Class VIII Science

Notes for Chemical Effects of Electric Current

Facts that Matter
• The materials which allow electric current to pass through are
called good conductors of electricity. For example, metals like
copper and aluminium.
• The materials which do not allow electric current to pass through
them easily are called poor conductor of electricity. For example,
rubber, plastic and wood.
• Due to the h eating effect of current, the filament of the bulb of
the tester gets heated to a high temperature and it starts glowing.
• If the current through a circuit is too weak, the filament does not
get heated sufficiently and it does not glow.
• LED (Light Emitting Diodes) can be used in place of the electric
bulb in the tester, LED glows even when a weak electric current
flows through it.
• electric current produces magnetic current, a tester can be
prepared by using a compass needle. The deflection of the magnetic
needle can be seen, even when current is small.
• Distilled water is poor conductor of electricity. Water collected
from taps, hand pumps, wells and ponds is not pure m d contain
dissolved salts so it is good conductor of electricity.
• Most liquids that conduct electricity are solutions of acids, bases
and salts.
• Chemical effect of the electric current: The passage of an
electric current through a conducting solution causes chemical
reaction. That may cause formation of bubbles of a gas on the
electrodes, deposites of metal on electrodes, changes of colour of
solutions etc.
• Electroplating: The process of depositing a layer of any desired
metal on another material by means of electricity is called
electroplating. it is one of the most common application of chemical
effects of electric current.
• Uses of Electroplating: Electroplating is widely used in indust for
coating metal objects with a thin layer of a deferent metal. This may
be done to
— make objects appear shiny,
— prevent corrosion,
— make objects resistant to scratches.
 — coat less reactive metal on more reactive metals to protect
from getting spoilt,
— electroplate less expensive metals with silver and gold to
make ornaments.
For example:
— Chromium has a shiny appearance, does not corrode and is
resistant to scratches. But, chromium is expensive and it is not
economical to make the whole object out of chromium. So, the
objects, such as taps, car parts, wheel rims etc. made from a
cheaper metal and electroplated with chromium.
— Jewellery made of cheap metal is elecroplate i with silver or
gold to appear as if made of silver or gold.
— Tin is less reactive than iron. So, iron cans used for food
items are electroplated with tin to prevent spoilage from contact with
iron.
— Iron used in bridges and automobiles is electroplated with a
coating of zinc to protect it from corrosion and formation of rust.
• The disposal of the used conducting solution of electroplating
factories is a major problem. It is a polluting waste and there are
specific disposal guidelines to protect the environment.

1. Plastic wire is
a. An insulator
b. A conductor
c. Both of these
d. None of these
2. Electroplating is based on
a. Magnetic effect of electricity
b. Chemical effect of electricity
c. Heating effect of electricity
d. Physical effect of electricity
3. Adding common salt to distilled water makes it
a. Good conductor
b. Insulator
c. No
d. Both a and b
4. An electrolyte is
a. a metal
b. a solution
 c. a liquid that conducts current
d. all of above
5. Copper wire is a
a. Good conductor
b. Poor conductor
c. Both a and b
d. None of this
6. Poor conductors are
a. Plastics
b. Clothes
c. Wood
d. All of these
7. Distilled water is
a. Poor conductor
b. Good conductor
c. Both a and b
d. None
8. Flow of electron is called
a. Electroplating
b. Electric current
c. Electrodes
d. Electrolyte
9. Electroplating prevents
a. Current
b. Chemical effect
c. Rusting
d. All
10. An electric lamp glows due to
a. Chemical effect
b. Magnetic effect
c. Heating effect
d. None
Answers:
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. C

1. An electric current can produce

(a) heating effect only.
(b) chemical effect only.
(c) magnetic effect only.
(d) chemical, heating, and magnetic effects.
Soln:
The answer is (d) chemical, heating, and magnetic effects.

2. Boojho and Paheli performed experiments taking similar bulbs and

cells but two different solutions, A and B, as shown in Fig.14.1.

They found that the bulb in setup A glows more brightly as compared
to that of setup B. You would conclude that
(a) higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup A.
(b) higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup B.
(c) equal current is flowing through both the circuits.
(d) the current flowing through the circuits in the two setups cannot
be compared in this manner.
Soln:
Answer is (a) higher current is flowing through the circuit in setup A.

3. Boojho’s uncle has set up an electroplating factory near his village.

He should dispose of the waste of the factory
(a) in the nearby river.
(b) in the nearby pond.
(c) in the nearby cornfield.
(d) according to the disposal guidelines of the local authority.
Soln:
The answer is (d) according to the disposal guidelines of the local authority.

4. When an electric current is passed through a conducting solution,

there is a change of colour of the solution. This indicates
(a) the chemical effect of current.
(b) the heating effect of current.
(c) the magnetic effect of current.
(d) the lightning effect of current.
Soln:
Answer is (a) the chemical effect of current

5. Which one of the following solutions will not conduct electricity?

(a) lemon juice
(b) vinegar
(c) tap water
(d) vegetable oil
Soln:
The answer is (d) vegetable oil
Explanation:
Vegetable oil does not contain ions hence it cannot conduct electricity.

6. Which of the following metals is used in electroplating to make

objects appear shining?
(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) chromium
(d) aluminium
Soln:
Answer is (c) chromium
Explanation:
Chromium metal is used in electroplating to make objects appear shining
because chromium has shining property and is scratch resistant.

7.

[Link] of the following solutions will not make the bulb in Fig 14.2
glow?
(a) sodium chlorides
(b) copper sulphate
(c) silver nitrate
(d) sugar solution in distilled water
Soln:
The answer is (d) sugar solution in diluted water
Explanation:
The sugar solution is neither acidic nor basic and it cannot ionize to
conduct electricity. Similarly, distilled water has no ions in it to conduct
electricity. Hence the mixture of sugar solution and distilled water will not
conduct electricity.
Very Short Answer Questions

[Link] in the blanks

(a) The object to be electroplated is taken as ____________ electrode.
(b) One of the most common applications of chemical effect of
electric current is ______________.
(c) Small amount of a mineral salt present naturally in water makes it
a______________ of electricity.
(d) Electroplating of ______________ is done on objects like water
taps and cycle bell to give them a shiny appearance.
Soln:
(a) Cathode
(b) Electroplating
(c) Conductor
(d) Chromium

9. Why is a layer of zinc-coated over iron?

Soln:
Iron readily reacts with atmospheric air to form rust. In order to prevent it
from rusting zinc is coated over iron.
10. Will the solution of sugar in distilled water conduct electricity?
Soln:
No, the sugar solution is neither acidic nor basic and it cannot ionize to
conduct electricity.

11. Name the effect of current responsible for the glow of the bulb in
an electric circuit.
Soln:
Heating effect of electric current.
Short Answer Questions
12. Boojho made the circuit given in Fig. 14.3 and observed that the
bulb did not glow. On Paheli’s suggestion, he added one more cell in
the circuit. The bulb now glows. Explain.

Soln:
On adding another cell current flows through bulb sufficiently to make it
glow.

13. Paheli set up an experiment using liquid A in the beaker as shown

in Fig. 14.4. She observed that the bulb glows. Then she replaced the
liquid A by another liquid B. This time the bulb did not glow. Boojho
suggested replacing the bulb by an LED. They observed that the LED
glows. Explain.

Soln:
Current flowing through liquid B may be weak to make the bulb glow
whereas it was strong enough to make the LED glow.
14. Paheli wants to deposit silver on an iron spoon. She took a silver
nitrate (AgNO3) solution in a beaker and set up a simple circuit for
electroplating. Which terminal of the battery should the spoon be
connected to? What material should the other electrode be made of?
Soln:
The spoon should be connected to the negative terminal of the battery. The
other electrode should be made of silver.

15. Why is tin electroplated on iron to make cans used for storing
food?
Soln:
Tin is less reactive than iron. In order to prevent iron from reacting with
food, tin is coated over iron for storing food.

16. Observe Fig. 14.5.

Which of these two circuits A or B shows the correct observation?

Soln:
Diagram A shows the correct observation

17. Observe the following circuits carefully. In which circuit will the
bulb glow? Write ‘Yes’ or ‘No’ in the blank space provided along each
of the circuit given in Fig. 14.6.
Soln:
 NO

Yes

No
 Yes

Long Answer Questions

18. An electric current is passed through a conducting solution. List

any three possible observations.
Soln:
Three possible observations are
 Bubbles of gas may be formed on the electrodes.
 Deposits of metal may be seen on electrodes.
 Change in the colour of the solution may take place
 The solution may get heated.

19. In the circuit given as Fig. 14.7, Boojho observed that copper is
deposited on the electrode connected to the negative terminal of the
battery. Paheli tried to repeat the same experiment. But she could find
only one copper plate. Therefore she took a carbon rod as a negative
electrode. Will copper be still deposited on the carbon rod? Explain
your answer.
Soln:
Copper from the copper sulphate solution will be deposited on the carbon
rod. Copper sulphate dissociates into copper and sulphate when the
electric current is passed through the copper sulphate solution. The free
copper gets drawn to the electrode connected to the negative terminal of
the battery, i.e. carbon rod and gets deposited on it. Thus, Paheli will obtain
a coating of copper on carbon rod.

20. Observe the circuit given in Fig. 14.8.

Boojho set up this circuit for purification of copper. What will be the
nature of – (i) plate A (ii) plate B (iii) the solution? Explain the process
of purification.
Soln:
i) In plate A- Pure copper
ii) In plate B- Impure copper
iii) The solution – Copper sulphate solution
Process of purification here is Electroplating.
Take copper sulphate and two copper plates of size around 10 cm × 4 cm.
Take 250 mL of distilled water in a clean and dry beaker. Dissolve two
teaspoonfuls of copper sulphate in it. Add a few drops of dilute sulphuric
acid to copper sulphate solution to make it more conducting. Clean copper
plates with sandpaper. Now rinse them with water and dry them. Connect
the copper plates to the terminals of a battery and immerse them in copper
sulphate solution.
When an electric current is passed through the copper sulphate solution,
copper sulphate dissociates into copper and sulphate. The free copper gets
drawn to the electrode connected to the negative terminal of the battery
and gets deposited on it.

21. Observe the following circuit given in Fig. 14.9.

Current does not flow in the circuit if there is a gap between the two
wires. Does it indicate that air is a poor conductor of electricity? Does
air never conduct electricity? Explain.
Soln:
Generally, air is a bad conductor of electricity. But in certain conditions like
lightening air conducts electricity.

22. Boojho made the circuit shown in Fig. 14.10. He wanted to observe
what happens when an electric current is passed through water. But
he forgot to add a few drops of lemon juice to water. Will it make any
difference to his observations? Explain.
Soln:
If the water is distilled water then without lemon juice it cannot conduct
electricity and current will not pass through the circuit. If the water is salty
then a feeble current will pass through circuits and bubbles will be
observed on the negative electrode.

23. Observing that the bulb does not glow in the circuit shown in Fig.
14.11 A, Boojho changed the circuit as shown in Fig 14.11 B. He
observed deflection in the magnetic compass.
(i)What does the deflection in the magnetic compass indicate?
(ii) Why did the bulb not glow in Fig14.11 A?
(iii) What would be the effect of an increase in the number of turns in
the coil wound around the magnetic compass in Fig. 14.11B?
(iv) What will be observed if the number of cells is increased in the
circuit shown in Fig. 14.11B?
Soln:
(i) It indicates the presence of current in the circuit.
(ii) The bulb did not glow because the current was not sufficient
to make it glow.
(iii) Deflection in the magnetic compass will increase.
(iv) Deflection in the compass will increase further.

24. You are provided with a magnetic compass, an empty matchbox, a

battery of two cells and connecting wires. Using these objects, how
will you make a tester for testing an electric circuit? Draw the
necessary circuit diagram and explain.
Soln:

Magnetic compass needle shows deflection when current flows through the
circuit. This is due to the magnetic effect of current.
Important Topics Covered in Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Chemical
Effects of Electric Current
1. Do Liquids Conduct Electricity?
2. Chemical Effects of Electric Current
 3. Electroplating.
Class 8 is one of the crucial stages of students’ life, as they will be writing
national-level exams like the Science Olympiad and other scholarship tests.
The NCERT Solutions provided here for Chapter 14, Chemical Effects of
Electric Current, will help them learn the concepts in an easy way. This
chapter deals with the Chemical Effects of Electric Current,
electroplating, good conductors, LED and conductors. The topics covered
in this chapter are very important from the perspective of the annual
examination.
Along with NCERT Solutions, students should practise lots of sample
papers and previous years’ question papers. Solving these questions will
help them to get familiar with the different types of questions asked in the
annual examination.

Frequently Asked Questions on NCERT Exemplar Solutions

for Class 8 Science Chapter 14

Q2
An electric current is passed through a conducting
solution. List any three possible observations according to
Chapter 14 of NCERT Exemplar Solutions for Class 8
Science.
The possible observations are given below:
1. Bubbles of gas may be formed on the electrodes.
2. Deposits of metal may be seen on electrodes.
3. Change in the colour of the solution may take place
4. The solution may get heated.
Q3
Explain electroplating covered in Chapter 14 of NCERT
Exemplar Solutions for Class 8 Science.
Electroplating is basically the process of plating a metal onto the other by
hydrolysis, mostly to prevent the corrosion of metal or for decorative
purposes. The process uses an electric current to reduce dissolved metal
cations to develop a lean coherent metal coating on the electrode.
Electroplating is often applied in the electrical oxidation of anions on a solid
substrate, like the formation of silver chloride on silver wire to form silver
chloride electrodes. Students of Class 8 can refer to the NCERT Exemplar
Solutions designed by the subject experts at BYJU’S to understand the
concept easily. Simple and understandable language is used to explain
complex topics to help students grasp easily.
 FORCE AND PRESSURE
KEYNOTES
• Force: a push or a pull on an object is called force. Force may
impart motion to an object.
• it is applied on an object in the same direction add to one another.
• Magnitude: the strength of a force is usually expressed by its
magnitude
• State of motion: The state of motion of an object is described by
its speed and the direction of motion.
• Muscular Force: The force resulting due to the action of muscles
is known as the muscular force.
• Contact Force: The force which is applied when it is in the contact
with the object.
• Non-contact force: The force exerted on an object without
touching it known as non contact force.
• Gravitational force: the attractive force of earth which acts upon
all the objects is called force of gravity or gravitational force.
• Pressure: The force acting on a unit area of a surface is called
pressure. It acts perpendicular to the surface on which pressure is
exerted.
• Pressure= force/area on which it acts. Lesser the area, greater is
the force.
• Both liquids and gases exert pressure on the wall of their
containers.
• Atmospheric pressure: The pressure on the atmospheric air is
known as atmospheric pressure. This weight of air column over a
unit 1cm 2

1. What is force?
a. pull
b. push
c. push and push both
d. none of these
2. What is state of motion?
a. position of rest
b. position of motion
c. both by the state of rest or motion
 d. none of these
3. The strength of force is expressed by?
a. weight
b. mass
c. magnitude
d. longitudinal force
4. The force between two charged bodies is called
a. muscular force
b. gravitational force
c. magnetic force
d. electrostatic force
5. When two forces act in opposite directions, then net force acting
two forces
a. sum of two factors
b. difference bwteen two factors
c. both of these
d. none of these
6. Magnetic force is
a. contact force
b. non-contact force
c. both a and b
d. none of these
7. Force acts on an object may change
a. direction
b. shape
c. speed
d. all of above
8. Leaves or fruits fall on the ground due to
[Link] force
b. gravitational force
c. electrostatic force
d. muscular force
ANSWERS
1. C
2. C
3. C
4. D
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. B
1. In Fig 11.1, two boys A and B are shown applying force on a block.
If the block moves towards the right, which one of the following
statements is correct?
(a) The magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of B.
(b) The magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of B.
(c) The net force on the block is towards A.
(d) The magnitude of force applied by A is equal to that of B.

Soln:
Answer is (a) Magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of
B.
Explanation:
The magnitude of force applied by A is bigger than that of B as a
result of the block moves towards right i.e. towards B.

2. In the circuit shown in Fig.11.2, when the circuit is completed, the

hammer strikes the gong. Which of the following force is responsible
for the movement of the hammer?
(a) gravitational force alone
(b) electrostatic force alone
(c) magnetic force alone
(d) frictional force alone
Soln:
Answer is (c) magnetic force alone
Explanation:
As electric current flows through the coil it behaves like an
electromagnet which creates magnetic force. Hence the answer is
magnetic force alone.

3. During dry weather, while combing hair, sometimes we experience

hair flying apart. The force responsible for this is
(a) force of gravity.
(b) electrostatic force.
(c) the force of friction.
(d) magnetic force.
Soln:
The answer is (b) electrostatic force.
Explanation:
On combing the hair, comb and hair get oppositely charged due to
electrostatic force.

4. Fig.11.3 shows a container filled with water. Which of the following

statements is correct about the pressure of water?
Soln:
(a) The pressure at A > Pressure at B > Pressure at C.
(b) The pressure at A = Pressure at B = Pressure at C.
(c) The pressure at A < Pressure at B > Pressure at C.
(d) The pressure at A < Pressure at B.
Soln:
The answer is (d) Pressure at A < Pressure at B
Explanation:
Increase in water leads to an increase in depth.

5. Two objects repel each other. This repulsion could be due to

(a) frictional force only
(b) electrostatic force only
(c) magnetic force only
(d) either a magnetic or an electrostatic force
Soln:
The answer is (d) either a magnetic or an electrostatic force
Explanation: when two objects are experiencing repulsive force
because there may be an electrostatic force or a magnetic force.

6. Which one of the following forces is a contact force?

(a) force of gravity
(b) force of friction
(c) magnetic force
(d) electrostatic force
Soln:
The answer is (b) force of friction
Explanation:
Force of attraction acts only when the bodies are in contact.
7. A water tank has four taps fixed at points A, B, C, D as shown in
Fig. 11.4. The water will flow out at the same pressure from taps at
(a) B and C
(b) A and B
(c) C and D
(d) A and C

Soln:
Answer is (a) B and C
Explanation:
B and C are at the same level, hence pressure will be the same at B
and C.
 Notes for Friction
Introduction
Friction is a force that opposes motion between any surfaces that
are touching. Friction can work for or against us. For example,
putting sand on an icy sidewalk increases friction so you are less
likely to slip. On the other hand, too much friction between moving
parts in a car engine can cause the parts to wear out. Other
examples of friction are illustrated in the two Figures below

Friction between the graphite in a pencil and a sheet of paper leaves

a mark on the paper.

Friction between a bicycle brake pad and the rim of a wheel causes
the wheel to stop turning.
Did you ever rub your hands together to warm them up, Why does
this make your hands warmer? The answer is friction.
Why Friction Occurs
Friction occurs because no surface is perfectly smooth. Even
surfaces that look smooth to the unaided eye make look rough or
bumpy when viewed under a microscope. Look at the metal surfaces
in the Figure below. The aluminum foil is so smooth that it's shiny.
However, when highly magnified, the surface of metal appears to be
very bumpy. All those mountains and valleys catch and grab the
mountains and valleys of any other surface that contacts the metal.
This creates friction.
Factors that Affect Friction
Rougher surfaces have more friction between them than smoother
surfaces. That's why we put sand on icy sidewalks and roads.
Increasing the area of surfaces that are touching also increases the
friction between them. That's why you can't slide as far across ice
with shoes as you can on the thin blades of skates. The greater
surface area of the soles of the shoes cause more friction and slow
you down.
Heavier objects also have more friction. Can you explain why?
Heavier objects press together with greater force, and this causes
greater friction between them.
Friction Produces Heat
You know that friction produces heat. That's why rubbing your hands
together makes them warmer. But do you know why? Friction causes
the molecules on rubbing surfaces to move faster, so they have
more energy. This gives them a higher temperature, and they feel
warmer. Heat from friction can be useful. It not only warms your
hands. It also lets you light a match as shown in the Figure below.
On the other hand, heat from friction between moving parts inside a
car engine can be a big problem. It can cause the car to overheat.
How is friction reduced between the moving parts inside a car
engine?
To reduce friction, oil is added to the engine. The oil coats the
surfaces of the moving parts and makes them slippery. They slide
over each other more easily, so there is less friction.
Friction is always parallel to the surface in contact.
In some cases, friction is desirable while in other cases, friction
reduces the effectiveness of machines. Without friction, you would
not be able to walk, the wheels on a vehicle would have no grip on a
road surfacing and the vehicle would not be able to move forward.
On the other hand, friction is undesirable in most of the cases.
Friction causes mechanical parts to seize and wear out.
Fun with Friction:
Activity 1: Take two pieces of paper. Wad one of the pieces of paper
into a ball. Leave the other piece of paper like normal.
Hold the pieces of paper above your head. Drop the pieces at the
same time. The wadded piece will fall to the ground immediately.
The flat piece of paper will flutter down more slowly because it has
more surface area to create friction or drag on the air as it drops.

Concept: Air friction.

Activity 2:
To begin, fill the bottle with rice. Try sticking the chopstick down into
the bottle. When you grab the chopstick and pull up, what happens?
The stick should just come right out.
How do you make the rice stick to the chopstick so you can just pick
it up? You've got to add more friction. Here's how.
Put the lid on the bottle and tap the bottom of the bottle on a hard
surface. Do this a few times to compact the rice and get rid of the air
pockets. Now you should have room to add a bit more rice to the
bottle.
Once you've added a bit more rice, stick the chopstick back into the
bottle. This time, when you pull up on the chopstick, you should be
able to pick up the whole bottle.

Fig: Holding up a bottle with just a chopstick

Concept: Friction applied by rice on the chopstick.
Quiz Time
1. Define friction, and explain why it occurs.
2. Identify three factors that affect friction.
3. Why does friction warm your hands when you rub them together?
4. Outside wooden steps may get slippery when they are wet. How
could you make them less slippery?
Types of Friction
Friction is the force that opposes motion between any surfaces that
are in contact. There are four types of friction: static, sliding, rolling,
and fluid friction (Air/Viscous friction). Static, sliding, and rolling
friction occur between solid surfaces. Fluid friction occurs in liquids
and gases.
Static Friction
Static friction acts on objects when they are resting on a surface. For
example, if you are hiking in the woods, there is static friction
between your shoes and the trail each time you put down your foot
(see Figure below). Without this static friction, your feet would slip
out from under you, making it difficult to walk. In fact, that's exactly
what happens if you try to walk on ice. That's because ice is very
slippery and offers very little friction.
Can you think of other examples of static friction?
One example is the friction that helps the girls climb the rock wall in
the picture above. Static friction keeps their hands and feet from
slipping.
Sliding Friction
Sliding friction is friction that acts on objects when they are sliding
over a surface. Sliding friction is weaker than static friction. That's
why it's easier to slide a piece of furniture over the floor after you
start it moving than it is to get it moving in the first place. Sliding
friction can be useful. For example, you use sliding friction when you
write with a pencil. The pencil "lead" slides easily over the paper, but
there's just enough friction between the pencil and paper to leave a
mark.
How does sliding friction help you ride a bike?
There is sliding friction between the brake pads and bike rims each
time you use your bike's brakes. This friction slows the rolling wheels
so you can stop.
Rolling Friction
Rolling friction is friction that acts on objects when they are rolling
over a surface. Rolling friction is much weaker than sliding friction or
static friction. This explains why most forms of ground transportation
use wheels, including bicycles, cars, 4-wheelers, roller skates,
scooters, and skateboards. Ball bearings are another use of rolling
friction. You can see what they look like in the Figure below. They
let parts of a wheel or other machine roll rather than slide over on
another.
The ball bearings in this wheel reduce friction between the inner and
outer cylinders when they turn.
It is found that:
Rolling friction < sliding friction < static friction.
Fluid Friction
Fluid friction is friction that acts on objects that are moving through a
fluid. A fluid is a substance that can flow and take the shape of its
container. Fluids include liquids and gases. If you've ever tried to
push your open hand through the water in a tub or pool, then you've
experienced fluid friction. You can feel the resistance of the water
against your hand. Look at the skydiver in the Figure below. He's
falling toward Earth with a parachute. Resistance of the air against
the parachute slows his descent. The faster or larger a moving
object is, the greater is the fluid friction resisting its motion. That's
why there is greater air resistance against the parachute than the
skydiver's body.

Fun with Friction:

Activity 1:
Take a few pencils which are cylindrical in shape. Place them
parallel to each other on a table. Place a thick book over it . Now
push the book. You observe the pencils rolling as the book moves.
Do you feel it easier to move the book in this way than to slide it? Do
you think that resistance to the motion of the book has been
reduced? Have you seen heavy machinery being moved by placing
logs under it?

Concept: Rolling friction

Quiz Time
1. List four types of friction.
2. You can move heavy boxes by sliding them over the ground. Or
you can put them on a dolly, like the one in the Figure below, and
then roll them over the ground. Explain which way makes it easier to
move the boxes.

3. What is a fluid? Give an original example of fluid friction.

Advantages of Friction
• Friction between pen and paper enables us to write on the paper.
• Friction between our feet and the ground allows our movements
like standing, walking and running.
• Friction between the surface of the road and tyres of our vehicles
allow the vehicles to move without slipping.
Disadvantages of Friction
• Friction causes moving objects to stop or slow down
• Friction produces heat causing wastage of energy in machines.
• Friction causes wear and tear of moving parts of machinery, soles
of shoes, etc.
Methods of Increasing and Reducing Friction
In real life, there are circumstances where we have to increase the
friction and minimize the friction. Friction can be increased by
increasing the roughness of the surfaces in contact. For example,
treading of shoes and tires is done to increase friction. When friction
is undesirable we have to reduce the friction. Friction can be
minimized by using lubricants like oil and grease and by using ball
bearing between machine parts. A substance that is introduced
between two surfaces in contact, to reduce friction, is called a
lubricant. Fluid friction can be minimized by giving suitable shapes
to the objects moving in the fluids.

Friction Is A Necessary Evil

There are instances in daily life where friction is a necessity. For
example, without friction, we cannot hold objects in our hands; we
cannot walk and cannot light a match stick. Sometimes friction is not
desirable, for example friction between machinery parts, which
causes wear and tear. As friction is advantageous to us it is
considered as a friend but due to its disadvantages it is a foe.
Depending on the circumstance, friction can be a help or a
hindrance. Thus it is a necessary evil.
1. Complete the sentence. Friction always ____________
a. helps the motion
b. opposes the motion
c. both of these
d. none of these
2. Which one of these characteristics does a smooth surface has?
a. Less frictional force
b. More frictional force
c. Sometimes less and sometimes more force
d. All of above
3. Friction is a __________
a. Contact force
b. Non-contact force
c. Magnetic force
d. None of these
4. What kind of substances are known as lubricants
a. Increase friction
b. Decrease friction
c. Increase or decrease friction
d. None of these
5. Fluid are____
a. Gases
b. Liquids
c. Gases and liquids both
d. None of these
6. On what force of friction depends?
a. Smoothness of surface
b. Roughness of surface
c. Inclination of surface
d. Al of above
7. Friction is a /an_______
a. Evil
b. Foe
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None
8. Lubricants ________
a. Increase friction
b. Reduce friction
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None
9. Rolling friction is smaller than?
a. Sliding friction
b. Static friction
c. Fluid friction
d. All of the above
10. The shape of the airplane is like a
a. Bird
b. Car
c. Dog
d. All
Answers
1. B
2. A
3. A
4. B
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. A

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Whenever the surfaces in contact tend to move or move with

respect to each other, the force of friction comes into play
(a) only if the objects are solid.
(b) only if one of the two objects is liquid.
(c) only if one of the two objects is gaseous.
(d) irrespective of whether the objects are solid, liquid or gaseous.
Soln:
The answer is (d) irrespective of whether the objects are solid, liquid
or gaseous.
Explanation:
Force of friction acts in solids, liquids and gasses and opposes each
other’s motion.

2. In Fig.12.1, a boy is shown pushing the box from right to left. The
force of friction will act on the box
(a) from right to left (←)
(b) from left to right (→)
(c) vertically downwards (↓)
(d) vertically upwards (↑)

Soln:
The answer is (b) from left to right (→)
Explanation:
Friction always acts in the opposite direction to the motion, hence the
force of friction will be from left to right.

3. To sharpen the blade of a knife by rubbing it against a surface,

which of the following will be most suitable?
(a) stone
(b) plastic block
(c) wooden block
(d) glass block
Soln:
Answer is (a) stone
Explanation:
Stone exerts a greater frictional force which sharpens the blades
upon rubbing.

4. A toy car released with the same initial speed will travel farthest on
(a) muddy surface
(b) polished marble surface
(c) cemented surface
(d) brick surface
Soln:
The answer is (b) polished marble surface
Explanation:
Polished marble surface has the least frictional force and least inertia,
hence car will travel farther on a marble floor.

5. If we apply oil on door hinges, the friction will

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) disappear altogether
(d) will remain unchanged
Soln:
The answer is (b) decreases
Explanation:
Because oil acts as a lubricant and reduces friction.

6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Friction acts on a ball rolling along the ground.
(b) Friction acts on a boat moving on water.
(c) Friction acts on a bicycle moving on a smooth road.
(d) Friction does not act on a ball moving through air.
Soln:
The answer is (d) Friction does not act on a ball moving through air.
Explanation:
Friction acts on a body moving in the air as fluid friction

7. A boy rolls a rubber ball on a wooden surface. The ball travels a

short distance before coming to rest. To make the same ball travel
longer distance before coming to rest, he may
(a) spread a carpet on the wooden surface.
(b) cover the ball with a piece of cloth.
(c) sprinkle talcum powder on the wooden surface.
(d) sprinkle sand on the wooden surface
Soln:
Answer is (c) sprinkle talcum powder on the wooden surface.
Explanation:
Applying talcum powder will reduce the frictional force, which will
make the ball to travel a longer distance.
8. In a large commercial complex, there are four ways to reach the
main road. One of the paths has loose soil, the second is laid with
polished marble, the third is laid with bricks and the fourth has a
gravel surface. It is raining heavily and Paheli wishes to reach the
main road. The path on which she is least likely to slip is
(a) loose soil.
(b) polished marble.
(c) bricks.
(d) gravel.
Soln:
The answer is (d) gravel.
Explanation:
The only path will have sufficient frictional force to walk easily, hence
the answer is (d) gravel.

Q.9 The maximum value of force required to make the body just to
slide is known as
(A) dynamic friction
(B) static friction
(C) limiting friction
(D) rolling friction

Ans- C

Q.10 What can you use to reduce the force of friction on an object?
(A) Lubricate the surface
(B) Streamline the body shape
(C) Reduce the surface area in contact of two bodies
(D) All of these

Ans - D
 Class VIII Science
Notes for Light
Facts that Matter
• We can see an object only when light from an object enters our
eyes. The light may have been emitted by the object or may have
been reflected by the object.
• A mirror changes the direction of light that falls on it.
• Actually a narrow beam of light is made of several rays. For
simplicity, we use the term ray for a narrow beam of light.
Reflection: The mirror surface or a shiny surface scatters back a
beam of light falling on it. This scattering back of light by mirror or
shiny surface is known as reflection.
• The ray of light which falls on the mirror is called incident ray. The
point at which incident ray falls on the surface of a mirror is called
point of incidence.
• The ray that comes hack from the surface of a mirror after
reflection is known as the reflected ray.
• Normal: A perpendicular (a line making an angle of 900) at the
point of incidence (where the incident ray strikes the mirror) is known
as normal to the reflecting surface at point.
• The angle between the incident ray and the normal is called the
angle of incidence (��i).
• The angle between the normal and reflected ray is called the
angle of reflection (��i).

• Laws of reflection

reflection. (∠r), i.e. ∠i = ∠r.

— The angle of incidence (∠i) is always equal to the angle of
 — The incident ray, the normal at the point of incidence and the
reflected ray all lie in the same plane.
• The image formed by a plane mirror is erect. It is virtual (image
cannot be obtained on screen) and is of the same size as the object,
The image is at the same distance behind the mirror as the object is
in front of it.
• The image formed by a plane mirror: The left side of the object is
seen on the right side in the image, and right side of the object
appears to the left side in the image. This is known as lateral
inversion.

Fig. 16.2. Lateral inversion In a plane mirror.

• Irregular and regular reflection. When rays of light fall on uneven
shiny surface, the reflected rays are scattered in all directions, as
shown in Fig. 16.3. In this case reflected rays are not parallel. Such
a reflection is known as diffused or irregular reflection. It is caused
due to irregularities of the reflecting surface.
 When rays of light fall on smooth shiny surface, they are reflected in
a particular direction as shown in Fig. 16.4 and are parallel. Such a
reflection is called regular reflection. Images are formed by regular
reflection.
• Nearly everything we see around is seen due to reflected light.
The objects which shine in the light of other object are called
illuminated objects.
The objects which emit their own light are known as luminous
objects.
• Periscope: The periscope makes use of two plane mirrors placed
in shaped box at 4 5�, as shown in Fig. 1.5.

Fig. 16.5. Mirror 1 and Mirror 2 placed at 45 .

Due to reflection from mirror 1 and reflection from mirror 2 one is
able to see objects which are not visible directly. Periscopes are
used in submarines, tanks and also by soldiers in bunker to see
things outside.

• Kaleidoscope
— It is based on the principle of multiple reflections. It consists
of three plane mirror strips arranged at 60 o to each other in a tube
(hard card board tube).
 Fig. 16.6. Compents of kaleidoscope without outer circular tube.
— One end of the tube is closed with the two circular glass
discs-the inner being transparent glass and outer being of ground
glass.
— Glass pieces or bangle pieces of various colours are kept
between the two discs.
— The other end is covered with transparent glass disc through
which one can view the glass pieces.
— Due to reflection in mirrors hexagonal patterns of coloured
bangles can be seen.
— As the tube is slowly rotated, new floral designs with different
colour combinations can be seen.
— An interested feature of a kaleidoscope is that you will never-
see the same pattern again.
— Designers of fhbries, wallpapers and artists use kaleidoscope
to get idea for new patterns.
• Dispersion: Splitting of light into its colours is called dispersion.
The sunlight is retrrred to as white light that consists of seven
colours.
• Cornea: The outer coat of the eye is white. Its transparent front
part is called cornea.
• Iris: A dark muscular structure present behind cornea is called
iris. The colour of the iris determines the colour of the eye.
• Pupil: It is a small opening in the iris. The size of the pupil is
controlled by the is. Thus, iris controls the amount of light entering
into the eye.
• Eye Lens: It is a double convex lens situated behind the iris. The
eye lens has the capacity to change its focal length. So that it can
focus the images of objects at different distances an the retina of the
eye.

Fig. 16.7. Structure of the human eye.

• Retina: It is the innermost. layer of the eyeball on which eye lens
focuses the image, Retina consists of:
— Nerve cells: Visual sensations are felt by nerve cells.
— Cone cells: They are sensitive to bright light. Cone cells
sense colours.
— Rod cells: rfhev are sensitive to dim light.
• Optic Nerves: Sensations felt by the nerve cells of the retina are
transmitted to the brain through the optic nerves.
• Blind Spot and Yellow Spot: At the junction of the optic nerve and
the retina, there are no rods and cones. So no vision is possible at
that spot. This spot is called blind spot.
Yellow spot is located in the centre of the retina. It has maximum
concentration of light sensitive cells.
• The impression of an image persists for about 1116 of a second
on the retina even after we have stopped seeing the object. If still
images of a moving object are flashed on the eye at a rate faster
than 16 second, then the eye perceives this object as mooing.
• Range of normal vision: The distance between infinity and 25 cm
is called the range of normal vision. The most comfortable distance
at which one can read with a normal eye is about 25 cm.
• Cataract: Tt is the eye disease in which eye lens becomes opaque
and eye sight becomes fob.
The disease is treated by removing the opaque lens and
inserting a new artificial lens.
• Lack of vitamin A in diet may cause many eye diseases such as
night blindness.
• Braille: Louis Braille developed a system for visually challenged
persons and published it in 1821.
Braille system has 63 dot patterns er characters. These patterns
when embossed on Braille sheets help visually challenged persons
to recognise words by touching.
• Owl can see very well in the night. It has a large cornea and a
large pupil to allow more light in its eyes. Its retina has a large
number of rods but only a few cones. These features enable an owl
to see in the night. During the day, a large pupil allows so much light
in the eye that the owl cannot see objects.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Part of the eye which controls the light entering is called
(a) iris
(b) cornea
(c) lens
(d) retina
Soln:
Answer is (a) iris
Explanation:
Iris is a dark muscular structure exists behind the cornea. Its function
is to control the entry of light.

2. We can see a non-luminous object when light:

(a) emitted by the object falls on the eye.
(b) is reflected from the object towards our eye.
(c) completely passes through the object.
(d) gets completely absorbed by the object.
Soln:
The answer is (b) is reflected from the object towards our eye.
3. Light is falling on surface S1, S2, S3 as shown in Fig.16.1.

Surfaces on which the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of

reflection is/are
(a) S1 only
(b) S1 and S2 only
(c) S2 and S3
(d) all the three surfaces
Soln:
The answer is (d) all the three surfaces
Explanation:
Laws of reflection are always followed irrespective of the surface of
the object hence the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
reflection.
4. A tiny mirror M is fixed on a piece of cardboard placed on a table.
The cardboard is illuminated by light from a bulb. The position of the
eye with respect to the position of the bulb is shown in Fig.16.2 as A,
B, C and D. In which position mirror will be visible?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
Soln:
Answer is (a) A
Explanation:
In case of A ray of light from A strikes mirror and gets reflected back
to make an angle of incidence and angle of reflection equal.

5. A small hole P is made in a piece of cardboard. The hole is

illuminated by a torch as shown in Fig. 16.3. The pencil of light
coming out of the hole falls on a mirror.
At which point should the eye be placed so that the hole can be seen?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Soln:
Answer is (a) A
Explanation:
The eye should be placed at position A because the hole can be seen
only when the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

6. Two mirrors A and B are placed at right angles to each other as

shown in Fig.16.4.
A ray of light incident on mirror A at an angle of 250 falls on mirror B
after reflection. The angle of reflection for the ray reflected from
mirror B would be
(a) 250
(b) 500
(c) 650
(d) 1150
Soln:
Answer is (c) 650
Explanation:
The angle of reflection for the ray reflected from mirror B will be 65°
because reflected ray from mirror A forms incident ray on mirror 6
and then reflected back by an angle of 65°.

7. Which of the following statements is correct regarding rods and

cones in the human eye?
(a) Cones are sensitive to dim light.
(b) Cones are sensitive to bright light.
(c) Rods are sensitive to bright light.
(d) Rods can sense colour.
Soln:
The answer is (b) Cones are sensitive to bright light.
Explanation:
Cones are sensitive to bright light hence they sense the colour
whereas rods are sensitive to dim light and they cannot sense colour.

8. In the figure of the human eye (Fig.16.5), the cornea is represented

by the letter

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Soln:
Answer is (c) C
Explanation:
1. Iris
2. Lens
3. Cornea
Very Short Answer Questions

9. Name the part of the eye which gives colour to the eyes
Soln:
Iris the part of the eye which gives colour to the eyes.

10. Boojho while waving his hand very fast in front of his eyes,
observes that his fingers appear blurred. What could be the reason
for it?
Soln:
Persistence of vision is the reason for the blurred vision of Boojho
while waving his hand very fast in front of his eyes, observes that his
fingers appear blurred.

11. How many times is a ray of light reflected by two plane mirrors
placed parallel and facing each other?
Soln:
An infinite number of times a ray of light reflected by two plane
mirrors placed parallel and facing each other.

12. The angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray is 60°.
What is the value of the angle of incidence?
Soln:
Answer is 30°.
Explanation:
The angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence. Since Angle
of incident ray+ Angle of reflected ray is 60°.
The angle of incidence = 30°

13. The distance between the object and its image formed by a plane
mirror appears to be 24 cm. What is the distance between the mirror
and the object?
Soln:
The distance will be 12 cm
Explanation:
Object +image formed =24 cm
Object +mirror =12 cm
Short Answer Questions

14. What happens to light when it gets dispersed? Give an example.

Soln:
When the light gets dispersed it is split into its constituent colours.
Ex: rainbow.

15. Draw Fig.16.6 showing the position of the plane mirror. Also, label
the angle of incidence and angle of reflection on it.

Soln:

16. Look at Fig.16.7. Can the image of the child in it be obtained on a

screen?
Soln:
No, the image of the child cannot be obtained on a screen because
the image is a virtual image.

17. Eyes of the nocturnal birds have large cornea and a large pupil.
How does this structure help them?
Soln:
They can see objects even in the faint light. As a large pupil and large
cornea allow more light to enter their eyes.

18. What kind of lens is there in our eyes? Where does it form the
image of an object?
Soln:
Our eyes have a convex type of lens and the image is formed on the
retina.

19. Which part of the eye gets affected if someone is suffering from
cataract? How is it treated?
Soln:
If a person is suffering from cataract their eye lens will be cloudy.
Cataract can be treated by replacing the opaque lens by an artificial
lens.
Long Answer Questions

20. Boojho planned activity to observe an object A through pipes as

shown in Fig. 16.8, so that he could see objects which he could not
directly see.
(a) How many mirrors should he use to see the objects?
(b) Indicate the positions of the mirrors in the figure.
(c) What must be the angle with respect to the incident light at which
he should place the mirrors?
(d) Indicate the direction of the rays in the figure.
(e) If any of the mirrors are removed, will he be able to see the
objects?
Soln:
a) Three mirrors should he use to see the objects.
b)

c) 45°
d)
e) He will not be able to see the objects.

21. There is a mistake in each of the following ray diagrams given as

Fig. 16.9 a, b, and c. Make the necessary correction (s).

Soln:
The Fig. in all the three cases after correction should be as in the
given figure

22. Explain the process which enables us to perceive motion in a

cartoon film.
Soln:
Carton movie is actually a projection of a static picture. 24 pictures
per second are shown in a specific order which gives us the
perception of movement.

23. How is the phenomenon of reflection used in making a

kaleidoscope? What are the applications of a kaleidoscope?
Soln:
The kaleidoscope gives a number of images formed by reflection from
the mirrors inclined to one another. Designers and artists use
kaleidoscope to get ideas for new patterns to design wallpapers,
Jewellery and fabrics.

24. Fig. 16.10 shows the word REST written in two ways in front of a
mirror. Show how the word would appear in the mirror.

Soln:
25. Write down the names of parts of the eye in the blank spaces
shown in Fig. 16.10.

Soln:
1. Ciliary muscle
2. Iris
3. Lens
4. Cornea
5. Retina
6. Optic Nerve
 Class VIII Science
Notes for Sound
Introduction
Sound is a form of energy and it comes from vibrations. These
vibrations create sound waves which move through mediums such
as air and water before reaching our ears. Understand how sound
waves come from vibrations in the form of compression and
rarefaction and how your ears give you the ability to hear them.
The difference between Musical sound and noise - Music is
produced by periodic vibrations, having regular wave pattern e.g.
sound of musical instruments. Noise is produced by irregular
vibrations, having irregular wave pattern. e.g.. sound produced by
moving vehicle.
Learn about the characteristics of sound.
• Loudness-It distinguishes between loud and feeble sound.
• Pitch-It distinguishes between shriller and flatter sound.
• Timbre or quality-It distinguishes one sound from other having
same loudness and pitch.
Learn about free(natural ) vibrations - When we strike the keys of a
piano, various strings set in vibrations at their natural frequencies in
absence of any external force on it. Damped vibrations - When a
body is made to vibrate in a medium, the amplitude of vibrating body
continuously decreases with time and ultimately body stops
vibrating. Such vibrations are called the damped vibrations.
When we want to tune a radio or TV set, we merely adjust the values
of electronic components to produce vibrations of frequency equal to
that of radio waves which we want to receive. Learn how this
matching is done due to resonance. Resonance is the phenomenon
when the frequency of an applied periodic force is equal to its the
natural frequency, the body readily begins to vibrate with an
increased amplitude. Understand the conditions of resonance and
forced vibrations.
Sound needs a medium to propagate
The traveling of sound is called propagation of sound. Sound cannot
propagate in the absence of a medium. The place where there is no
air or air is removed, is called vacuum. Sound does not propagate
(travels) through vacuum.
Sound travels through solid, liquid and gas.
We usually hear sound which comes to us through air.
Aquatic animals communicate as sound travels through water also.
We hear the sound through ear
Vibrations Produce sound
How is sound produced? From loudspeakers to guitars, all sound-
producing devices share one common feature: vibration. The amount
of vibration, as well as the speed of the vibration, produce the
different sounds our ears can recognize.
In this blog post, we�ll look at the science behind sound and study
how instruments like the guitar and piano create sound. We�ll also
look at how modern hi-fi systems produce sound, as well as factors
that can affect the clarity of sound.
The science behind sound

In simple terms, sound is vibration. The complex internal structure of

our ears can respond to the waves produced by vibration, whether in
the form of bass drum or an acoustic guitar.
When an instrument produces vibrations, it creates oscillating sound
waves. Some of these waves are audible to humans, while others
are very deep or high-pitched, and fall outside the human range of
hearing.
A variety of metrics are used to measure sound�s intensity, volume
and pitch. The pitch of sound is measures in hertz. One hertz (Hz)
refers to the complete cycle of sound waves per second. Thus,
5,000Hz is equal to 5,000 cycles per second.
The human ear can generally perceive sound between 20Hz and
20,000Hz. Animals can often hear sound that humans can�t. For
example, dogs can hear sounds at very high frequencies � often
above 20,000Hz � but cannot hear low frequency sounds.
How instruments produce sound

All sound is created through vibration. In fact, some people can

perceive sounds by focusing solely on the vibration an instrument
creates. Ludwig van Beethoven, who famously went deaf late in his
life, continued to compose by using the vibration of his piano to
�listen� to his compositions.
Sound requires two components to be audible to the human ear:
vibration, as well as amplification. Amplification can be provided by
physical devices like the hollow body of a guitar, or by electrical hi-fi
systems and speakers.
Let�s start with the guitar. Acoustic guitars produce sound through
the vibration of their strings. This sound is amplified by the guitar�s
hollow body, and the different strings each produce a different
frequency � and thus different pitch � of sound.
The neck of a guitar contains anywhere from 12 to 24 frets. By
pressing on each of these frets, the player changes the tension of
the string, leading to a new frequency and a different pitch of note or
chord.
On a piano, sound is created in almost exactly the same way.
Instead of plucking the strings, piano players push keys which trigger
hammers that push the strings inside the piano. The body of the
piano amplifies this sound just like the body of a guitar.
While other instruments use different methods to create vibration
and sound waves, the principles are the same: sound waves are
created through vibration, and pitch is manipulated by changing the
frequency of the vibration and sound waves.
How speakers produce sound
If you�ve ever taken the protective covers off a pair of hi-fi
speakers, you�ll know that they vibrate when you play music.
Speakers produce sound using vibration, just like a piano or guitar.
However, the design of speakers lets them create a far wider range
of sounds than a piano or guitar could produce.
Instead of using human energy to create vibration, like the plucking
motion used to play a guitar or the tap of a piano key�s hammer,
speakers convert electrical energy into vibration which, in turn,
produces sound. Digital audio production software often includes a
live view of sound waves as they are playing. The peaks in this view
are the periods at which sound is loudest. This is when your
speakers will be vibrating the most.
Most speakers include several different speaker drivers, each of
which can produce sounds of a certain frequency. The most common
speaker drivers include tweeters, mid-range, woofers, and
subwoofers.
Sound clarity and acoustics

Have you ever heard an echo in a large room? Echoes occur when
the sound waves produced by an instrument (including the human
voice) or loudspeaker bounce off surfaces and travel back into your
ears.
Echoes can occur in live venues such as stadiums, or in enclosed
spaces like lounges and living rooms.
One of the biggest challenges audio engineers and producers face is
reducing echoes in studios and live performance venues.
Since sound is created by vibration, the best way to reduce echoes
is by installing a material that absorbs energy. This is why most
studios have foam padding on their walls, or thick carpets designed
to prevent sound reflecting and causing an echo.

1. Eardrum is a part of
a. Sound producing organ
b. Skeletal system
c. Hearing organ
d. Reproductive organ
2. The hearing range of human ear is
a. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
b. Less than20 Hz
c. More than 20,000 Hz
d. 20 Hz to 25,000 Hz
3. The voice box is called:
a. Stomach
b. Heart
c. Larynx
d. Mouth
4. Large amplitude of sound vibrations will produce:
a. Loud sound
b. Meak sound
c. Slow sound
d. Shreak
5. The pitch of sound depends on
a. frequency
b. amplitude
c. both of these
d. none of these
6. Sound is kind of
a. Work
b. Energy
 c. Force
d. None
7. To an fro motion of an object is called
a. Waves
b. Amplitude
c. Vibration
d. All of the above
8. Voice box or larynx of human process
a. Sound
b. Wind
c. Loudness
d. None
9. Sound propagates maximum in
a. Gas
b. Liquid
c. Solid
d. All
10. Noise pollution is harmful for
a. Human
b. Cat
c. Bird
d. All
ANSWERS
1. C
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. c
10. D

Multiple-choice Questions

1. A list of mediums is given below.

(i) wood
(ii) water
(iii) air
(iv) vacuum
In which of these mediums can sound travel?
(a) i & ii only
(b) i, ii & iii only
(c) iii & iv only
(d) ii, iii & iv only
Soln:
Answer is (b) i, ii & iii only
Explanation:
Sound requires a medium to travel. In a vacuum, there is no medium
to transmit sound waves hence sound cannot travel in a vacuum.

2. The loudness of a sound depends on:

(a) its amplitude.
(b) its frequency.
(c) its time period.
(d) its speed.
Soln:
Answer is (a) its amplitude.
Explanation:
Loudness is directly proportional to the amplitude of sound waves. If
the amplitude is high then the sound will be louder and the sound will
be feeble if the amplitude is low.

3. Which of the following statements is correct?

(i) Sound is produced by vibrations.
(ii) Sound requires a medium for propagation.
(iii) Light and sound both require a medium for propagation.
(iv) Sound travels slower than light.
(a) i & ii only
(b) i, ii & iii only
(c) ii, iii & iv only
(d) i, ii & iv only
Soln:
Answer is (d) i, ii & iv only
Explanation:
Statement iii) is wrong because light and sound are two different
entities.
4. An object is vibrating at 50 hertz. What is its time period?
(a) 0.02 s
(b) 2 s
(c) 0.2 s
(d) 20.0 s
Soln:
Answer is (a) 0.02 s
Explanation:
If an object is vibrating at 50 hertz
50 = 1/T
T = 1/50
T = 0.02s
Its time period will be 0.02 sec

5. In order to reduce the loudness of a sound, we have to

(a) decrease its frequency of vibration of the sound.
(b) increase its frequency of vibration of the sound.
(c) decrease its amplitude of vibration of the sound.
(d) increase its amplitude of vibration of the sound.
Soln:
Answer is (c) decrease its amplitude of vibration of the sound.
Explanation:
Sound is directly proportional to the loudness of sound. Hence by
decreasing amplitude loudness of the sound decreases.

6. The loudness of sound is measured in units of

(a) Decibel (dB)
(b) Hertz (Hz)
(c) Metre (m)
(d) Metre/Second (m/s)
Soln:
Answer is (a) Decibel (dB)

7. The loudness of sound is determined by the

(a) amplitude of vibration
(b) the ratio of amplitude and frequency of vibration
(c) frequency of vibration
(d) product of amplitude and frequency of vibration
Soln:
Answer is (a) amplitude of vibration
Explanation:
Loudness is directly proportional to the amplitude of sound waves. If
the amplitude is high, then the sound will be louder and the sound will
be feeble if the amplitude is low.

8. 1 hertz is equal to
(a) 1 vibration per minute
(b) 10 vibrations per minute
(c) 60 vibrations per minute
(d) 600 vibrations per minute
Soln:
Answer is (c) 60 vibrations per minute
Explanation:
1Hz= 1 vibration/second
1 minute=60 seconds hence 1 hertz = 60 vibrations /minute

9. Pitch of sound is determined by its

(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) speed
(d) loudness
Soln:
Answer is (a) frequency

10. Ultrasound has a frequency of vibration

(a) between 20 and 20,000 Hz
(b) below 20 Hz
(c) above 20,000 Hz
(d) between 500 and 10,000 Hz
Soln:
Answer is (c) above 20,000 Hz
 Notes For CROP PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT
Facts that Matter
• Agriculture: The applied branch of biology which deals with
cultivation of plants and rearing of animals is called agriculture.
Generally, the art or practice of cultivating land is referred as
agriculture. The branch of agriculture which deals with food, health
and management of animals is known as animal husbandry.
• Crop: When plants of the same kind are grown and cultivated at
one place on a large scale is called as a crop.
• Crops are also classified on the basis of the seasons as given
below:
▸ Kharif Crops: The crops which are grown during the monsoon
(rainy) season (June-September) are called kharif crops. For
example, maize, millet (bajra) and cotton crops. Seeds of these
crops are sown in the beginning of the monsoon season. After
maturation, these crops are harvested at the end of the monsoon
season (Oct.-Nov.).
▸ Rabi Crops: Crops which are grown during the winter season
(October-March) are called rabi crops. For example, wheat, gram
and mustard. Seeds of these crops are sown in the beginning of the
winter season. After maturation of crops, they are harvested at the
end of the winter season (April-May).
• Agricultural Practices: All activities which farmers do for the
cultivation of plants are called agricultural practices.
For doing various activities, a farmer needs different types of
tools. These tools which are involved in cultivation of plants are
called agricultural implements. Farmers perform agricultural
practices in a sequence.
• Various Agricultural Practices:
(i) Preparation of soil
(ii) Sowing
(iii) Adding manure and fertilizers
(iv) Irrigation
(v) Protection from weeds
(vi) Harvesting
(vii) Storage.
• Agricultural Implements:
 ▸ Plough
▸ Hoe
▸ Cultivator
▸ Seed drill
• Implements used for traditional ways of Irrigation:
▸(a) Moat (b) Dhekli
(c) Rahat
(d) Chain pump and
(e) Motor pumps
• Basic Practices of Crop Production
▸ Preparation of Soil: Before sowing the crop seeds, the soil of
fields is loosened and overturned.
This process is called ploughing or tilling. Ploughing causes
ventilation of soil and makes it suitable for the growth of small
organisms living in it.
▸ Plough: A large farming implement with one or more blades
fixed in a frame, used to turn over and cut furrows in soil, is called
plough. Plough may be made of only wood, wood and iron, and of
iron only (Fig. 1.1).
▸ Ploughshare: The main cutting blade of a plough.
▸ Hoe: A tool which is used for removing weeds and for
loosening the soil.
▸ Cultivator: Nowadays ploughing is done by a tractor driven
cultivator. The use of cultivator saves labour and time (Fig. 1.2).
▸ Sowing of Seeds: For sowing, farmers obtain certified seeds
from State Agriculture Department and Seed Corporation.
Sometimes, farmers also select seeds from their own crop. For
selection of seeds of most of the crops, seeds are put into a bucket
of water. The seeds which float on water are rejected. These seeds
are defective. The seeds which remain submerged in water are
selected for sowing. The selected seeds are treated with chemicals
such as agrosan or ceresan. This chemical treatment protects
seedling from seed-borne diseases. Seeds are sown either by hand-
broadcasting (spreading) or by seed drills (Fig. 1.3). A type of seed
drill, commonly used, is a long iron pipe having a funnel at the top. It
is tied at the back of the plough [Fig. 1.4(a)].
A farmer does ploughing and simultaneously releases seeds
from the funnel. Seeds thus released pass through iron pipe to the
soil furrows which are formed by the plough.
 ▸ Adding Manure and Fertilisers: Like other plants, crop
plants also obtain their mineral nutrients from the soil. Continuous
growing of crop in the field causes deficiency of mineral nutrients in
the soil. So, the manure is added to the soil to make up the
deficiency of mineral nutrients. This process is called manuring.
Manure is prepared from cow dung, urine and other wastes.
Sometimes, soil becomes deficient in a particular mineral
nutrients. This happens when same crop is grown in the same field
year after year. For example, a particular crop takes more
phosphate. If this crop is grown in a field every year, the soil will
become deficient in phosphorus nutrient. This type of deficiency of a
particular nutrient is made up by adding chemical substances called
fertilisers. For example: urea, super phosphate and NPK (Nitrogen,
Phosphorus, Potassium).
▸ Irrigation: The supply of water to crops at different intervals is
called irrigation. The time and frequency of irrigation varies from
crop to crop, soil to soil and season to season.
• Methods of Irrigation
▸ Traditional methods:
— Moat (pulley-system)
— Chain pump
— Dhekli — Rahat
▸ Modern methods:
— Sprinkler system
— Drip system
• Protection from Weed
The unwanted plants in the fields are called weeds. Seeds of
these weeds spread through the agencies like air, water, birds and
other animals. Weeds share water, sunlight, space, nutrients with the
crop plants. Thus they compete with the crop plants. Therefore, their
removal is necessary. Otherwise, crop plants do not get sufficient
space, water, sunlight and nutrient to grow healthier. Weeds are
weeded out either by hand or with the help of an implement called
harrow. Nowadays, for checking the growth of weeds, certain
chemicals are used. These chemicals are called weedicides, such as
2, 4-D.
• Harvesting and Threshing: When crops pet matured, they
usually turn yellow or golden or brown. This is the time when crops
should be cut. Cutting of crops is known as harvesting. Harvesting is
either done manually by a sickle or by a machine called harvester.
Harvested crop is further dried and then animals such as bullocks,
buffaloes, camels are made to walk over it. The grains are separated
from chaff with the help of wind (winnowing) (Fig. 1.6). The whole
process of separation of the grains from the harvested crop is known
as threshing.
Big farmers use huge machines known as combines which do
both harvesting and threshing.
• Special festivals associated with the harvest seasons
are: Pongal, Baishakhi, Holi, Diwali, Nabanya and Bihu.
▸ Storage: Grains obtained by threshing are dried in the open.
The dried grains are stored in gunny bags, and placed in properly
ventilated cemented halls, known as godowns. Farmers keep dried
grains in jute bags or metallic bins or mud bins. Large scale storage
of grains is done in silos (Fig. 1.7) and granaries (Fig. 1.8). For
storing large quantities of grains in big godowns, specific chemical
treatments are used to protect them from pests and microorganisms.
• Animal Husbandary: Food is also obtained from animals for
which animals are reared and provided with proper food, shelter and
care. When done on a large scale, it is called animal husbandry.

Choose the correct option:

1. Watering the crops is called:
(a) sowing
(b) manuring
(c) tilling
(d) irrigation

2. Weeds are the:

(a) main crop plants
(b) insects and pests
(c) unwanted plants growing along the crop
(d) chemical substances

3. Combines are used for:

(a) sowing of seeds
(b) harvesting the crops
(c) threshing
(d) harvesting and threshing both.
4. Separating grains from chaff is called:
(a) winnowing
(b) threshing
(c) fallow
(d) harvesting.

5. Weedicides are used to destroy:

(a) insects
(b) weeds
(c) pests
(d) none of these.

6. Kharif crops are sown in

(a) March, April
(b) May, June
(c) October, November
(d) Any time.

7. Wheat and gram belong to

(a) Rabi crops
(b) Kharif crops
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these.

8. Examples of kharif crops are

(a) Wheat and maize
(b) Gram and maize
(c) Paddy and maize
(d) All of these.
9. 2-4D is a
(a) Pesticides
(b) Insecticides
(c) Fungicides
(d) Weedicides.
10. Seed drill is used to
(a) sow the seeds
(b) remove the weeds
(c) remove the pest
(d) mix manure in the soil.
1. Organic wastes can be decomposed to form ________, which can
sustainably enhance the nutrient content of the soil.
A. compost
B. cow dung
C. fertiliser
D. pesticide
Answer: (A) compost
Solution: Composting is a process in which organic wastes are
decomposed naturally to form a nutrient-rich compost. It is a natural
and environment-friendly process, which forms a key feature in
organic farming. Organic substances like animal faeces, leaves, grass
clippings, vegetables, eggshells, etc., can also be composted and
used on farms.

2. Select the method(s) of irrigation which can be employed on

uneven land.
(i) Moat
(ii) Sprinkler
(iii) Chain Pump
(iv) Drip System
A. (ii) and (iv)
B. Only (iv)
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. (i) and (ii)
Answer: (A) (ii) and (iv)
Solution: Traditional methods of irrigation, such as moats and chain
pumps, are useful only in plains where the terrain aids the flow of
water into the fields. However, both sprinkler and drip systems of
irrigation are very efficient, even on uneven land.

3. Which of the following is a rabi crop?

A. Rice
B. Mustard
C. Soyabean
D. Maize
Answer: (B) Mustard
Solution: Crops which are grown during the rainy season are called
Kharif crops. Paddy (rice), millets and cotton are examples of Kharif
crops. On the other hand, crops grown during the winter season are
called rabi crops. Rabi crops include wheat, gram, and mustard.
4. Which of the following should be used by a farmer with a large farm
to harvest his crops quickly and efficiently?
A. Winnowing machine
B. Combine
C. Sickle
D. Seed drill
Answer: (B) Combine
Solution: Cutting of the crop close to the ground after it is mature is
called harvesting. Farmers with small farms harvest their crops
manually using tools like a sickle. However, after harvesting, they
need to undertake threshing and winnowing manually. Whereas
farmers with huge farms cannot deploy manual labour for harvesting
and threshing as it is more time-consuming. Instead, it is more
efficient for them to use machines such as a combine. A combine
performs the function of both harvesters as well as threshers. This
saves a lot of time and manual labour.

5. In today’s world, where water is a scarce resource, which of the

following irrigation methods is most feasible and sustainable?
A. Sprinkler system
B. Drip system
C. Tube well
D. Chain pump
Answer: (B) Drip system
Solution: Drip irrigation is a technique in which water flows through a
filter into special drip pipes. It helps in releasing water drop by drop
into the soil near the roots of plants. In contrast to other types of
irrigation systems, such as overhead sprinklers, water can be more
precisely applied to the plant roots. If designed, installed and
managed properly, this method contributes greatly to water
conservation by reducing evaporation.

6. Consider the following statements about weeding and identify

the incorrect one.
A. Weeding is best done during tilling itself.
B. Weeding is the process of growing weed.
C. Weeding is the process of removal of weeds.
D. Weeding is usually done manually or by using weedicides.
Answer: (B) Weeding is the process of growing weed.
Solution: Weeding is the process of removal of weeds (unwanted
plants) in agricultural land. It is a process best done before planting
and during tilling so that weeds do not mature and do not interfere
with the harvesting process. Weeding can be done manually by using
tools like khurpi or chemically done by using weedicides.

7. What are the important steps in the preparation of soil?

A. Loosening and sowing
B. Loosening and weeding
C. Turning and sowing
D. Turning and loosening
Answer: (D) Turning and loosening
Solution: Turning and loosening are important steps in the
preparation of soil because they help in the penetration of the root
deep into the soil.

8. Which of the following is not a traditional irrigation method?

A. Moat
B. Chain pump
C. Lever system
D. Drip system
Answer: (D) Drip system
Solution: Irrigation is the process in which water is supplied to plants
at regular intervals for agriculture. The traditional methods of
irrigation include a moat, chain pump, dhekli and rahat. Modern
methods comprise the use of sprinklers and drip systems of
irrigation.

9. If you were a farmer, which of the following methods would you use
to separate good quality and viable grains from a heap of grains after
harvest?
A. Checking the weight of grains.
B. Checking grains under sunlight for pores.
C. Immersing the grains in water.
D. Sowing seeds and waiting for germination.
Answer: (C) Immersing the grains in water.
Solution: The most appropriate and simple method of separating
good quality grains from the damaged ones is by immersing all the
grains in water. Doing this will cause damaged or bad grains to float
up because they are hollow. The viable or good seeds, on the other
hand, will sink and settle at the bottom.

10. Which of the following is used to preserve food grains at home?

A. Spinach leaves
B. Curry leaves
C. Neem leaves
D. Tulsi leaves
Answer: (C) Neem leaves
Solution: Dried neem leaves are used to preserve food grains at home
to protect them from pests and microorganisms. Extracts of neem
leaves and neem fruits repel more than 200 species of mites, worms
and insects and hence is a convenient resource to protect grains at
home.

11. Weeds are controlled by chemicals called _________.

A. Pesticides
B. Fungicides
C. Weedicides
D. Insecticides
Answer: (C) Weedicides
Solution: Weeds are controlled using chemicals called weedicides. A
common example is 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D). They
affect only the weeds but have no effect on crops. They are diluted
with water and sprayed on the fields with a sprayer.

12. Which type of irrigation is similar to rainfall?

A. Moat
B. Sprinkler system
C. Rahat
D. Drip system
Answer: (B) Sprinkler system
Solution: Sprinkler system is a type of irrigation mostly used
on uneven land where sufficient water is not available. The
perpendicular pipes, having rotating nozzles on top, are connected to
the main pipeline at regular intervals. When water is allowed to flow
through the main pipe under pressure with the help of a pump, it
escapes from a rotating nozzle. It gets sprinkled on the crop as if it is
raining.
13. What are the advantages of preparing the soil?
A. All of these.
B. Makes decomposition by microbes easier.
C. Makes the top soil nutrient rich.
D. Allows roots to penetrate the soil easily.
Answer: (A) All of these.
Solution: Turning and loosening soil are the two most important steps
in soil preparation. The process of turning brings a deep layer of soil
that is rich in nutrients to the topmost layer of topsoil. Loosening of
soil allows roots to penetrate the soil easily and also helps in the
growth of earthworms and microbes that, in turn, help in the
formation of humus.

14. Arrange the following agricultural practices in the order in which

they are followed.
1. Harvesting
2. Sowing
3. Storage
4. Irrigation
5. Preparation of soil
A. 1→2→3→4→5
B. 5→2→4→1→3
C. 2→1→3→5→4
D. 5→3→4→1→2
Answer: (B) 5→2→4→1→3
Solution: In basic agricultural practice, the first step is to prepare the
soil for the crop. This step includes tilling or ploughing. Once the soil
is well prepared, sowing is done. After sowing, a continuous water
supply for crop growth is provided by irrigation. When the crops are
ripe, they are harvested, and the grains obtained are stored for further
use.

15. The process of loosening and turning the soil is known as:
A. Winnowing
B. Ploughing
C. Harvesting
D. Threshing
Answer: (B) Ploughing
Solution: Ploughing is the process of loosening or turning the soil. It
is done mainly using a plough, hoe or cultivator. Ploughing allows
easy penetration of roots into the soil and provides air spaces for
roots and microbes to breathe.

16. The process of drying wheat stalks in the sun and then beating
them to separate the grains is called
A. Winnowing
B. Threshing
C. Churning
D. Sieving
Answer: (B) Threshing
Solution: Threshing is done by drying the stalks in the field and then
beating them to separate grains. The process of beating the stalks
can be done by bullocks or machines. This can also be carried out
with the help of a machine called ‘combine’, which is, in fact, a
combination of harvester and thresher.

17. Which of the following tool helps in the uniform distribution of

seeds while sowing?
A. Thresher
B. Seed drill
C. Funnel connected to pipes
D. Sprinkler
Answer: (B) Seed drill
Solution: A seed drill is a sowing device that precisely positions
seeds in the soil at the proper depth and then covers them. It also
maintains a uniform distance between the seeds.

18. Which of the following animal is taken care of in animal

husbandry?
A. Rhino
B. Tiger
C. Buffalo
D. Lion
Answer: (C) Buffalo
Solution: Buffalo is a domesticated animal which is raised for farm
purposes. It provides milk and also helps in carrying out various
steps of agricultural work.

19. Identify the agricultural method in which different crops are grown
on a piece of land season after season.
 A. Irrigation
B. Monoculture
C. Crop rotation
D. Shifting cultivation
Answer: (C) Crop rotation
Solution: Crop rotation is a method in which farmers cultivate
different types of crops on a piece of land, season after season. This
method helps in reducing soil erosion and increases soil fertility and
crop yield.

20. Rhizobium bacteria in the root nodules of leguminous plants help

in fixing:
A. Sulphur
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Hydrogen
Answer: (C) Nitrogen
Solution: Rhizobium bacteria in the root nodules of leguminous
plants help in fixing nitrogen. Nitrogen has to be ‘fixed’ because
plants cannot take up nitrogen directly from the atmosphere.

Class VIII Science

Notes for Conservation of Plants and Animals
Facts that Matter
• National parks, sanctuaries and biospheres reserves are
maintained to conserve forests and wildlife.
• Deforestation and its causes:
The variety of plants and animals existing on earth are
essential for the well being and survival of mankind. Today a major
threat to survival of mankind is deforestation.
Deforestation means clearing of forests and using that land
for other purposes, i.e. for industries set up or making building for
rehabitation. The causes of deforestation may be:
- Procuring land for cultivation. - Building houses and
factories.
- Making furniture, using wood as fuel and
- Natural causes such forest fires and draughts.
• Effects of deforestation:
Deforestation causes increase of atmospheric temperature
due to increase in concentration of carbon dioxide leading to global
warming.
Severe draughts and floods.
Deforestation changes the nature of soil, water holding
capacity and soil erosion. Gradually, the fertile land gets converted
into deserts. It is called desertification.
Deforestation causes the destruction of habitat of wildlife, its
survival becomes difficult.
• Biosphere: The part of the earth in which living organisms exist
or that supports life is known as biosphere.
• Biodiversity or Biological diversity: It refers to the variety or
organisms existing on the earth. Their interrelationships and their
relationship with the environment. It includes variety of plants,
animals and microorganisms.
• Flora and Fauna: The plants found in a particular area are
termed as flora area.
The animals found in a particular area are tamed as fauna of
that area.
• Endemic Species: Those species of plants arid animals which
are found exclusively in a particular area are called endemic species
to a zone, a state or a country. For example, sal and wild mango
endemic flora of the Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve. Animals such as
Bison, Indian giant squirrel and fly squirrel are endemic fauna of this
area.
• Species: A group of population or populations whose members
have common characteristics and are capable of interbreeding
among themselves to produce fertile off-springs. Normally, members
of a species breed amongst themselves and not with members of
other species.
• Biosphere Reserve:A larger protected area meant for
conservation of biodiversity and culture of that area is called
Biosphere Reserve. A biosphere may consists of other protected
areas such as National Parks and Sanctuaries. For example,
Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve consists of one National Park called
Satpura and two Wildlife Sanctuaries known as Bori and Ault marhi.
• Wildlife Sanctuaries: These are the protected areas which
provide protection and suitable living conditions to wild animals.
Sanctuaries are places where killing (poaching) or capturing of
animals is strictly prohibited.
A sanctuary may be a reserved natural area meant for the
preservation and development of threatened/endangered species.
For example, there is the Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary for
Rhinoceros in Assam.
• National Park: A national park reserve is large and diverse
enough to protect whole set of ecosystem. National Parks preserve
flora, fauna, landscape and historic objects of an area. For example.
In the Satpura National Park, Rock shelters and Rock paintings are
also preserved along with flora and fauna.
• Comparison of a Sanctuary and a National Park:

• Endangered Animals: Animals whose numbers are diminishing

to a level that they might face extinction are known as the
endangered animals. For example, dinosaurs became extinct a long
time ago.
• Ecosystem: All the living components, such as plants, animals
and microorganisms and nonliving components such as climate, soil,
river, deltas etc. constitute an ecosystem. An ecosystem can be as
small as a pond or as big as an ocean or a forest.
• Red Data Book: The source book which keeps a record of all the
endangered animals and plants. There are different Red Data Books.
• Migration: The phenomenon of movement of a species from its
own habitat to some other for a particular time period every year for
a specific purpose like breeding is known as migration.
• Reuse and recycling of paper save trees, energy and water.
• Reforestation is restocking of the destroyed forests by planting
new trees.
1. A place in environment where an organism lives is ________
a. Home
b. Resort
c. Habitat
d. Reservoir
2. Cutting of trees on large scale is called
a. Deforestation
b. Reforestation
c. Afforestation
d. None of these
3. Deforestation takes place by
a. Human activities
b. Only by natural resources
c. Both of these
d. None of these
4. The species which are at the verge of the extinction
a. Endemic
b. Extinct
c. Endangered
d. None of these
5. The growing more and more of plants is called
a. Deforestation
b. Afforestation
c. Reforestation
d. None of these
6. Fauna indicates for
a. Plants
b. Animals
c. Bith plants and animals
d. None of these
7. The places where animals receive protection is called
a. Zoo
b. National aparks
c. Rock shelters
d. None of these
8. Project Tiger was launched on
a. 1 april 1973
b. 23 may 1973
c. 21 September 1973
d. 25 December 1973
9. Sanctuary is a place where
a. Animals are protected
b. Plants are protected
c. Office of forest department
d. None of these
10. Part of earth which supports the biodiversity is called
a. Biosphere
b. Sanctuary
c. Ecosystem reserve
d. Biotic community
ANSWERS
1. C
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. A
10. A

1. Which one of the following species is not included under the ‘Red
List’?
A. Vulnerable
B. Endangered
C. Endemic
D. Extinct
Answer: (C) Endemic
Solution: Endemic species are those species of plants and animals
which are found exclusively in a particular area. They are not naturally
found anywhere else. Endemic species are not included under red list
because the red list contains those species whose continued
existence is threatened. Each Red Data Book usually deals with a
specific group of animals or plants (e.g., reptiles, insects, mosses).

2. Creation of wildlife reserves and endorsement of laws are

conservation measures that promote increased
A. exploitation of species
B. use of biological control
C. preservation of species
D. use of biological fertilisers
Answer: (C)
Solution: The creation of wildlife reserves and enforcement of laws
are conservation measures that promote increased preservation of
species. It is estimated that tropical forests are losing 2 – 5 species
per hour or 14,000 – 40,000 species per year. If the current rate of
species extinction goes on unabated, 50% of species are liable to die
out by the end of the 21st century.

3. Identify the correctly matched pair from the following.

A. Sunderban – Rhino
B. Ranthambore – Lion
C. Gir – Lion
D. Kaziranga – Sea turtle
Answer: (C) Gir – Lion
Solution:
– Gir Sanctuary is situated in Gujarat. Lions are the highly protected
wild animals of this sanctuary. It was upgraded into a national park in
1975.
– Sunderbans is known for protecting tigers.
– Kaziranga national park is known for its one-horned rhinoceros.
– Tigers are the pride of Ranthambore National Park, which is located
in Rajasthan.

4. What is the main reason that many species are becoming

endangered?
A. Habitat Destruction
B. Disease
C. Natural Selection
D. Acid rain
Answer: (A) Habitat Destruction
Solution: When habitats are destroyed, many species are left
homeless. These species either die or get displaced. They have less
area to live and reproduce.

5. The process of conversion of fertile lands into deserts is known as:

A. Famine
B. Acid rain
C. Drought
D. Desertification
Answer: (D) Desertification
Solution: Desertification is the process in which fertile lands get
gradually converted into arid and barren lands. Eventually, these
lands get converted completely into deserts.

6. A group of the population that are capable of interbreeding is

known as:
A. Species
B. Flora
C. Sal
D. Fauna
Answer: (A) Species
Solution: Species refer to a group of living organisms which are
capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offspring.

7. Re-establishment of forest on a land that was cleared for

commercial/personal purposes is:
A. Reforestation
B. Deforestation
C. Forestation
D. Bi-forestation
Answer: (A) Reforestation
Solution: Planting trees in areas where forests were cleared for
commercial or non-commercial purposes is called reforestation.

8. ___ is referred to as the variety of animals, plants and microbes

generally found in an area.
A. Flora
B. Extinct species
C. Biodiversity
D. Fauna
Answer: (C) Biodiversity
Solution: Biodiversity refers to the variety of plants, animals and
microbes found in an area and their interrelationships with each other
and with the environment.

9. Which amongst the following is not the consequence of

deforestation?
A. Biodiversity equilibrium
B. Flash floods
C. Droughts
D. Soil erosion
Answer: (A) Biodiversity equilibrium
Solution: Biodiversity equilibrium means maintaining a balance
between the variety and variability of life on Earth which gets
influenced by deforestation. Deforestation is a major cause which
leads to the change in soil properties. Fewer trees result in more soil
erosion. Removal of the top layer of the soil exposes the lower, hard
and rocky layers. This soil has less humus and is less fertile.
Gradually the fertile land gets converted into deserts. It is called
desertification. It also leads to a decrease in the water-holding
capacity of the soil. The movement of water from the soil surface into
the ground is reduced. So, there are floods.

10. Species found exclusively in a particular area are called

______________ species.
A. Endangered
B. Endemic
C. Migrating
D. extinct
Answer: (B) Endemic
Solution: Endemic species are those species of plants or animals
which are found exclusively in a particular area. They are not naturally
found anywhere else. A particular type of animal or plant may be
endemic to a zone, a state or a country. For example, kangaroos are
endemic to Australia.

11. Animals are protected in their natural habitats in a __________ .

A. Garden
B. zoological park
C. wildlife sanctuary
D. aquarium
Answer: (C) Wildlife sanctuary
Solution: Wildlife sanctuary provides protection to wildlife species
from hunting, predation, competition or poaching. It is a heavily
guarded area or a geographic territory, within which wildlife is
protected in its natural habitat.
12. Animal life occurring in a particular region or time is known as
A. Flora
B. Biota
C. Fauna
D. species
Answer: (C) Fauna
Solution: Fauna is the animal life occurring in a particular region. The
corresponding term for plant life is flora. Blue-bull, barking deer,
cheetah, leopard, wild dog and wolf are examples of fauna of the
Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve.

13. Birds that travel long distances to overcome harsh conditions are
known as _______ .
A. travelling birds
B. flying birds
C. endangered birds
D. migratory birds
Answer: (D) Migratory birds
Solution: Birds travelling long distances seasonally, to reach faraway
lands with suitable climate conditions, are called migratory birds.
They migrate each year at a particular season to escape from harsh
climatic conditions. Examples of migratory birds include the Arctic
tern and the Siberian crane.

14. Which act was aimed at the preservation and conservation of

natural forests in India?
A. Forest Conservation Act
B. Forest Preservation Act
C. Prevention act
D. Biodiversity Act
Answer: (A) Forest Conservation Act
Solution: The Forest Conservation Act 1980 was implemented to help
conserve the country’s forests. It strictly restricts and regulates the
use of forest land for non-forest purposes without the prior approval
of the Central Government.

15. Animals that are diminishing to a level of extinction are called

A. endangered species
B. extinct species
C. endemic species
D. dangerous species
Answer: (A) Endangered species
Solution: Endangered species are the species which have been
categorised by the International Union for Conservation of Nature
(IUCN) as likely to become extinct. These species are diminishing to a
level of extinction. For example, Asian elephants, Vietnamese
pheasants, etc.

16. Why do people visit national parks in well-protected vehicles?

A. Animals move freely inside a national park
B. There are well-built roads inside a national park
C. To enjoy the ride in a different vehicle
D. The tourists are lazy to walk
Answer: (A) Animals move freely inside a national park
Solution: In any national park, the animals and plants are aimed to be
conserved in their natural habitat so wild animals are not kept in
captivity. Hence, tourists watch them through a well-protected vehicle
for their own safety.

17. Which of the following is not responsible for causing global

warming?
A. Ozone layer
B. Jet planes
C. Methane
D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: (A) Ozone layer
Solution:
∙ Ozone layer acts as a shield which absorbs the harmful UV rays from
the sun and is found in the stratosphere.
∙ Global warming is a phenomenon of climate change which is
characterised by an increase in the average temperature of the Earth.
It is directly linked to the increase of greenhouse gases like carbon
dioxide and methane in the atmosphere.

18. Excessive combustion of fossil fuels leads to __________ .

A. Deforestation
B. volcanic eruptions
C. global warming
D. earthquakes
Answer: (C) global warming
Solution: Greenhouse gases (carbon dioxide, methane, water vapour,
etc.) trap the sun’s heat inside the atmosphere. The percentage of
these gases increases in our atmosphere due to excessive usage of
fossil fuels and this leads to an enhanced greenhouse effect. This is
the main cause of global warming and climate change.

19. Which of the following is not the effect of global warming?

A. Soil erosion
B. Average rise in surface temperature
C. Melting of ice on the poles
D. Rise in sea level
Answer: (A) Soil erosion
Solution: As the earth becomes hotter, the ice will melt on the poles
and which will result in sea-level rise. Moreover, as the earth becomes
hotter, it will make forests dry and more susceptible to forest fires.
But global warming has no effect on soil and its fertility.

20. Uncontrolled deforestation leads to

A. Destruction of habitats
B. Soil erosion
C. Flooding
A. A, B and C
B. B and C
C. A and B
D. A only
Answer: (A) A, B and C
Solution: During heavy rain, trees absorb and store a large amount of
water with the help of their roots thus preventing the top fertile soil
from being eroded and acting as a barrier to floodwater, preventing
soil erosion and floods. Similarly, cutting down trees for agriculture
or for setting up buildings destroys the natural habitat of animals,
sometimes leading to their deaths.

Class VIII Science

Notes for Some Natural Phenomena
Facts that Matter
• Lightning: Lightning is an electric spark, but on a huge scale.
Lightning is caused by the accumulation of charges in the cloy s.
• Some objects can be charged by rubbing with other objets.
• The electrical charge produced by rubbing is called static charge.
• There are two ]rinds of charges-positive charge and negative
charge.
It i a car vention to call the charge acquired by a glass rod when
it is rubbed with silk as positive.
The other kind of charge is said to be negative.
• Charges of the same kind repel each other-, while charges of
different kind attract each other.
• When charges move, they constitute an electric current.
• Electroscope; It is a device that can be used to test whether an
object is carrying charge or not.
Electroscope consists of closely placed two metallic (aluminium)
foils or strips.
When both the strips are charged with similar charges, they
repel each other and become wide on.
• Electrical charge can be transferred from a charged object to
another through a metal conductor.
• Discharged: When a body loses charge to the earth or any other
body, it is said to he [Link].
• Earthing: The process oftransfemng of charge from a charged
object to the earth is known as earthing.
• The story of Lightning:
— Lightning occurs due to r'birtg.
— During a thunderstorm, the air currents move upwards while
the water droplets move downward.
This vigorous movements cause separation of charges. This
leads to the positive charges collect near the upper edges of the
clouds and the negative charge to accumulate near lower edges of
the clouds.
— There is an accumulation of positive charges near the ground
also.
— Negative and positive charges meet, producing streaks of
bright light and sound. We see streaks as lightning. The process is
known as electric discharge. ne process of electric discharge
between different clouds or between clouds and the earth causes
lightning.

Fig. 15.L Accumulation ofcharges leading to lightning.

• Lightning strike could destroy life and property. So it is necessary
to take measures to protect ourselves.
• Lightning conductors: It is a device used to protect buildings from
the effects of lightning.
Lightning conductor consists of
— a metallic rod, taller than the building.
— a portion of the metal rod remains in air at the top of the
building.
— a major portion of the metal rod/wire installed in the walls
during its construction.
— the other end of the rod is connected to a copper plate placed
deep into the soil.
— the rod provides easy route for the transfer of electric charge
to the ground without harming the building.

Fig 15.2. Lightning Conductor.

• Earthquakes: Are earthquake is a sudden shaking or trembling of
the earth which lasts for a very short time. Earthquakes can cause
immense damage to buildings, dams, etc. They may also cause
floods, land slides, tsunamis and loss of life.
It is caused by a disturbance deep inside the earth's crust. The
outer layer of the earth is fragmented.
Each fragment is called a plate.
Earth's plates are in continualen these plates brush ptone
another or undergo collision, causes earthquakes.
 Fig. 15.3 Earth plates.
• Seismic or fault zones: Thie boundaries of the earth's plate are
the weak zones where earthquakes are more likely to occur. These
weak zones are called as seismic or fault zones.
• Seismic or fault zones of India: In India, the most of the
threatened areas are:
— Kashmir
— Western and central Himalalyes
— The whole of North-East
— Rann of Kutch and the Indo-Gangetic Plane.
— Some areas of south India.
• The power of an earthquake is expressed in terms of a magnitude
on a scale, known as the Richter Seale.
Destructive earthquakes have magnitudes higher than 7 on
Richter Scale.

Fig. 15.4. Movements of Indian earth's plate.

• The tremors caused by the earthquake produce waves on the
surface of the earth.
These waves are callled seismic waves.
• Seismograph: It is an instrument to record seismic waves.
• Richter scale is not linear. This means that an earthquake of
magnitude 6 does not have one and a half times the destructive
energy of an earthquake of magnitude 4. Actually, an increase of 2 in
magnitude means 1000 times more destructive energy.
• Protection Against Earthquakes Earthquakes cannot be predicted.
So, the buildings in fault zones/seismic zones should be designed so
that they can withstand major tremors.
• Take the following steps to protect yourselves in the event of the
earthquake:
— If you are at home
— Hide under a table till the shaking stops.
— Do not stand or sit near tall and heavy objects.
— If you are in bed, do not get up. Protect your head with a
pillow,
— If you are at outdoor
— Drop down away from buildings, trees and overhead power
lines.
— If you are in a bus, a car or any other covered vehicle, do not
come out till the tremors stop. Ask the driver to drive slowly to a safe
place.

1. Name the resin which produces spark is

a. Gum
b. Amber
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
2. The like charges
a. Repel each other
b. Attract each other
c. No interaction takes place
d. All of these
3. The shaking of earth is called
a. Tsunami
b. Volcano
c. Earthquake
d. All of these
4. Lightening occurs due to
a. Electric discharge
b. Rain
 c. Wind
d. Lord Varun�s anger
5. Interaction of charges is called
a. Lightening
b. Electrical discharge
c. Earthing
d. Electricity
6. Sparkers can be seen on electric pole. Which wires become
a. Loose
b. Tight
c. Wrinkle
d. None
7. Benjamen Franklin showed lightening in
a. 1725
b. 1527
c. 1752
d. 1572
8. The charge acquired by a glass rod when it is rubbed with silk is
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Both
d. None
ANSWERS
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. B

Multiple Choice Questions

1. An electroscope is a device which is used to find if an object is
(a) charged
(b) magnetic
(c) free of cracks
(d) hot
Soln:
Answer is (a) charged
Explanation:
An electroscope is a device which is used to find whether the object
is charged or not. It consists of two metallic strips which are closely
placed.

2. Electric current is to be passed from one body to another. For this

purpose, the two bodies must be joined by
(a) cotton thread
(b) plastic string
(c) copper wire
(d) rubber band
Soln:
Answer is (c) copper wire
Explanation:
Copper is a good conductor of electricity. Plastic, rubber and cotton
are bad conductors of electricity.

3. The movement of the earth’s plates causes

(a) cyclones
(b) lightning
(c) earthquakes
(d) thunderstorms
Soln:
Answer is (c) earthquakes
Explanation:
When earth’s plates brush past one another it leads to earthquakes.
Earth can cause damages to buildings and dams.

4. Two charged objects are brought close to each other. Choose the
most appropriate statement from the following options:
(a) they may attract
(b) they may repel
(c) they may attract or repel depending on the type of charges they
carry
(d) there will be no effect
Soln:
Answer (c) they may attract or repel depending on the type of charges
they carry
Explanation:
If the charges are like charges they repel each other and if the
charges are unlike charges they attract each other.

5. Which of the following is not likely to cause Tsunami?

(a) A major nuclear explosion undersea
(b) Earthquake
(c) Volcanic eruption
(d) Lightning
Soln:
The answer is (d) Lightning
Explanation:
Tsunami is caused due to disturbance caused deep down the sea.
Lightening will not cause any disturbance for the sea whereas
earthquake, A major nuclear explosion undersea and Volcanic
eruption can cause a disturbance in the sea.

6. The earth’s plate responsible for causing earthquakes is

(a) the crust of the earth
(b) the mantle of the earth
(c) the inner core of the earth
(d) the outer core of the earth
Soln:
Answer is (a) the crust of the earth
Explanation:
Sudden trembling or shaking of the earth due to disturbance deep
down its top layer called the crust.

7. Consider the list of terms given below:

(i) Seismic Zone
(ii) Fault Zone
(iii) Mantle
(iv) Inner Core
The boundaries of the earth’s plate are known as
(a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (i) & (iii)
(c) (iii) & (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Soln:
Answer is (a) (i) & (ii)
Explanation:
An earthquake is a sudden shaking or trembling of the earth which
lasts for a very short time. Earthquakes are caused due to the
movement of plates. Boundaries of the plates are weak zones where
earthquakes are most likely to occur.

8. The outermost layer of earth is called

(a) mantle
(b) outer core
(c) crust
(d) inner core
Soln:
Answer is (c) crust
Explanation:
Earths top layer is called crust which is followed by mantle, outer
core and inner core.

9. Major earthquakes are less likely to occur in

(a) North East India
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Rann of Kutch
(d) Orissa
Soln:
The answer is (d) Orissa
Explanation:
Major earthquakes are less likely to occur in Orissa. The most
threatened areas in India are Kashmir, Western and Central
Himalayas, the whole of North-East, Rann of Kutch, Rajasthan and
Indo-Gangetic Plain.

10. Consider the list of terms given below

(i) Tsunami
(ii) Landslide
(iii) Floods
(iv) Lightning
Earthquakes can cause
(a) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(b) (ii) & (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(d) (iii) & (iv)
Soln:
Answer is (a) (i), (ii) & (iii)

Notes
Microorganisms
Microorganisms- A living organism that is very minute to be
seen by the naked eye, especially a single celled organism, such as
a bacterium is called microorganism. Microorganisms are classified
into four major groups mainly bacteria, fungi, protozoa and some
algae.
Some of the microorganisms are unicellular like bacteria, while
some have well developed, multi-cellular body like moulds.
They can survive under different types of climatic environment,
ranging from ice cold climate to hot summers and deserts to marshy,
muddy lands. They are also found inside the bodies of animals
including humans, air, water, soil, food and other things.
Virus: You may be surprised to know that the viruses can be
crystallized and stored like some non-living things, such as common
salt and sugar. On the other hand, they multiply like living organisms
when they are within a living body.
Bacteria: Bacteria are single celled microorganisms. They are
put under plant kingdom because they have rigid definite cell wall
like plant cells. Bacteria can be seen under microscope which
enlarges their image from a hundred to thousand times.
 Fungi: Fungi are non-green plants. They cannot synthesize their
own food. They have to depend for their food on others. Most fungi
take their food from dead organic matter. Some live on other
organisms as parasites.
Algae: Algae are green substances floating on the surface of a
pond, lake, river, stagnant water, moist soil, stones. They tend to
grow on wet surfaces. Therefore, they can synthesize their own food.
They are found in water or in very moist places.
Protozoa: Protozoa are unicellular animals. Some are free-living,
others are parasites. Several parasitic protozoans cause diseases in
human beings, domestic animals and plants. For example,
Plasmodium, a protozoan, causes malaria.
Microorganisms are commercially used for the large scale
production of alcohol, wine and acetic acid (vinegar), while has
medicinal uses too.
Microorganisms can harmful too. Some of the microorganisms
cause diseases in humans, plants as well as in animals. Such
microorganisms which cause disease are known as pathogens.
Some microorganisms spoil leather, food and clothing.
Food Poisoning- Food poisoning can be caused as a result of
consumption of food spoilt by some microorganisms. Microorganisms
that grow on our food sometimes produce substances that are toxic
in nature. These make the food poisonous and can cause serious
illness to living organisms.
Food Preservation- Microorganisms may grow on our food and
spoil it. Spoiled food emits bad smell,bad taste and changed colour.
Antibody- When a disease causing microbes enter our body, our
internal defensive mechanisms produces substances called
Antibodies to fight disease causing microbes.
Vaccine- When a disease-carrying microbe enters our healthy
body, the body produces antibodies, body fights and kills them by
these antibodies. The body also remembers how to fight the microbe
if it enters again. The antibodies remain in the body for a long time
and protect us from the disease causing microbes. The substance
which is injected into the body to trigger the body to initiate this
entire process is called a vaccine.
Pasteurization- this is a process in which milk is heated to about
70 degree Celsius for about 15 to 30 seconds and then suddenly
chilled and stored. This process was discovered by Louis Pasteur.
 Nitrogen Cycle- Some bacteria and blue green algae present in
the soil fix nitrogen from the atmosphere and convert into
compounds of nitrogen. Once nitrogen is converted into these usable
compounds, it can be utilised by plants from the soil through their
root system. On the othe hand when plants and animals die, bacteria
and fungi present in the soil convert the nitrogenous wastes into
nitrogenous compounds to be used by plants again. Thus due to this
Nitrogen Cycle, the percentage of nitrogen in the atmosphere
remains more or less constant.

1. Watering the crops is called:

(a) sowing
(b) manuring
(c) tilling
(d) irrigation

1. Spyrogyra is
I. An algae
II. A fungi
III. A protozoa
IV. A bacteria
2. Vaccine for small pox is discorvered by
I. Louis Pasteur
II. Alexander Fleming
III. Edward Jenner
IV. John Mendal
3. Amount of nitrogen in the atmosohere is
I. 58%
II. 68%
III. 78%
IV. 88%
4. Mushroom belongs to
I. Algae
II. Virus
III. Fungi
IV. None of these
5. Amoeba belongs to
I. Algae
II. Fungi
 III. Protozoa
IV. Virus
6. Scientist who discovered fermentation is
I. Alexander Fleming
II. Louis Pasteur
III. John Mendal
IV. Edward Jenner
7. Rhizobium becteria
I. Help in digestion
II. Help in nitrogen fixation
III. Cause diseases
IV. All of the above
8. Malaria Is caused by
I. Protozoa
II. Virus
III. Algae
IV. Bacteria
9. Penicillium is a
I. Algae
II. Fungus
III. Bacteria
IV. Yeast
10. Microorganisms are
I. Unicellular
II. Multi-cellular
III. Both
IV. None of these
Answers
1) II
2) III
3) III
4) III
5) III
6) II
7) II
8) I
9) II
10) II
1. Which of the following is a disease caused by protozoans?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Polio
C. Malaria
D. Typhoid
Answer: (C) Malaria
Solution:
∙ Protozoans are eukaryotic, unicellular microorganisms. Most of
them are free-living, found in soil and fresh water, while some are
parasitic and cause diseases in plants and animals. Malaria is caused
by the protozoan parasite, Plasmodium.
∙ Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a type of bacterium
called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
∙ Polio is a highly contagious infectious disease caused by polio
virus.
∙ Typhoid fever is an acute infectious illness associated with fever
that is most often caused by the Salmonella typhi bacteria.

2. Which of the following diseases is caused by a bacteria?

A. Chicken pox
B. Tuberculosis
C. Dengue
D. Polio
Answer: (B) Tuberculosis
Solution:
∙ Tuberculosis is an air-borne disease caused by the bacterial
species Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
∙ Polio, dengue and chicken pox are viral diseases caused
by Picornavirus, Flavivirus and chicken pox virus respectively.

3. Some plants have nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their root nodules.

What are these bacteria called?
A. Blue green algae
B. Nitrosomonas
C. Azotobacter
D. Rhizobium
Answer: (D) Rhizobium
Solution: Leguminous plants like pea have nitrogen-fixing bacteria
called Rhizobium in their root nodules. Rhizobium helps in converting
atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia that can be utilized by the pea
plant for its nutrition. Other bacteria like Nitrosomonas and
Azotobacter are free-living soil bacteria that also help in nitrogen
fixation.

4. In order to take precautionary steps to control dengue, we must

take measures to stop the breeding of:
A. Aedes mosquito
B. Fleas
C. Fire ants
D. Anopheles mosquito
Answer: (A) Aedes mosquito
Solution: Dengue is caused by a virus and is spread by a species of
mosquito called Aedes. The spread of this disease can be prevented
by using mosquito nets, repellents and by control of breeding of
mosquitoes by not allowing water stagnation in our surroundings.

5. Partial sterilization of a product such as milk at a high temperature

is known as:
A. Pasteurization
B. Filtration
C. Pickling
D. Refrigeration
Answer: (A) Pasteurization
Solution: Pasteurization is a process in which milk is heated to about
70oC for 15 to 30 seconds and then suddenly chilled and stored. By
doing so, it prevents the growth of microbes. This process was
discovered by Louis Pasteur and hence is called pasteurization.

6. Living organisms which are invisible to the naked eye are called
_________ .
A. Particles
B. Molecules
C. Microorganisms
D. Macroorganisms
Answer: (C) Microorganisms
Solution: Living organisms which are invisible to the naked eye are
called microorganisms. Microorganisms are too small to be seen with
our naked eyes. They can be seen only through a device known as a
microscope.
7. Which of the following is a communicable disease?
A. Diabetes
B. Chicken pox
C. Alzheimer’s
D. Cancer
Answer: (B) Chicken pox
Solution: Chicken pox is a communicable disease. Communicable
diseases are caused by pathogens and can be spread from one
person to another through water, air, soil, etc.

8. Vaccines are made up of:

A. Chemicals
B. Weak microorganisms
C. Viruses
D. Drugs
Answer: (B) Weak microorganisms
Solution: A vaccine is a biological preparation containing weakened
or dead microbes. It is introduced into a healthy person’s body so
that it can produce antibodies against the disease-causing microbes.
Vaccines can be injected or administered orally.

9. The bacterium present in curd is:

A. Salmonella typhi
B. Lactobacillus
C. Penicillin
D. Vibrio cholera
Answer: (B) Lactobacillus
Solution: Lactobacillus is the microorganism present in curd. This
bacterium converts milk into curd at 30 to 40oC.

10. While baking cakes, yeast reproduces rapidly and produces ___
gas.
A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. carbon dioxide
D. nitrogen
Answer: (C) carbon dioxide
Solution: While baking cakes, yeast reproduces rapidly and produces
carbon dioxide gas. This gas is responsible for the spongy texture of
cake.
11. ______ is used for the production of alcohol and wine.
A. Yeast
B. Mosquito
C. Ant
D. Algae
Answer: (A) Yeast
Solution: Yeast is used for the production of alcohol and wine by the
process of fermentation.

12. Which of the following diseases can be cured using antibiotics?

A. AIDS
B. Dengue
C. Typhoid
D. Malaria
Answer: (C) Typhoid
Solution: Antibiotics are the medicines that kill or stop the growth of
disease-causing microorganisms. Streptomycin, tetracycline and
erythromycin are some of the commonly known antibiotics which are
made from fungi and bacteria. Antibiotics are mostly effective against
bacterial diseases. Among the diseases given, only typhoid is caused
by bacteria, i.e., Salmonella typhi, whereas all the other diseases are
caused by protozoa or viruses.

13. Which organisms are microscopic and dependent on host

organisms for reproduction?
A. Algae
B. Protozoa
C. Viruses
D. Bacteria
Answer: (C) Viruses
Solution: Viruses are non-cellular microorganisms composed of
protein, nucleic acids and lipids. Viruses are considered both living
and non-living organisms. They are active inside host cells and
reproduce inside them by infecting living cells. Outside a host it is
considered non-living as it does not have a cellular machinery of its
own.

14. _______ are the agents that act as carriers of a pathogen and
spread diseases.
 A. Vectors
B. Microbes
C. Parasites
D. DNA
Answer: (A) Vectors
Solution: Animals or insects carry infecting agents from a sick person
to another potential host. These animals are thus the intermediaries
and are termed as vectors. The most common vectors are
mosquitoes.

15. An infectious disease is ___________ .

A. caused only by bacteria
B. spread from person to person
C. spread from animal to animal
D. caused only by viruses
Answer: (B) spread from person to person
Solution: Infectious diseases are caused by any pathogenic
microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, parasites or fungi. The
diseases can be spread, directly or indirectly, from one person to
another.

16. Which one of the following is not a method of food preservation?

A. Salting
B. Drying
C. Boiling
D. Pickling
Answer: (C) Boiling
Solution: Boiling food in water cannot completely destroy all
microorganisms. Only the cells of bacteria, yeasts and moulds can be
destroyed at temperatures of 100°C or above. Moreover, it doesn’t
preserve the food. The most commonly used food preservation
methods are salting, drying, freezing and pickling.
* Salting is the preservation of food with dry edible salt.
* Drying or dehydrating food is a method of food preservation that
removes enough moisture from the food so that bacteria, yeast and
moulds cannot grow.
* Freezing, in food processing, is a method of preserving food by
lowering the temperature to inhibit microorganism growth.
* Pickling is the process of preparing food by soaking and storing it in
a salt solution, vinegar or both.
17. Which among the following statements is not associated with food
preservation?
A. Prevention of decay or spoilage
B. Decreased shelf life
C. Air-tight sealing
D. Storage for future use
Answer: (B) Decreased shelf life
Solution:
∙ Food preservation is the prevention of growth of bacteria, fungi and
other microorganisms in food items.
∙ There are different methods of preserving food. For example,
packaging, smoking, drying, pickling etc.
∙ Food preservation also prevents spoilage of food and increase their
shelf life.

18. Which one of the following is not produced by the process of

fermentation?
A. Cheese
B. Milk
C. Yoghurt
D. Wine
Answer: (B) Milk
Solution: The breakdown of carbon containing substances like
carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen by microorganisms like yeast
and bacteria is termed as fermentation. Fermentation is involved in
making bread, vinegar, yoghurt, wine, cider, cocoa, cheese, etc.

19. A plant disease called citrus canker is caused by a _________ .

A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Virus
Answer: (A) Bacteria
Solution: Citrus canker is a plant disease caused by bacteria. It’s
mode of transmission is through air.

20. Which among the following pathogens causes cholera?

A. Bacteria
B. Protozoan
 C. Fungus
D. Virus
Answer: (A) Bacteria
Solution: Cholera is caused by bacteria. It spreads through
contaminated food and water. It can be prevented by consuming
properly cooked food and drinking boiled water.

Class VIII Science

Notes for Reproduction in Aniamals
Facts the Matter
• The process of reproduction is not essential for the survival of an
individual but reproduction is essential for the continuation of a
species.
• Modes of Reproduction: Like plants, animal also reproduce by
(i) Sexual reproduction and (ii) Asexual reproduction.
Sexual Reproduction: The type of reproduction beginning from
the fusion of male and female gametes is known as sexual
reproduction. In this process of sexual reproduction, a male and a
female gamete (reproductive cells) fuse to form a single cell
called Zygote. This zygote gradually develops into an adult, similar
to the parents. The individual that grows from a zygote, receives
character of both the parents � mother and father.
Asexual Reproduction: The type of reproduction in which only a
single parent is involved is called asexual reproduction. In asexual
reproduction, sex cells (gametes) are n6t produced. No fusion of
gametes takes place for the production of zygote or off springs.
• The reproductive parts in humans and the process of
reproduction in them. In humans, male and female reproductive
parts are present in separate individuals.

Fig. 9.1 Human-male. reproductive organs.

Male Reproductive Organs: Male human reproductive organs
contain:
• A pair of testes (singular-testis), two sperm duct and a penis.
• The testes produce the male gametes� called sperms.
• The sperm ducts carry sperms to the penis.
• The penis is used for ejecting sperms and also passing urine.
The tail in sperm helps in movement of the sperm to reach the egg in
the female sex organs.
• Human Sperm: A sperm is unicellular (single celled), has a
head, a middle piece and a tail.

Fig. 9.2 A human sperm.

Female Reproductive Organs: Female human reproductive organs
contain:
• A pair of ovaries which produce , female gametes called ova
(eggs).
• Oviduct (fallopian tubes): A single natured egg is released
into the oviduct by one of the ovaries every month.
• Uterus: Uterus is the part where development of the baby
takes place.
• Egg (ovum): Like a sperm, an egg is also a single cell. It
contains a nucleus and the cytoplasm.
The egg may be very small as in humans, much larger as in ducks
and hens. Ostrich egg is the largest.

Fig. 9.3 Fertilisation.

• Fertilisation: The fusion of a sperm with an egg is called
fertilisation. During fertilisation, the nuclei of the sperm and the egg
fuse to form a single nucleus. This results in the formation of a
fertilised egg called Zygote.
Fertilisation may be:
Internal Fertilisation: Fertilisation which takes place inside the
body of the female is called internal fertilisation. For example: as in
humans, dogs, cows, birds etc.
External Fertilisation: Fertilisation which takes place outside
the body of the female is called external fertilisation. It is very
common in aquatic animals, such as fish, starfish and amphibians
(animals who live in water as well as on land such as frog).
IVF or in vitro Fertilisation: The fertilisation of an egg that
takes place outside the body in a test tine or in any other, apparatus
is known IVF or in vitro fertilisation.
Test Tube Babies: In this technique freshly released egg and
sperms are put together for a few hours for IMF. In case fertilisation
occurs, the zygote is allowed to develop for about a week and then
placed in the uterus of the mother. Complete development takes
place in the uterus and the baby is born like any other normal baby.
The term test tube babies is misleading, because babies cannot
grow in test tubes.
• Embryo: The stage, when cells produced hp the division of the
zygote begin to form groups that develop into different tissues and
organs of the .body is termed as an embryo.
• Foetus: The stage of embryo in which al the body parts can be
identified is known as foetus.
• Viviparous: The animals such as dog, lion, elephant, cat etc.,
which give birth to young ones are called viviparous.
• Oviparous: The animals, such as lizards, butterfly, crow and hen,
which lay eggs that hatch and give rise. to young ones are called
oviparous.
• Life-cycle of Animals: Sexually reproducing animals start their
life from a zygote which develops into an embryo that grows into
mature adult. The adult produces sex cells (egg and sperm). The
fusion of sperm and egg leads to zygote. This whole cyclic order is
known as life-cycle.

Fig. 9.4
• In some animals, the young ones may look very different from the
adult. For example, in case of frog, fertilised egg (zygote) develops
into tadpole (larva) which later develops into adult frog.
 Fig. 9.5
The tadpole (larva), which is very different from the adult frog
and is unable of jumping, transforms into adult frog that is capable of
jumping and swimming.
The process of transformation of the larva into an adult through
drastic changes is called metamorphosis.
Like frog, metamorphosis is also found in sill moth and butterfly.
• Asexual Reproductjon: The type of reproduction in which only a
single parent is involved is called asexual reproduction. For
example, budding and binary fission.
Budding. In ,this case of asexual reproduction, the organism,
like hydra, develops a bulge called bud. This bud develops into an
adult hydra like structure which when gets separated from the parent
hydra leads independent life.
Another, example of asexual reproduction by budding is seen in
yeast.

Fig. 9.6 Budding in Hydra.

Binary Fission: The process of reproduction in which an animal
reproduces by dividing into two individuals known as binary fission.
For example, Amoeba asexually reproduces by binary fission.
 Fig. 9.7 Binary fissjon in Amoeba
Cloning: Cloning is the produotion of an exact copy of a cell,
any other living part or a complete organism. For example,
production of Dolly Sheep by Ian Wilmut and his colleagues in
Edinburg, Scotland. Cloning is an artificial method invented by man
to produce organisms without sexual or asexual reproduction.

1. The animals that produce new young ones are known as

I. Oviparous
II. Viviparous
III. Both
IV. None of these
2. Tadpole is the developing stage of which of these
I. Dogs
II. Cats
III. Frogs
IV. Humans
3. Where does the fusion of male and female gametes generally
take place?
 I. Fallopian tube
II. Ovary
III. Uterus
IV. Zygote
4. The cell formed after fertisation is called
I. Foetus
II. Zygote
III. Embryo
IV. None of these
5. Egg are formed in the
I. Testes
II. Penis
III. Ovary
IV. None of these
6. How many modes of reproduction are there in animals?
I. One type
II. Two types
III. Three types
IV. Four types
7. A sperm consists of
I. One part
II. Two parts
III. Three parts
IV. Four parts
8. Foetus is the
I. Well developed embryo
II. Developing embryo
III. A zygote
IV. Male gamete
9. Viviparous organisms are the ones which
I. Produce eggs
II. Produce young ones
III. Both I and II
IV. None of these
10. Cloning is a mode of
I. Sexual production
II. Asexual production
III. Both I and II
IV. None of these
ANSWERS
 1. II
2. III
3. I
4. II
5. III
6. II
7. III
8. I
9. II
10. II

1. The number of eggs produced in internal fertilisation is

A. more than external fertilization
B. less than external fertilization
C. more or less than external fertilisation depending on the
environmental conditions
D. equal to external fertilisation
Answer: (B) less than external fertilization
Solution: In the case of external fertilisation, the number of eggs
produced is more than the number of eggs produced in internal
fertilisation. External fertilisation usually occurs in aquatic animals.
These animals lay hundreds of eggs and release millions of sperms.
However, many of the eggs do not get fertilised (fused with sperm) to
develop into new individuals. This is because the eggs and sperm get
exposed to water currents and wind.
Also, there are other animals (predators) which may feed on these
eggs. Thus, the production of a large number of eggs and sperm is
necessary to ensure the fertilisation of at least a few of them.

2. Reproduction is essential for living organisms in order to:

A. Continue their species
B. Maintain growth
C. Fulfil their energy requirement
D. Keep the individual organism alive
Answer: (A) Continue their species
Solution: The production of new individuals from their parents is
known as reproduction. Reproduction is essential for living
organisms in order to continue the species.
3. How many parents are involved in sexual reproduction?
A. 0
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: (C) 2
Solution: In sexual reproduction, such as in humans, two parents are
required. In case of plants, male and female reproductive parts are
required.

4. After fertilisation, the ________ divides repeatedly to give rise to a

ball of cells.
A. Ovum
B. Sperm
C. Zygote
D. Embryo
Answer: (C) Zygote
Solution: The fusion of the male and the female gamete, i.e., the
sperm and the ovum, is called fertilisation. This results in the
formation of a single-celled zygote. After fertilisation, the zygote
repeatedly divides to give rise to a ball of cells. This ball of cells
eventually develops into the various types of cells and tissues in an
organism.

5. Budding is seen in ________ .

A. Humans
B. Amoeba
C. Hydra
D. bacteria
Answer: (C) Hydra
Solution: Hydra may have one or more bulges or outgrowths on its
body. These outgrowths are called buds, which develop into new
individuals. Once the buds mature, the new individuals detach from
the parent organism. This mode of asexual reproduction is called
budding.
6. Which of the following is not a part of the male reproductive
system?
A. Vas deferens
B. Ovary
C. Testes
D. Penis
Answer: (B) Ovary
Solution: Ovary is a part of the female reproductive system. All other
given options are parts of the male reproductive system. Penis is the
external genital organ in males. Testes are the main reproductive
organs in males and produce sperms. Vas deferens carry semen from
the testes to the urethra for ejaculation.

7. A Paramecium reproduces by dividing itself into two daughter cells.

This process is called
A. Budding
B. Regeneration
C. binary fission
D. vegetative propagation
Answer: (C) binary fission
Solution: Binary fission is a type of asexual reproduction seen in
unicellular organisms. In this method, first, the nucleus divides,
followed by cytoplasmic division. This forms two daughter cells from
one parent cell. Therefore, Paramecium dividing itself to form two
daughter cells represents binary fission.
8. The female gamete produced by the ovary is called ___. It is haploid
in nature.
A. Zygote
B. ovum
C. blastula
D. sperm
Answer: (B) Ovum
Solution: The female gamete produced by the ovary is called the
ovum. Ovum is haploid in nature and it fuses with sperm to form a
zygote.

9. Which of the following is the site of fertilisation in humans?

A. Uterus
B. Fallopian tube
C. Ovary
D. Vagina
Answer: (B) Fallopian tube
Solution: Fertilisation is the fusion of male and female gametes. In
human beings, it takes place in the fallopian tube of the female
reproductive system.

10. Which of the following is not an oviparous animal?

A. Cow
B. Silkworm
C. Hen
D. Frog
Answer: (A) Cow
Solution: Animals like cows, cats and dogs give birth to young
individuals, hence they are called viviparous animals whereas frogs,
hens and silkworms lay eggs, and hence they are called oviparous.

11. Name the process in which tadpoles develop into young frogs.
A. Budding
B. Fertilisation
C. Metamorphosis
D. Embedding
Answer: (C) Metamorphosis
Solution: The transformation of the larva into an adult through drastic
changes is called metamorphosis. Frogs, butterflies, silkworm, etc.,
undergo metamorphosis.
12. The male gamete is called the ________ .
A. Zygote
B. Sperm
C. Eggs
D. ovaries
Answer: (B) Sperm
Solution: Male gametes in humans are called sperms. Sperms are
produced by testes. Sperms fuse with egg produced by ovaries to
form a zygote.

13. The process by which organisms make copies of themselves is

called ________ .
A. reproduction
B. transpiration
C. respiration
D. photosynthesis
Answer: (A) reproduction
Solution: The process by which an organism produces its young ones
is called reproduction. Reproduction is a key factor which plays a
major role in the continuation of any species.

14. The eggs in females is produced by the

A. testes
B. Zygote
C. Sperm
D. ovaries
Answer: (D) Ovaries
Solution: Egg/ova is the female gamete. It fuses with the male gamete,
sperm to form zygote. It is produced by the ovaries.

15. Female reproductive system in human beings contains

__________ .
A. two pairs of ovaries
B. single ovary
C. a triplet of ovaries
D. a pair of ovaries
Answer: (D) A pair of ovaries
Solution: The female reproductive system in human beings contains a
pair of ovaries. Ovaries produce the egg cell/ova which is required for
fertilisation.

16. The testes produce male gametes called ________ .

A. Ovum
B. Zygote
C. Foetus
D. Sperms
Answer: (D) Sperms
Solution: The testes is a part of the male reproductive system that
produce male gametes called sperms. Sperms fuse with the female
gamete, ovum to form the zygote. Zygote develops into the embryo
which later develops into the foetus.

17. Female gamete in humans is called _______ .

A. Ova
B. Ovary
C. Uterus
D. sperm
Answer: (A) Ova
Solution: Female gamete in humans is called ova/egg. It is produced
by the ovaries. The male gamete called sperm fuses with the egg to
form a zygote.

18. What is the advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual

reproduction?
A. There is no advantage – asexual reproduction is more
advantageous
B. There are more variations
C. Less number of offspring are produced
D. Competition for food is less
Answer: (B) There are more variations
Solution: Since the characteristics of two individuals are combined in
sexual reproduction, more variations are seen in the offspring. More
variations in offspring ensure better survival in changing
environmental conditions.

19. Which of the following is an example of a viviparous animal?

A. Cat
B. Cobra
C. Fish
D. Hen
Answer: (A) Cat
Solution: Viviparous animals give birth to their young ones. Cat is an
example of an animal that gives birth to it’s young ones. On the other
hand, hen, fish and cobra lay eggs and are termed as oviparous
animals.

20. In which of the following organisms does metamorphosis take

place?
A. All of the given
B. Silkworm
C. Frogs
D. Butterfly
Answer: (A) All of the given

Class VIII Science

Notes for Reaching the age of Adolescence
Facts that Matter
• Adolescence: The period of life, when the body undergoes
changes, leading to reproductive maturity is known as adolescence.
• Generally, adolescence begins at the age of 11 and lasts upto 18
or 19 years of age. Adolescents are also called teenagers because
they cover the period of the �teens� i.e. 13 to 18 or 19 years of
age.
• Puberty: The period of adolescence during which a adolescent
reaches sexual maturity and becomes able to have children.
• Changes at Puberty
• During puberty sudden increase in height takes place. This
happens due to elongation of long bones of legs and arms that make
a person tall.
• Girls grow faster than boys by about 18 years of age, both reach
their maximum height. The rate of growth in height varies in different
individual.
Height of an individual (male or female) depends on the genes
inherited from parents. However, right kind of food during growing
years is also essential.
• Calculation for full height (cm): The average rate of growth in the
height of boys and girls with age given in the chart helps in
calculating full height of the individuals.

Calculation for full height (cm)

For example: A girl is 9 years old and 120 cm tall. At the end of the
growth period she is likely to be

• Boys develop larger voice boxes (Larynx) to form a protruding

part of throat called Adam�s Apple. Boys have deep voice.
 In Girls, larynx is hardly visible (Adam�s apple not visible).
They have pitched voice.
• Change in Body Shape: In boys, at the age of puberty, shoulders
generally brooden as a result of growth. In boys, the muscles of the
body grow prominently than in the girls.
In girls, the region below the waist becomes wider. The
muscles also comparatively grow less.

Fig. 10.1 Adam�s apple in grown up boy.

• The secretion of sweat glands and sebaceous glands (oil glands)
increases during puberty.
• Development of Sex Organs: In males, testes and penis develop
completely. Tests start producing sperms.
In girls, ovaries enlarge and eggs begin to mature. Ovaries
start releasing mature eggs (ova).
• At puberty, individuals reach mental, intellectual and emotional
maturity.
• Secondary Sexual Character: Such as development of breasts
in girls, moustaches and beard in boys, begin to develop. These
characters that help in distinguishing the males from the females are
called secondary sexual characters.
Boys also develop hair on their chest.
• Hormones: Hormones are chemical substances secreted in
endocrine glands. They also known as ductless glands. These
glands release hormones directly into the blood stream to reach a
particular body part known as target site.
Hormones control the changes that occur at adolescence. The
male hormone called testosterone is secreted by the testes at the
onset of puberty and cause development of facial hair, chest hair
etc. At the onset of puberty in girls, ovaries secrete female hormone
or estrogen which makes the breast develop. Their secretion is
under the pituitary endocrine gland.
• Reproductive phase lasts for a much longer time in males than in
females.
• The uterine wall in females prepares itself to receive the
developing fertilised egg. In case there is no fertilisation, the
thickened lining of the uterine wall breaks down and goes out
alongwith blood.
This bleeding in women is called menstruation which occurs
once in about 28 to 30 days.
• Menarche: The first menstrual flow which begins at puberty is
known as menarche.
• Menopause: At 45 to 50 years of age, the menstruation cycle
stops. Stoppage of menstruation is known as menopause.
• Sex chromosome: The thread structures present inside the
nucleus of every cell are called chromosomes. All human beings
have 23 pairs of chromosomes in nuceli of their cells. Two
chromosomes out of these are the sex chromosomes known as X
and Y. A female has two X chromosomes whereas a male has one X
and one Y choromosomes.
• Sex of the unborn child depends on whether the zygote has XX or
XY chromosome.

Fig. 10.2 Sex determination in humans.

• Hormones other than Sex Harmones
• Metamorphosis: The change from larva to adult is called
metamorphosis. In insects, metamorphosis is controlled by insect
hormones. In frog, metamorphosis from tadpole to adult frog is
controlled by thyroxine hormone which is produced by thyroid gland.
Thyroxine production requires the presence of iodine in water.
 Fig. 10.3 Position of endocrine glands in the human body.
• Nutritional need of the Adolescents: Adolescence is a stage of
rapid growth and development.
Hence, the balanced diet is very important at this stage. Here,
balanced diet means that the meals should include proteins,
carbohydrates, fats, minerals and vitamins in requisite proportion.
• Personal Hygine:
(a) It is more necessary for teenagers because the increased
activity of sweat glands makes the body smelly. So, daily bath is
necessary.
(b) If all body parts are not washed or cleaned everyday, the
chances of bacterial infection are more.
(c) Girls should take special care of cleanliness during the time
of menstrual flow.
• Say �No� to Drugs: Adolescence period is full of much
activities, confusion or insecurity. Some people take advantage of
this and lead adolescents to had habits. They are addictive, and
sexual contact with persons infected with HIV may happen.
You should be firm to say NO to such activities because they
run in your health and happiness.

1. Larynx is called
a. Voice box
 b. Music box
c. Respiratory organ
d. None of these
2. The egg is
a. Egg gamete
b. Female gamete
c. Both of these
d. None of these
3. Thyroxin produced by
a. Pituitary gland
b. Adrenal gland
c. Thyroid gland
d. Testes
4. There are__ __ pairs of chromosome in human cell.
a. 23
b. 46
c. 22
d. All are wrong
5. Initially girls grow _____ than boys.
a. Faster
b. Slower
c. Both of these
d. None of these
6. The period of maturity of reproductive organs is called.
a. Adolescene period
b. Mensuration
c. Gestation period
d. None of these
7. Fertilisation is called
a. To produce sperm
b. To produce eggs
c. Fusion of sperms and eggs
d. All of these
8. Puberty age in females is
a. 10-12
b. 12-14
c. 8-10
d. More than 14 years
9. The number of chromosomes are present in human cell.
a. 22 pairs
 b. 23 pairs
c. 24 parirs
d. 26 pairs
10. The male hormone is
a. Estragon
b. Projestrone
c. Testosterone
d. All of these
ANSWERS
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. C

1. Which of the following should an adolescent choose for his/her

meal?
A. Chips, noodles and aerated beverages
B. Vegetable cutlets, chips and lemonade
C. Rice, noodles and popcorn
D. Chapathi, dal and vegetables
Answer: (D) Chapathi, dal and vegetables
Solution: Adolescents, like everyone else, should have a balanced
diet, which should include
all types of nutrients. Also, the diet should consist of less refined and
packaged food. Hence, the best option for an adolescent’s meal will
be chapati, dal and vegetables.

2. The reproductive phase of a woman lies between her _____ and

menopause.
A. menstrual cycle
B. menstruation
C. menarche
D. ovulation
Answer: (C) menarche
Solution: The reproductive phase of a woman starts from her first
period (menarche) at around 10-12 years of age. It continues until the
age of 45 to 50, when women stop releasing eggs. This is called
menopause. Hence, the reproductive phase of women lies between
their menarche and menopause.

3. Statement 1: Sweat glands, salivary glands and oil glands do not

release their secretions directly into the blood. Statement 2: These
glands do not have ducts.
A. Both statements are correct.
B. Only statement 2 is correct.
C. Both statements are incorrect.
D. Only statement 1 is correct.
Answer: (D) Only statement 1 is correct.
Solution: Endocrine glands release their secretions directly into the
blood as they are ductless glands, whereas the exocrine glands like
salivary glands have ducts and do not release their secretion into the
blood directly.

4. Number of sex chromosomes in a human kidney cell is

A. One pair
B. Two pairs
C. Three pairs
D. Four pairs
Answer: (A) One pair
Solution: Humans have 46 chromosomes, i.e., 23 pairs of
chromosomes in all cells except for the gametic cells (sperm and
ova). 22 of these pairs are called autosomes and look the same in
both males and females. The 23rd pair called sex chromosomes, differ
in males and females. Females have two copies of the X chromosome
(XX), while males have one X and one Y chromosome (XY). Thus all
non-gametic cells have 2 sex chromosomes in them.

5. A female gamete carries ________ chromosome(s).

A. one Y
B. one X and one Y
C. two X
D. one X
Answer: (D) one X
Solution: Ovum, which is the female gamete, always carries an X
chromosome. This is because the allosome pair in females consists
of two X chromosomes (XX).

6. Which of the following is the cause of the condition shown below

A. Lack of calcium in the bones

B. Excess of iron in the blood
C. Lack of iodine in the diet
D. Lack of potassium in the diet
Answer: (C) Lack of iodine in the diet
Solution:
The picture shows a condition goitre which is caused due to the
deficiency of iodine in our diet. It is seen as a swelling in the neck
resulting from an enlarged thyroid gland.

7. Which of the following will occur in females at puberty? (I)

Ovulation (II) Enlargement of breasts (III) Broadening of hips
A. I, II and III
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I and II only
Answer: (A) I, II and III
Solution: Lot of changes occur during puberty in both boys and girls.
In girls, ovulation, enlargement of breasts and broadening of hips are
the major changes.

8. HIV virus will not be present in which of the following?

A. Blood
B. Sweat
C. Breast milk
D. Semen
Answer: (B) Sweat
Solution: Blood, semen and breast milk all are the body’s internal
fluids. Once the virus enters the body, it starts dividing and spreads
all over the body. It is present in internal fluids like blood and gets
transmitted to other healthy individuals only through the exchange of
these body fluids. HIV does not spread through sweat.

9. Puberty in females begins at the age of _____.

A. 11 to 13 years
B. 16 to 18 years
C. 14 to 16 years
D. 18 to 21 years
Answer: (A) 11 to 13 years
Solution: Puberty is the period during which girls and boys become
capable of reproduction. Puberty in girls is most commonly observed
when they are about 11 to 13 years old.

10. The information given below refers to which of the following

hormone- (i) Glands secreting the hormone are located on top of the
kidneys. (ii) Converts glycogen into glucose. (iii) Increases blood
pressure.
A. Testosterone
B. Insulin
C. Adrenaline
D. Progesterone
Answer: (C) Adrenaline
Solution: Adrenaline is secreted by the adrenal glands which are
located on top of the kidneys. This hormone prepares the body to
fight or run away during an emergency situation. Its effects involve an
increase in heart rate, blood pressure, breathing rate, blood glucose
level, etc.

11. During menstrual bleeding, the fluid that comes out of the vagina
contains _____, along with blood.
A. Embryo
B. ovum
C. sperm
D. zygote
Answer: (B) ovum
Solution: The vaginal fluid shed during menstrual bleeding contains
the unfertilized egg and the thickened endometrial lining of the uterus
along with blood vessels.
12. The time period when the body undergoes changes, leading to
reproductive maturity is called______.
A. Growth
B. senescence
C. development
D. adolescence
Answer: (D) adolescence
Solution: Adolescence is the intermediate growing stage between
childhood and adulthood. During adolescence, the body undergoes
many physical and psychological changes and attains reproductive
maturity. This period varies from person to person.

13. Which of the following viruses causes AIDS?

A. H1N1 virus
B. Zika virus
C. HIV
D. Rhinovirus
Answer: (C) HIV
Solution: AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
virus. HIV passes from an infected person to a normal person through
sexual contact, sharing syringes, breastfeeding etc.

14. In girls, the ovaries and eggs become mature and ovaries begin to
release ovum by the process of ______.
A. Ovulation
B. fertilisation
C. oogamy
D. oogenesis
Answer: (A) Ovulation
Solution: Ovulation is the process in which mature ovaries release
egg cell or the ovum. Usually, a single egg is produced during an
ovulation cycle. The female hormone, oestrogen is released by the
ovaries which promote ovulation.

15. Which among the following is the change seen in girls during
puberty?
A. Broader shoulders
B. Cracking of voice
C. Breast development
D. Growth of facial hair
Answer: (C) Breast development
Solution: One of the major changes in girls during puberty is breast
development. Also, in girls, the region below the waist becomes wider
during puberty, while in boys, the chest becomes wider and the
shoulders become broad.

16. A human gamete has ________ sex chromosome(s).

A. Four
B. Half
C. Two
D. One
Answer: (D) One
Solution: A human cell has 46 chromosomes in total. Out of these 46
chromosomes, 44 are autosomes and 2 are sex chromosomes.
Chromosomes occur in pairs and thus there are 23 pairs. A cell
having 23 pairs of chromosomes is called diploid. Diploid cells
undergo division and their number reduces to half, i.e. produce
haploid cells having only 23
chromosomes, without any pairs. These cells are also called gametes.
Thus, gametes have only one sex chromosome.

17. The pituitary gland is located below the ______.

A. Thalamus
B. medulla oblongata
C. vas deferens
D. hypothalamus
Answer: (D) hypothalamus
Solution: The pituitary gland is a pea-sized gland located just below
the hypothalamus which is connected to the pituitary via a bundle of
nerve fibres. It is known as the master gland of the endocrine system
as it produces all the critical hormones which regulate the secretions
of all other endocrine glands.

18. What happens during menopause? A. No menstruation. B. No

maturation of new follicles. C. The ovaries stop the secretion of
oestrogen
A. C only
B. A, B and C
C. B only
D. A and B
Answer: (B) A, B and C
Solution: Menopause is the time in all women’s lives when the
menstrual cycle stops permanently. It typically occurs between 49
and 52 years of age. At menopause, no oestrogen is secreted by the
ovaries and thus, no new follicles and hence, no ovulation occurs;
therefore, menstruation stops.

19. Which of the following can spread AIDS?

A. Eating food with an infected person
B. Hugging an infected person
C. Transfusion of infected blood
D. Mosquito bites
Answer: (C) Transfusion of infected blood
Solution: AIDS is caused by the HIV virus. It can spread through
various means, like i. Sexual contact with an infected person. ii.
Transfusion of contaminated blood. iii. From a pregnant mother to her
child during birth or breastfeeding. It does not spread by: i. Touching,
kissing and socialising with the infected person. ii. Eating meals with
an infected person. iii. Mosquito bites.

20. Deficiency of iodine in our diet leads to a condition called:

A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Goitre
C. Gigantism
D. Infertility
Answer: (B) Goitre
Solution: Iodine is essential for the production of thyroxine. In an
attempt to produce more thyroxine, the gland enlarges. This condition
is called goitre.
 Notes for Coal and Petroleum
Introduction
We use various materials for our basic needs. Some of them are
found in nature and some have been made by human efforts.
Natural resources
Definition
The sources which are obtained from nature are called natural
resources.
Types of natural resources
1. Inexhaustible natural resources
These sources are present in unlimited quantity in nature and
are not likely to be exhausted by human activities.
Examples: Sunlight, air, etc.
2. Exhaustible natural resources
The amount of these resources in nature is limited, they can be
exhausted by human activities.
Examples: Forests, coal, petroleum. minerals, wild life, natural
gas, etc.
Booster 1
Can sunlight get exhausted by human activities?
Explanation
Sunlight is an ultimate source of energy available free of cost. It
cannot be exhausted by human activities as it is produced by a
natural process of fusion inside the sun. Due to this nuclear fusion
extremely large amount of energy is produced which comes in the
form of sunlight.
Test Yourself
1. Name some inexhaustible substances other than sunlight and
air.
2. Which fuel is used for running vehicles?
(a) Wood
(b) Coal
(c) Diesel
(d) Charcoal
3. Which of the following is a natural resource?
(a) Tea
(b) Cooked food
(c) Air
(d) Toffee
4. inexhaustible natural resource in nature are
(a) limited
(b) unlimited
(c) scarce
(d) not present
5. Which of the following is an exhaustible natural resource?
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Soil
(d) Forest

Types of natural resources

Memory map

Fuels
A fuel is a substance, which bums In air to produce energy without
releasing harmful gases in large quantities.
Fuels can be classified as natural (primary) fuels and derived
(secondary) fuels. If a fuel Is present in its natural state, it is called
natural fuel. If a fuel is processed to improve its quality, it Is called
derived fuel.
Memory map
Calorific value of a fuel
Calorific value of a fuel is the amount of heat liberated by complete
burning of a unit mass or volume of a fuel. For liquid or gaseous
fuels, volume of fuel is considered while for solid fuels mass of fuel
is considered to find out the calorific value.

Characteristics of an ideal fuel

(1) It should have a high calorific value.
(2) It should not cause any pollution or should not produce harmful
gases on combustion.
(3) It should be of low cost and easily available.
(4) It should be easy to handle, store and transport.
(5) It should have moderate ignition temperature.
(6) It should have moderate rate of combustion.
Fossil fuels
Exhaustible natural resources like coal, petroleum and natural gas
were formed from the dead remains of living organism (fossils). So,
these are called fossil fuels. Coal and petroleum are very important
natural resources and play a vital role in modem society. They are
found in the earth's crust.
Coal
Coal is a complex mixture of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
compounds. me nitrogen, sulphur and phosphorus compounds are
also present in it. It is found in coal mines deep under the surface of
earth. Story of formation : It is believed that millions of years ago,
the ground below the forests was split open by natural forces such
as earthquakes and volcanoes. The forests got buried under the
surface of earth. Thus, the plants had no contact with oxygen.
Successive layers of sediments sealed the buried plants. Over
millions of year, these deposits were subjected to tremendous
pressure and heat finally transformed them into coal.
Carbonisation: The chemical process involved in the transformation
of punt matter into coal is called the carbonisation of plant matter.

The carbon content of coal depends upon the variety of the coal. The
higher the temperature and pressure of the Earth and the longer the
coal has been hurried under the Earth, the more is the carbon
content in it. So, the different varieties of coal are as follows (1) Peat
(2) Lignite (3) Bituminous coal (4) Anthracite coal
Peat: It is the youngest variety of coal which is light brown in colour.
It contains minimum carbon content and produces less heat and
more smoke on burning. Its calorific value is 10 to 15 kJ/g.
Lignite: It is known as soft coal. It is also brown in colour and
contains more carbon than peat. Its calorific value is 15 to 20 kJ/g.
Bituminous coal: It is the common household coal. It is the most
abundant f and Is compact, black, contains more carbon and
produces more heat than peat and lignite. Its calorific value is 30 to
35 kJ/g.
Anthracite coal: It is the hardest coal containing maximum carbon.
T+ burns with difficulty due to presence of very low volatile matter.
Therefore it is not used for household purposes, it is mainly used for
industrial purposes. Its calorific value is 28 to 30 kJ/g.

Destructive distillation of coal

The process of heating coal in the absence of air is called the
destructive distillation of coal. Coal contains a number of elements
such as carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and sulphur. When coal
is heated in the absence of air, a number of products are obtained.
The main products obtained by the destructive distillation of coal are
as follows:
(1) Coke (2) Coal tar (3) Coal gas
(1) Coke: contains 98 % carbon. It is porous, tough, black and the
purest form of coal. Like charcoal, it Is a good fuel and burns without
smoke. It is largely employed as a reducing agent in the extraction of
metals from their ores. It is also used in making fuel gases like water
gas and producer gas.
(2) Coal tar (liquid): Coal tar is a mixture of different carbon
compounds. It thick, black liquid with unpleasant smell. The
fractional distillation of coal tar gives many chemical substances
which are used in the preparation of dyes, explosives, paints,
synthetics fibers, drugs, and pesticides. Some of these chemical
substances are benzene, toluene, phenol and aniline. Naphthalene
balls used to repel moth and other insects are also obtained from
coal tar.
Note: These days bitumen a petroleum product is used in
place of coal tar for metalling the roads.
(3) Coal Gas: Coal gas is mainly a mixture of hydrogen, methane
and carbon monoxide. The gases present in coal gas are
combustible and hence, it is an excellent fuel. It has high calorific
value. It was used for lighting houses, factories and streets in
Mumbai until 1950. It was also used for cooling earlier.
Petroleum
It is dark brownish to green coloured viscous liquid fossil fuel. It has
strong foul smell due to the presence of sulphur containing
compounds in it. It is commonly called as crude oil. The economy of
a nation depends to a great extent on petroleum wealth, that's why
petroleum is called the black gold.
Its name is derived from Latin words Petra (meaning rock) and
O1eum (meaning oil). Thus, petroleum literally means "rock oil".
Origin of petroleum: Petroleum is a complex mixture of solid, liquid
and seous hydrocarbons, mixed with salt water and earthy particles.
It is always found trapped between two impervious rocks.
It is believed that petroleum is formed by the anaerobic
decomposition of extremely small sea animals and plants which got
buried in the sea bed millions of years ago. Let us see how this
happened.
Occurrence of petroleum: Petroleum occurs at a moderate depth
(500 m to 200 m) between the 2 layers of impervious rocks. The
petroleum is lighter than It water & hence, floats over it. Natural gas
is found above petroleum, trapped between the rock cap & petroleum
layer.
Drilling of oil wells: The hole is drilled in the Earth's crust & when it
reached the rock cap, the natural gas comes out first with a great
pressure. When the pressure of gas subsides, petroleum starts
flowing out due to the pressure of natural gas.
Refining of petroleum: Petroleum is a mixture of several
hydrocarbons. It also contains water, salt and rocky materials. It
cannot be used in this made form either as a fuel or a basic material
to produce other useful components. Before being put to use, it has
to be purified or refined. The process of separating the various
components of petroleum from one another is known as the refining
of petroleum. This is done by a process called fractional distillation
which is based on the fact that the different components of
petroleum have distinctly different boiling points.
In fractional distillation, crude petroleum is heated to a temperature
of ,4U0°C or slightly above in a furnace.
Uses of petroleum
(1) Petroleum products are used as fuels.
(2) Lubricating oils, and vaseline are used as lubricants.
(3) Paraffin wax, products of petroleum, is used for manufacturing
candles, polishes, waxed paper, water proofing, etc.
(4) Some of the by-products of petroleum after purification are used
in the preparation of medicines, ointments, face creams and
cosmetics.

Natural gas
Natural gas was formed millions of years ago along with petroleum
when microscopic sea plants & animals died & got buried under the
sand & mud. These plants & animals under anaerobic conditions
changed to gas.
Composition
It consist mainly of methane (about 85%), ethane (about 10%)
propane (about 3%) and butane when natural gas is compressed at
high pressure then it is called CNG (compressed natural gas). CNG
is used for power generation.
It is now being used as a fuel for transport vehicles because it is less
polluting. The great advantage of CNG is that it can be used directly
for burning in homes and factories where it can be supplied through
pipes. Such network of pjpeline exists in Vadodara (Gujarat) and
some parts of Delhi.
Occurrence
It is generally found trapped between impervious rocks, sometimes
along with petroleum & sometimes without petroleum.
In our country, natural gas has been found in Tripura, Rajasthan,
Maharashtra and in the Krishna Godavari Delta.
Uses of natural gas
(1) As a fuel - It has a very high calorific value of 55 ktJ/g
(2) As a source of hydrogen & carbon

Booster 2

Why petroleum is also known as black gold?

Explanation
Many useful substances are obtained from petroleum which can be
used for the manufacture of detergents, fibers (polyester, nylon,
acrylic etc.) polyethene and many other plastics.
Due to its great commercial importance, petroleum is also called
Black Gold.
Conservation of fossil fuels
It is believed that it took millions of years for the dead organisms to
change into coal, petroleum or natural gas. Furthermore, their known
reserves are limited.
Another problem with fossil fuels is that they are steadily increasing
air . pollution, their use is linked to global warming. So, it is
important that we use fuels only when it is absolutely necessary. tri
this way, we can save these fuels for the Manufacture of many
substances which are dependent on petrochemicals.
For energy purpose, we must look for alternative sources, such as
solar energy, tidal energy, wind energy, etc. Furthermore, fossil fuels
will be available to future generations for more useful products.
In India, the Petroleum Conservation Research Association (PCRA)
offers the following tips to conserve petrol & diesel while driving.
(1) Drive at a constant & moderate speed as far as possible. Driving
at a high speed or slow speed wastes a lot of fuel.
(2) Switch off engine if you have to wait at traffic lights or for any
other reason.
(3) Check the tyre pressure regularly, low pressure or too high
pressure waste fuel.
(4) Make sure that you send your vehicle to garage for regular
maintenance.

1. Water is a ________
a. Natural substance
b. Man made substance
c. Both of these
d. None of these
2. When coal burns in air then
a. Carbon dioxide is formed
b. Sulphur dioxide is formed
c. Carbon monoxide is formed
d. Hydrogen gas is formed
3. Purest form of carbon is
 a. Coal
b. Charcoal
c. Coke
d. All of these
4. Coaltar contains about
a. 300 substance
b. 400 substance
c. 200 substance
d. 100 substance
5. The first oil well was drilled in
a. USA
b. USSR
c. UK
d. India
6. PCRA stands for
a. Public Conservations Research Association
b. Petroleum Conservation Research Association
c. Public Council of Research Association
d. Partial Counting of remaining Amendment
7. An example of fossil fuel is
a. Wood
b. Animal waste
c. Coal
d. All of these
8. Which of the following is natural resource?
a. Car
b. Bus
c. Water
d. Parks
9. Which of the following is manmade resource?
a. Air
b. Water
c. Soil
d. Parks
10. Which of the following is obtained from coal tar ?
a. Petrol
b. Coke
c. Air
d. Naphthalene balls
Answers
1. A
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. C
9. D
10. D

1. What is the primary source of minerals in the soil?

a) Plants
b) Animals
c) Parent rock
d) All of the above
Answer: c
Explanation: Soil is formed from the parent rocks. The disintegration
of rocks and weathering typically lead to soil formation. Thus, the
parent rock is considered the primary source of minerals in the soil.

2. Which of the following is not a petroleum product?

a) Kerosene
b) Beeswax
c) Pitch black
d) None of the above
Answer: b
Explanation: Kerosene, pitch black and gasoline are formed as a
byproduct during petroleum refining. In contrast, beeswax is a natural
source of wax created by honey bees.

3. Which of the following is the purest form of carbon?

a) Coal gas
b) Coal tar
c) Coke
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Explanation: Coke is the purest form of carbon, typically produced
from coal. It is the solid carbonaceous material emanated from the
destructive distillation of low-sulphur, low-ash bituminous coal. In
contrast, coal gas and coal tar contain less carbon content and more
impurities.

4. Which of the following are vital constituents of petroleum?

a) Butane
b) Liquified petroleum gas
c) Jet fuel
d) All of the above
Answer: d
Explanation: Butane, liquified petroleum gas, jet fuel, petrol, fuel oil,
kerosene and diesel are vital components of petroleum.

5. Which of the following is used as an industrial fuel?

a) Coal gas
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Carbon dioxide gas
d) All of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: Coal gas is produced during coal processing to obtain
coke. It is used as fuel in industries and therefore is referred to as an
industrial fuel.

6. Which of the following is used to manufacture steel?

a) Coke
b) Coal gas
c) Coal tar
d) All of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: Coke is used to simulate steel and extract numerous
metals.

7. Which of the following petroleum content boils at temperatures

greater than 350o C?
a) Diesel oil
b) Petroleum gas
c) Lubricating oil
d) All of the above
Answer: c
Explanation: Lubricating oil boils at temperatures greater than 350o C.
8. Which of the following petroleum product is used as a solvent for
dry cleaning clothes?
a) Petrol
b) Liquified petroleum gas
c) Lubricating oil
d) All of the above
Answer: a

9. Petroleum is a _______ solution.

a) Liquid-liquid
b) Gas-gas
c) Liquid-gas
d) All of the above
Answer: a

10. What is the source of coal formation?

a) Plants
b) Animals
c) Both plants and animals
d) None of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: Plants are the source of coal formation. It is formed by
decomposing large amounts of trees under the soil for about 300
million years.

11. Which of the following is the characteristic of exhaustible natural

resources?
a) They are unlimited
b) They are limited
c) They are not dependent on nature
d) All of the above
Answer: b
Explanation: Exhaustible natural resources are present in limited
quantity and can be exhausted by human activities. Natural gas,
petroleum, coal, minerals, animals, plants, etc., are some exhaustible
natural resources.

12. Which of the following are examples of exhaustible natural

resources?
a) Water and sunlight
b) Wildlife and minerals
c) Coal and sunlight
d) All of the above
Answer: b
Explanation: Wildlife and minerals are examples of exhaustible
natural resources. It is present in limited quantity and can be
exhausted by human activities.

13. What is the primary element of liquified petroleum gas and

compressed natural gas?
a) Butane and hexane
b) Methane and hexane
c) Methane and butane
d) All of the above
Answer: c

14. Which of the following is not a natural resource?

a) Sunlight
b) Water
c) Plastic
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Explanation: Sunlight and water are natural resources. In contrast,
plastic is an artificial substance synthesised in industries. Thus, it is
not regarded as a natural resource.

15. ________ is a thick black liquid with an unpleasant odour.

a) Coal tar
b) Gasoline
c) Diesel oil
d) All of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: Coal tar is a thick black liquid with an unpleasant odour.
It is produced during coal processing in industries.

16. LPG is the abbreviation of ________.

a) Liquified petroleum gas
b) Low petroleum gas
c) Liquid pressure gas
d) None of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: LPG is the abbreviation of liquified petroleum gas.

17. CNG is the abbreviation of ________.

a) Compressed natural gas
b) Compress natural gas
c) Compress national gas
d) None of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: CNG is the abbreviation of compressed natural gas.

18. Choose the correct statement.

a) Density of coal is less than coke
b) Density of coal is more than coke
c) Density of coal is equal to coke
d) None of the above
Answer: b

19. Which of the following is not a free state of carbon?

a) Petrol
b) Coke
c) Diamond
d) All of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: Coke and diamond are free states of carbon. In contrast,
petrol is a mixture of methane and butane.

20. What is the common name of petroleum?

a) Blue gold
b) Yellow gold
c) Black gold
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Explanation: Black gold is the common name for petroleum as it is a
vital energy source, and its byproducts are valuable too. Further,
crude petroleum glimpses black in colour. Therefore, it is known as
black gold.
 Class VIII Science
Notes for Combustion and Flame
Introduction
People generally use wood, cowdung cakes, crop residues, kerosene
oil, coke or LPG gas to cook food. For ruining vehicles, we use petrol
or diesel oil. In factories, we use coal or fuel oil or natural gas.
The materials, such as wood, coke, LPG (liquid petroleum gas),
petrol, diesel, natural gas have one property [n common, i.e., they
produce heat on burning which is then put into different uses.
Furthermore, some materials on burning produce flame and some do
not. For example, a candle or coal gas on burning produces a flame,
but not the coal or charcoal. So, let us study the chemical process of
burning and the types of flame produced during this process.
Combustion
Some substances, like magnesium catches fire and burns with a
dazzling white flame when heated in air. Similarly, when a piece of
per is brought near a candle flame, it burns, producing heat and
light. The charcoal and coal bums in air producing carbon dioxide,
heat and light.
Air or oxygen which helps in burning is called supporter of
combustion and the chemical reaction which takes place with the
release of heat and light energy is called combustion.
A chemical process in which a substance reacts with oxygen to give
off heat is called combustion.
The substances which undergo combustion are known as
combustible substances. It may also be called a fuel.
Sometimes, heat is accompanied by light, either as a flame or as a
glow, during combustion.
Fuel may be solid, liquid or gas. A combustion reaction maybe
written as-
(a) Charcoal burns in air to give carbon dioxide and heat.
C + O 2 → CO 2 + Heat
(b) Methane bums in air forming carbon dioxide, water and heat.
CH 4 + 2O 2 → CO 2 + 2H 2 O + Heat
Test Yourself
1. Which of the following is combustible?
(a) Iron nail
(b) Glass
(c) Stone pieces
(d) Paper
2. Combustion is a
(a) physical process
(b) chemica
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None
Conditions required for combustion
Now, let us study the conditions under which combustion takes place
with the help of following activities.
Booster 1
Why is the person caught in fire, is covered with a blanket?
Explanation
If the clothes of a person catch fire, he is immediately wrapped in a
thick blanket. The blanket cuts off the supply of air i.e. the supporter
of combustion and hence the fire is put off.
Let us we some more activities to team more about combustion. Can
a matchstick burn on its own? Can we bum a wood piece by a lighted
matchstick? The answer to these questions Is - No.
This shows that different substances bum at different temperatures.
Some minimum temperature is essential for burning a combustible
substance, before it catches fire. This minimum temperature is called
ignition temperature.
Ignition temperature: It is the minimum temperature to which a
combustible substance must be heated, before it catches fire.
Therefore, we see that a combustible substance cannot catch fire as
long as its temperature is lower than its ignition temperature e.g.
Ignition temperature of phosphorus is 35 °C. So, unless phosphorus
is heated to 35 °C, it will not catch fire. However, if temperature of
air is 35°C or more, phosphorus will catch fire without heating.
Similarly, Kerosene oil and wood do not catch fire on their own at
room temperature. But if both are heated a little, than kerosene oil
will catch fire and not wood. This shows that ignition temperature of
kerosene oil is lower than that of wood. Lets we the following activity
which shows that a substance cannot bum until it reaches its ignition
temperature.

Booster 2
Why does the fire goes off when water is poured over burning wood?
Explanation
It happens because water absorbs a large amount of heat energy,
which results in fall in the temperature of wood below its ignition
temperature and the fire goes off.
Test Yourself
1. What do you mean by supporter of combustion?
2. Name a gas which is a non-supporter of combustion.
Ho do we control fire?
We have seen homes, shops and factories caught in fire. How can
the fire be controlled from spreading? Generally, water is used to
control fire. Water brings down the temperature of the combustible
substance below its ignition temperature. The water vapour
surrounds the combustible material, thus helping in cutting off the
supply of air. So, that the fire is extinguished.

Fig .8 Are can be extinguished by using fire extinguisher properly.

Note: Fire produced by the burning of oil or petrol cannot be
controlled by throwing water on it because water being heavier than
oil, settles down the oil and oil continues to bum.?
In the case of fires caused by burning liquid fuels, such as kerosene
oil can be controlled by throwing sand or soil over it.
We know that there are 3 conditions necessary for producing and
sustaining combustion.
(1) Presence of a combustible substance.
(2) Presence of a supporter of combustion.
(3) Attainment of ignition or kindling temperature.
Thus, fire can be controlled by removing one or more of these
requirements of fire control.
The fire extinguisher also try to cut off the supply of air or bring
down the temperature of the fuel or both, to control the fire. The
combustible substance as such cannot be eliminated in most of the
cases from the place of fire.
There are various types of fire extinguishers used for controlling a
fire. The job of a fire extinguisher is to cut off the supply of air or
bring down the temperature of the fuel.
To operate extinguisher

Fig.9 Follow PASS.

Soda - acid fire extinguisher: Carbon dioxide liberated by the
reaction of sulphuric acid with sodium bicarbonate solution comes
out with a stream of liquid water at high pressure. Water puts off the
fire by lowering the temperature of the combustible material below its
ignition temperature and carbon dioxide cut off the supply of air to
the combustible substance.
 Fig.10 Common fire extinguisher.
Types of combustion
Combustion is mainly of three types
(1) Rapid combustion (2) Spontaneous combustion (3) Explosion
1. Rapid combustion: The combustion in which the gas burns
rapidly and produces heat and light is called rapid combustion.
For example: When a burning matchstick is brought near a
gas burner and the gas tap is opened, the gas immediately starts
burning with the production of heat and light. Eg. Petrol, LPG, spirit,
etc.,
2. Spontaneous combustion: The combustion in which no
external heat is given is known as spontaneous combustion.
For example: Burning of white phosphorus in air.
3. Explosion: The combustion in which large amount of gases are
evolved with the production of a tremendous amount of neat; light
and sound is called explosion,
For example: When a cracker is ignited, a sudden reaction,
oxidation process takes place, and in which at high speed large
amount of gas is evolved with the production of tremendous amount
of heat, light and sound.
Difference between rapid and spontaneous combustion
 Booster 3
Forest fires are a result of which type of combustion and why ?
Explanation
Forest fires are the result of spontaneous combustion because of the
following factors
(i) presence of a combustible substance
(ii) presence of right ignition temperature
(iii) presence of supporter of combustion in air
Test Yourself
1. What are forest fires?
2. Why CO 2 is considered as the best fire extinguisher?
Flame
Look at the combustible substances around you and try to find
whether on burning some of these materials (given below) forms a
flame or not.
Flame: A region of burning gases is called flame..
A substance will burn with a flame, only if some gaseous substance
is there to burn.

Booster 4
Why does a matchstick produce a flame on burning?
Explanation
When the matchstick catches fire or is burnt, the heat released due
to the burning of chemicals on the match head, partly decomposes
the wood to form wood gas. The wood gas then catches fire and
produces a flame.
Structure of a flame
In order to understand the structure of a flame, light a wax candle
and watch its flame. Carefully note the
different coloured zones in the flame. Starting from the base of the
flame, a flame has four zones.
(1) Blue zone: It is near the base of the flame. Vaporised wax gets
oxidised to carbon monoxide and carbon monoxide bums completely
with a blue flame in this zone.
(2) Dark inner zone: Surrounding the wick is the dark zone. There
is no burning in this zone. If we pass a wooden splinter through the
dark zone of the flame, it comes out unscrotched (unbumt) showing
that there is no ‘burning’ in this zone. However, some =burnt wax
vapours are present in this zone.
(3) Luminous zone: In this region of the flame hydrogen burns with
a brilliant yellow luminous flame. Burning hydrogen combines with
oxygen to form water vapour. Carbon also burns in this zone giving
some luminosity to the flame and producing carbon dioxide. Some
unbumt carbon particles are left which give rise to soot.
(4) Outermost non-luminous zone: This zone is poorly visible and
is slightly blue. It is the hottest part of the flame where complete
oxidation (burning) of the fuel is taking place.

Test Yourself
1. Which one of the following is fuel of our body?
(a) Petrol
(b) Diesel
(c) Food
(d) Water
2. Name the currency of energy in our by.

Booster 5
Why do goldsmiths use the outermost zone of the flame for melting
gold and silver?
Explanation
Goldsmiths, use the outermost zone or non-luminous part of the
flame for melting or shaping gold and silver ornaments. They direct
the non-luminous part of the flame of candle on the gold with the
help of a blow pipe. fps the temperature of this part of the flame is
around 1300°C, it is sufficient to melt gold at specific point and thus
helps goldsmiths to give proper shape to the gold ornaments.
What is Fuel?
Any substance which is easily available and burns in air at a
moderate rate, producing a large amount of heat energy, without
leaving behind any undesirable residue is called fuel.
Example: wood, charcoal, petrol, kerosene, etc.

Booster 6
Why is sulphur not used as a fuel even though it can bum in air to
produce heat?
Explanation
Sulphur is easily available in nature and can bum in air to produce
heat. However, it is not a fuel because on burning, it forms a
poisonous gas, SO 2 , which can cause serious respiratory problems
and can even be fatal.
Ideal Fuel
There is probably no fuel that could be considered as an ideal fuel.
We should look for a fuel which fulfils most of the requirements for a
particular use.
Characteristics of a good fuel
(1) It should be cheap and readily available.
(2) It should be easy to store.
(3) It should bum at a slow rate and its combustion should be
controllable
(4) It should have low ignition temperature.
(5) It should produce very small amount of residues such as ash.
(6) It should have large calorific value.
(7) It should not produce gases which pollute the air.
(8) It should not produce any hazards during transportation.
Classification of fuels
On the basis of physical state, fuels are classified into three parts.
1. Solid fuels: The fuels which occur In a solid state at room
temperature are called solid fuels. Example: Wood, agricultural
residues, charcoal, coal, coke, etc.
2. Liquids fuels: The fuels which occur in a liquid state at room
temperature are called liquid fuels. Example: Liquefied hydrogen,
petrol, oil, kerosene, diesel, etc.
3. Gaseous fueils: The fuels which occur in a gaseous state at
room temperature are called gaseous fuels.
Example: Water gas, producer gas, coal gas, compressed
natural gas (CNG) and gobar gas, etc.
Fuel efficiency
The amount of heat energy produced on completely burning one
Kilogram of fuel (in 02) is called the calorific value of a fuel. The
more is the calorific value of a fuel, more is the efficiency of the fuel.
The calorific value of the fuels is expressed in Kilojoules per
kilogram (kJ/kg) or kilojoules per gram (kJ/g). The calorific value of
common solids, liquids and gaseous fuels is given below.
Calorific value of solid fuels
Calorific value of liquid fuels

Calorific value of gaseous fuels

Harmful effects of burning fuels

The increasing fuel consumption has harmful effects on the
environment. The main products formed during the fuel combustion
which produce harmful effect are:
1. Carbon fuels like wood, coal, petroleum release unburnt carbon
particles. These fine particles are dangerous pollutants causing
respiratory disease, such as asthma.
2. Incomplete combustion forms carbon monoxide gas. It is very
poisonous gas. It is dangerous to burn coal in a closed room. The
carbon monoxide gas produced can kill persons sleeping in that
room.
3. Combustion of most fuels releases carbon dioxide in the
environment. Increased percentage of carbon dioxide in the air
causes global warming. Global warning is the rise in temperature of
the earth. This result in rrrre1ting of polar glaciers. This leads to rise
in sea level and floods in the sea coast.
4. Burning of coal and diesel release sulphur dioxide gas. It is an
extremely suffocating and corrosive gas. Sulphur dioxide and
nitrogen oxide dissolve in rain water to form acid. Such rain is called
acid rain. It is very harmful for crops, buildings and soil.
5. Wood is also used as a fuel. Burning of wood gives a lot of
smoke which causes air pollution and is also very harmful for
humans. It may lead to many respiratory problems. Cutting of trees
for obtaining wood Leads to deforestation which is quite harmful to
environment.
6. Carbon particles of smoke or the ash get suspended in the air.
Excessive amount of them in the air causes breathing problems.

1. Which substance give heat and light after combustion

a. Flame
b. Fuel
c. Combustion
d. None of these
2. Like fuel the sun also provides heat and light. The process taking
place in the sun is called
a. Combustion
b. Nuclear process
c. Burning
d. All of these
3. Coal burns with ______
a. Flame
b. Only glow
c. Both flame and glow
d. None of these
4. Burning of charcoal in a closed room will produce
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Nitrogen dioxide
c. Carbon monoxide
d. All of these
5. The substances which have very low ignition temperature will
a. Catch fire easily
b. Will not catch fire
c. Catch fire after some time
d. None of these
6. CNG and LPG are the examples of
a. Solid fuels
b. Liquid fuels
c. Gaseous fuels
d. They are not fuels
7. Ignition temperature is
a. Lowest temperature at catch fire
b. Higher temperature at catch fire
c. Any temperature
d. None of these
8. Combustion is a
a. Chemical process
b. Physical process
c. Both of these processes
d. None of these processes
9. The products of combustion are
a. Carbon dioxide and water
b. Oxygen and water
c. Only carbon dioxide
d. Only oxygen
10. There are following zones of a flame
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. No any zone
ANSWERS
1. B
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. A
8. A
9. A
10. B

Q-1: Which of the following is a chemical reaction that produces heat

when a substance reacts with oxygen?
a) Oxidation
b) Combustion
c) Reduction
d) Hydrolysis
Answer: b) Combustion
Explanation: Combustion is a chemical reaction in which a substance
reacts with oxygen to produce heat.

Q-2: Ignition temperature is the ________ temperature at which the

substance catches fire.
a) Highest
b) Lowest
c) Maximum
d) Room
Answer: b) Lowest
Explanation: The lowest temperature at which a substance catches
fire is referred to as its ignition temperature.

Q-3: A mixture of antimony trisulphide, potassium chlorate, and white

phosphorus, along with glue and starch, was applied to the head of a
suitable wood match. Which of the following chemicals ignites when
struck against a rough surface?
a) Antimony trisulphide
b) White Phosphorous
c) Glue
d) Starch
Answer: b) White Phosphorous
Explanation: The heat of friction caused white phosphorus to ignite
when it was struck against a rough surface. As a result, the match
began to burn.

Q-4: Which of the following is not an inflammable substance?

a) Alcohol
b) Wood
c) Ethanol
d) Liquified Petroleum Gas
Answer: b) Wood
Explanation: Inflammable substances are those that have a very low
ignition temperature and can easily catch fire with a flame.
Inflammable substances include gasoline, alcohol, and liquefied
petroleum gas (LPG). Hence, only wood is an inflammable substance.

Q-5: Which of the following is the best fire extinguisher for electrical
equipment and inflammable substances?
a) Water
b) CO2
c) O2
d) All of the above
Answer: b) CO2
Explanation: Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the best extinguisher for fires
involving electrical equipment and inflammable materials such as
gasoline. Because CO2 is heavier than oxygen, it blankets the fire. The
fire is under control because the contact between the fuel and the
oxygen has been cut off. CO2 has the added benefit of not causing
damage to electrical equipment in most cases.

Q-6: Which of the following describes a type of combustion in which a

substance suddenly bursts into flame without any apparent cause?
a) Rapid
b) Explosion
c) Spontaneous
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Spontaneous
Explanation: The type of combustion in which a material
spontaneously bursts into flames without any apparent cause is
known as spontaneous combustion.
All other types of combustion, on the other hand, require the
application of heat in order to ignite.

Q-7: Which of the following is not an ideal fuel characteristic?

a) Costly
b) Readily available
c) Easy to transport
d) High calorific value
Answer: a) Costly
Explanation: An ideal fuel is inexpensive, widely available, easily
combustible, and portable. It has a high calorific value. It emits no
gases or residues that pollute the environment.

Q-8: Which of the following units expresses fuel efficiency in terms of

calorific value?
a) kg/kJ
b) kJ/kg
c) J/kg
d) J/g
Answer: b) kJ/kg
Explanation: Fuel efficiency is measured in terms of calorific value,
which is measured in kilojoules per kilogramme (kJ/kg).

Q-9: Which of the following does not burn with a flame?

a) Molten wax
b) Kerosene oil
c) Charcoal
d) Camphor
Answer: c) Charcoal
Explanation: The substances that vaporise during combustion
produce flames. For example, kerosene oil and molten wax rise
through the wick and are vapourised during burning and form flames.
Charcoal, on the other hand, does not. As a result, no flame is
produced.

Q-10: Which of the following is a fuel that is good for the environment
and is used in automobiles?
a) Diesel
b) Petrol
c) Natural gas
d) Petroleum gas
Answer:c) Natural gas
Explanation: When carbon-containing fuels such as wood, coal, and
petroleum are burned, they produce air pollution, respiratory
problems, acid rain, and global warming. However, CNG (Compressed
Natural Gas) is referred to as a cleaner fuel because it emits very little
harmful gas.

Q-11: Which of the following fuels has a calorific value of 45000

kJ/kg?
a) Cow dung cake
b) Petrol
c) LPG
d) Biogas
Answer: b) Petrol
Explanation: Below table shows the calorific value for various
different fuels:
Fuel Calorific Fuel ( kJ/kg)
Cow dung cake 6000-8000
Petrol 45000
LPG 55000
Biogas 35000-40000
The table clearly shows that petrol has a calorific value of 45000
kJ/kg.

Q-12: It is dangerous to burn wood in a room. The gas X produced

can be fatal to the person sleeping in the room. Identify the gas X.
a) CO2
b) SO2
c) CO
d) N2
Answer: c) CO
Explanation: It is dangerous to burn wood in a room because wood
burns incompletely and emits CO gas. The CO gas produced is lethal
to anyone sleeping in the room.

Q-13: Which type of combustion is exemplified by the combustion of

match sticks?
a) Explosive combustion
b) Spontaneous combustion
c) Rapid combustion
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Rapid combustion
Q-14: Which zone of the candle flame burns with a blue flame?
a) Outer zone
b) Middle zone
c) Innermost zone
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Outer zone
Explanation: A candle flame’s outer zone is a zone of complete
combustion that burns with a blue flame. It’s also the hottest area.

Q-15: Which type of fire can be safely extinguished with water?

a) Fire caused by petrol
b) Fire caused by oil
c) Fire caused by electrical equipment
d) Fire caused by wood
Answer: d) Fire caused by wood
Explanation: Water only works when materials such as wood and
paper are on fire. Water may conduct electricity and harm those
attempting to extinguish a fire if electrical equipment is on fire. Water
is incompatible with fires involving oil and gasoline because it is
heavier than oil and gasoline.

Q-16: Which of the following substances has the lowest ignition

temperature?
a) Charcoal
b) Paper
c) Wood
d) White Phosphorus
Answer: d) White Phosphorus
Explanation: Substances with a lower ignition temperature easily
catch fire. White phosphorus has the lowest temperature of all, with a
temperature of around 30oC.

Q-17: Which of the following candle flame zones is characterised by

the deposition of unburned carbon particles?
a) Luminous zone
b) Non luminous zone
c) Middle zone
d) Outer zone
Answer: a) Luminous zone
Explanation: The deposition of unburnt carbon particles is present in
the luminous zone of the flame.

Q-18: Which of the following gases is produced when there is

sufficient oxygen supply?
a) CO
b) CO2
c) Both CO and CO2
d) N2
Answer: b) CO2
Explanation: Complete combustion occurs in the presence of
sufficient oxygen, resulting in the release of carbon dioxide gas.
Q-19: Which of the following is not a combustible substance?
a) Iron Rod
b) Wood
c) CNG
d) Paper
Answer: a) Iron Rod
Explanation: Combustible substances are those that can be easily
burned, whereas non-combustible substances are those that cannot
be easily burned. Wood, CNG, and paper are combustible materials,
whereas iron rod is not.

Q-20: Which of the following are necessary requirements for

producing a fire?
a) Fuel, N2, Heat
b) CO2, Water, O2 gas
c) Fuel, O2, Water
d) Fuel, O2, Heat
Answer: d) Fuel, O2, Heat
Explanation: Fuel, air (to supply oxygen), and heat (to raise the
temperature) are all required for the production of fire.

Key Notes
Cell Structure and function
a) In 1655, Scientist Robert Hooke made an observation while
examining a dried section of cork tree with a crude light microscope
he observed small chambers and named them cells.
b) The cell is known as the basic structural and functional unit of
life as all organisms are composed of cells.
c) The single celled organisms are called unicellular eg- amoeba
while those having more than one cell are called multi-cellular.
d) All basic chemical and physiological functions of living beings
- for example, repair, growth, movement, immunity, communication,
and digestion etc are carried out inside the cells.
e) Structure of a cell- Cells are mostly round, spherical or
elongated in shape. Cells sometimes are quite long. Some are
branched like the nerve cell or a neuron. Components of the cell are
enclosed in a membrane which provides shape to the cells. Cell wall
is an additional covering over the cell membrane to give shape and
rigidity to plant cells.

f) The nerve cell receives and transfers messages, thereby

helping to control and coordinate the working of different parts of the
body.
g) The cell membrane functions is a semi-permeable membrane,
that allows the transmission a very few molecules across it. It gives
shape to the cell. The plasma membrane is porous and allows the
movement of substances or materials in and out of the cell.
h) Cytoplasm is the jelly-like substance present between the cell
membrane and the nucleus. Various cell organelles, of cells are
present in the cytoplasm are mitochondria, golgi bodies, ribosomes,
etc.
i) Nucleus is generally spherical body and located in the centre
of the cell. It can be stained and seen easily with the help of a
microscope. It acts as a control centre of all the activities of a cell.
Nucleus is separated from the cytoplasm by a membrane called the
nuclear membrane. This membrane is also allows the movement of
materials between the cytoplasm and nucleus.
j) The entire content of living cells including cytoplasm and
nucleus is known as protoplasm.
k) Vacuoles are fluid-filled structures surrounded by a
membrane. Plant cells have vacuoles that are very large in size.
l) Plant cells have a cell wall, and animal cells only have a cell
membrane. Plant cells contain chloroplasts which are used for
photosynthesis. Plant cells have a large vacuole, compared to an
animal cell.
m) In green plants parts like leaves, plastids contain green
pigment called chlorophyll. Chlorophyll containing plastids are called
chloroplast that provide green colour to the leaves. Chlorophyll is
essential for the process of photosynthesis.

1. The power house of cell is called

a) Cell wall
b) Mitochondria
c) Ribosomes
d) Nucleus
2. The kitchen of the cell is called
a) Cell wall
b) Nucleus
c) Vacuoles
d) Plastids
3. The functional unit of life is called
a) Cell
 b) Egg
c) Nucleus
d) None of these
4. Chloroplast is found in
a) Plant cell only
b) Animal cell only
c) Both of these
d) None of these
5. The control unit of cell is
a) Nucleus
b) Cell wall
c) Cytoplasm
d) All of these
6. Single celled organisms are called
a) Unicellular
b) Multi-cellular
c) Both of these
d) None of these
7. Tissue is a
a) Group of organs
b) Group of cells
c) Group of tissues
d) Group of organisms
8. Cell is discovered by
a) Robert Brown
b) Robert Hooke
c) John Mendal
d) Charse Darwin
9. The calls capable of changing shapes are
a) Amoeba cell
b) WBC
c) Both of these
d) None of these
10. Hen’s egg is a
a) Tissue
b) Organ
c) Organ system
d) cell
ANSWERS
1. b
 2. d
3. a
4. a
5. a
6. a
7. b
8. b
9. c
10. d

1. Choose the correct statement with respect to unicellular

organisms:
(a) in unicellular organisms, tissues work in coordination to perform
different functions.
(b) unicellular organisms do not require food.
(c) unicellular organisms respire and reproduce.
(d) all unicellular organisms move by cilia.
Soln:
Answer is (c) unicellular organisms respire and reproduce.
Explanation:
Unicellular are single-celled organisms where single cell performs
basic functions such as respiration, digestion and reproduction.
Option a) is wrong because tissues are a group of cells in unicellular
there will be only one cell. Option b) is wrong because organisms
require food for their survival like any other organisms. Different
unicellular uses different organism for locomotion Ex: Cilia,
Pseudopodia.

2. Majority of cells cannot be seen directly with our naked eyes

because:
(a) organisms are generally unicellular
(b) cells are microscopic
(c) cells are present only inside the body
(d) cells are grouped into tissues
Soln:
Answer is (b) cells are microscopic
Explanation:
Cells are basic unit if life whose size is very small to be seen by our
naked eye. Cell varies from nanometer to micrometre which requires a
microscope to visualize. Hence they are called microscopic
structures.

3. Read the different combinations of terms given below:

(a) cell wall, cell membrane, nucleus, plastid
(b) cell wall, nucleus, ribosome, chromosome
(c) the cell membrane, mitochondria, ribosome, chromosome
(d) the cell membrane, ribosome, mitochondria, chloroplast.
The correct combination of terms with reference to an animal cell is
_____.
Soln:
Answer is (c) cell membrane, mitochondria, ribosome, chromosome
Explanation:
Option a) and b) are wrong because they have a cell wall which is
present only in plant cells. Option d) is wrong because it has
chloroplast which is absent in animal cells. Hence the answer is c)

4. Which one of the following term is not a part of the nucleus?

(a) ribosome
(c) chromosome
(b) nucleolus
(d) gene
Soln:
Answer is (a) ribosome
Explanation:
Ribosomes are the organelles that float in the cytoplasm.
Chromosomes are the structures present in the nucleus which are
composed of genes. The nucleolus is a part of the nucleus which
helps in protein synthesis.

5. A suitable term for the various components of cells is

(a) tissue
(b) cell organelles
(c) chromosomes
(d) genes
Soln:
Answer is (b) cell organelles
Explanation:
The tissue is a group of cells which work together to perform a certain
function. Chromosomes are thread-like structure present in the
nucleus which constitutes all the genes. Gene is a unit of inheritance
in living organisms. It controls the transfer of a hereditary
characteristic from parents to offspring. Genes are made of DNA.

6. The jelly-like fluid substance present in cells is called

(a) protoplasm
(b) chromosome
(c) chloroplast
(d) cytoplasm
Soln:
Answer is (d) cytoplasm
Explanation:
It is the jelly-like substance present between the cell membrane and
the nucleus. Various other components, or organelles, of cells are
present in the cytoplasm. These are mitochondria, Golgi bodies,
ribosomes, etc.

7. Read the following pairs of examples of organisms:

(a) moss and sponge
(b) yeast and Amoeba
(c) bacteria and a blue-green alga
(d) penicillium and Spirogyra
The pair that belongs to the group prokaryotes is_____
Soln:
Answer is (c) bacteria and a blue-green alga
Explanation:
Prokaryotes are the organism which lacks a true nucleus and cell
organelles. Other options provided are contained eukaryotes hence
answer is c)

8. Read the following terms and select the pair that is related to the
inheritance of characters.
(a) cell wall and cell membrane
(b) chromosome and mitochondria
(c) chloroplast and cell membrane
(d) chromosome and genes
Soln:
Answer is (d) chromosome and genes
Explanation:
Chromosomes and gene are responsible for the inheritance of
characters. Chromosomes are present in the nucleus. Genes are the
parts of chromosomes which consist of DNA.

9. Choose the correct statement:

(a) Genes are located in the chromosomes.
(b) The cell is located in the nucleus.
(c) Chromosomes are located in the nucleolus.
(d) Cell membrane surrounds the nucleus.
Soln:
Answer is (a) Genes are located in the chromosomes.
Explanation:
Genes are the units of inheritance located in the chromosomes. The
nucleus is located in cells, but not the cell is located in the nucleus.
Chromosomes are present in the nucleus, not the nucleolus. The
nucleus is surrounded by the nucleus membrane, not cell membrane.

10. The green colour of leaves is due to the presence of the

pigment_____
(a) chlorophyll
(b) ribosomes
(c) mitochondria
(d) chloroplast
Soln:
Answer is (a) chlorophyll
Explanation:
Chlorophyll is a pigment present in the chloroplasts. Chlorophyll is
responsible for the green colour of leaves. Chlorophyll can absorb
energy from the sun and helps in converting it to chemical energy.

11. The unit of measurement used for expressing dimension (size) of

cells is:
(a) centimetre
(b) millimetre
(c) micrometre
(d) metre
Soln:
Answer is (c) micrometre

12. The most important function of the cell membrane is that it:
(a) controls the entry and exit of materials from cells.
(b) controls only the entry of materials into cells.
(c) controls only the exit of materials from cells.
(d) allows entry and exit of materials without any control.
Soln:
Answer is (a) controls the entry and exit of materials from cells.
Explanation:
Cell membrane facilitates entry and exit of material from cells. The
cell membrane also provides shapes to the cells.

13. Paheli accidentally placed her hand over a flame and immediately
pulled it back. She felt the sensation of heat and reacted due to the
action of
(a) blood cells
(b) skin surface
(c) nerve cells
(d) nucleus of cells
Soln:
Answer is (c) nerve cells
Explanation:
Paheli felt the sensation of heat and reacted due to the response to
the stimulus by the nerve cells. Nerve cell are specialized cells,
which receives and transmits signals from one part to other cells that
react to stimuli by generating signals through the axons

14. Which of the following cell organelle is found in all plant cells,
animal cells and also in bacterial cells?
(a) chloroplast
(b) cell wall
(c) cell membrane
(d) nucleus
Soln:
Answer is (c) cell membrane
Explanation:
Chloroplast and cell wall present only in plant cells. The nucleus is
absent in bacterial cell, therefore, the answer is (c) cell membrane.

15. The thread-like structures present in the nucleus are

(a) nucleolus
(b) chromosomes
(c) genes
(d) ribosomes
Soln:
Answer is (b) chromosomes
Explanation:
The nucleolus is a spherical body present on the nucleus. Genes are
present on chromosomes which help in inheritance or transfer of
characters from the parents to the offspring. Ribosomes are present
in the cytoplasm. Hence the answer is (b) chromosomes.

16. Identify the statement which is true for cells.

(a) Cells can be easily seen with naked eyes.
(b) Insect’s egg is not a cell.
(c) A single cell can perform all the functions in a unicellular
organism.
(d) The size and shape of cells is uniform in multicellular organisms
Soln:
Answer is (c) A single cell can perform all the functions in a
unicellular organism.
Explanation:
Cells can only be seen with microscopes hence option a) is wrong.
Insect’s egg is a cell so option b) is wrong. Cells in multicellular
organism are in different size and shape therefore option d) is wrong.

17. Which of the following is not a cell?

(a) Red Blood Corpuscle (RBC)
(b) bacterium
(c) spermatozoa
(d) virus
Soln:
Answer is (d) virus
Explanation:
The virus is considered as intermediate between living and non-living.
It is not considered as cell because it cannot replicate or perform life
processes outside the host cell.

18. Which of the following feature will help you in distinguishing a

plant cell from an animal cell?
(a) cell wall
(b) cell membrane
(c) mitochondria
(d) nucleus
Soln:
Answer is (a) cell wall
Explanation:
The cell wall is present only in plant cell whereas cell wall,
mitochondria and nucleus are present in both plant and animal cells.
Hence cell wall help in distinguishing a plant cell from an animal cell.

19. Under a microscope Paheli observes a cell that has a cell wall but
no distinct nucleus. The cell that she observes is
(a) a plant cell
(b) an animal cell
(c) a nerve cell
(d) a bacterial cell
Soln:
Answer is (d) a bacterial cell
Explanation:
Bacterial cell is a prokaryote and it lacks a distinct nucleus and cell
organelles. Hence the answer is (d) a bacterial cell.

20. Cheek cells do not have _______

(a) cell membrane
(b) nucleus
(c) golgi apparatus
(d) plastids
Soln:
Answer is (d) plastids
Explanation:
Plastids are present only in plant cells. Cheeks cells are present only
in animals hence the answer is (d) plastids.

21. Identify the correct statement.

(a) Tissue is a group of dissimilar cells.
(b) An organ consists of similar cells.
(c) Vacuoles are not found in plant cells.
(d) Prokaryotes do not have a nucleus.
Soln:
Answer is (d) Prokaryotes do not have a nucleus.
Explanation:
Prokaryotes are the organism which lack a true nucleus and cell
organelles.

22. Which of the following statements are not true for eukaryotic
cells?
(i) They do not have a nuclear membrane.
(ii) They have a well-organised nucleus.
(iii) They have a nuclear membrane.
(iv) Blue-green algae are eukaryotic cells
Soln:
Answer is (iv) Blue-green algae are eukaryotic cells
Explanation:
Blue-green algae is a bacteria which comes under prokaryotes hence
statement d) is wrong.

23. Identify the correct statement about cells.

(a) All the cells have nucleus.
(b) Cells of an organ have similar structure.
(c) Cells of tissue have a similar structure.
(d) The shape of all types of cells is round.
Soln:
Answer is (c) Cells of tissue have a similar structure.
Explanation:
Only eukaryotic cells have well-defined nucleus hence option a) is
wrong. Cells of an organ comprise of different types of the cell so
statement b) is wrong. Cells are of different shapes and size hence
option d) is wrong.

24. The table given below has certain terms and four blank spaces
named A, B, C and D.
Cell Feature/Part Function
Amoeba A Movement
Plant cell Plastid B
C Spindle Shaped Contraction
Nerve Cell D Stimuli and response
From the options given below choose the correct combination of
terms.
(a) A-Pseudopodia; B-Respirations; C-Muscle cell; D-Branched
(b) A-Pseudopodia; B-Photosynthesis; C-Muscle cell; D-Branched
(c) A-Contractile vacuole; B-Photosynthesis; C-Blood cell; D-Spindle
shaped
(d) A-Pseudopodia; B-Photosynthesis; C-Cheek cell; D-Spindle
shaped
Soln:
Answer is (b) A-Pseudopodia; B-Photosynthesis; C-Muscle cell; D-
Branched
Explanation:
(a) The pseudopods are used by Amoeba for movement and as a tool
to capture prey.
(b) Plastids are major organelles found in the plant cells, which
contain chlorophyll can carry out photosynthesis.
(c) Muscle are spindle-shaped cells, which are involved
in contraction and relaxation.
(d) Nerve cells are long, branched and active component of
the nervous system, which functions by responding to stimuli.
Very Short Answer Questions

25. In leaves, name the cell organelle and pigment that is responsible
for green colour.
Soln:
Answer is Chloroplast and Chlorophyll

26. The instrument used to observe cells is ________

Soln:
Microscope

27. We do not sense any pain when we clip our nails or cut our hair.
Why?
Soln:
Nails and hairs are made up of dead cells, which is not connected
with nerve cells. Hence we do not feel the pain when we cut our nails
or hair.

28. In a cell, where are the genes located?

Soln:
Genes are located in Chromosomes present within the nucleus.

29. Amoeba and Paramecium belong to which category of organisms?

Soln:
Answer is Protozoans

30. What are the functions of the cell wall in plant cells?
Soln:
Functions of cell-wall are as follows
 Acts as a protective layer.
 Provides shape to the cell.
 Control the cell expansion
 Preventing water loss from the cell.
 Provides strength and rigidity to the cell.
Short Answer Questions

31. Is the following statement correct? If it is wrong, correct the

statement Statement :
“Unicellular organisms do not respire, only multicellular organisms
respire”
Soln:
The statement is wrong because all kind of living organisms respire
and undergo respiration process.

32. Match the terms given in column I with their functions given in
column II and fill the blanks given below the table:
Column I Column II
A. Chloroplast i) Carries hereditary characters.
B. Cell membrane ii) Controls the activities of cells.
C. Nucleus iii) Site of photosynthesis.
D. Chromosome iv) Controls the movement of materials into and out of ce
Soln:
Column I Column II
A. Chloroplast iii) Site of photosynthesis.
B. Cell membrane iv) Controls the movement of materials into and out of ce
C. Nucleus ii) Controls the activities of cells.
D. Chromosome i) Carries hereditary characters.
33. Observe the following diagram given as Fig. 8.1.
Answer the following questions.
A. Does it represent a plant cell or an animal cell?
B. Does it represent a prokaryotic cell or a eukaryotic cell?
Soln:
1. The figure represents an animal cell.
2. This is a eukaryotic cell.