explanation: Known as the 4Cs, these skills are essential for modern education and
problem-solving.
8. What refers to an estimation of revenue and expenses over a specified
future period?
Answer: Budget
Explanation: A budget is a financial plan projecting income and expenses.
9. One who is financially literate follows which formula in managing finances?
Answer: Earnings – Savings = Expenses
Explanation: Encourages saving first, then spending remaining income.
10. What is one of the primary benefits of integrating financial literacy into the
school curriculum?
Answer: It teaches students how to manage personal finances and make informed
financial decisions
Explanation: Financial literacy equips students with practical life skills like budgeting
and saving.
11. Which traditional paper-and-pen test can assess multicultural skills?
Answer: Essay
Explanation: Essays allow students to reflect, express understanding, and relate to
personal experiences.
12. Which of the following best describes the 21st Century teacher?
Answer: Multiliterate
Explanation: Competent in multiple literacies such as digital, media, multicultural,
and global literacies.
13. What do you call the ability of a teacher to adapt to various learning styles
and needs of learners?
Answer: Flexible
Explanation: Being flexible allows teachers to adjust strategies to meet diverse
learner needs.
14. What refers to a life and career skill that demonstrates integrity and ethical
behavior in using influence and power?
Answer: Leadership and Responsibility
Explanation: Emphasizes ethical leadership and accountability.
15. Which is the most recommended mode of instructional delivery that
addresses gaps on distance to increase learning opportunities?
Answer: Blended Learning
Explanation: Combines online and face-to-face instruction to reduce distance
barriers.
16. What refers to the 21st century skill that entails demonstrating ability to
work effectively and respectfully with diverse teams?
Answer: Collaboration
Explanation: Collaboration involves productive teamwork and respecting diverse
perspectives.
17. What is the focus of multicultural literacy?
Answer: Issues on identity, diversity and citizenship
Explanation: Centers on understanding identity, diversity, equity, and citizenship in
society.
18. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a key component of
new literacies?
Answer: Memorizing details
Explanation: New literacies emphasize critical thinking, technology use,
communication, and meaning-making.
19. Which of the following are skills associated with Media Literacy?
Answer: Managing the flow of information from a wide variety of sources
Explanation: Media literacy involves accessing, analyzing, and managing
information from multiple media sources.
20. Which instructional material is the best self-directed means of attaining
functional literacy?
Answer: Community resources and real-life fields
Explanation: Real-life, community-based experiences allow learners to apply skills
independently.
21. Development and assessment of new literacies may be associated with a
significant challenge. Which of the following is that?
Answer: All of the Above
Explanation: Challenges include lack of standardized tools, limited access to
technology, and resistance to change.
22. Global competence is necessary due to the following reasons EXCEPT
Answer: To use media platforms to advance personal advocacies
Explanation: Global competence focuses on cultural understanding, trends, and
harmonious living—not personal advocacy.
23. The paradigm shift from the 20th to the 21st century shows how modalities
in education have evolved. Curriculum should then be designed according to
the following EXCEPT
Answer: Uniquely independent from other disciplines
Explanation: 21st-century curriculum is interdisciplinary, not isolated.
24. The curriculum of the 21st century schools is project-based,
interdisciplinary, and research-driven. What does this mean?
Answer: Teachers should engage students in addressing real-world problems and
humanity concerns and issues
Explanation: Emphasizes authentic problem-solving and application to societal
issues.
25. Which of the following learning outcomes best reflects an integration of
multicultural and global literacies?
Answer: Suggest ways in promoting multiculturalism and addressing conflict issues
Explanation: Encourages learners to apply multicultural understanding to real-world
challenges.
26. Schools have become open to the idea of a borderless global society.
Which among the following educational practices support the multicultural
perspectives towards globalization?
Answer: I, II, III, and IV
Explanation: All listed programs promote global engagement and cultural
understanding.
27. Which is the best strategy for reducing bullying in school?
Answer: Divert students’ attention by engaging them in various activities
Explanation: Positive engagement promotes inclusion, cooperation, and
constructive behavior.
28. According to reports, a great number of students have been diagnosed
with suicidal tendencies due to peer pressure, stress, home struggles,
environment and media influence. How can this be resolved?
Answer: Strong counseling program
Explanation: Counseling addresses emotional, psychological, and social needs of
students.
29. Which of the following best defines social literacy?
Answer: The ability to understand and navigate social situations, relationships, and
cultural norms effectively
Explanation: Social literacy is about interpreting, responding, and interacting
appropriately in social contexts.
30. Why is social literacy considered an essential component of 21st-century
education?
Answer: It helps develop empathy, collaboration, and conflict resolution skills
necessary for personal and professional success
Explanation: Equips students with interpersonal skills vital for life and work.
31. Surveys reveal that some teachers face their retirement without savings.
What are the reasons behind this?
Answer: I and IV only – Culture of extended family dependency & Lack of priority on
retirement preparation during earning years
Explanation: Extended family responsibilities and not planning for retirement are
key reasons.
32. Which of the following best supports the inclusion of financial literacy in
schools?
Answer: It promotes long-term financial well-being
Explanation: Financial literacy equips students to manage money wisely and plan
for the future.
33. Which of the following classroom activities best illustrates the integration
of global and multicultural literacy?
Answer: Students collaborate on a project with a partner class in another country via
video call
Explanation: Promotes cross-cultural communication, understanding, and
collaboration.
34. Which of the following represents the most significant challenge for a
school seeking to implement a comprehensive new literacies curriculum?
Answer: Providing professional development for teachers to keep up with changing
technologies and pedagogies
Explanation: Teachers need continuous training to implement new literacies
effectively.
35. Evaluate the following pedagogical approaches. Which would be the most
effective for fostering genuine multicultural literacy?
Answer: Integrating diverse perspectives, authors, and histories into the core
curriculum throughout the year
Explanation: True multicultural literacy requires consistent integration, not just
celebrations or displays.
36. Being charismatic towards others means that one is able to
Answer: Accommodate and approach people, even strangers
Explanation: Charisma involves approachability, warmth, and ability to connect with
others.
37. Which of the following helps promote practical financial literacy skills
among students?
Answer: Using simulations and project-based learning
Explanation: Hands-on, applied learning is key for understanding financial
concepts.
38. What is the most critical reason for teaching digital citizenship in schools?
Answer: To prepare students to be safe, ethical, and responsible participants in a
digital world
Explanation: Digital citizenship teaches responsible and ethical online behavior.
39. To enable students to develop 21st century skills, schools are trying to get
rid of a one-size-fits-all system. The following are implications to the teacher
education program EXCEPT
Answer: Utilizing time-tested student assessment methods
Explanation: Traditional assessments do not align with personalized, skills-based,
21st-century education.
40. The skills on Productivity and Accountability have students demonstrate
attributes associated with producing high quality products. This calls for the
ability to
Answer: Balance tactical and strategic goals
Explanation: Ensures effective planning and execution to produce high-quality
outputs.
41. What is a potential challenge associated with implementing a
multidisciplinary approach to integration?
Answer: Difficulty in coordinating efforts and resolving conflicting viewpoints
Explanation: Multidisciplinary teams can face coordination and conflict challenges.
42. How can you effectively integrate values in a Mathematics class?
Answer: Use practical life applications of math concepts and then draw the implied
values
Explanation: Values are best integrated through real-life application, not just posting
them on the board.
43. Which activities in the curriculum help develop functional literacy to its
optimum?
Answer: I, II, III, and IV
Explanation: Experiential, applied, and service-oriented activities develop functional
literacy across disciplines.
44. As a future teacher what will you do to practice transdisciplinary approach
to teaching?
Answer: Incorporate current issues on economic crises, government expenditures,
and currency inflation in teaching business analysis
Explanation: Transdisciplinary teaching connects real-world issues across multiple
disciplines.
45. When researching data from the internet, which of the following reminders
should be taken into account to avoid complications, risks, and negative
consequences?
Answer: I, II, and III
Explanation: Choose credible sources, cite references, and rephrase content. Avoid
copying graphics without permission.
46. How does the concept of a "digital native" differ from a "digital
immigrant"?
Answer: Digital natives grew up with technology, while digital immigrants adapted to
it later in life
Explanation: Natives are comfortable with technology from birth, immigrants learn it
later.
47. Which activity can eco-literacy be integrated in the curriculum?
Answer: Conducting an activity plan for nature protection project
Explanation: Eco-literacy emphasizes hands-on understanding and application of
environmental knowledge.
48. A high school social studies class is analyzing the impact of a
multinational corporation on a developing country's economy and
environment. This lesson connects which two literacies?
Answer: Financial literacy and ecoliteracy
Explanation: Economic impacts relate to financial literacy, environmental impacts
relate to eco-literacy.
49. Why is it important to integrate new literacies across the curriculum rather
than teaching them as a separate subject?
Answer: It is best learned through application in various subjects
Explanation: Application in different subjects promotes authentic learning.
50. A student is researching a controversial topic online and finds conflicting
information. What is the first step they should take to apply their digital
literacy skills?
Answer: Evaluate the credibility and bias of the sources
Explanation: Digital literacy involves critical assessment of information.
EDUC 1 CHILD AND ADOLESCENT
1. What is considered an evidence of life?
Answer: A. Growth
Explanation: Growth is a basic characteristic that shows a living organism is
developing.
2. Development that is continuous through life span includes growth and
_____.
Answer: A. Decline
Explanation: Development includes both positive (growth) and negative (decline)
changes.
3. Development of muscular control from trunk to limbs shows development is
_____.
Answer: C. Orderly
Explanation: Development follows a predictable sequence.
4. Because it involves biological, cognitive, and socio-emotional processes,
development is _____.
Answer: C. Complex
Explanation: Development is influenced by many interacting factors.
5. The principle that development does not happen overnight is _____.
Answer: C. Gradually
Explanation: Development occurs step by step over time.
7. A very active 4-year-old child is in what stage?
Answer: B. Early childhood
Explanation: Ages 2–6 are marked by high energy and playfulness.
8. Identity exploration and self-expression describe what period?
Answer: B. Adolescence
Explanation: Adolescents explore identity and individuality.
9. Learning fire burns through experience shows learning _____.
Answer: D. All of these
Explanation: Learning can happen with or without formal teaching.
10. A simple task expected when entering school is _____.
Answer: B. Controlling body functions
Explanation: Self-control is part of school readiness.
11. Most influential early theory of personality?
Answer: C. Freud
Explanation: Freud’s psychoanalytic theory influenced many later theories.
12. Unmet needs in psychosexual stages lead to _____.
Answer: A. Fixation
Explanation: Fixation causes personality issues later in life.
13. Interest in sex differences occurs in what stage?
Answer: B. Phallic
Explanation: Children become aware of gender differences.
14. Oral receptive personality may result in _____.
Answer: D. All of these
Explanation: Includes smoking, drinking, overeating.
15. Oral aggressive personality tends to _____.
Answer: D. All of these
Explanation: Includes nail-biting, cursing, gossiping.
16. Toilet training occurs in which stage?
Answer: B. Anal
Explanation: Focus is on bowel and bladder control.
17. Personality part focused on basic needs?
Answer: A. Id
Explanation: Id seeks immediate satisfaction.
18. Crying for food or comfort shows the _____.
Answer: B. Id
Explanation: The id follows the pleasure principle.
19. Ego operates using what principle?
Answer: A. Reality principle
Explanation: Ego balances desires with reality.
20. A well-adjusted person has a strong _____.
Answer: A. Ego
Explanation: Ego balances id and superego.
21. Cognitive structures used to organize knowledge are called _____.
Answer: A. Schema
Explanation: Schemas help interpret information.
22. Theory emphasizing understanding the world logically?
Answer: B. Piaget
Explanation: Piaget focused on cognitive development.
23. Intelligence becomes intuitive in what stage?
Answer: B. Pre-operational
Explanation: Thinking is intuitive, not logical.
24. Reflexive behaviors occur in what stage?
Answer: A. Sensori-motor
Explanation: Learning through senses and actions.
25. Child begins interacting with environment in what stage?
Answer: B. Sensori-motor
Explanation: Learning through direct interaction.
26. Teachers should provide infants with _____.
Answer: A. Rich and stimulating environment
Explanation: Supports exploration and learning.
27. Knowing objects still exist when unseen is _____.
Answer: B. Object permanence
Explanation: A key sensori-motor milestone.
28. Using symbols to represent objects shows _____.
Answer: A. Symbolic function
Explanation: Foundation of language and imagination.
29. Understanding 2+3=5 but not 5−3=2 shows _____.
Answer: B. Irreversibility
Explanation: Difficulty reversing actions mentally.
30. Ability to see multiple features of objects is _____.
Answer: B. Decentering
Explanation: Child considers more than one aspect.

31. Using relationships to solve similar problems is _____.

Answer: A. Analogical
Explanation: Applying known relationships.
32. Freud-influenced but socially oriented theory?
Answer: B. Erikson
Explanation: Added social and cultural factors.
33. Eight stages with psychosocial crises belong to _____.
Answer: C. Psycho-social
Explanation: Erikson’s theory.
34. Healthy personality and virtues explained by _____.
Answer: C. Erikson’s theory
Explanation: Each stage builds ego strength.
35. Consistent infant care develops _____.
Answer: B. Trust
Explanation: First psychosocial task.
36. Directing play and planning activities stage?
Answer: C. Initiative vs guilt
Explanation: Preschool children develop initiative.
37. Knowing who you are is _____.
Answer: B. Ego identity
Explanation: Central task of adolescence.
38. Theory about moral reasoning?
Answer: B. Stages of Moral Development
Explanation: Kohlberg’s theory.
39. Moral level based on punishment avoidance?
Answer: A. Pre-conventional
Explanation: Actions guided by consequences.
40. Acting to gain approval reflects _____.
Answer: A. Conventional
Explanation: Behavior based on social expectations.
41. Following school rules shows _____.
Answer: A. Conventional
Explanation: Respect for authority and rules.
42. Theory stressing social interaction in learning?
Answer: C. Vygotsky
Explanation: Learning occurs through social context.
43. Environmental systems affecting development?
Answer: D. All of these
Explanation: Bronfenbrenner’s theory.
44. Mesosystem example?
Answer: B. Peers
Explanation: Interaction between social settings.
45. Parent’s workplace belongs to _____.
Answer: B. Exosystem
Explanation: Indirect environmental influence.
46. Concrete operational stage begins at _____.
Answer: B. 7–11 or 12
Explanation: Logical thinking with concrete objects.
47. Dependably met infant needs develop _____.
Answer: B. Trust
Explanation: Sense of security forms.
48. Enjoyment in accomplishing tasks shows _____.
Answer: C. Industry
Explanation: Competence development.
49. Preschool planning and leading tasks is _____.
Answer: A. Initiative
Explanation: Children take leadership roles.
50. Returning a lost wallet shows _____.
Answer: D. Honesty
Explanation: Moral uprightness.
51. Who introduced scaffolding?
Answer: D. J. Bruner
Explanation: Guided learning support.
52. Bandura emphasized learning through _____.
Answer: D. Imitation and modeling
Explanation: Observational learning.
53. External forces causing reactions are _____.
Answer: C. Stimuli
Explanation: Triggers responses.
54. Responsive systems in prenatal development?
Answer: A. Central nervous system
Explanation: Includes brain and spinal cord.
55. Brain changes most after birth during _____.
Answer: A. Infancy–toddlerhood
Explanation: Rapid brain development.
56. Bruner stage responding to sensory stimuli?
Answer: A. Enactive
Explanation: Learning by doing.
57. Gross motor skills include _____.
Answer: D. All of these
Explanation: Uses large muscles.
58. Small-muscle skills include _____.
Answer: D. A & C
Explanation: Fine motor coordination.
59. Understanding oneself is _____.
Answer: C. Intrapersonal
Explanation: Self-awareness.
60. Learning by stimulus–response association is _____.
Answer: A. Connectionism
Explanation: Thorndike’s learning theory.

PLANT AND ANIMAL BIOLOGY

1.  As green plants make food, they are called
Answer: Producers
Explanation: Plants make their own food through photosynthesis.
2.  Generally, there are two types of cells on Earth
Answer: Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Explanation: Prokaryotes have no nucleus; eukaryotes have a nucleus.
3.  Which are properties of life?
Answer: All of the choices above
Explanation: Living things have cells, DNA, metabolism, and reproduction.
4.  Organisms in the plant kingdom
Answer: Are photosynthetic and have cell walls
Explanation: Plants make food and have rigid cell walls.
5.  Oil separates from water because oils
Answer: Are hydrophobic and lipids
Explanation: Oil does not mix with water.
6.  Water cohesion is caused by
Answer: Hydrogen bonding
Explanation: Hydrogen bonds hold water molecules together.
7.  In a chemical equation, H₂ are reactants and H₂O are
Answer: Products
Explanation: Reactants form products in reactions.
8.  Organic compounds always contain
Answer: Carbon
Explanation: Carbon is the basis of organic molecules.
9.  Dehydration reactions
Answer: All choices are correct
Explanation: They form water and covalent bonds.
10.  Dehydration reactions are reversed by
Answer: Hydrolysis
Explanation: Water breaks polymers into monomers.
11.  Cell Theory states
Answer: All living things are made of cells
Explanation: Cells come from pre-existing cells.
12.  Membranous compartmentalization allows
Answer: Different processes to occur simultaneously
Explanation: Organelles have specific functions.
13.  Lysosomes
Answer: All of the choices are correct
Explanation: They digest waste and recycle materials.
14.  The Fluid Mosaic Model refers to
Answer: A, B, and C
Explanation: The membrane is flexible with moving proteins.
15.  Osmosis is
Answer: Diffusion of water
Explanation: Water moves across a membrane.
16.  Transport that requires ATP
Answer: Active transport
Explanation: Energy is needed to move substances.
17.  Most enzymes are
Answer: Proteins
Explanation: Enzymes speed up chemical reactions.
18.  Enzymes work by
Answer: Lowering activation energy
Explanation: This makes reactions faster.
19.  Which statement is false about enzymes?
Answer: Enzymes are used up in reactions
Explanation: Enzymes are reused.
20.  High fever is dangerous because
Answer: Enzymes may denature
Explanation: High temperature damages enzyme shape.
21.  Enzyme activity is affected by
Answer: All of the choices
Explanation: Temperature, pH, and inhibitors affect enzymes.
22.  Selectively permeable membrane means
Answer: Some substances pass more easily than others
Explanation: Not everything can enter or exit the cell.
23.  Prokaryotes are classified into
Answer: Domain Bacteria and Domain Archaea
Explanation: Both lack a nucleus.
24.  The Gulf of Mexico dead zone is caused by
Answer: Eutrophication
Explanation: Fertilizer runoff lowers oxygen levels.
25.  Levels of organization from largest to smallest
Answer: Communities, populations, organs, tissues, cells
Explanation: Organization moves from complex to simple.
26.  Taxonomic ranks from most to least inclusive
Answer: Domain, kingdom, class, order, family, genus, species
Explanation: Domain is broadest; species is most specific.
27.  Four major biological molecules
Answer: Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids
Explanation: These molecules build and run cells.
28.  Phospholipids have
Answer: Polar heads and non-polar tails
Explanation: This structure forms cell membranes.
29.  Not considered a plant organ
Answer: Shoot
Explanation: Shoot is a system, not a single organ.
30.  Average lifespan of red blood cells
Answer: 120 days
Explanation: Old RBCs are recycled by the body.
31.  Brain part acting as a sensory relay
Answer: Midbrain
Explanation: Controls eye reflexes.
32.  Final stage of mitosis
Answer: Telophase
Explanation: The nucleus reforms.
33.  Beetles belong to the order
Answer: Coleoptera
Explanation: Beetles have hard wing covers.
34.  Major protein in connective tissue
Answer: Collagen
Explanation: Provides strength and support.
35.  Protein digestion begins in the
Answer: Stomach
Explanation: Pepsin breaks proteins down.
36.  Organelle responsible for photosynthesis
Answer: Chloroplast
Explanation: Contains chlorophyll.
37.  Basic unit of life
Answer: Cell
Explanation: All organisms are made of cells.
38.  Plant tissue that transports water
Answer: Xylem
Explanation: Moves water upward.
39.  A flowering plant
Answer: Mango tree
Explanation: Produces flowers and fruits.
40.  Water loss through leaves is called
Answer: Transpiration
Explanation: Water exits through stomata.
41.  Site of cellular respiration
Answer: Mitochondria
Explanation: Produces ATP.
42.  Symmetry of a starfish
Answer: Radial
Explanation: Body parts radiate from the center.
43.  Insects belong to which phylum
Answer: Arthropoda
Explanation: They have jointed legs.
44.  Plants appear green because
Answer: They reflect green light
Explanation: Chlorophyll reflects green wavelengths.
45.  Root hairs are important because they
Answer: Increase water absorption
Explanation: They increase surface area.
46.  Function of stomata
Answer: Gas exchange
Explanation: Allows CO₂ and O₂ movement.
47.  Warm-blooded animals maintain body temperature to
Answer: Maintain proper enzyme activity
Explanation: Enzymes work best at stable temperatures.
48.  Purpose of the cuticle in leaves
Answer: Prevent water loss
Explanation: Waxy layer reduces evaporation.
49.  The heart is a double pump because
Answer: It pumps blood in two directions
Explanation: Pulmonary and systemic circulation.
50.  Earthworms benefit soil by
Answer: Burrowing and aerating it
Explanation: Improves soil quality.
51.  Xylem and phloem are grouped to
Answer: Transport water and nutrients efficiently
Explanation: Forms vascular bundles.
52.  Amphibians are transitional between
Answer: Fishes and reptiles
Explanation: They live in water and on land.
53.  Primary function of the skeletal system
Answer: Protection and structure
Explanation: Supports the body.
54.  To help a wilting plant
Answer: Water the plant
Explanation: Restores turgor pressure.
55.  Yellowing leaves may indicate
Answer: Chlorophyll deficiency
Explanation: Lack of nutrients.
56.  Damaged frog skin affects
Answer: Respiration
Explanation: Frogs breathe through skin.
57.  Test for starch in a leaf
Answer: Iodine solution
Explanation: Turns blue-black with starch.
58.  Blocked pulmonary artery affects the
Answer: Lungs
Explanation: It carries blood to the lungs.
59.  To identify monocot or dicot, examine
Answer: Leaf veins
Explanation: Parallel or net-like veins.
60.  Animal with backbone and gills
Answer: Fish
Explanation: Aquatic vertebrate.
61.  To reduce soil erosion, plant
Answer: Perennial plants with deep roots
Explanation: Roots hold soil.
62.  Crop rotation is practiced because it
Answer: Prevents soil nutrient depletion
Explanation: Different crops use different nutrients.
63.  Comparing breathing rate after running applies
Answer: Scientific method
Explanation: Uses observation and comparison.
64.  Broad leaves indicate growth in an
Answer: Aquatic environment
Explanation: Large surface area helps photosynthesis.
65.  Correct structure–function match
Answer: Stomata – gas exchange
Explanation: Allows gas movement.
66.  A decrease in prey population causes
Answer: Predator population to decrease
Explanation: Less food available.
67.  Structure unique to plant cells
Answer: Cell wall
Explanation: Provides rigidity.
 68.  Drought affecting plants and animals shows
Answer: Ecosystem interdependence
Explanation: Organisms rely on each other.
69.  Stomata close to
Answer: Prevent water loss
Explanation: Conserves water.
70.  Ectothermic animals
Answer: Change body temperature with environment
Explanation: Cold-blooded animals.
71.  Plant organ for sexual reproduction
Answer: Flower
Explanation: Produces seeds.
72.  Best way to reduce pesticide use
Answer: Integrated pest management
Explanation: Uses natural and controlled methods.
73.  To increase forest biodiversity
Answer: Allow multiple native species to grow
Explanation: More species create a stable ecosystem.

GENETICS
1. What is the basic unit of heredity?
Answer: B) Gene
Explanation: A gene carries hereditary information passed from parents to
offspring.
2. Which of the following is NOT a nitrogenous base found in DNA?
Answer: C) Uracil
Explanation: Uracil is found in RNA, not DNA.
3. What is the process by which DNA makes a copy of itself?
Answer: C) Replication
Explanation: Replication produces an identical DNA copy.
4. The structure of DNA was discovered by whom?
Answer: C) Watson and Crick
Explanation: They proposed the double-helix structure of DNA.
5. What is the term for a variant form of a gene?
Answer: B) Allele
Explanation: Alleles are different versions of the same gene.
6. What is the name of the structure where proteins are synthesized?
Answer: B) Ribosome
Explanation: Ribosomes assemble amino acids into proteins.
7. Which of the following is the start codon?
Answer: C) AUG
Explanation: AUG signals the start of translation.
8. Explain the central dogma of molecular biology.
Answer: C) DNA → RNA → Protein
Explanation: Genetic information flows from DNA to RNA to protein.
9. What is the difference between genotype and phenotype?
Answer: B) Genotype is genetic makeup, phenotype is physical trait
Explanation: Genotype refers to genes, phenotype refers to appearance.
10. What does it mean for a trait to be autosomal recessive?
Answer: B) Located on a non-sex chromosome and requires two copies
Explanation: Two recessive alleles are needed for expression.
11. Describe the role of tRNA in translation.
Answer: B) It carries amino acids to the ribosome
Explanation: tRNA matches codons with amino acids.
12. Explain the concept of genetic linkage.
Answer: B) Genes close together on the same chromosome are inherited
together
Explanation: Linked genes do not assort independently.
13. What is the significance of the promoter region in gene expression?
Answer: B) It is where transcription begins
Explanation: RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
14. If BB marries bb, what is the probability of blue-eyed children?
Answer: A) 0%
Explanation: Brown is dominant, all offspring are Bb.
15. Aa × aa gives what percentage of aa?
Answer: C) 50%
Explanation: Half inherit two recessive alleles.
16. Heterozygous red × white flower gives which genotypes?
Answer: B) Rr and rr
Explanation: Offspring may be red or white.
17. AB × O blood group gives which offspring types?
Answer: A) A and B
Explanation: The O parent contributes only i allele.
18. Carrier mother × normal father (hemophilia), chance son is affected?
Answer: C) 50%
Explanation: Sons inherit X chromosome from mother.
19. Complementary strand of 5′-ATG-3′ is
Answer: C) 3′-TAC-5′
Explanation: A pairs with T, G with C.
20. How does natural selection affect genetic variation?
Answer: B) It decreases genetic variation
Explanation: Less-fit traits are eliminated.
21. What are the consequences of mutation in a regulatory gene?
Answer: D) Altered gene expression
Explanation: Regulation controls gene activity.
22. Impact of genetic drift on small populations?
Answer: B) It decreases genetic diversity
Explanation: Random changes affect allele frequency.
23. How do epigenetic modifications influence gene expression?
Answer: C) By affecting DNA accessibility
Explanation: They turn genes on or off without changing DNA.
24. Role of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering?
Answer: B) To cut DNA at specific sequences
Explanation: They act as molecular scissors.
25. Compare mitosis and meiosis.
Answer: A) Mitosis produces identical cells, meiosis produces different cells
Explanation: Meiosis creates variation.
26. How to determine if a trait is genetically linked to a chromosome?
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Multiple approaches confirm linkage.
27. Method of gene therapy?
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Genes can be replaced, added, or inactivated.
28. CRISPR-Cas9 strategy to correct mutation?
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Requires guide RNA, Cas9, and repair DNA.
29. How do non-coding RNAs regulate gene expression?
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: They regulate transcription and translation.
30. Ethical implications of genetic testing?
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: It may cause discrimination and stress.
31. Role of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: It increases diversity and adaptation.
32. Benefits and risks of GMOs?
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: GMOs have advantages and environmental risks.
33. Use of gene editing technologies in humans?
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: It has medical benefits and ethical issues.
34. Validity of heritability claims?
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Environment and population affect heritability.
35. Reliability of evolutionary relationship methods?
Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: Each method has limitations.
36. What is a codon?
Answer: A) A sequence of three nucleotides coding for an amino acid
Explanation: Codons are read during translation.
37. Example of a frameshift mutation
Answer: Insertion or deletion of nucleotides
Explanation: It shifts the reading frame.
38. Role of DNA ligase in replication?
Answer: C) To join DNA fragments
Explanation: It connects Okazaki fragments.
39. How does the environment influence phenotype?
Answer: B) Environment can alter gene expression
Explanation: Traits depend on genes and environment.
40. Significance of telomeres?
Answer: A) Protect chromosome ends
Explanation: They prevent DNA loss.
41. Enzyme needed by RNA virus to replicate?
Answer: C) Reverse transcriptase
Explanation: Converts RNA into DNA.
42. Which is NOT an epigenetic mechanism?
Answer: C) Alternative splicing
Explanation: It occurs after transcription.
43. Difference between proto-oncogene and oncogene?
Answer: C) Oncogenes are mutated cancer-causing genes
Explanation: Proto-oncogenes are normal growth genes.
44. How does CRISPR-Cas9 work?
Answer: A) Uses RNA to cut DNA at specific sites
Explanation: Guide RNA directs Cas9 enzyme.
45. Role of ribosome in protein synthesis?
Answer: C) Translate mRNA into protein
Explanation: Ribosomes assemble amino acids.
46. Example of post-translational modification?
Answer: C) Glycosylation
Explanation: Proteins are modified after translation.
47. Purpose of gel electrophoresis?
Answer: B) Separate DNA fragments by size
Explanation: Smaller fragments move faster.
48. Role of microRNAs in gene regulation?
Answer: B) Bind to mRNA and block translation
Explanation: They silence gene expression.
49. Characteristic of cancer cells?
Answer: B) Ability to invade other tissues
Explanation: Cancer cells spread uncontrollably.
50. Purpose of a test cross?
Answer: A) Determine genotype of dominant phenotype
Explanation: It reveals hidden recessive alleles.
CELL & MOLECULAR BIOLOGY REVIEWER
1. In eukaryotic cells, which sequence correctly lists the major stages of
aerobic respiration?
Answer: B. Glycolysis → Krebs cycle → Oxidative phosphorylation
Explanation: Cells first break glucose, then extract electrons, then make most ATP.
2. Glycolysis directly produces which products per glucose?
Answer: A. ATP, NADH, pyruvate
Explanation: Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm and does not need oxygen.
3. Krebs cycle occurs in which location?
Answer: B. Mitochondrial matrix
Explanation: Enzymes of the Krebs cycle are inside the mitochondria.
4. Which best describes oxidative phosphorylation?
Answer: B. ATP production driven by a proton gradient
Explanation: ATP synthase uses proton flow to make ATP.
5. What happens if the inner mitochondrial membrane becomes permeable to
protons?
Answer: B. Oxidative phosphorylation ATP drops sharply
Explanation: Proton gradient is lost, so ATP synthase cannot work.
6. Yeast without oxygen but with glucose—what happens?
Answer: C. Fermentation increases to regenerate NAD⁺
Explanation: Fermentation allows glycolysis to continue.
7. Why can muscle cells keep contracting briefly without oxygen?
Answer: A. Glycolysis continues with lactate formation
Explanation: ATP is still made by substrate-level phosphorylation.
8. Species X uses nitrate; Species Y makes lactate—what is correct?
Answer: B. X = anaerobic respiration, Y = fermentation
Explanation: Only X uses an electron transport chain.
9. Complex I of ETC is inactive—what happens?
Answer: A. ATP from NADH drops; FADH₂ still works
Explanation: FADH₂ enters at Complex II.
10. After complete aerobic respiration, radioactive carbon is found in?
Answer: B. CO₂
Explanation: Glucose carbons are released as carbon dioxide.
11. Pyruvate transport into mitochondria is blocked—what happens?
Answer: B. Increased lactate; decreased Krebs cycle
Explanation: Pyruvate stays in cytosol and is fermented.
12. High oxygen use but low ATP—why?
Answer: B. Inner membrane is uncoupled
Explanation: Protons leak, so ATP is not produced.
DNA, Replication & Cell Cycle
13. Is fermentation anaerobic respiration?
Answer: B. Incorrect
Explanation: Fermentation does NOT use Krebs cycle or ETC.
14. Best way to distinguish respiration vs fermentation?
Answer: B. Oxygen use and lactate levels
Explanation: Respiration uses oxygen; fermentation produces lactate.
15. Best modification to maximize ethanol in yeast?
Answer: B. Enhance glycolysis & alcohol dehydrogenase
Explanation: Push metabolism toward fermentation.
16. Avery–MacLeod–McCarty showed what?
Answer: B. DNA is the transforming principle
Explanation: DNA changes bacterial traits.
17. Hershey–Chase experiment identified genetic material as?
Answer: B. DNA labeled with phosphorus
Explanation: DNA entered bacteria, not protein.
18. Watson–Crick model works because of?
Answer: C. Complementary base pairing
Explanation: Allows accurate copying of DNA.
19. Semi-conservative replication means?
Answer: B. One old strand + one new strand
Explanation: Each daughter DNA keeps one parental strand.
20. Meselson–Stahl first generation result?
Answer: C. One intermediate band
Explanation: Supports semi-conservative replication.
21. DNA has 30% adenine—what is cytosine %?
Answer: A. 20%
Explanation: A=T and G=C; totals must be 100%.
22. Helicase is inactive—what happens?
Answer: B. DNA cannot unwind
Explanation: Replication forks cannot form.
23. Why is lagging strand discontinuous?
Answer: C. Made as Okazaki fragments
Explanation: DNA polymerase works only 5′→3′.
24. Primase is inhibited—what happens?
Answer: A. DNA synthesis cannot start
Explanation: Polymerase needs RNA primers.
25. Defective proofreading causes what?
Answer: A. Increased mutation rate
Explanation: Errors are not corrected.
26. End-replication problem solved by?
Answer: B. Telomerase
Explanation: Extends chromosome ends.
27. Topoisomerase inhibited—what occurs?
Answer: A. Supercoiling and helicase stalling
Explanation: DNA tension builds up.
28. Which result disproves dispersive replication?
Answer: D. Hybrid bands persist
Explanation: Dispersive predicts gradual blending only.
29. Evidence for lagging-strand inhibitor?
Answer: A. Okazaki fragments reduced
Explanation: Lagging strand is discontinuous.
30. Best cancer-specific replication inhibitor?
Answer: B. Target cancer-specific polymerase/control proteins
Explanation: Minimizes harm to normal cells.
Transcription & Translation
31. Central dogma is?
Answer: B. DNA → RNA → Protein
Explanation: Information flows in this direction.
32. RNA made by RNA polymerase II first is?
Answer: B. pre-mRNA
Explanation: It is processed before becoming mRNA.
33. Genetic code is?
Answer: C. Nearly universal, triplet, non-overlapping
Explanation: Same code used by most organisms.
34. Main role of tRNA?
Answer: D. Matches codons with amino acids
Explanation: Uses anticodons.
35. Blocking promoter recognition affects?
Answer: A. Transcription initiation
Explanation: RNA polymerase cannot start.
36. mRNA without 5′ cap—what happens?
Answer: B. Rapid degradation
Explanation: Cap protects mRNA and aids translation.
37. AUG then UUU codes for?
Answer: B. Met–Phe
Explanation: AUG=start; UUU=phenylalanine.
38. tRNA anticodon GAA pairs with?
Answer: C. UUC, phenylalanine
Explanation: Complementary base pairing.
39. Mutated splice site causes?
Answer: B. Intron retention or mis-splicing
Explanation: Spliceosome cannot recognize site.
40. Antibiotic blocks codon-anticodon pairing—what stops?
Answer: C. Codon recognition
Explanation: tRNA cannot bind correctly.
41. DNA 5′-ATG GAC TGA-3′ gives what?
Answer: A. mRNA AUG GAC UGA; Met-Asp
Explanation: TGA is a stop codon.
42. RNA pol II stops after initiation—what is blocked?
Answer: B. Elongation
Explanation: RNA cannot be extended.
43. Alternative splicing means?
Answer: C. One gene → multiple proteins
Explanation: Different exon combinations.
Gene Regulation & Biotechnology
44. Best synthetic mRNA features?
Answer: B. 5′ cap, Kozak sequence, poly(A) tail
Explanation: Maximizes translation.
45. RNA virus translated directly—how relates to dogma?
Answer: B. RNA → protein still fits dogma
Explanation: RNA acts as mRNA.
46. Lac operon repressor binds what?
Answer: B. Operator
Explanation: Blocks transcription.
47. DNA methylation & histones = what level?
Answer: B. Epigenetic regulation
Explanation: DNA sequence unchanged.
48. DNA replication happens in which phase?
Answer: B. S phase
Explanation: S = synthesis.
49. Chromosomes aligned at equator =?
Answer: B. Metaphase
Explanation: Spindle checkpoint active.
50. Glucose present, lactose absent—lac operon?
Answer: C. Strongly repressed
Explanation: Repressor bound; low cAMP.
51. Lactose present, glucose high—lac operon?
Answer: B. Modest transcription
Explanation: Repressor off, but CAP inactive.
52. Heavy methylation causes?
Answer: C. Low transcription
Explanation: Chromatin is tightly packed.
53. TF loses DNA-binding domain—effect?
Answer: B. Cannot recruit transcription machinery
Explanation: Cannot bind enhancer.
Cell Cycle & Mitosis
54. Loss of G₁/S cyclin-Cdk causes?
Answer: B. Arrest before DNA replication
Explanation: Cell cannot enter S phase.
55. DNA damage late in S phase blocks mitosis via?
Answer: B. G₂/M checkpoint
Explanation: Prevents damaged DNA division.
56. Sister chromatids fail to separate—defect in?
Answer: C. APC/C
Explanation: APC/C triggers anaphase.
57. Spindle cannot form—cells accumulate where?
Answer: C. Metaphase
Explanation: Spindle checkpoint stops division.
58. Prokaryotes regulate genes how?
Answer: B. Lac operon uses positive and negative control
Explanation: Regulation is fine-tuned.
59. Best cancer therapy with lost G₁ checkpoint?
Answer: B. Block G₁/S cyclin-Cdk in tumor cells
Explanation: Allows apoptosis.
60. Is chromosome structure irrelevant in mitosis?
Answer: C. Incorrect
Explanation: Checkpoints monitor DNA integrity.
61. Role of restriction enzymes?
Answer: C. Cut DNA at specific sequences
Explanation: Used in cloning.
62. Which DNA fragments move farthest in gel?
Answer: B. Smallest fragments
Explanation: Move easily through gel.
63. Essential plasmid feature for selection?
Answer: C. Antibiotic resistance gene
Explanation: Identifies transformed cells.
64. Inserted plasmid on gel looks like?
Answer: C. Larger plasmid band
Explanation: Insert increases size.
65. PCR fails but control works—why?
Answer: B. Template DNA missing or degraded
Explanation: Reagents are fine.
66. Recombinant plasmids on X-gal plates?
Answer: C. White, ampicillin-resistant colonies
Explanation: lacZ disrupted.
67. Heat shock function?
Answer: B. Opens pores for plasmid entry
Explanation: DNA enters bacteria.
68. Best way to check PCR size?
Answer: B. Agarose gel + DNA ladder
Explanation: Size comparison.
69. Sister chromatids separating =?
Answer: C. Anaphase
Explanation: Chromosomes move apart.
70. Cells with chromosomes at equatorial plate mean?
Answer: B. Metaphase
Explanation: Ready for separation.
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
1. Which system is responsible for transporting blood throughout the body?
Answer: Circulatory system
Explanation: It moves blood, oxygen, nutrients, and wastes around the body.
2. The smallest structural unit of the human body is the:
Answer: Cell
Explanation: Cells are the basic building blocks of life.
3. The primary function of red blood cells is to:
Answer: Carry oxygen
Explanation: Red blood cells use hemoglobin to transport oxygen.
4. The longest bone in the human body is the:
Answer: Femur
Explanation: The femur is the thigh bone and the longest bone.
5. What part of the brain controls balance and coordination?
Answer: Cerebellum
Explanation: It helps control posture, balance, and smooth movement.
6. Which organ system breaks down food to absorb nutrients?
Answer: Digestive system
Explanation: It digests food and absorbs nutrients.
7. The function of the epiglottis is to:
Answer: Prevent food from entering the trachea
Explanation: It closes the airway during swallowing.
8. Why is the skin considered an organ?
Answer: It is made up of multiple tissue types working together
Explanation: Organs contain different tissues with one function.
9. What is the primary role of the alveoli in the lungs?
Answer: Exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide
Explanation: Alveoli allow gas exchange between air and blood.
10. Which best describes homeostasis?
Answer: Maintenance of a stable internal environment
Explanation: It keeps body conditions balanced.
11. If a patient has damage to the sciatic nerve, which movement is affected?
Answer: Leg movement
Explanation: The sciatic nerve controls most leg muscles.
12. A muscle that bends a joint is called a:
Answer: Flexor
Explanation: Flexors decrease the angle of a joint.
13. When blood calcium levels fall, parathyroid hormone causes:
Answer: Increased calcium absorption in the intestines
Explanation: PTH raises blood calcium levels.
14. During intense exercise, why does breathing rate increase?
Answer: To supply more oxygen and remove carbon dioxide
Explanation: Muscles need more oxygen during exercise.
15. Which blood cells are responsible for clotting?
Answer: Platelets
Explanation: Platelets help stop bleeding.
16. What happens during a stroke?
Answer: Blood supply to part of the brain is interrupted
Explanation: Brain cells lack oxygen and nutrients.
17. A cross-section of the small intestine shows which adaptation?
Answer: Presence of villi and microvilli
Explanation: These increase surface area for absorption.
18. Which observation suggests thyroid dysfunction?
Answer: Both weight gain and weight loss
Explanation: Thyroid affects metabolism.
19. What type of tissue connects bones at joints?
Answer: Ligaments
Explanation: Ligaments connect bone to bone.
20. Why do neurons transmit impulses faster?
Answer: They have myelin sheaths
Explanation: Myelin speeds up nerve signals.
21. Best treatment for a broken femur:
Answer: Casting to immobilize the bone
Explanation: Immobilization allows proper healing.
22. A patient with hypertension should monitor which system?
Answer: Circulatory system
Explanation: Hypertension affects blood pressure.
23. What must be matched for organ transplants?
Answer: Blood type and tissue antigens
Explanation: Matching reduces rejection.
24. Why is inflammation important in infection control?
Answer: It helps the body fight pathogens
Explanation: It brings immune cells to infection sites.
25. How do vaccines enhance immunity?
Answer: By stimulating memory cells
Explanation: Memory cells provide long-term protection.
26. Which variable should be changed to test exercise effect on heart rate?
Answer: Duration of exercise
Explanation: It is the independent variable.
27. Which plane divides the body into right and left halves?
Answer: Sagittal
Explanation: It separates the body vertically.
28. The heart is located in which cavity?
Answer: Thoracic cavity
Explanation: It lies in the chest.
29. The skeletal system is primarily made of:
Answer: Bones and cartilage
Explanation: These provide structure and support.
30. Which organ filters blood and forms urine?
Answer: Kidney
Explanation: Kidneys remove wastes and regulate fluids.
31. The smallest blood vessels are:
Answer: Capillaries
Explanation: Gas exchange happens here.
32. Which part of the neuron receives impulses?
Answer: Dendrite
Explanation: Dendrites receive signals.
33. The diaphragm is essential for:
Answer: Respiration
Explanation: It helps lungs expand and contract.
34. The largest organ of the body is the:
Answer: Skin
Explanation: It covers and protects the body.
35. Function of red blood cells:
Answer: Transport oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen binds to hemoglobin.
36. Smooth muscle is found in:
Answer: Walls of digestive organs
Explanation: It controls involuntary movement.
37. (Epiglottis question – corrected)
Answer: Prevent food from entering the trachea
Explanation: Protects the airway.
38. Which is an endocrine gland?
Answer: Thyroid gland
Explanation: It releases hormones into blood.
39. Main function of large intestine:
Answer: Absorb water
Explanation: Forms solid waste.
40. The pulmonary artery carries:
Answer: Deoxygenated blood to the lungs
Explanation: Blood goes to lungs for oxygen.
41. Function of cerebellum:
Answer: Balance and coordination
Explanation: Controls smooth movement.
42. Tissue that attaches muscle to bone:
Answer: Tendon
Explanation: Tendons connect muscle to bone.
43. Homeostasis means:
Answer: Stable internal environment
Explanation: Keeps body conditions normal.
44. Organ that secretes insulin:
Answer: Pancreas
Explanation: Insulin controls blood sugar.
45. Low calcium mainly affects which system?
Answer: Skeletal system
Explanation: Calcium is needed for strong bones.
46. Kidney response to dehydration:
Answer: Producing concentrated urine
Explanation: Conserves water.
47. Breathing increases during exercise to:
Answer: Meet oxygen demand
Explanation: Muscles need more oxygen.
48. Damage to the dermis affects:
Answer: Nerves and blood vessels
Explanation: These are found in the dermis.
49. Sweating when hot is an example of:
Answer: Negative feedback
Explanation: It lowers body temperature.
50. Damage to hypothalamus disrupts:
Answer: Temperature regulation
Explanation: Hypothalamus controls homeostasis.
51. If alveoli are damaged, which process is affected?
Answer: Gas exchange
Explanation: Oxygen and CO₂ exchange occurs here.
52. High CO₂ and low O₂ suggest:
Answer: Respiratory failure
Explanation: Lungs cannot exchange gases properly.
53. Increased protein intake benefits:
Answer: Muscular system
Explanation: Protein builds and repairs muscles.
54. Heart valves prevent:
Answer: Reverse blood flow
Explanation: Keeps blood moving one direction.
55. Tool to monitor brain waves:
Answer: EEG
Explanation: Measures electrical activity of brain.
56. Healthy lifestyle planning involves:
Answer: Evaluating choices and creating solutions
Explanation: Requires critical thinking.
57. All chemical processes in cells are called:
Answer: Metabolism
Explanation: Includes all life-sustaining reactions.
59. Correct anatomical relationship:
Answer: The heart is superior to the large intestine
Explanation: Superior means above.
60. Correct description:
Answer: Phalanges are distal to carpals
Explanation: Fingers are farther from the trunk.
61. Anabolism refers to:
Answer: Using energy to build substances
Explanation: Builds complex molecules.
62. Anatomical position description:
Answer: Standing upright, arms at sides, palms forward
Explanation: Standard reference position.
63. Four basic tissue types:
Answer: Epithelial, connective, muscle, neural
Explanation: All body tissues fall under these.
64. Blockage of SA node blood supply causes:
Answer: Irregular heart rhythm
Explanation: SA node controls heart rate.
65. Blood shunted from digestive tract due to:
Answer: Sympathetic vasoconstriction
Explanation: Redirects blood to muscles.
66. Lack of surfactant causes:
Answer: Alveolar collapse
Explanation: Surfactant keeps alveoli open.
67. Constriction of afferent arteriole causes:
Answer: Decreased GFR
Explanation: Less blood enters glomerulus.
68. Destroyed beta cells cause:
Answer: Low insulin, high blood glucose
Explanation: Leads to diabetes.
69. Standing quickly causes compensation by:
Answer: Sympathetic vasoconstriction
Explanation: Maintains blood pressure.
70. Lack of intrinsic factor impairs:
Answer: Vitamin B12 absorption
Explanation: Needed for red blood cell formation.
71. Long-term exercise mainly uses:
Answer: Aerobic respiration
Explanation: Uses oxygen for energy.
72. Left motor cortex damage causes:
Answer: Right-side muscle weakness
Explanation: Brain controls opposite side.
73. Nerve for elbow flexion:
Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation: Controls biceps muscle.
74. Removal of parathyroid glands causes:
Answer: Low calcium and tetany
Explanation: Calcium regulation fails.
75. COPD causes:
Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Explanation: CO₂ retention lowers pH.
76. High altitude response:
Answer: Increased ventilation
Explanation: Compensates for low oxygen.
78. Liver disease reduces plasma proteins causing:
Answer: Edema
Explanation: Low oncotic pressure.
79. Food lodges in right bronchus because:
Answer: It is wider and more vertical
Explanation: Easier entry path.
80. T4 spinal injury leaves intact:
Answer: Arm movement
Explanation: Arms are controlled above T4.
81. Cerebellum damage affects:
Answer: Coordination
Explanation: Loss of balance and fine control.
82. Kidney response to salty meal:
Answer: Excrete more sodium and water
Explanation: Restores balance.
83. First phagocytes at wound site:
Answer: Neutrophils
Explanation: First immune responders.
84. Lymphatic blockage causes:
Answer: Localized edema
Explanation: Fluid buildup occurs.
85. Backup pacemaker of heart:
Answer: AV node
Explanation: Slower heart rhythm.
86. Vitamin D deficiency causes:
Answer: Soft, weak bones
Explanation: Called osteomalacia.
87. RBCs in hypotonic solution:
Answer: Cells swell and burst
Explanation: Water enters cells.
88. Calcium channel blockers cause:
Answer: Decreased contraction force
Explanation: Calcium needed for contraction.
89. Hormone that restores blood volume:
Answer: ADH
Explanation: Increases water reabsorption.
90. Excess thyroid hormone causes:
Answer: Weight loss, fast heart rate, heat intolerance
Explanation: High metabolism.
91. Level above cells:
Answer: Tissue
Explanation: Cells form tissues.
92. Diaphragm function:
Answer: Breathing
Explanation: Moves air in lungs.
93. System transporting gases and wastes:
Answer: Circulatory system
Explanation: Blood transport system.
94. Anatomical position palms face:
Answer: Forward
Explanation: Standard reference.
95. Front of body term:
Answer: Anterior
Explanation: Means front.
96. Structure separating thoracic and abdominal cavities:
Answer: Diaphragm
Explanation: Muscle barrier.
97. Homeostasis refers to:
Answer: Stable internal environment
Explanation: Maintains balance.
98. Organ that forms urine:
Answer: Kidney
Explanation: Filters blood.
99. Superior means:
Answer: Toward the head
Explanation: Above another structure.
100. Function of respiratory system:
Answer: Gas exchange
Explanation: Oxygen in, CO₂ out.
TEACHING, LEARNING, AND TECHNOLOGY (TTL 2)
1. Which of the following explains thinking and differing mental processes
and how they are influenced by internal and external factors to produce
learning?
Answer: Cognitive Learning Theory
Explanation: This theory focuses on mental processes like thinking,
understanding, and memory in learning.
2. What theory believes that learning occurs through rewards and
punishment that lead to changes in behavior?
Answer: Behaviorist Theory
Explanation: Behaviorism emphasizes observable behavior shaped by
reinforcement and punishment.
3. Students learn new mathematical concepts by relating to their previous
experiences.
Answer: Constructivist Theory
Explanation: Constructivism states learners build new knowledge based on
prior experiences.
4. Learning takes place by observing others’ behavior and imitating what
they have observed.
Answer: Social Learning Theory
Explanation: Learning occurs through observation and modeling, not just
direct experience.
5. Which of the following theories go hand in hand with collaborative
learning?
Answer: Constructivist Theory
Explanation: Constructivism encourages group interactions and collaboration
for knowledge construction.
6. When it comes to applying learning theory to the classroom, the most
pressing problem for educators is:
Answer: Presenting students with the right stimuli on which to focus their
attention and mental effort
Explanation: Effective instruction depends on directing attention to
meaningful content.
7. The use of pleasant and unpleasant consequences to change behavior
is known as:
Answer: Operant conditioning
Explanation: Behavior is shaped by reinforcement (positive/negative) or
punishment.
8. According to operant conditioning:
Answer: Behavior is controlled by its consequences
Explanation: Reinforcements increase behavior; punishment decreases
behavior.
9. What would be a practical and appropriate use of punishment in the
classroom?
Answer: Loss of privileges contingent upon unacceptable behavior
Explanation: Punishment should be specific, logical, and fair to reduce
misbehavior.
10. Which of the following describes cognitive learning theory?
Answer: I, II and III (Learning occurs when students reorganize information,
find new explanations, and adapt old ones)
Explanation: Cognitive learning emphasizes understanding, problem-solving,
and knowledge adaptation.
11. Which of the following is true about behaviorism?
Answer: I and III only (Repeated actions, Verbal reinforcement)
Explanation: Behaviorism relies on repetition and reinforcement to shape
behavior.
12. In what stage of cognitive development do children start to work things
out in their head rather than physically in the real world?
Answer: Concrete operational
Explanation: Children can think logically about concrete objects but not
abstract ideas.
13. What is the schema when the learner deals with a new situation?
Answer: Assimilation
Explanation: Assimilation involves integrating new information into existing
knowledge.
14. Which of the following belongs to the basic cognitive processes?
Answer: I, II, III and IV (Attention, Sensations, Perception, Memory)
Explanation: These processes are essential for acquiring and processing
knowledge.
15. The Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) gets bigger, and the learner
can do more on their own. This process is known as:
Answer: Scaffolding
Explanation: Teachers provide temporary support that is gradually removed
as learners become independent.
16. In the principles of instruction, which of the following would you
consider as the outcome of learning?
Answer: New knowledge is integrated in the learners’ world
Explanation: True learning is demonstrated when learners apply knowledge
in real life.
17. In the ADDIE Model, which stage includes delivering instruction to the
target audience?
Answer: Implementation
Explanation: This is when teaching and training actually happen.
18. What instructional design phase involves the selection of delivery
methods?
Answer: Design
Explanation: The design phase plans strategies and methods for effective
instruction.
19. Which would you consider as the highest goal of learning in
mathematics?
Answer: Students use and connect learning to contexts outside the
mathematical classroom
Explanation: Application of knowledge in real-life situations demonstrates
mastery.
20. Which is fundamental to developing an engaging and effective
mathematics teaching program?
Answer: Curriculum Planning
Explanation: Planning ensures learning objectives and content are aligned.
21. It contains a comprehensive compilation of content with the intention of
explaining it.
Answer: Textbook
Explanation: Textbooks provide structured content for learning.
22. A book intended to be consulted for information on specific matters
rather than read from start to finish.
Answer: Reference Book
Explanation: Reference books are used for specific facts or guidance.
23. A large pad of paper bound so that each page can be turned at the top
for presentation.
Answer: Flip Chart
Explanation: Flip charts are portable tools for presenting visuals in class.
24. Ideal for performing board work in an air-conditioned room.
Answer: White Board
Explanation: Whiteboards are smooth and suitable for markers in modern
classrooms.
25. Boards that allow students to learn next chapters or future lessons.
Answer: Bulletin Board
Explanation: Bulletin boards display ongoing or future learning content.
26. Instructional material primarily for use outside the classroom.
Answer: Self-Learning Module
Explanation: Modules guide learners for independent study.
27. Which is true about illustration?
Answer: I and II only (Visual explanation of text, Visual representation)
Explanation: Illustrations help learners understand concepts visually.
28. Teacher presents a picture on the wall; which geometry lesson is
related?
Answer: I, II and III (Quadrilaterals, Rectangles, Parallel Lines)
Explanation: Students can analyze shapes and properties in real-life visuals.
29. A whole cake sliced into 8 parts + 2 extra slices. Improper fraction?
Answer: 10/8
Explanation: Improper fractions are greater than 1; here 10 slices over 8
parts.
30. Tool used to illustrate a true vertical line.
Answer: Plumb bob
Explanation: Plumb bobs provide a perfectly vertical reference.
31. To divide a circle into equal parts. Tools?
Answer: II and III only (Protractor and Compass)
Explanation: Compass draws circles; protractor measures angles accurately.
32. Flip chart priority in class?
Answer: Illustration of geometric figures
Explanation: Visuals enhance understanding of geometric concepts.
33. Tool to check if blackboard is parallel to floor.
Answer: Plumb bob
Explanation: Plumb bob ensures vertical alignment, indirectly checking
parallelism.
34. Non-digital learning resource NOT found in a math classroom.
Answer: Peg board
Explanation: Peg boards are rarely used in math; other tools are standard.
35. Most appropriate tool for bisecting an angle.
Answer: Compass
Explanation: Compasses allow precise geometric constructions.
36. Non-digital IMs using rubber bands to construct figures.
Answer: Geo Board
Explanation: Geo boards use pegs and rubber bands to illustrate shapes.
37. Why bring protractors to draw pie charts?
Answer: To determine the degree of each angle
Explanation: Accurate angles ensure proper representation of data.
38. 3 apples + 2 oranges. Expression?
Answer: a + b
Explanation: Algebraic notation represents addition of quantities.
39. Best strategy to teach distance, time, speed?
Answer: Let students work in pairs and run, recording data
Explanation: Experiential learning connects theory to real-life activity.
40. Which is true about non-digital learning resources?
Answer: I and III only (Still relevant; not present in online class)
Explanation: Non-digital tools are useful but limited in online learning.
41. In ADDIE, A stands for?
Answer: Analyze
Explanation: Analysis identifies learning needs before designing instruction.
42. Which D’s are included in developing instructional materials?
Answer: I and II only (Develop, Design)
Explanation: Development and design create materials for instruction.
43. Primary consideration in developing instructional material?
Answer: Its role in achieving learning outcomes
Explanation: Materials should directly support learning goals.
44. Learning resources considered abstract.
Answer: I only (The word “ball”)
Explanation: Words are abstract; pictures/drawings are concrete
representations.
45. Teacher uses tiles. Use?
Answer: I and III only (Form rectangles, Addition/subtraction)
Explanation: Tiles illustrate 2D shapes and basic math operations.
46. Maximize community resources for effective instruction?
Answer: Have a learning resource center for teacher-prepared materials
Explanation: Centralized materials support teaching continuously.
47. Bruner’s theory: how to teach?
Answer: Begin with concrete
Explanation: Learners progress from concrete to abstract understanding.
48. Instructional materials for multi-grade class?
Answer: Differentiated materials to cater to different levels
Explanation: Different levels require appropriate content for each group.
49. Graphic organizer for sequencing?
Answer: Flow chart
Explanation: Flow charts show step-by-step sequences visually.
50. Graphic representation of numerical data?
Answer: Histogram
Explanation: Histograms visually display frequency of data values.