ExAC Section 4 Practice Questions:
2023
Section 4 is on:
Bidding and Contract Negotiations
Construction Phase - Office Functions
Construction Phase - Field Functions
Project Management
Bidding and Contract Negotiations
1. A client would like to put together a full design package and would like multiple
contractors to bid for the project. What would be the best method of project delivery?
A: CCDC2 - Design - Bid - Build
2. What type of project is most appropriate for competitive tendering?
A: CCDC2 - Design Bid - Build
3. What type of project delivery is the most common for publicly funded projects?
A: CCDC2 - Design - Bid - Build
4. The owner of a project needs help with budgeting to understand the cost, schedule,
construction method, and building technology from a contractor earlier on in the project.
What would be the best method for project delivery for this project?
A: CCDC5a - Construction management
5. There are several common approaches to the CM contract (CCDC5a) List 3:
A: CM as advisor, CM as agent, CM as Constructor.
6. What method might the architect not have a direct contract with the client in a CCDC5a?
A: When the Construction manager is acting as the owners agent.
7. What contract is used when the construction manager is also the general contractor?
A: CCDC5b
8. What are the two types of contracts where an architect might not have a direct contract
with the client?
A: CCDC 14 and CCDC15
9. What type of CCDC would a bridging consultant be used?
A: In a CCDC 14 or CCDC 15
10. What is the main difference between a CCDC2 and a CCDC3?
A: One is fixed price, one is cost +
11. Which CCDC is used primarily for civil engineering work?
A: CCDC4
12. What are CCDC 9a and 9b primarily used for?
A: Statutory declarations
13. What are CCDC 220, 221 and 222 primarily used for?
A: Bonds.
14. A client is looking for a construction contract for an apartment building and wants a
design-bid-build contract, but is unsure about going for a stipulated price contract. What
is another option you could suggest?
A: CCDC3 with a guaranteed maximum price.
15. If the client is looking for a fast track project, what is a good suggestion for project
delivery?
A: Design-build CCDC 14/15 or CCDC5a or 5b Construction management
16. In a typical CCDC, which of the following is not the responsibility of the architect?
a. Provides administration of the contract
b. Reviews shop drawings
c. Provides release of bonds and leans
d. Schedule of values and construction sequencing
A: d - that’s the contractors job
17. Whose responsibility is it to monitor construction safety and workplace regulations?
A: The contractor
9.3 Understand the procedures of awarding the construction contract
18. What are the 3 key items that must be determined before awarding a construction
contract?
A: Form of project delivery, type of construction contract, and method for awarding that contract.
19. Why is it important to determine these decisions, what does it affect?
A: Architects fees, the project schedule, preparation of CD documents, and the bidding process.
20. True of false - a bid depository is governed at a national level
A: False
21. What type of tender call is typically used in public projects?
A: Open Competitive Bids
22. When the client only wants to allow a few contractors to bid on their project, is that
allowed and what is that type of bidding procedure called?
A: Yes - Invited Bid.
23. If a client is concerned with architect’s fees during the bidding process, which
construction contract would be more appropriate?
a. CCDC2 - Stipulated Sum with a single bid
b. CCDC 5a - Construction Management with multiple bids
A: a - stipulated sum
24. Which of the following is not considered to be part of the bidding documents?
a. Drawings
b. Specifications
c. Addenda
d. Contract modification
A: d- Construct modifications
25. True or False: The Bid contract is terminated when the Construction contract begins
A: True
26. A bond that is around 5 to 10% of the estimated construction cost is what type of bond
A: Bid Bond
27. True or False : A performance bond covers labour and material claims
A: False
28. What type of bond indemnifies the owner in the event of default on the part of the
contractor?
A: A performance bond
29. When a contract is awarded, what type of letter should the client issue to the contractor
so they can start working right away, while an official contract is being drafted up?
a. Letter of Intent
b. Letter of Acceptance
A: b - letter of acceptance
30. What type of document indicates where and under what conditions the contractors can
obtain bid documents?
a. Notice of Tender
b. Instruction to Bidders
c. Bidding Requirements
A: a - notice of tender
31. Which of the following is not included when considering a bid non-compliant?
a. It does not meet the basic requirements concerning confidentiality
b. It deviated from the base specifications and includes alternatives
c. Bonding requirements were not submitted
d. It is missing the correct number of addenda
A: b - alternatives are allowed.
32. True or false - If a bid is over budget by 15% , it is generally possible to propose
alternatives and negotiate an acceptable price with the lowest bidder.
A: False - bit of a trick question - the % must be stated in the RAIC doc 6.
33. True or False - A contractor realizes hes made a serious error after bid closing. The
architect may permit the contractor to withdrawal his bid and bid bond.
A: False - the contractor must forfeit their bond during the period of irrevocability.
Construction Phase - Office and Site Functions
34. Which type of contract would typically require the least amount of contract
administration?
a. An open bid with a fixed price contract
b. A project under a cost plus contract
c. A tight construction schedule
A: b
35. What are the three main categories of a CCDC
A: Agreement, Definitions, General Conditions
36. True or False: In the event of a dispute between the interpretation and application of the
contract between client and contractor, the consultant is obligated to provide instructions
to prevent delays.
A: True
37. Name the two bonds that are typically required prior to the commencement of
construction
A - Performance bond and labour and materials payment bond
38. Which of the following is not considered a purpose for general / field review?
a. Review contractors performance in maintaining construction schedule and quality
of construction
b. Inspect detailing to ensure conformity to the contract documents
c. Provide guidance to the contractor
d. Review safety measures for conformity with worksafe guidelines
e. Fulfill performance standards as outlined by the AHD
f. Review contractors application for payment and CoP
A: b and d are incorrect - we never inspect, always review.
39. True or false - The architect needs the structural engineer to review progress on a steel
erection to compare against the contractors application for payment. This is outside of
their scope for field review, and will need confirmation by the client.
A: False - Consultants shall provide assistance to the architect in preparation of certificates.
40. True or false - The architect, and other various consultants, are not required to provide
general/field review if it is not included in their fee, even if they have submitted a
Schedule B.
A: False - If a schedule B has been signed, this is a commitment to field review under
professional obligation.
41. True or False: If an architect witnesses unsafe practices on site, they are obliged to
report it.
A: True
42. Which contract outlines the communication protocols between architect, client and
contractor?
A: RAIC document six, General conditions.
43. Whos responsibility is it to provide proof of current standing with provincial health and
safety authority?
a. Architect
b. Contractor
c. Client
A: B contractor
44. If an architect receives a shop drawing that hasn’t been reviewed by the contractor, what
is the best course of action?
a. Review the drawing, then send it to the contractor
b. Reject the drawing and send back to the contractor for their review first
A: b - Rejected
45. If a submittal is sent to the architect and is missing substantial information, which is the
best course of action?
a. Revise and resubmit
b. Reviewed
c. Rejected
A: C-Rejected
46. Which document is the schedule of values typically used for?
a. Holdback release
b. Material and Labour Bond
c. Certificate of Payment
A: C - Certificate of Payment.
47. In a CCDC2, if a Supplementary Instruction results in a change to the contract price,
what subsequent document is required?
A: A Change Order
48. In a CCDC2, when there is change to the contract price, but work must continue before
the approval process can happen, what document should be used?
a. Site Instruction
b. Change Directive
c. Change Order
d. Contemplated Change Notice
A: B - Change directive .
49. Who obtains and pays for the building permit?
a. Architect
b. Client
c. Contractor
A: debated. Owners responsibility… but contractor must obtain permit before commencing work.
50. If an RFI appears frivolous, unjustified, or unnecessary, is the architect obliged to
respond?
A: Yes
51. If there is a change to the contract documents that involves changes that have planning
or building permission implications the architect should:
a. Inform the AHJ immediately
b. Advise the AHJ at project closeout documentation
A: a - inform immediately
52. True or false - A Contemplated Change Notice (CCN) and a Proposed Change (PC) are
the same thing
A: True
53. True or False - Specialist inspections supercede the architect’s authority:
A: False
54. True or False - the owner or the consultant need to inform the contractor that they are
going to do a site visit or field review
A: False - actually you should show up at different times and without notice sometimes.
55. Before submitting shop drawings for review, the contractor must verify:
a. Quantities
b. Dimensions
c. Accuracy
d. Completeness
e. Compliance with specifications
f. All of the above
A; f all of the above
56. True or false - the architect must review all portions of a shop drawing
A: False - only the portions that relate to architectural intent.
57. The procedures for reviewing submittals are outlined in the:
A: Division 1 of the Specifications
58. List the hierarchy/ sequencing of submittal review from 1-5
a. Samples
b. Shop drawings
c. Product data
d. System performance
e. Mockups
A: System performance, Product Data, Shop Drawings, Samples, Mockups
59. True or false - the contractor’s submittal schedule is binding upon the consultants
A- False
60. A cladding submittal is sent to the architect, who makes minor notes on attachment
details. The architect should indicate the status:
a. Revise and Resubmit
b. Rejected
c. Reviewed as Noted
d. Reviewed
A- c - reviewed as noted
61. True or False - When a submittal is rejected, the architect can request the same amount
of time to review the resubmission.
A- True
62. If the architect receives a proposed alternative as a submittal, is this considered an
additional service for the architect?
A- usually under RAIC doc 6
63. When the architect receives a proposed alternative as a submittal, they must:
a. Determine if this is a proposed change to the design
b. Determine additional fee and time budget for evaluating the change to the design
c. If the time and fee budget is accepted by the client, the architect implements the
change.
d. A and b
e. a and c
f. All of the above
A: A and B only - The architect must first review the change to see if it’s feasible
64. Describe the difference between Substantial Performance Review and Completion
Review
A - SP review is near the end of the project, Completion is when final deficiencies have been
completed.
65. There are 2 main categories for field reviews, what are they?
A - Contractual matters or ‘good practice’ and Building Code
66. Which of the above is mandatory as a professional practice?
A - Building Code
67. In CCDC2, after the contractor submits their progress claim, how many days does the
architect have to issue the CoP?
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
A- 10 days
68. In CCDC 2 , from the receipt of the CoP, how many days does the client have to pay the
contractor?
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
A - 20 days
69. Before processing progress claim applications, the architect must visit site to make
observations on:
a. Number of workers on site
b. Percentage of work completed
c. Amount of materials on site
d. List of deficiencies
e. B and c
f. All of the above
A- b and c
70. List the most common times when an architect should conduct a field review:
A-
Project startup
Start of major subcontractor work
Start of finishing trades
When significant new materials come to site
Before work is covered up
After extreme weather events
71. True or False - The price of each change order is either charged or credited against the
contingency allowance in a construction contract (CCDC2)
72. When is a schedule of values typically provided?
a. During the bidding process
b. At the start of construction
c. At each progress claim
A-b
73. True or False - Inspection and Test reports are paid for by the client
A - True
74. The Certificate of Payment includes which of the following:
a. Percentage of work complete
b. Applicable holdbacks
c. Current pending change orders
d. Current value of the contract including approved change orders
e. Value of materials on site
f. A,b, and d
g. A,d and e
h. All of the above
A - f (a, b and d)
75. When is the warranty period triggered?
a. At the end of the project
b. At certificate of substantial performance
A-b
76. The architect submits their field review report to:
a. The AHJ
b. The Client
c. The Contractor
d. Professional engineering consultants involved
e. A to C
f. All of the above
A- f all of the above
77. True or false - Record drawings (as-built) are typically included in an architects basic
services
A - False
78. Name the three types of occupancy
A - Unconditional occupancy, Conditional occupancy, phased or partial occupancy
79. True or False - Takeover procedures are part of an architect’s base fee
A - True
80. True or False - Commissioning is part of an architect’s base fee
A - False
81. True or False - Post-Occupancy evaluation is part of an architect’s base fee
A- False
82. True or False - The architect issues the final certificate of payment and then issues a
deficiency report
A - False - deficiencies must be dealt with first.
83. The architect prepares a certificate authorizing payment of holdback:
a. One day after the termination of the lien claim period
b. One week after the termination of the lien claim period
c. One day after project is certified complete
A - A - one day
84. The warranty period lasts:
a. 1 month
b. 1 year
c. 5 years
d. The length of time of each product’s warranty.
A- b - 1 year
85. Describe the difference between project take over procedures and commissioning:
A - Project takeover - a list of procedures verifying substantial performance and project
completion
Project commissioning - verifying that the building’s systems are working efficiently and
effectively.
86. True or False - it is the owners responsibility to have control and management of existing
conditions at the Place of the Work
A - True
87. If toxic or hazardous materials are found on site , whose responsibility is it to remediate?
a. The contractor
b. The client
c. The architect
A- b the client.
Management of the project and business and practice management
88. Typically when a project is completed, how long does a project manager’s activities
extend once all other tasks are complete?
a. 2 weeks
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 6 months
A - 60 days.
89. Describe the primary systems a project manager works on
A-
A work plan
Assigning appropriate resources
Managing a schedule
Managing design project costs
Transferring of deliverables
90. Name the standard client - architect agreement
A - RAIC doc 6
91. Which elements would not belong in a pre-design project file:
a. Surveys
b. Photographs
c. Structural Engineer Reports
d. Geotechnical Reports
e. Functional Program
f. Design Report
A - c and f
92. What is the client's role in developing a work plan schedule?
A - Ensure that the client understands their role in making decisions in order to maintain
schedule.
93. What is the most simple method of scheduling:
a. Bar / Gannt Chart
b. Critical path
c. Milestone
A - milestone schedules are dead simple.
94. List 5 components of a work plan:
A-
Project definition
Work breakdown
Task List
Schedule
Organizational Chart - whos doing what
Project budget
Quality management plan
Client management plan
95. What type of scheduling software is typically used on large, complex projects with very
lengthy timelines?
A - Critical Path
96. If a schedule needs to be consistently modified, which is the best type of schedule?
A - Gantt Chart
97. What are some tell-tale signs that a project is out of control?
A-
Things are happening without your input
Missing deadlines
Scopes are being added without additional fee
Being reactive instead of pro-active
98. List the 5 elements of an architect’s “basic services”
A-
Schematic Design
Design Development
Construction Documents
Bidding
Construction Administration
99. List the three ways that an architect can be compensated for their services:
A-
Percentage (of construction cost)
Time (hourly)
Fixed fee
100. Can an architect use a combination of the three methods in their fee?
A - yes
101. Match the numbers with the corresponding letters for the typical distribution of
fee.
a. 2.5%
b. 12.5%
c. 22.5%
d. 50%
SD
DD
CD
Bidding
CA
A-
a = bidding
B = SD
B = DD
C= CA
D = CD
102. When using BIM modelling , what is the main difference in distribution of fees?
A - more fee is given earlier in the project.
103. If using a fixed fee and the building has a higher construction cost, what does the
RAIC’s fee determination recommend?
A - using a lower percentage fee.
104. True or False : “Net percentage fees” include the fees of the three common
engineering discipline.
A - False
105. The RAIC fee guide includes two charts. How are they different?
A - One includes structural, mechanical, and electrical engineering fees, the other doesnt.
106. Coordinating consultants usually takes about ____ % of the fee
a. 5%
b. 15%
c. 25%
d. 50%
A - c 25%
107. What are the legal implications of providing too low of a fee?
A - not being able to provide adequate services, could result in professional misconduct.
108. Explain a situation when hourly rates could be increased
A
Architect as expert witness
Architect as specialist consultant.