CHEMISTRY

MCQ GUIDE
WITH
WITH ANSWER
ANSWER KEY
KEY

Author:
Zaryab Khan
MBBS (KMC)
Chemistry Mentor at NUSTrive
CHEMISTRY
MCQ GUIDE
WITH
WITH ANSWER
ANSWER KEY
KEY

Author:
Zaryab Khan
MBBS (KMC)
Chemistry Mentor at NUSTrive
 NUSTRiVEbyNowsherwan ForLectures/Tests/FLPs Contact 03369374191
Chemistry 800+ MCQs with Answer Key 1

CHEMISTRY MCQs with

Answer Key
By
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Table of Contents

Chapter 1: Basic Concepts ........................................................................................... 4

ANSWER KEY ............................................................................................................ 9
Chapter 2: Experimental Techniques in Chemistry ........................................................ 10
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 15
Chapter 3: Gases ....................................................................................................... 15
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 21
Chapter 4: Solids and Liquids ...................................................................................... 22
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 27
Chapter 5: Atomic Structure........................................................................................ 28
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 35
Chapter 6: Chemical Bonding...................................................................................... 36
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 40
Chapter 7: Thermochemistry ....................................................................................... 41
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 46
Chapter 8: Chemical Equilibrium ................................................................................. 48
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 53
Chapter 9: Solutions ................................................................................................... 54
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 59
Chapter 10: Electrochemistry ...................................................................................... 60
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 65
Chapter 11: Reaction Kinetics ..................................................................................... 66
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ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 70

Chapter 1: Periodic Classification Of Elements And Periodicity ...................................... 72
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 77
CHAPTER 2: S BLOCK ELEMENTS ................................................................................ 77
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 82
Chapter 3: P-Block Elements (Groups IIIA & IVA) ........................................................... 84
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 89
Chapter 4: Gp V and VI Elements ................................................................................. 90
ANSWER KEY .......................................................................................................... 95
Chapter 5: The Halogens and The Noble Gases............................................................. 96
ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 101
Chapter 6: Transition Elements ................................................................................. 102
ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 107
Chapter 7: Fundamental Principles of Organic Chemistry............................................ 107
ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 113
Chapter 8: Aliphatic Hydrocarbons ............................................................................ 114
ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 119
Chapter 9: Aromatic Hydrocarbons ........................................................................... 120
ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 125
Chapter 10: Alkyl Halides .......................................................................................... 126
ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 131
Chapter 11: Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers .................................................................. 133
ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 138
Chapter 12: Aldehydes and Ketones .......................................................................... 139
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ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 144

Chapter 13: Carboxylic Acids .................................................................................... 146
ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 151
Chapter 14: Macromolecules .................................................................................... 152
ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 157
Chapter 15: Common Chemical Industries in Pakistan................................................ 158
ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 163
Chapter 16: Environmental Chemistry ....................................................................... 164
ANSWER KEY ........................................................................................................ 169

Chapter 1: Basic Concepts

1. Who introduced the concept of indivisible atoms called “atomos”?
(A) John Dalton (B) Democritus
(C) J.J. Thomson (D) Berzelius

2. Which scientist gave experimental basis to atomic theory in 1808?

(A) Democritus (B) Rutherford
(C) John Dalton (D) Avogadro

3. Which device is used to observe atoms directly?

(A) Optical microscope (B) Electron microscope
(C) Spectroscope (D) Mass spectrometer
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4. Which of the following has independent atomic existence?

(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen

(C) Neon (D) Hydrogen

5. Which subatomic particles are considered fundamental?

(A) Proton, electron, neutron (B) Neutrino, meson, electron
(C) Proton, neutron, positron (D) Electron, muon, photon

6. What is the mass of 1 amu?

(A) 1.661 × 10⁻²⁷ kg (B) 1.661 × 10⁻²³ kg
(C) 1.008 × 10⁻²⁷ kg (D) 1.008 × 10⁻²³ kg

7. The number of atoms in a full stop (period punctuation) is approximately:

(A) 200,000 (B) 2 million
(C) 20 million (D) 200 million

8. Molecules of Cl₂, O₃, and P₄ are examples of:

(A) Compound molecules (B) Monoatomic elements
(C) Elemental molecules (D) Ions

9. Which of the following is a macromolecule?

(A) Glucose (B) Sucrose
(C) Haemoglobin (D) Water

10. The formation of a cation is generally:

(A) Neutral (B) Endothermic
(C) Exothermic (D) Reversible

11. When a neutral atom gains an electron, it forms a(n):

(A) Proton (B) Isotope
(C) Cation (D) Anion
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12. Which compound forms a polyatomic positive ion?

(A) NH₄⁺ (B) CO₃²⁻

(C) SO₄²⁻ (D) OH⁻

13. The relative atomic mass of an element is compared to:

(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon-12 (D) Nitrogen

14. Who discovered isotopes?

(A) Rutherford (B) Soddy
(C) Dalton (D) Mendeleev

15. Which isotope of carbon is most abundant in nature?

(A) C-13 (B) C-12
(C) C-14 (D) C-10

16. What instrument is used to measure isotope masses accurately?

(A) Electron microscope (B) Atomic clock
(C) Mass spectrometer (D) UV-Vis spectrometer

17. The average atomic mass of neon is closest to:

(A) 20.00 (B) 20.18
(C) 20.92 (D) 21.00

18. Empirical formula gives:

(A) Exact atom count (B) Structural arrangement
(C) Simplest whole number ratio (D) Molecular weight

19. One mole of water contains:

(A) 6.02 × 10²³ molecules (B) 1.2 × 10²⁴ atoms
(C) 3 covalent bonds (D) All of the above
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20. Which of the following is not a method to separate isotopes?

(A) Gaseous diffusion (B) Mass spectrometry
(C) Filtration (D) Electromagnetic separation

21. Find the percentage of Nitrogen in NH₄NO₃?

(A) 40% (B) 50%
(C) 35% (D) 30%

22. Chemical properties of an atom depend upon number of:

(A) Electrons (B) Neutrons
(C) Protons (D) Nucleons

23. The number of carbon atoms in 22 g of CO₂ is:

(A) 3.01 × 10²³ (B) 6.02 × 10²³
(C) 3.01 × 10²² (D) 6.02 × 10²²

24. 720 g of glucose contains how many moles of glucose:

(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8

25. Number of isotopes of Oxygen:

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

26. Highest peak in mass spectrometer shows:

(A) Number of isotopes (B) Mass number
(C) Relative abundance (D) Number of isotopes

27. Which of the following compounds show same molecular and empirical formula?
(A) Glyoxal (B) Ethane
(C) Urea (D) Oxalic acid
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28. Mass of one mole of NaCl:

(A) 20 g (B) 48 g
(C) 58.5 g (D) 60 g

29. Percentage yield of product in a chemical reaction is 30%. If theoretical yield is 400
g, then the amount of product obtained after experiment is:
(A) 90 g (B) 120 g
(C) 180 g (D) 230 g

30. In combustion analysis method hydrogen and carbon are converted to:
(A) H₂ and CO₂ (B) H₂O and CO₃
(C) H₂O and H₂CO₃ (D) H₂O and CO₂

31. Which subatomic particle was discovered first?

(A) Proton (B) Electron
(C) Neutron (D) Positron

32. The term "atomos" was originally given by:

(A) Democritus (B) Aristotle
(C) Dalton (D) Rutherford

33. The formation of a cation is an:

(A) Endothermic process (B) Exothermic process
(C) Redox process (D) Neutralization

34. Which of the following is a polyatomic anion?

(A) Na⁺ (B) SO₄²⁻
(C) Cl⁻ (D) Ca²⁺

35. Isotopes differ in:

(A) Number of electrons (B) Atomic number
(C) Atomic mass (D) Chemical reactivity
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36. The mass number of a neon isotope with 10 protons and 12 neutrons is:

(A) 10 (B) 12
(C) 22 (D) 20

37. The empirical formula of benzene (C₆H₆) is:

(A) CH (B) C₃H₃
(C) C₂H₂ (D) C₆H₆

38. One mole of water contains:

(A) 6.02 × 10²³ atoms (B) 6.02 × 10²³ molecules
(C) 1.008 g of H (D) 2 atoms of oxygen

39. Which of the following represents a limiting reactant?

(A) The one in excess (B) The one completely consumed
(C) The one with larger mass (D) The one that forms most product

40. Which instrument provides direct evidence of atoms?

(A) Spectrometer (B) Electron microscope
(C) X-ray diffractometer (D) Compound microscope

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 5 9 B 2 C 3 B 4 C
13 17 A 6 A 7 B 8 C
21 25 C 10 B 11 D 12 A
C 14 B 15 B 16 C
B 18 C 19 A 20 C
C 22 A 23 A 24 B
C 26 C 27 C 28 C
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29 B 30 D 31 B 32 A
33 A 34 B 35 C 36 C
37 A 38 B 39 B 40 B

Chapter 2: Experimental Techniques in Chemistry

1. Which branch of chemistry deals with the identification of elements in a
compound?
(A) Organic chemistry (B) Analytical chemistry
(C) Physical chemistry (D) Inorganic chemistry

2. Which technique is used to separate insoluble particles from liquids?

(A) Sublimation (B) Crystallization
(C) Filtration (D) Distillation

3. Which medium is commonly used in simple filtration?

(A) Sand funnel (B) Porcelain dish
(C) Filter crucible (D) Filter paper

4. What dictates the choice of filter medium?

(A) Temperature (B) Pressure
(C) Nature of precipitate (D) Mass of solute

5. The first step in quantitative analysis is:

(A) Drawing conclusion (B) Measurement
(C) Obtaining a sample (D) Calculation

6. What does qualitative analysis determine?

(A) Quantity of elements (B) Identity of elements
(C) Molar mass (D) Purity of solution
CHEMISTRY
MCQ GUIDE
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Author:
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MBBS (KMC)
Chemistry Mentor at NUSTrive
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Chemistry 800+ MCQs with Answer Key 11

7. Quantitative analysis determines:

(A) Color of substances (B) Type of bonds
(C) Relative amounts of elements (D) Number of isotopes

8. Which of these is not a common method of filtration?

(A) Filter paper (B) Filter crucible
(C) Burette (D) Vacuum funnel

9. In laboratory filtration, which property is crucial for filter selection?

(A) Solubility of liquid (B) Color of solute
(C) Nature of precipitate (D) Size of beaker

10. Analytical chemistry primarily deals with:

(A) Chemical bonding (B) Nuclear reactions
(C) Characterization of compounds (D) Organic synthesis

11. What technique separates components based on boiling points?

(A) Filtration (B) Distillation
(C) Sublimation (D) Condensation

12. A liquid-liquid separation technique is:

(A) Decantation (B) Chromatography
(C) Separating funnel (D) Sublimation

13. Which separation method is best for colored components?

(A) Filtration (B) Distillation
(C) Chromatography (D) Decantation

14. A method used to obtain pure solid from a solution:

(A) Filtration (B) Crystallization
(C) Decantation (D) Distillation
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15. Centrifugation separates mixtures by:

(A) Solubility (B) Color
(C) Density (D) Boiling

16. Which step follows “measurement” in analysis?

(A) Obtaining sample (B) Calculation
(C) Separation (D) Filtering

17. Paper chromatography uses:

(A) Capillary action (B) Magnetic force
(C) Gravitational pull (D) UV light

18. Which is most suitable for volatile liquids?

(A) Crystallization (B) Distillation
(C) Filtration (D) Decantation

19. What is the final step in quantitative analysis?

(A) Filtering (B) Measuring
(C) Drawing conclusions (D) Drying

20. Which method separates solid from a liquid using gravity?

(A) Filtration (B) Decantation
(C) Crystallization (D) Chromatography

21. Which of the following is purified by sublimation?

(A) Naphthalene (B) Benzoic acid
(C) Ammonium chloride (D) All of these

22. Gooch crucible is made of:

(A) Clay (B) Asbestos
(C) Porcelain (D) Iron
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23. Solvent extraction is based upon:

(A) Mass law (B) Distribution law
(C) Avogadro’s law (D) Volume law

24. The solution remaining after formation of crystals is called:

(A) Mother liquor (B) Crystals
(C) Residue (D) None of these

25. The most common solvent used in solvent extraction is:

(A) Acetone (B) Ethanol
(C) Rectified ether (D) Diethyl ether

26. The most common laboratory example of solvent extraction is:

(A) Alcohol extraction (B) Petrol extraction
(C) Phenol extraction (D) Ether extraction

27. Direct conversion of solid into vapours is called:

(A) Crystallization (B) Sublimation
(C) Distribution (D) Vapourization

28. When hot saturated solution is cooled very rapidly we get:

(A) Medium size crystals (B) Large size crystals
(C) Premature crystallization of the substance (D) No crystallization

29. A component having small value of K (distribution coefficient) mostly remains in:
(A) Stationary phase (B) Mobile phase
(C) Chromatographic tank (D) None of these

30. The liquid obtained after passing the mixture through filter paper is termed as:
(A) Solid (B) Filtrate
(C) Residue (D) None of these
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31. The purpose of filtration is to:

(A) Separate insoluble solids from liquids (B) Separate solutes from solvents
(C) Remove coloured impurities (D) Evaporate the solvent

32. The rate of filtration can be increased by using:

(A) Gooch crucible (B) Fluted filter paper
(C) Glass rod (D) Animal charcoal

33. Crystallization is used to:

(A) Separate coloured compounds (B) Purify solid substances
(C) Separate liquids (D) Remove water from crystals

34. The stationary phase in paper chromatography is:

(A) Organic solvent (B) Water adsorbed on paper
(C) Ether layer (D) Air

35. Which process converts a solid directly into vapour without passing through the
liquid state?
(A) Distillation (B) Crystallization
(C) Filtration (D) Sublimation

36. A solvent for crystallization should:

(A) Dissolve solute at high temperature and less at room temperature (B) React
chemically with solute
(C) Be expensive and flammable (D) Form gas at room temperature

37. In solvent extraction, solute is transferred to another solvent based on:

(A) Ionic radius (B) Distribution coefficient
(C) Specific gravity (D) Viscosity

38. A good method to purify naphthalene is:

(A) Distillation (B) Sublimation
(C) Filtration (D) Chromatography
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39. A qualitative analysis gives:

(A) Mass of the sample (B) Concentration of solute
(C) Elements present in a compound (D) Reaction rate

40. The mobile phase in paper chromatography is usually:

(A) Water (B) Organic solvent
(C) Sugar solution (D) Inert gas

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 B 11 B 21 D 31 A
2 C 12 C 22 B 32 B
3 D 13 C 23 A 33 B
4 C 14 B 24 D 34 B
5 C 15 C 25 D 35 D
6 B 16 B 26 B 36 A
7 C 17 A 27 C 37 B
8 C 18 B 28 A 38 B
9 C 19 C 29 B 39 C
10 C 20 B 30 B 40 B

Chapter 3: Gases
1. Boyle’s law relates which two properties of gases?
(A) Temperature and volume (B) Volume and pressure
(C) Pressure and temperature (D) Volume and number of moles
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2. Charles’s Law shows that gas volume is directly proportional to:

(A) Pressure (B) Temperature (°C)
(C) Absolute temperature (K) (D) Number of molecules

3. Which law states the rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to square root of
molar mass?
(A) Boyle’s law (B) Dalton’s law
(C) Graham’s law (D) Charles’s law

4. The gas law combining Boyle's, Charles's and Avogadro's laws is:
(A) Graham’s law (B) van der Waals equation
(C) Ideal gas equation (D) Combined temperature law

5. The unit of pressure in the SI system is:

(A) atm (B) Torr
(C) Pascal (Pa) (D) psi

6. What is the value of R when pressure is in atm and volume in dm³?

(A) 8.31 (B) 0.0821
(C) 273 (D) 760

7. At STP, one mole of any gas occupies:

(A) 22.4 cm³ (B) 22.4 mL
(C) 22.4 L (D) 44.8 L

8. Avogadro’s Law relates:

(A) Volume and pressure (B) Temperature and pressure
(C) Volume and number of molecules (D) Moles and mass

9. Dalton’s law of partial pressures is applicable to gases that:

(A) Are liquids (B) Have strong intermolecular forces
(C) Do not react chemically (D) Are solids
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10. Real gases deviate from ideal behavior at:

(A) Low temperature and high pressure (B) High temperature and low pressure
(C) Low volume (D) Constant volume

11. Kinetic molecular theory assumes gas molecules:

(A) Are tightly packed (B) Have negligible volume
(C) Have strong attraction (D) Do not move

12. According to kinetic theory, temperature is directly proportional to:

(A) Mass (B) Velocity
(C) Average kinetic energy (D) Pressure

13. The formula for root mean square velocity is:

(A) √3RT/M (B) √M/3RT
(C) RT/M (D) 3M/RT

14. Absolute zero is the temperature at which:

(A) Gases expand (B) Volume doubles
(C) Molecular motion stops (D) Pressure increases

15. Liquefaction of gases requires:

(A) Low pressure and high temperature (B) High pressure and low temperature
(C) Constant volume (D) Ideal conditions

16. The van der Waals equation accounts for:

(A) Ideal gas behavior (B) Intermolecular forces and molecular volume
(C) Liquid expansion (D) Graham’s law

17. Gases like He and H₂ are ideal because:

(A) High molecular mass (B) Strong attraction
(C) Weak interactions (D) Low compressibility
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18. The compressibility factor Z = PV/nRT equals 1 for:

(A) All real gases (B) All liquids
(C) Ideal gases (D) Solids

19. Maxwell’s law describes:

(A) Partial pressures (B) Temperature conversion
(C) Distribution of gas velocities (D) Energy of solids

20. The real gas law becomes closest to ideal when:

(A) T is low and P is high (B) T is high and P is low
(C) Volume is low (D) R is large

21. The root mean square velocity of gases is inversely proportional to the square root
of their:
(A) Molar mass (B) Temperature
(C) Pressure (D) Volume

22. The spreading of fragrance or scent in air is due to:

(A) Effusion (B) Diffusion
(C) Osmosis (D) Density

23. Plasma is a:
(A) First state of matter (B) Second state of matter
(C) Third state of matter (D) Fourth state of matter

24. The partial pressure of oxygen in air is:

(A) 139 torr (B) 149 torr
(C) 159 torr (D) 169 torr

25. Deep sea divers take oxygen with:

(A) A heavy gas (B) A lighter gas
(C) An inert gas (D) All of above
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26. The volume of gas becomes zero when temperature of -------------- is attained?
(A) 0 ˚C (B) 273.6 ˚C
(C) -273.6 K (D) -273.6 ˚C

27. The law which describes the relationship between the volume and the
temperature of gas at constant pressure is called:
(A) Boyle’s law (B) Avogadro’s law
(C) Charle’s law (D) Graham’s law

28. The value of R in SI unit is:

(A) 0.0821 dm³.atm.J⁻¹mol⁻¹ (B) 62.4 dm³.torr K⁻¹mol
(C) 8.31 dm³atm.K⁻¹mol⁻¹ (D) 8.31 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹

29. The absolute zero is:

(A) Attainable (B) May be attainable
(C) Unattainable in gaseous state (D) May not be attainable

30. If pressure remains constant, at which temperature volume of a gas will become
twice of what it is at 0 ˚C?
(A) 546 ˚C (B) 200 ˚C
(C) 546 K (D) 273 K

31. Avogadro’s law states that:

(A) Equal volumes of gases have equal mass at STP
(B) Equal volumes of all gases at same temperature and pressure contain equal number of
molecules
(C) Gases diffuse at rates proportional to their molar masses
(D) Volume of a gas is directly proportional to temperature in Celsius

32. Which of the following is the correct general gas equation?

(A) PV = TnR (B) PV = nRT
(C) P/n = RT (D) P = VnT
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33. The unit of pressure equal to 760 mmHg is:

(A) Pascal (B) Newton per square meter
(C) Atmosphere (D) Bar

34. Which of the following laws explains the direct relationship between volume and
temperature?
(A) Boyle’s Law (B) Charles’s Law
(C) Avogadro’s Law (D) Dalton’s Law

35. Value of R (ideal gas constant) in dm³ atm K⁻¹ mol⁻¹ is:
(A) 0.0824 (B) 0.0821
(C) 0.0801 (D) 1.00

36. Which of the following gases shows the greatest deviation from ideal behavior at
room temperature?
(A) He (B) H₂
(C) SO₂ (D) N₂

37. According to Graham’s Law, rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to:

(A) Volume (B) Square root of molar mass
(C) Density (D) Temperature

38. Compressibility factor (Z) for ideal gases is always:

(A) Greater than 1 (B) Less than 1
(C) Equal to 1 (D) Varies with temperature

39. The gas law that explains the behavior of mixtures of gases is:
(A) Charles’s law (B) Avogadro’s law
(C) Dalton’s law (D) Boyle’s law

40. The deviation of real gases from ideal behavior is due to:
(A) Low molar mass and high diffusion (B) High temperature and low volume
(C) Intermolecular forces and finite molecular volume (D) High entropy and
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Chemistry 800+ MCQs with Answer Key 21

randomness

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 B 11 B 21 A 31 B
2 C 12 C 22 B 32 B
3 C 13 A 23 D 33 C
4 C 14 C 24 C 34 B
5 C 15 B 25 C 35 B
6 B 16 B 26 D 36 C
7 C 17 C 27 C 37 B
8 C 18 C 28 D 38 C
9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C
10 A 20 B 30 C 40 C
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Chapter 4: Solids and Liquids

1. What causes a liquid to evaporate at room temperature?
A) Surface tension B) Hydrogen bonding
C) Some molecules having higher kinetic energy D) External pressure

2. Vapour pressure is defined as the pressure exerted by:

A) A liquid on container walls B) Vapours of a liquid in dynamic equilibrium
C) Solids in a closed container D) The atmosphere on the liquid

3. Which of the following increases vapour pressure of a liquid?

A) Decrease in temperature B) Increase in external pressure
C) Increase in temperature D) Adding solute

4. Boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which:

A) Vapour pressure becomes zero B) Vapour pressure equals atmospheric
pressure
C) All molecules vaporize D) Liquid contracts

5. A volatile liquid is one that:

A) Has high viscosity B) Has strong intermolecular forces
C) Has low vapour pressure D) Evaporates rapidly

6. Which property of liquids allows insects to walk on water?

A) Viscosity B) Surface tension
C) Vapour pressure D) Density

7. Which instrument is used to measure vapour pressure?

A) Thermometer B) Manometer
C) Barometer D) Calorimeter
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8. Viscosity is a measure of a liquid’s:

A) Flow resistance B) Surface hardness
C) Vapour formation rate D) Colour intensity

9. Capillary action occurs when:

A) Gravity pulls liquid downward B) Adhesive forces are greater than cohesive forces
C) Vapour pressure increases D) Solute is added

10. Which bond is responsible for high boiling point of water?

A) Ionic B) Covalent
C) Metallic D) Hydrogen bonding

11. The solid state of matter is characterized by:

A) Weak intermolecular forces B) No definite volume
C) Fixed shape and volume D) Compressibility

12. Which solid lacks a sharp melting point?

A) Sodium chloride B) Quartz
C) Glass D) Diamond

13. In which type of solid are particles arranged in a regular pattern?

A) Amorphous B) Crystalline
C) Liquid crystal D) Colloid

14. Which of the following is an amorphous solid?

A) Sugar B) Diamond
C) Glass D) Sodium chloride

15. The property that allows solids to resist deformation is:

A) Rigidity B) Plasticity
C) Diffusibility D) Compressibility
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16. Which solid is held together by electrostatic forces?

A) Molecular solid B) Ionic solid
C) Metallic solid D) Covalent network solid

17. Which of the following is a metallic solid?

A) I₂ B) Na
C) SiO₂ D) NaCl

18. Covalent network solids generally have:

A) Low melting point B) Conductivity in solid state
C) High hardness and melting point D) Weak bonds

19. Which solid conducts electricity in molten state but not in solid state?
A) Covalent solid B) Ionic solid
C) Metallic solid D) Molecular solid

20. A sharp melting point is a characteristic of:

A) Amorphous solids B) Gases
C) Crystalline solids D) Liquids

21. Which type of force is present in Gasoline?

A) Dipole-dipole forces B) London dispersion forces
C) Dipole-induced dipole forces D) Hydrogen bonding

22. The boiling point of H₂O at Mount Everest would be:

A) 98 ˚C B) 100 ˚C
C) 101 ˚C D) 69 ˚C

23. Which of the following is a crystalline solid?

A) Rubber B) Glass
C) Sugar D) Glue
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24. Dipole-induced dipole forces are also known as:

A) London dispersion forces B) Debye forces
C) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding D) None

25. Diamond is a bad conductor of electricity because:

A) It has a tight structure B) It has a high density
C) There are no free electrons D) None of these

26. The physical state of Butane is gas, Decane is liquid and Isodecane is solid. This
variation in physical states in alkanes is due to presence of:
A) Ion-dipole forces B) Hydrogen bonding
C) Dipole-dipole forces D) Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole forces

27. The molecules of CO₂ in dry ice form the:

A) Molecular crystals B) Covalent crystals
C) Any type of crystal D) Ionic crystals

28. The most unsymmetrical crystal system is:

A) Tetragonal B) Cubic
C) Monoclinic D) Triclinic

29. Strongest force among the following is:

A) Dipole-dipole forces B) Dipole-induced dipole forces
C) London dispersion forces D) Hydrogen bonding

30. The crystal of ----------- are ionic solids.

A) Sugar B) Iron
C) Diamond D) NaCl

31. Which of the following forces is responsible for the dissolution of ionic substances
in water?
A) Dipole-dipole forces B) Ion-dipole forces
C) Hydrogen bonding D) London dispersion forces
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32. The sharp melting point is a characteristic property of:

A) Amorphous solids B) Polymorphic solids
C) Crystalline solids D) Molecular solids

33. A substance that exhibits both fluidity and optical properties of crystals is known
as:
A) Amorphous solid B) Isotropic liquid
C) Liquid crystal D) Pseudo solid

34. Anisotropy in crystalline solids refers to:

A) Symmetrical growth of crystals B) Variation of properties in different directions
C) Equal melting point in all directions D) Smooth cleavage surfaces

35. Vapour pressure of a liquid increases with:

A) Increase in temperature B) Decrease in temperature
C) Increase in molecular mass D) Decrease in surface area

36. The boiling point of water at Murree hills is:

A) 100 °C B) 120 °C
C) 98 °C D) 69 °C

37. The difference in height (Δh) in a manometer helps to calculate:

A) Density of the liquid B) Vapour pressure of the liquid
C) Surface tension D) Molar mass

38. London dispersion forces are the only forces present among:
A) Molecules of HCl B) Molecules of water
C) Atoms of helium D) Molecules of solid iodine

39. A pseudo solid is regarded as a:

A) Supercooled crystal B) Supercooled liquid
C) Viscous crystal D) Symmetrical fluid
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40. Which type of solid is good conductor in molten state but not in solid state?
A) Metallic solids B) Covalent solids
C) Ionic solids D) Molecular solids

ANSWER KEY
Q1 C Q2 B Q3 C Q4 B
Q5 D Q6 B Q7 B Q8 A
Q9 B Q10 D Q11 C Q12 C
Q13 B Q14 C Q15 A Q16 B
Q17 B Q18 C Q19 B Q20 C
Q21 B Q22 D Q23 C Q24 B
Q25 C Q26 D Q27 C Q28 D
Q29 C Q30 D Q31 B Q32 C
Q33 C Q34 B Q35 A Q36 C
Q37 A Q38 D Q39 B Q40 C
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Chapter 5: Atomic Structure

1. Who discovered the electron?
A) J.J. Thomson B) Rutherford
C) Millikan D) Chadwick

2. The charge on an electron is:

A) 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ C B) 1.672 × 10⁻²⁷ C
C) 9.109 × 10⁻³¹ C D) 0

3. The proton was discovered by:

A) Thomson B) Goldstein
C) Bohr D) Chadwick

4. Which experiment led to the discovery of the nucleus?

A) Oil drop experiment B) Cathode ray experiment
C) Rutherford's alpha scattering experiment D) Photoelectric effect

5. Which subatomic particle is neutral?

A) Electron B) Proton
C) Neutron D) Positron
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6. The mass of a proton is approximately:

A) 1 amu B) 0 amu
C) 0.5 amu D) 2 amu

7. Who discovered the neutron?

A) Rutherford B) Bohr
C) Chadwick D) Moseley

8. What is the major flaw in Rutherford’s atomic model?

A) It did not include protons B) It could not explain the stability of the atom
C) It assumed electrons are stationary D) It assumed nucleus is negatively charged

9. According to Planck’s quantum theory, energy is emitted or absorbed in:

A) Continuous flow B) Waves
C) Quanta D) Pulses

10. The value of Planck’s constant is:

A) 6.022 × 10²³ B) 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹
C) 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s D) 9.109 × 10⁻³¹ kg

11. Bohr’s atomic model is based on:

A) Quantum mechanics B) Planck’s quantum theory
C) Wave theory D) Thomson's e/m ratio
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12. When an electron jumps from a higher to a lower orbit:

A) Energy is absorbed B) Energy is released
C) Proton is emitted D) Nucleus breaks

13. What is the shape of an ‘s’ orbital?

A) Dumbbell B) Double-dumbbell
C) Spherical D) Clover-leaf

14. Principal quantum number (n) tells us about:

A) Spin of electron B) Size and energy of orbital
C) Orientation in space D) Shape of orbital

15. Azimuthal quantum number (ℓ) determines:

A) Spin of electron B) Size of orbital
C) Shape of orbital D) Energy level

16. Magnetic quantum number (m) gives information about:

A) Spin B) Orientation of orbital
C) Size D) Speed of electron
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17. The spin quantum number can have values:

A) 0 and 1 B) +1 and –1
C) +½ and –½ D) Any integer

18. According to Pauli Exclusion Principle:

A) Electrons repel each other B) No two electrons can have same set of quantum
numbers
C) Orbitals fill from lowest to highest energy D) Electrons always spin clockwise

19. Hund’s Rule states that:

A) No two electrons can spin in the same direction B) Electrons fill lower orbitals first
C) Every orbital in a subshell gets one electron before any gets two D) Electrons prefer
d-orbitals

20. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle says:

A) We cannot know both position and momentum of an electron at the same time B)
Electrons move in fixed orbits
C) Orbitals have definite boundaries D) Atoms are indivisible

21. The electrons in the 3rd orbit of atom have______ energy than the electrons in the
2nd orbit
A) More B) The Same
C) Less D) None
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22. Charge on one gram of electron is:

A) 1.7588 × 10⁻¹¹ B) 1.7588 × 10¹¹
C) 1.602 × 10⁻¹⁹ D) 1.7588 × 10⁸

23. The quantum number that helps us in studying the orientation of an orbital in
space?
A) Principle quantum number B) Spin quantum number
C) Magnetic quantum number D) Azimuthal quantum number

24. Mathematical form of Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle?

A) ∆X × ∆P = h/4π B) ∆X × ∆P > h/4π
C) ∆X × ∆P ≥ h/4π D) ∆X × ∆P ≤ h/4π

25. Maximum number of electrons in an orbital is:

A) 6 B) 8
C) 10 D) 2

26. When 6d orbital is incomplete, the entering electron goes into:

A) 7f B) 7s
C) 7p D) 7d

27. Shape of p-orbital is:

A) Double dumb-bell B) Spherical
C) Dumb-bell D) Complicated
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28. Splitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to strong electric field is
called:
A) Zeeman effect B) Stark effect
C) Photoelectric effect D) Compton effect

29. Orbitals having same energy are called:

A) Hybrid orbitals B) Valence orbitals
C) Integrate orbitals D) Degenerate orbitals

30. An atom with 8 electrons in its outer shell has a tendency:

A) To gain electrons B) To neither lose or gain electrons
C) To lose electrons D) None

31. Which experiment led to the discovery of the electron?

A) Gold foil experiment B) Cathode ray experiment
C) Oil drop experiment D) Alpha particle scattering experiment

32. What is the charge-to-mass ratio (e/m) of an electron according to J.J. Thomson?
A) 1.76 × 10⁻¹⁹ C/kg B) 9.11 × 10⁻³¹ C/kg
C) 1.76 × 10¹¹ C/kg D) 3.00 × 10⁸ C/kg
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33. The number of neutrons present in 1939K is:

A) 39 B) 18
C) 9 D)20

34. In Bohr’s model, which physical quantity is quantized?

A) Energy only B) Angular momentum
C) Electric potential D) Mass

35. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to:

A) Wavelength B) Wave number
C) Frequency D) Time

36. The spectral lines in hydrogen atom are explained using:

A) Rutherford’s model B) Classical mechanics
C) Bohr’s atomic model D) Quantum mechanical model

37. According to de-Broglie, matter has:

A) Only particle nature B) Both particle and wave nature
C) Only wave nature D) No dual nature

38. Which of the following quantum numbers determines the shape of the orbital?
A) Principal quantum number B) Azimuthal quantum number
C) Magnetic quantum number D) Spin quantum number
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39. The uncertainty principle is applicable to:

A) Macroscopic bodies B) Microscopic particles
C) Charged bodies only D) Neutral atoms only

40. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in f-subshell is:
A) 10 B) 12
C) 14 D) 16

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 A 11 B 21 A 31 B
2 A 12 B 22 D 32 C
3 B 13 C 23 C 33 D
4 C 14 B 24 C 34 B
5 C 15 C 25 D 35 C
6 A 16 B 26 C 36 C
7 C 17 C 27 C 37 B
8 B 18 B 28 B 38 B
9 C 19 C 29 D 39 B
10 C 20 A 30 B 40 C
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Chapter 6: Chemical Bonding

1. The force which holds the atoms to form a compound is called:
A) A chemical bond B) Van der Waals force C) Dispersion force D) London force

2. Elements have the tendency to attain 8 electrons in their valence shell. This is known as:
A) Hund's rule B) Pauli exclusion principle C) Octet rule D) Aufbau principle

3. Which of the following does not follow octet rule?

A) PF₅ B) BCl₃ C) SF₆ D) All of these

4. Atoms form bonds as it leads to:

A) Increase in energy B) Decrease in energy C) No change in energy D) Both A and B

5. Ionic radius from left to right:

A) Increases B) Decreases C) Decreases then increases D) Increases then decreases

6. Correct order of atomic radius is:

A) Cationic radius > Neutral atom > Anionic radius
B) Anionic radius > Neutral atom > Cationic radius
C) Cationic radius > Anionic radius > Neutral atom

7. The electronegativity of elements in a period from left to right:

A) Decreases B) Increases C) First increases then decreases D) First decreases then
increases

8. Minimum energy required to remove an electron from its gaseous atom to form a
positive ion is called:
A) Electron affinity B) Electronegativity C) Ionization energy D) Thermal energy

9. The amount of energy released when an electron is added to an isolated gaseous atom
to form an anion of unit charge is called:
A) Electron affinity B) Electronegativity C) Ionization energy D) Thermal energy
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10. The bond which is formed by the complete transfer of electrons is called:
A) Covalent bond B) Ionic bond C) Coordinate covalent bond D) Metallic bond

11. Bond which is obtained through mutual sharing of electrons is called:

A) Covalent bond B) Ionic bond C) Dative bond D) Metallic bond

12. The covalent bond between two hydrogen atoms is:

A) Polar covalent B) Non-polar covalent C) Coordinate bond D) Ionic

13. VSEPR theory was developed by:

A) Nyholm and Gillespie B) Pauling and Slater C) Heitler and London D) Van der
Waals

14. Bond angle in methane is:

A) 104.5° B) 109.5° C) 107.5° D) 120°

15. The type of bond formed by sidewise overlap of two p-orbitals is:
A) Sigma bond B) Pi bond C) Ionic bond D) None

16. The intermixing of atomic orbitals of different shapes and energies to form hybrid
orbitals of the same shape and energy is called:
A) Resonance B) Hybridization C) Both D) None

17. Energy of a hybrid orbital is ____ than an unhybrid orbital:

A) Lower B) Higher C) Same D) None

18. Hybridization of carbon atom in CH₄:

A) sp³ B) sp² C) sp D) sp²d

19. Filling of electrons into the molecular orbitals takes place according to:
A) Aufbau rule B) Hund's rule C) Pauli exclusion principle D) All of these
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20. Number of bonds formed between two atoms after atomic orbitals are formed is
called:
A) Bond order B) Bond strength C) Bond length D) Bond energy

21. Number of bonds between two nitrogen atoms:

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1

22. Liquid oxygen is:

A) Paramagnetic B) Diamagnetic C) Ferromagnetic D) None of these

23. Molecular orbital picture of O₂ shows:

A) One unpaired B) Two unpaired C) No unpaired electrons D) None of these

24. Amount of energy required to break all bonds of a particular type in one mole of a
substance:
A) Bond energy B) Bond order C) Either of these D) It doesn’t affect bond energy

25. Bonds with higher bond energy will have:

A) Shorter bond length B) Longer bond length C) Either D) No effect

26. Bond length between two carbon atoms in ethane is:

A) 154 pm B) 134 pm C) 120 pm D) 140 pm

27. Dipole moment of water is:

A) 1.85 D B) 1.75 D C) 1.65 D D) 1.55 D

28. 1 D (Debye) is equal to:

A) 3.3336×10⁻³⁰ mC B) 3.336×10⁻³⁰ mC C) 3.3336×10⁻⁴⁰ mC D) None

29. Dipole moment provides information about:

A) % ionic character B) Geometry of molecule C) Both D) None
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30. Covalent bonds and ionic bonds are _____ respectively:

A) Directional and non-directional B) Non-directional and directional
C) Directional and directional D) Non-directional and non-directional

31. Which of the following does not follow octet rule?

A) NF₃ B) CF₄ C) CCl₄ D) PCl₅

32. Shielding effect causes:

A) Decrease in nuclear attraction on valence electrons
B) Increase in nuclear attraction
C) Decrease in repulsion between nucleus and electrons
D) Increase in attraction between nucleus and inner electrons

33. The bond between sodium and chloride in NaCl is:

A) Ionic B) Covalent C) Coordinate covalent D) Polar

34. Carbon atom in methane is ______ hybridized.

A) sp³ B) sp² C) sp D) dsp

35. Bond order of N₂ molecule is:

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

36. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?

A) NH₃ B) CHCl C) HO₂ D) BF₃

37. The strongest bond among the following is:

A) Ionic B) Covalent C) Coordinate covalent D) Hydrogen

38. Total number of sigma bonds in ethyne is:

A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 1

39. O₂ molecule is paramagnetic because:

A) Equal bonding and antibonding electrons
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B) More bonding electrons

C) Less bonding electrons
D) It has unpaired electrons

40. NH₃ undergoes ______ hybridization.

A) sp B) sp³ C) sp² D) dsp

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 A 11 A 21 B 31 D
2 C 12 B 22 A 32 A
3 D 13 A 23 B 33 A
4 B 14 B 24 A 34 A
5 C 15 B 25 A 35 C
6 B 16 B 26 A 36 D
7 B 17 A 27 A 37 A
8 C 18 A 28 A 38 C
9 A 19 D 29 C 39 D
10 B 20 A 30 A 40 B
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Chapter 7: Thermochemistry
1. Thermochemistry is the study of:
A) Chemical equations B) Heat changes in reactions
C) Temperature scales D) Reaction mechanisms

2. The SI unit of heat energy is:

A) Calorie B) Celsius
C) Joule D) Degree

3. In an exothermic reaction:
A) Heat is absorbed B) Temperature decreases
C) Heat is evolved D) Pressure increases

4. Enthalpy is represented by:

A) E B) Q
C) W D) H

5. Internal energy is the sum of:

A) Only kinetic energy B) Only potential energy
C) Kinetic and potential energies D) Electrical and magnetic energies

6. The equation for the first law of thermodynamics is:

A) H = PV B) W = q + E
C) E = q + w D) q = E – w

7. Work done by the system is given by:

A) W = F × S B) W = q – E
C) W = –P∆V D) W = ∆V / P
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8. When ∆V = 0, then ∆E =
A) q B) w
C) ∆H D) PV

9. At constant pressure, the heat of reaction is:

A) q = ∆E B) q = ∆H
C) q = ∆S D) q = PV

10. In endothermic reactions:

A) Heat is released B) Products are colder
C) Products have more enthalpy D) Reactants have more enthalpy

11. ∆H = ∆E +
A) q B) w
C) P∆V D) T∆S

12. Which one is an example of an exothermic reaction?

A) Photosynthesis B) Evaporation
C) Combustion of carbon D) Melting of ice

13. Heat absorbed at constant volume is equal to:

A) ∆H B) ∆E
C) qP D) PV

14. A spontaneous process is one that:

A) Requires external energy B) Happens on its own
C) Never happens D) Has no energy change

15. Calorie is equal to:

A) 4.184 J B) 41.84 J
C) 418.4 J D) 0.4184 J
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16. Which one is a state function?

A) Work B) Heat
C) Enthalpy D) Temperature change

17. Enthalpy change for formation of 1 mole of water is:

A) –285.8 kJ mol⁻¹ B) –392 kJ mol⁻¹
C) +285.8 kJ mol⁻¹ D) 0 kJ mol⁻¹

18. The energy required to form 1 mole of gaseous atoms from element is:
A) Ionization energy B) Enthalpy of fusion
C) Enthalpy of atomization D) Lattice energy

19. The process used to calculate lattice energy is:

A) Joule's law B) Hess’s law
C) Born-Haber cycle D) Thermometric titration

20. In an adiabatic process:

A) Heat is exchanged B) Pressure is constant
C) Volume is constant D) No heat is exchanged

21. A spontaneous process is:

A) Unidirectional and irreversible B) Unidirectional and a real process
C) Irreversible and real process D) All of above

22. Enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are:

A) Unity B) Zero
C) Always positive D) Always negative

23. Standard enthalpy of Aluminum oxide Al₂O₃ cannot be measured because:

A) It does not catch fire B) It reacts with CO₂
C) Protective layer of oxide covers the surface D) None of above
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24. Burning of fuel is:

A) Endothermic B) Exothermic
C) Both a and b D) None

25. When ammonium chloride dissolves in water, this process is:

A) Endothermic process B) Exothermic process
C) Dehydration D) None of above

26. Pressure-volume work is:

A) P∆V B) F × d
C) E∆V D) H + PV

27. Spontaneous reactions are:

A) Reversible B) Irreversible
C) Non-spontaneous D) None

28. Born-Haber cycle is used to determine:

A) Combustion energy B) Decomposition energy
C) Lattice energy D) Formation energy

29. Total heat of a system is called:

A) Entropy B) Enthalpy
C) Temperature D) Internal energy

30. For spontaneous reaction:

A) ∆G > 0 B) ∆G < 0
C) ∆G = 0 D) None of these

31. The basic difference between heat and temperature is that:

A) Heat is measured in Kelvin, temperature in joules
B) Temperature is a form of energy, heat is not
C) Heat is energy in transit, temperature is a measure of hotness
D) Both are measured in calories
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32. In solids and liquids, the change in internal energy (∆E) and enthalpy (∆H):
A) Are always equal B) Are opposite in sign
C) Are nearly equal D) Are unrelated quantities

33. Which calorimeter is used for measuring the enthalpy of combustion?

A) Simple thermometer B) Glass calorimeter
C) Beaker calorimeter D) Bomb calorimeter

34. Which of the following quantities is not a state function?

A) Work B) Internal energy
C) Enthalpy D) Pressure

35. Which of the following defines the enthalpy of neutralization?

A) Heat change when one mole of substance dissolves in solvent
B) Heat evolved when 1 mole of H⁺ reacts with 1 mole of OH⁻ to form water
C) Heat absorbed during atomization of an element
D) Heat released when acid and base mix in excess

36. In Hess's Law, the net enthalpy change is:

A) Dependent on reaction rate
B) Affected by catalyst
C) Independent of the path taken
D) Greater for reversible reactions

37. In an isothermal process, the change in internal energy (∆E) is:

A) Maximum B) Zero
C) Minimum D) Infinite

38. Heat absorbed or evolved in a reaction depends on:

A) Only initial conditions
B) Both initial and final states
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C) Duration of reaction
D) Catalyst used

39. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a system by 1 K is known
as:
A) Specific heat B) Enthalpy
C) Heat capacity D) Internal energy

40. When 1 mole of a compound is formed from its elements in their standard states,
the heat change is:
A) Enthalpy of formation B) Enthalpy of neutralization
C) Enthalpy of solution D) Internal energy change

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 B 11 C 21 D 31 C
2 C 12 C 22 B 32 C
3 C 13 B 23 C 33 D
4 D 14 B 24 B 34 A
5 C 15 A 25 A 35 B
6 C 16 C 26 A 36 C
7 C 17 A 27 B 37 B
8 A 18 C 28 C 38 B
9 B 19 C 29 B 39 C
10 C 20 D 30 B 40 A
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Chapter 8: Chemical Equilibrium

1. Which of the following statements is true about a reaction at equilibrium?
A) The reaction stops. B) The concentrations of reactants become zero.
C) The rates of forward and reverse reactions are equal. D) No products are formed.

2. Chemical equilibrium is a:
A) Static process B) Dynamic process
C) Irreversible process D) One-sided process

3. The equilibrium constant expression for the reaction N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ is:
A) Kc = [NH₃]/[N₂][H₂] B) Kc = [N₂][H₂]³/[NH₃]²
C) Kc = [NH₃]²/[N₂][H₂]³ D) Kc = [N₂]/[NH₃]²[H₂]³

4. If the value of Kc is very large, it means:

A) Products are negligible B) Reactants are favored
C) Forward reaction is not feasible D) Products are favored

5. A reaction is at equilibrium when:

A) Reactants are all used up B) Products start decomposing
C) Forward and backward reactions stop D) Concentrations remain constant

6. Which of the following affects the value of equilibrium constant?

A) Catalyst B) Temperature
C) Pressure D) Concentration

7. Le Chatelier's Principle helps to predict:

A) Speed of reaction B) Direction of shift in equilibrium
C) Mechanism of reaction D) Catalyst required
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8. What will happen if pressure is increased in the reaction N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃?

A) Backward reaction is favored B) Forward reaction is favored
C) No change D) Reaction stops

9. Which of the following does not appear in equilibrium expression?

A) Gases B) Aqueous species
C) Solids D) Ions

10. If Q < Kc, the reaction will:

A) Shift to the left B) Be at equilibrium
C) Shift to the right D) Stop

11. Catalyst affects the:

A) Equilibrium constant B) Position of equilibrium
C) Rate of both forward and reverse reactions D) Product yield only

12. In a reversible reaction, equilibrium is established only in:

A) Open system B) Closed system
C) Isolated system D) Liquid state

13. Which of the following reactions has no unit for Kc?

A) When moles of products = moles of reactants B) When moles of reactants >
products
C) When moles of products > reactants D) When solids are involved

14. An increase in temperature favors which direction of an endothermic reaction?

A) Forward B) Backward
C) No effect D) Stops

15. A low value of Kc (Kc << 1) suggests that:

A) Products are favored B) Reactants are favored
C) Reaction is complete D) Reaction is fast
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16. Haber Process is used for the manufacture of:

A) Sulfuric acid B) Nitric acid
C) Ammonia D) Oxygen

17. Which of the following favors product formation in the Haber process?
A) High temperature only B) High pressure and low temperature
C) Low pressure and high temperature D) Catalyst only

18. Which of the following reactions is homogeneous equilibrium?

A) CaCO₃ ⇌ CaO + CO₂ B) H₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)
C) SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ SO₃ (solid) D) NH₄Cl ⇌ NH₃ + HCl

19. Which is used to express equilibrium constant in terms of pressure?

A) Kc B) Kp
C) Ka D) Kw

20. The presence of a catalyst lowers:

A) Activation energy B) Equilibrium constant
C) Energy of products D) Concentration of reactants

21. The equilibrium constant for a reaction depends on:

A) Pressure B) Temperature
C) Concentration D) Volume

22. According to Brønsted-Lowry theory, an acid is a substance that:

A) Accepts a proton B) Donates a proton
C) Accepts an electron pair D) Donates an electron pair

23. What is the common ion effect?

A) Decrease in solubility due to a common ion B) Increase in solubility due to
heating
C) Effect of a catalyst on pH D) Mixing two unrelated salts
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24. Which of the following is a buffer solution?

A) HCl + NaCl B) H₂SO₄ + Na₂SO₄
C) CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa D) NaOH + KCl

25. The purpose of a buffer solution is to:

A) Increase the reaction rate B) Change the color of solution
C) Maintain constant temperature D) Resist change in pH

26. The solubility product (Ksp) is applicable to:

A) Weak electrolytes B) Strong acids
C) Saturated solutions of sparingly soluble salts D) Gases

27. The concentration of reactants and products at equilibrium are:

A) Equal B) Maximum
C) Minimum D) Constant

28. Aqueous solution of BiCl₃ is cloudy. The cloudiness can be cleared by:
A) Addition of H₂O B) Addition of HCl
C) Addition of BiCl₃ D) Addition of NaOH

29. Equilibrium constant for gaseous equilibrium is represented by:

A) Ka B) Kc
C) Kg D) Kp

30. The unit of equilibrium constant for the reaction N₂ + O₂ → 2NO is:
A) Mole⁻¹ dm³ B) Mole⁻² dm³
C) Mole dm⁻¹ D) None of these

31. The pH of human blood is:

A) 8.0 B) 7.53
C) 7.63 D) 7.35
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32. Who introduced the term pH?

A) Henderson B) Sorenson
C) Goldsmith D) Thomson

33. If the pH of a solution is 9, the solution is:

A) Weak acid B) Weak base
C) Strong acid D) Strong base

34. Acid having Ka > 1 will be:

A) Weak B) Very weak
C) Moderate D) Strong

35. The pH of a buffer can be calculated by using:

A) Moseley’s equation B) Henderson’s equation
C) De-Broglie’s equation D) Bohr’s equation

36. The suppression of ionization of weak acid or a weak base by adding one of its own
ions is known as:
A) Buffer action B) Common ion effect
C) Buffer capacity D) Ionization effect

37. A solution having pOH = 5, its H⁺ ions concentration is:

A) 1 × 10⁻⁷ B) 1 × 10⁻⁵
C) 1 × 10⁻⁹ D) 9

38. When HCl is added to aqueous solution of H₂S, its ionization:

A) Increased B) Decreased
C) Unpredictable D) Remain constant

39. The pH of 10⁻³ mol dm⁻³ of an aqueous solution of H₂SO₄ is:

A) 2 B) 2.7
C) 1.5 D) 3
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40. Ammonium sulphate salt is:

A) Basic salt B) Acidic salt
C) Neutral salt D) Complex salt

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 C 11 C 21 B 31 D
2 B 12 B 22 B 32 B
3 C 13 A 23 A 33 B
4 D 14 A 24 C 34 D
5 D 15 B 25 D 35 B
6 B 16 C 26 C 36 B
7 B 17 B 27 D 37 C
8 B 18 B 28 B 38 B
9 C 19 B 29 D 39 B
10 C 20 A 30 D 40 A
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Chapter 9: Solutions
1. A solution is a:
A) Homogeneous mixture B) Heterogeneous mixture
C) Compound D) Element

2. The component present in a larger amount in a solution is called:

A) Solute B) Solvent
C) Solid D) Gas

3. A solution of salt in water is an example of:

A) Solid solution B) Gas solution
C) Liquid solution D) A colloid

4. Which of the following is a true solution?

A) Milk B) Air
C) Paint D) Blood

5. The solubility of a solute generally increases with:

A) Decrease in temperature B) Increase in pressure
C) Increase in temperature D) Increase in viscosity

6. The unit of molarity is:

A) mol/kg B) mol/dm³
C) g/dm³ D) g/mol

7. Molality is defined as moles of solute per:

A) Litre of solvent B) Kg of solvent
C) Litre of solution D) Kg of solution
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8. A solution having the same concentration inside and outside the cell is:
A) Isotonic B) Hypotonic
C) Hypertonic D) Saturated

9. Molarity of pure water is:

A) 1 B) 18
C) 55.5 D) 6

10. The colligative property that depends on vapour‐pressure lowering is:

A) Boiling point elevation B) Freezing point depression
C) Osmotic pressure D) Relative lowering of vapour pressure

11. Which of the following will show the highest boiling point?
A) Pure water B) 1 M NaCl
C) 1 M glucose D) 0.5 M NaCl

12. Raoult’s law is applicable to:

A) Non‐ideal solutions B) Ideal solutions
C) Saturated solutions D) Colloids

13. Colligative properties depend upon:

A) Nature of solute B) Number of solute particles
C) Nature of solvent D) Pressure

14. The freezing point of a solution is lower than that of pure solvent because:
A) Solute molecules increase freezing point B) Vapour pressure is increased
C) Vapour pressure is lowered D) Solute raises temperature

15. A 0.5 mol/kg aqueous solution is called:

A) 0.5 M B) 0.5 m
C) 0.5 N D) 0.5%
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16. Which one is not a colligative property?

A) Boiling point elevation B) Freezing point depression
C) Surface tension D) Osmotic pressure

17. The number of particles produced by 1 mole of NaCl in solution is:

A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 4

18. The depression in freezing point is directly proportional to:

A) Volume B) Molality
C) Pressure D) Density

19. An azeotropic mixture behaves like:

A) Ideal solution B) Pure liquid
C) Colloid D) None of the above

20. The process in which water molecules surround solute particles is called:
A) Salvation B) Hydration
C) Hydrolysis D) Dehydration

21. A solution containing a relatively small amount of solute is called:

A) Dilute solution B) Concentrated solution
C) Saturated solution D) Ideal solution

22. Relative lowering of vapour pressure for 18 g glucose in 90 g water is:

A) 1/5 B) 5.1
C) 1/51 D) 6

23. Molarity of 20.7 g K₂CO₃ in 500 cm³ solution is:

A) 0.1 M B) 0.2 M
C) 0.3 M D) 0.4 M
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24. Used to lower melting point of ice:

A) LiCl B) BeCl₂
C) NaCl D) AgCl

25. Which salt in water forms pH >7?

A) NaCl B) CuSO₄
C) Na₂CO₃ D) NH₄Cl

26. Which is not a colligative property?

A) Elevation of melting point B) Lowering of vapour pressure
C) Depression of freezing point D) Elevation of boiling point

27. Water of crystallization of CuSO₄ is:

A) 5 B) 10
C) 2 D) 6

28. Molarity of pure water is:

A) 55.5 B) 1
C) 18 D) 6

29. Which pair shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law?

A) Benzene–methanol B) Acetone–chloroform
C) Water–HCl D) Water–HNO₃

30. Colligative properties depend upon:

A) Nature of solvent B) Relative number of solute and solvent particles
C) Nature of solute D) None of these

31. Nature of potassium acetate salt is:

A) Amphoteric B) Neutral
C) Basic D) Acidic
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32. In fractional crystallization, desired solute crystallizes first because:

A) It is more soluble than impurity B) It is less soluble than impurity
C) It evaporates faster D) It reacts with solvent

33. Continuous solubility curves:

A) Show sharp breaks B) Observed only in gases
C) Do not show any sharp break D) Are non‐graphical

34. Solubility of Ce₂(SO₄)₃:

A) Increases with temperature B) Remains constant
C) Decreases with temperature D) Becomes zero at 0 °C

35. When ∆H of solution is zero and volume change negligible, the solution is:
A) Non‐ideal B) Ideal
C) Heterogeneous D) Immiscible

36. Temperature at which conjugate solutions become fully miscible is called:

A) Boiling point B) Critical solution temperature
C) Fractional temperature D) Condensation point

37. By Raoult’s Law, relative lowering of vapour pressure equals:

A) Mole fraction of solute B) Mole fraction of solvent
C) Molarity D) Density

38. A solution showing greater total volume than sum of components shows:
A) No deviation B) Negative deviation
C) Positive deviation D) Constant vapour pressure

39. Zeotropic mixtures:

A) Distil without composition change B) Change composition during distillation
C) Show no temperature change D) Have constant freezing point
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40. A homogeneous phenol–water system at 65.9 °C is called:

A) Eutectic solution B) Ideal solution
C) Critical solution D) Dilute solution

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 A 11 B 21 A 31 C
2 B 12 B 22 C 32 B
3 C 13 B 23 C 33 C
4 B 14 C 24 C 34 C
5 C 15 B 25 C 35 B
6 B 16 C 26 A 36 B
7 B 17 B 27 A 37 A
8 A 18 B 28 A 38 C
9 C 19 B 29 A 39 B
10 D 20 B 30 B 40 C
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Chapter 10: Electrochemistry

1. Electrochemistry deals with the relationship between:
A) Heat and work B) Electricity and chemical reactions
C) Light and sound D) Acids and bases

2. Which of the following is an example of an electrolytic cell?

A) Daniell cell B) Electroplating cell
C) Dry cell D) Fuel cell

3. In an electrochemical cell, oxidation takes place at the:

A) Cathode B) Anode
C) Salt bridge D) Electrolyte

4. The electrode where reduction occurs is called:

A) Anode B) Electrode
C) Cathode D) Voltmeter

5. A salt bridge is used to:

A) Increase current B) Maintain electrical neutrality
C) Decrease voltage D) Filter the solution

6. Which device converts chemical energy into electrical energy?

A) Transformer B) Generator
C) Electrochemical cell D) Electrolytic cell

7. In a galvanic cell, the electrons flow from:

A) Cathode to anode B) Anode to cathode
C) Salt bridge to cathode D) Electrolyte to salt bridge
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8. Which metal acts as the anode in the Daniell cell?

A) Copper B) Zinc
C) Silver D) Iron

9. Standard electrode potential is measured under conditions of:

A) 0 °C, 1 atm B) 25 °C, 1 atm, 1 M
C) 100 °C, 1 atm D) 0 °C, 0.5 atm

10. The standard electrode potential of the hydrogen electrode is:

A) +1.0 V B) 0.0 V
C) –1.0 V D) +0.5 V

11. Electrochemical series is based on:

A) Atomic number B) Electronegativity
C) Standard electrode potentials D) Ionization energies

12. The function of the salt bridge is to allow:

A) Electrons to flow B) Ions to migrate
C) Gas to enter D) Heat to escape

13. In electroplating, the object to be plated is made the:

A) Anode B) Cathode
C) Electrolyte D) Salt bridge

14. Which of the following is used in the electroplating of silver?

A) AgCl B) AgNO₃
C) AgO D) Ag₂SO₄

15. Faraday's first law relates mass deposited to:

A) Time only B) Current only
C) Charge passed D) Resistance
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16. The charge of one Faraday is equal to:

A) 96,500 C B) 1 C
C) 1 J D) 1 V

17. Electrolysis of molten NaCl produces:

A) Na at anode, Cl at cathode B) Na at cathode, Cl at anode
C) H at anode, O at cathode D) NaOH and H₂

18. The unit of cell potential is:

A) Ohm B) Coulomb
C) Volt D) Ampere

19. An electrolytic cell converts:

A) Heat into work B) Electrical energy into chemical energy
C) Chemical energy into light D) Heat into chemical energy

20. Oxidation is the:

A) Gain of electrons B) Loss of electrons
C) Gain of protons D) Loss of neutrons

21. Reduction is the:

A) Gain of Hydrogen B) Gain of electrons
C) Loss of oxygen D) All of these

22. Oxidation number of all the elements in their free state is:
A) 0 B) 1
C) 2 D) 3

23. Oxidation number of Manganese in KMnO₄ is:

A) +7 B) +5
C) +6 D) +4
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24. REDOX reactions can be balanced by which method?

A) Oxidation number method B) Ion‐electron method
C) Both of these D) None of these

25. Voltaic (galvanic) cells convert:

A) Chemical energy to electrical energy B) Electrical energy into chemical energy
C) Heat energy into work D) Thermal energy into electrical energy

26. In a voltaic cell, the salt bridge prevents:

A) Flow of electrons B) Precipitation
C) Accumulation of charges D) Oxidation at both electrodes

27. The standard electrode potential of a metal is determined by:

A) Using a dry cell B) Connecting it to a standard hydrogen electrode
C) Electrolysis of its solution D) Measuring the pH of solution

28. The unit of standard electrode potential is:

A) Ampere B) Ohm
C) Volt D) Coulomb

29. Electrolytic conduction involves:

A) Free electrons in metal B) Movement of ions in solution
C) Movement of atoms D) Transfer of heat

30. During electrolysis of NaCl solution, which gas is released at the anode?
A) H₂ B) Cl₂
C) O₂ D) Na

31. In Down’s cell, the metal deposited at the cathode is:

A) Calcium B) Aluminum
C) Sodium D) Potassium
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32. The electrode reaction at the cathode in electrolytic refining of copper is:
A) Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ B) Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu
C) Cu + e⁻ → Cu⁺ D) Cu²⁺ → Cu³⁺ + e⁻

33. Which cell is used in cars and can be recharged?

A) Lead accumulator B) Dry cell
C) Daniell cell D) Silver oxide cell

34. The fuel cell combines which reactants to produce electricity?

A) H₂ and Cl₂ B) H₂ and O₂
C) H₂ and CO₂ D) CH₄ and O₂

35. The overall cell reaction of the Daniell cell is:

A) Cu²⁺ + Zn → Cu + Zn²⁺ B) Zn + Cu²⁺ → Zn²⁺ + Cu
C) Zn²⁺ + Cu → Cu²⁺ + Zn D) Zn → Cu

36. A positive value of standard cell potential (E°₍cell₎) indicates:

A) Non‐spontaneous reaction B) Spontaneous reaction
C) Neutrality D) No reaction

37. Electrode potential depends on:

A) Electronegativity B) Type of salt bridge
C) Concentration and temperature D) Pressure only

38. The standard hydrogen electrode consists of:

A) Iron dipped in acid B) Platinum in HCl with H₂ gas
C) Copper dipped in H₂SO₄ D) Graphite in HNO₃

39. Electrochemical series helps in:

A) Calculating pH B) Predicting feasibility of redox reactions
C) Estimating atomic mass D) Identifying gases
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40. A battery that cannot be recharged is called:

A) Secondary cell B) Primary cell
C) Reversible cell D) Electrolytic cell

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 B 11 C 21 B 31 C
2 B 12 B 22 A 32 B
3 B 13 B 23 A 33 A
4 C 14 B 24 C 34 B
5 B 15 C 25 A 35 B
6 C 16 A 26 C 36 B
7 B 17 B 27 B 37 C
8 B 18 C 28 C 38 B
9 B 19 B 29 B 39 B
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 B
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Chapter 11: Reaction Kinetics

1. Which type of step determines the overall rate of a chemical reaction?
A) Fastest step B) First step
C) Rate determining step D) Intermediate step
2. The slope of the graph for a reactant or a product is steepest at:
A) Midpoint of reaction B) Beginning of reaction
C) Completion of reaction D) Equilibrium
3. The rate of reaction is defined as:
A) Amount of product formed per mole B) Time taken to complete the reaction
C) Change in concentration of a reactant or a product divided by the time D)
Volume change in solution per second
4. Units of rate of reaction are usually expressed as:
A) mol dm⁻³ B) mol s⁻¹
C) mol dm⁻³ s⁻¹ D) mol⁻¹ s
5. The rate of a reaction never remains:
A) Increasing B) Constant
C) Exponentially changing D) Zero at end
6. The rate of change of concentration with respect to time is mathematically
expressed as:
A) dx × dt B) dx/dt
C) dt/dx D) [A]/[B]
7. The rate of reaction = -d[A]/dt = d[B]/dt. The negative sign indicates:
A) Increase in concentration B) Decrease in concentration of the product
C) Decrease in concentration of the reactant D) Reaction is exothermic
8. According to the law of mass action, the rate of reaction is proportional to:
A) Atomic number B) Activation energy
C) Product of active masses of reactants D) Surface area
9. Rate constant ‘k’ remains constant under given conditions but changes with:
A) Volume B) Temperature
C) Pressure D) Catalyst
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10. Order of reaction is an:

A) Theoretical value B) Experimental value
C) Arithmetic average D) Fixed whole number
11. In the reaction: 2NO + O₂ → 2NO₂, if Rate = k[NO]²[O₂], what is the overall order?
A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 0
12. A pseudo first order reaction is one in which:
A) Only one reactant is present B) One reactant is in large excess
C) Rate is independent of all reactants D) Catalyst is required
13. Half-life period of first order reaction is:
A) Dependent on initial concentration B) Inversely proportional to time
C) Independent of initial concentration D) Zero at start
14. For second order reaction, half-life is:
A) Constant B) Directly proportional to initial concentration
C) Inversely proportional to initial concentration D) Independent of
concentration
15. The slowest step in a multistep reaction is called:
A) Intermediate step B) Final step
C) Fast step D) Rate determining step
16. A reaction intermediate is:
A) Reactant B) Product
C) Species with temporary existence D) Catalyst
17. Spectrometry is useful when:
A) Product is a gas B) Solution is coloured
C) Light is not involved D) Heat is absorbed
18. Reactions involving ions can be studied using:
A) Polarimeter B) Dilatometer
C) Conductivity method D) Spectrometry
19. Minimum energy required for effective collision is called:
A) Enthalpy B) Free energy
C) Activation energy D) Kinetic energy
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20. Activated complex is also called:

A) Reactant B) Product
C) Transition state D) Catalyst
21. For exothermic reaction, energy of products is:
A) Equal to reactants B) Greater than reactants
C) Less than reactants D) Unrelated to reactants
22. According to Arrhenius equation, k = Ae^(-Ea/RT), k increases with:
A) Decreasing temperature B) Decreasing Ea
C) Decreasing R D) Increasing activation energy
23. Slope of Arrhenius plot equals:
A) Ea B) -Ea/2.303R
C) kT D) log A
24. A catalyst alters the rate of reaction by:
A) Increasing temperature B) Lowering activation energy
C) Increasing mass of product D) Increasing pressure
25. In homogeneous catalysis, catalyst and reactants are:
A) In different phases B) Solid and liquid
C) Same phase D) Gas and solid
26. In heterogeneous catalysis, catalyst is usually:
A) Liquid B) Gas
C) Solid D) Aqueous
27. A catalyst does not affect:
A) Activation energy B) Reaction speed
C) Equilibrium constant D) Reaction mechanism
28. Promoter is also known as:
A) Inhibitor B) Coenzyme
C) Catalyst poison D) Catalyst for a catalyst
29. Autocatalysis is a process in which:
A) Reactant acts as catalyst B) Product acts as catalyst
C) Catalyst decomposes D) Catalyst is consumed
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30. Enzymes are:

A) Fats B) Sugars
C) Proteins D) Carbohydrates
31. In multistep reactions, step that is ----------- is called rate determining step.
A) Fast B) Last
C) Slow D) First
32. Rate constant is the rate of reaction when the concentrations of -----------.
A) Reactants are zero B) Products are zero
C) Reactants are unity D) Products are unity
33. Order of the reaction 2N₂O₅ → 2N₂O₄ + O₂ is:
A) First B) Second
C) Zero D) Third
34. The species which is produced during a reaction only for short period of time is
called:
A) Reaction product B) Reaction intermediate
C) Reaction catalyst D) Reaction moderator
35. Activation energy is denoted by:
A) Ee B) Eb
C) Ea D) Ef
36. All radioactive disintegration nuclear reactions are of:
A) First order B) Second order
C) Third order D) Zero order
37. With 10˚C rise in temperature, the rate of reaction:
A) Becomes double B) Becomes 1/4th
C) Becomes half D) Remains unchanged
38. Which enzyme is used for hydrolysis of urea?
A) Invertase B) Urease
C) Zymase D) Lipase
39. The minimum amount of energy required for an effective collision is called:
A) Internal energy B) Collisional energy
C) Translational energy D) Activation energy
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40. Arrhenius equation describes the effect of:

A) Temperature on rate of reaction B) Volume on rate of reaction
C) Pressure on rate of reaction D) All of above

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 c 2 b 3 c 4 c
5 b 6 b 7 c 8 c
9 b 10 b 11 c 12 b
13 c 14 c 15 d 16 c
17 b 18 c 19 c 20 c
21 c 22 b 23 b 24 b
25 c 26 c 27 c 28 d
29 b 30 c 31 c 32 c
33 a 34 b 35 c 36 a
37 a 38 b 39 d 40 a
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SECOND YEAR
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Chapter 1: Periodic Classification Of Elements And

Periodicity
1. Who presented the first periodic table where elements were arranged in groups and
periods?
A) Al-Razi B) Dobereiner
C) Mendeleev D) Newland

2. The modern Periodic Law states that properties repeat when elements are arranged
by increasing:
A) Atomic masses B) Atomic numbers
C) Density D) Electronegativity

3. Noble gases belong to which group in the modern periodic table?

A) Group IA B) Group VIIA
C) Group VIIIA D) Group IIB

4. Elements are classified into s, p, d, and f blocks based on:

A) Melting points B) Valence orbitals
C) Atomic radii D) Electrical conductance

5. Which element is correctly placed in Group IIA?

A) Zn B) Mg
C) Hg D) Cd

6. Periodicity in properties arises due to the repetition of:

A) Atomic masses B) Similar electron configurations
C) Neutron count D) Ionic radii
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7. Alkali metals (Group IA) are named so because they:

A) Form acidic oxides B) Form strong alkalies with water
C) Are non-metals D) Are poor conductors

8. Halogens (Group VIIA) are called so because they:

A) Are inert B) Form salts
C) Are metallic D) Have low reactivity

9. Transition metals belong to which block?

A) s-block B) p-block
C) d-block D) f-block

10. Atomic radius across a period:

A) Increases B) Decreases
C) Remains constant D) Varies randomly

11. Ionization energy is the energy required to:

A) Add an electron B) Remove an electron
C) Break a bond D) Form an ion

12. Which element has the highest ionization energy in Period 2?

A) Li B) C
C) F D) Ne

13. Electron affinity refers to energy change when:

A) An electron is removed B) An electron is added
C) A proton is added D) A bond forms

14. The most non-metallic element is:

A) Na B) F
C) Cl D) Br
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15. Melting points of halogens increase down the group due to:
A) Decreasing atomic size B) Stronger van der Waals forces
C) Higher ionization energy D) Metallic character

16. Which oxide is amphoteric?

A) Na₂O B) Al₂O₃
C) SO₃ D) Cl₂O₇

17. The oxidation state of a free element is always:

A) +1 B) -1
C) 0 D) +2

18. Which hydride is ionic?

A) CH₄ B) NaH
C) H₂O D) HCl

19. Hydrogen resembles both:

A) Only alkali metals B) Only halogens
C) Alkali metals and halogens D) Noble gases

20. Lanthanides are part of which block?

A) s-block B) p-block
C) d-block D) f-block

21. Which of the following is most electronegative?

A) Oxygen B) Chlorine
C) Nitrogen D) Fluorine

22. Which of the following is correct?

A) Na⁺ is smaller than Na B) Na⁺ is larger than Na
C) Cl⁻ is smaller than Cl D) Cl⁻ ion and Cl are equal
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23. Hydrides are classified in ________ types.

A) 1 B) 2
C) 3 D) 4

24. Binary compounds of halogens are called:

A) Hydrides B) Halides
C) Hamides D) Halodides

25. Metals form ---------- oxides.

A) Acidic B) Basic
C) Amphoteric D) None

26. Which block in periodic table has highest number of elements?

A) s B) p
C) d D) f

27. Which of the following has highest heat of hydration?

A) Li⁺ B) Na⁺
C) K⁺ D) Mg²⁺

28. Position of isotopes in periodic table was explained by:

A) Newland B) Medeleeve
C) Rutherford D) Moseley

29. Polymeric halides are formed by the elements:

A) More electropositive B) Less electropositive
C) More electronegative D) Less electronegative

30. Diamond is non-conductor whereas graphite is a good conductor because:

A) Graphite has a layered structure B) In graphite, all valence electrons are
tetrahedrally bonded
C) In graphite one of valence electron is free to move D) Graphite is soft and greasy
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31. The long form of periodic table is also known as:

A) Mendeleev's Table B) Lothar Meyer’s Table
C) Modern Periodic Table D) Atomic Table

32. The modern periodic table is divided into how many periods?
A) 6 B) 8
C) 7 D) 10

33. Elements with similar outer electronic configurations occur in the same:
A) Period B) Group
C) Block D) Shell

34. The block to which an element belongs is determined by the:

A) Number of protons B) Type of orbital receiving the last electron
C) Number of valence electrons D) Position in the period

35. Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius in its period?
A) Sodium B) Magnesium
C) Phosphorus D) Chlorine

36. Down the group in alkali metals, the atomic size:

A) Decreases B) Increases
C) Remains same D) Fluctuates

37. Elements placed diagonally in adjacent groups and periods often show:
A) No relation B) Diagonal relationship
C) Inert behavior D) Radioactive nature

38. The basic reason for periodicity in properties is:

A) Increasing proton number B) Presence of same isotopes
C) Repetition of electronic configuration D) Decreasing atomic mass
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39. Which of the following is not a transition element?

A) Fe B) Cu
C) Ca D) Zn

40. Which group elements have both metallic and non-metallic characters?
A) Group IA B) Group VIIA
C) Group IIIA D) Group VIA

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 C 2 B 3 C 4 B
5 B 6 B 7 B 8 B
9 C 10 B 11 B 12 D
13 B 14 B 15 B 16 B
17 C 18 B 19 C 20 D
21 D 22 A 23 C 24 B
25 B 26 C 27 D 28 D
29 C 30 C 31 C 32 C
33 B 34 B 35 D 36 B
37 B 38 C 39 C 40 C

CHAPTER 2: S BLOCK ELEMENTS

1. Alkali metals are named so because they:
A) Form acidic oxides B) Form strong alkalies with water
C) Are non-metals D) Are poor conductors

2. Which element shows anomalous behavior in Group IA due to its small size?
A) Sodium B) Potassium
C) Lithium D) Caesium
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3. Beryllium differs from other alkaline earth metals because it:

A) Forms ionic compounds exclusively B) Reacts with alkalies to produce hydrogen
C) Has lower melting point D) Is more reactive with water

4. When lithium reacts with nitrogen, it forms:

A) LiNO₃ B) Li₃N
C) LiNH₂ D) No reaction occurs

5. Potassium superoxide (KO₂) is used in breathing equipment because it:

A) Absorbs CO₂ and releases O₂ B) Is highly soluble in water
C) Forms stable carbonates D) Reacts violently with water

6. Which alkaline earth metal forms peroxide when heated in oxygen?

A) Magnesium B) Calcium
C) Barium D) Beryllium

7. The commercial process for sodium production uses:

A) Nelson cell B) Down's cell
C) Diaphragm cell D) Mercury cell

8. Plaster of Paris is prepared by heating:

A) CaCO₃ B) CaSO₄·2H₂O
C) CaCl₂ D) Ca(OH)₂

9. Milk of magnesia is a suspension of:

A) MgCO₃ B) MgO
C) Mg(OH)₂ D) MgSO₄

10. Which compound is used to test for CO₂?

A) Lime water (Ca(OH)₂) B) Gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O)
C) Washing soda (Na₂CO₃) D) Slaked lime (CaO)
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11. The solubility trend of alkaline earth metal hydroxides:

A) Decreases down the group B) Increases down the group
C) Remains constant D) First increases then decreases

12. Lithium is the only alkali metal that forms:

A) Bicarbonate B) Stable nitride
C) Peroxide D) Soluble fluoride

13. In the Downs cell, calcium chloride is added to:

A) Increase conductivity B) Lower melting point of NaCl
C) Prevent sodium oxidation D) Produce chlorine gas

14. Beryllium oxide is amphoteric because it:

A) Reacts only with acids B) Reacts only with bases
C) Reacts with both acids and bases D) Is insoluble in both

15. Gypsum is important in agriculture as a source of:

A) Nitrogen and phosphorus B) Calcium and sulphur
C) Potassium and magnesium D) Sodium and chlorine

16. The setting time of cement is increased by adding:

A) Lime B) Gypsum
C) Sand D) Sodium chloride

17. Which alkaline earth metal does not react with water even at red heat?
A) Magnesium B) Calcium
C) Barium D) Beryllium

18. Lime mortar hardens by reacting with:

A) O₂ only B) CO₂ only
C) Both CO₂ and SiO₂ D) N₂ and H₂O
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19. The carbonate that decomposes most readily on heating:

A) Na₂CO₃ B) K₂CO₃
C) Li₂CO₃ D) Rb₂CO₃

20. Calcium carbide is produced by heating lime with:

A) Sand B) Coke
C) Gypsum D) Sodium chloride

21. Dolomite is an ore of:

A) Strontium B) Magnesium
C) Barium D) Potassium

22. Chemical formula of Chile saltpetre is:

A) NaNO₃ B) Na₂B₄O₇
C) KNO₃ D) Na₂CO₃·H₂O

23. Which alkali metal is least reactive?

A) Li B) Na
C) K D) Cs

24. Chemical formula of Natron is:

A) NaNO₃ B) KNO₂
C) CaCO₃ D) Na₂CO₃·H₂O

25. Which element has lowest melting point?

A) Be B) Mg
C) Ca D) Ba

26. The milk of magnesia is used for treatment of the:

A) Acidity B) Basicity
C) Rancidity D) Jaundice
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27. Which of the following is amphoteric oxide?

A) MgO B) BeO
C) SrO D) CaO

28. Which metal oxide is insoluble in water?

A) CaO B) SrO
C) BaO D) MgO

29. Only forms normal oxides:

A) Sodium B) Lithium
C) Magnesium D) Potassium

30. Which oxide is used in mountaineer’s breathing equipment?

A) Na₂O B) Na₂O₃
C) KO₂ D) K₂O

31. The formula of superoxide is:

A) O⁻¹/₂ B) O²⁻
C) O₂⁻ D) O₂²⁻

32. Which gas turns lime water milky?

A) Cl₂ B) NO₂
C) CO D) CO₂

33. Which sulphate compound is insoluble in water?

A) Sodium sulphate B) Potassium sulphate
C) Zinc sulphate D) Barium sulphate

34. Purpose of adding CaCl₂ to NaCl in Down’s cell is:

A) To decrease solubility B) To increase temperature
C) To decrease melting point D) To decrease temperature
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35. Nelson’s cell is used to prepare:

A) NaOH B) Na₂CO₃
C) Na metal D) NaCl

36. Plaster of Paris is a hydrate of:

A) BaSO₄ B) CaSO₄
C) MgSO₄ D) ZnSO₄

37. Which of the following is a man-made element?

A) Ra B) Fr
C) Rn D) Cs

38. Which of the following is not an ore of calcium?

A) Calcite B) Gypsum
C) Fluorite D) Carnallite

39. Plant leaves become pale green due to deficiency of:

A) Sulphur B) Calcium
C) Potassium D) Nitrogen

40. Lithium carbonate is heated to give lithium oxide along with:

A) H₂O B) CO
C) CO₂ D) O₂

ANSWER KEY

[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans

1 B 2 C 3 B 4 B
5 A 6 C 7 B 8 B
9 C 10 A 11 B 12 B
13 B 14 C 15 B 16 B
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17 D 18 C 19 C 20 B
21 B 22 A 23 A 24 D
25 B 26 A 27 B 28 D
29 B 30 C 31 C 32 D
33 D 34 C 35 A 36 B
37 B 38 D 39 A 40 C
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Chapter 3: P-Block Elements (Groups IIIA & IVA)

1. Which element in Group IIIA is non-metallic?
A) Aluminium B) Boron
C) Gallium D) Thallium

2. Borax bead test is used to identify:

A) Anions B) Cations
C) Gases D) Organic compounds

3. The mineral cryolite has the formula:

A) Na₂B₄O₇·10H₂O B) Na₃AlF₆
C) Al₂O₃·2H₂O D) Ca₂B₆O₁₁·5H₂O

4. Orthoboric acid behaves as:

A) Strong acid B) Weak monobasic acid
C) Dibasic acid D) Tribasic acid

5. Aluminium becomes passive in:

A) HCl B) HNO₃
C) NaOH D) H₂SO₄

6. Which Group IVA element shows maximum catenation?

A) Silicon B) Carbon
C) Germanium D) Lead

7. The structure of SiO₂ consists of:

A) Linear molecules B) Tetrahedral network
C) Trigonal planar units D) Octahedral coordination
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8. Sodium silicate is prepared by fusing:

A) Na₂CO₃ + SiO₂ B) NaCl + SiO₂
C) NaOH + SiO₂ D) Na₂SO₄ + SiO₂

9. Silicones contain repeating units of:

A) Si-C bonds B) Si-O-Si bonds
C) Si-Si bonds D) Si-N bonds

10. Red lead (Pb₃O₄) decomposes at 470°C to form:

A) Pb + O₂ B) PbO + O₂
C) PbO₂ + Pb D) Pb + PbO₂

11. Which property of boron differs from other Group IIIA elements?
A) Forms ionic compounds with SO₄²⁻ B) Uses all three valence electrons for bonding
C) Forms stable cations D) Shows +1 oxidation state

12. Borax converts to boric acid when treated with:

A) NaOH B) HCl
C) NH₄Cl D) Na₂CO₃

13. The chemical garden experiment demonstrates:

A) Hydration of silica B) Crystal growth in Na₂SiO₃ solution
C) Borax bead formation D) Aluminium corrosion

14. Carbon dioxide has __________ molecular geometry:

A) Tetrahedral B) Linear
C) Trigonal planar D) Bent

15. White lead pigment is:

A) PbO B) 2PbCO₃·Pb(OH)₂
C) Pb₃O₄ D) PbCrO₄
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16. Semiconductors like silicon conduct better when:

A) Cooled B) Heated
C) Treated with acids D) Oxidized

17. Aluminium reacts with NaOH to produce:

A) Al₂O₃ B) NaAl(OH)₄
C) AlH₃ D) Na₃AlF₆

18. The inert pair effect is most pronounced in:

A) Carbon B) Lead
C) Silicon D) Germanium

19. Chrome yellow pigment is:

A) PbO B) PbCrO₄
C) Pb₃O₄ D) PbSO₄

20. Silicone oils show minimal change in viscosity with temperature because they:
A) Have short chains B) Contain strong Si-O bonds
C) Are hydrophobic D) Have cross-linked structures

21. Which of the following elements shows both metallic and non-metallic character?
A) Al B) Ga
C) B D) In

22. Which of the following oxides is acidic?

A) CO₂ B) SnO₂
C) PbO₂ D) SiO₂

23. Which of the following is not a property of carbon?

A) Tetra-valency B) Formation of multiple bonds
C) Formation of d-p bonds D) Catenation
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24. Which of the following shows amphoteric behavior?

A) B₂O₃ B) Al₂O₃
C) Ga₂O₃ D) All of these

25. What is the geometry of BF₃?

A) Tetrahedral B) Linear
C) Trigonal planar D) Bent

26. Which group IVA element is used in semiconductors?

A) Sn B) Pb
C) Si D) C

27. Which of the following hydrides is most stable?

A) GeH₄ B) SnH₄
C) PbH₄ D) CH₄

28. Which form of carbon is used as a lubricant?

A) Diamond B) Coke
C) Graphite D) Charcoal

29. Which of the following is used in the manufacture of heat-resistant glass?

A) Na₂CO₃ B) SiO₂
C) Al₂O₃ D) B₂O₃

30. Which element has the maximum tendency to form chains?

A) Sn B) Pb
C) Si D) C

31. Which property of aluminum makes it useful in making aeroplane bodies?

A) High melting point B) Low density
C) Good conductor D) Amphoteric nature
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32. Which one is not an allotrope of carbon?

A) Graphene B) Buckminsterfullerene
C) Carborundum D) Charcoal

33. Which of the following is not true about Al₂O₃?

A) Amphoteric oxide B) Used as abrasive
C) Highly soluble in water D) High melting point

34. The oxidation state of Pb in PbO₂ is:

A) +2 B) 0
C) +4 D) -2

35. Which of the following compounds of boron is used as an antiseptic?

A) B₂O₃ B) H₃BO₃
C) NaBO₂ D) BF₃

36. Borax is chemically represented as:

A) Na₂B₄O₅ B) Na₂B₄O₇·10H₂O
C) NaBO₂ D) B(OH)₃

37. The covalent radius increases down Group IIIA due to:
A) Shielding effect B) Increased nuclear charge
C) Addition of new shells D) More oxidation states

38. The least stable hydride among the following is:

A) CH₄ B) SiH₄
C) GeH₄ D) PbH₄

39. Which of the following halides acts as a strong Lewis acid?

A) CaCl₂ B) NaCl
C) BF₃ D) KCl
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40. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?

A) CO₂ B) B₂O₃
C) Al₂O₃ D) PbO

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 B 2 B 3 B 4 B
5 B 6 B 7 B 8 A
9 B 10 B 11 B 12 B
13 B 14 B 15 B 16 B
17 B 18 B 19 B 20 B
21 C 22 A 23 C 24 D
25 C 26 C 27 D 28 C
29 D 30 D 31 B 32 C
33 C 34 C 35 B 36 B
37 C 38 D 39 C 40 C
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Chapter 4: Gp V and VI Elements

1. Which element in Group VA is a colorless gas at room temperature?
A) Phosphorus B) Nitrogen
C) Arsenic D) Bismuth

2. The most stable allotrope of phosphorus is:

A) White phosphorus B) Red phosphorus
C) Black phosphorus D) Yellow phosphorus

3. Nitrogen forms how many oxides?

A) 2 B) 3
C) 5 D) 7

4. Which oxide of nitrogen is known as "laughing gas"?

A) NO B) NO₂
C) N₂O D) N₂O₅

5. Nitric acid (HNO₃) is prepared in the lab by heating:

A) KNO₃ + H₂SO₄ B) NaNO₃ + HCl
C) NH₄NO₃ D) KNO₂ + H₂O

6. Aqua regia is a mixture of:

A) HNO₃ + H₂SO₄ B) HCl + H₂SO₄
C) HNO₃ + HCl D) H₂SO₄ + H₃PO₄

7. Which phosphorus halide is a yellowish-white solid?

A) PCl₃ B) PCl₅
C) PBr₃ D) PI₃
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8. Phosphorus acid (H₃PO₃) is:

A) Tribasic B) Dibasic
C) Monobasic D) Neutral

9. The oxidation state of nitrogen in HNO₃ is:

A) +1 B) +3
C) +5 D) +7

10. Which metal becomes passive in concentrated HNO₃ due to oxide layer
formation?
A) Cu B) Fe
C) Zn D) Ag

11. The most electronegative element in Group VIA is:

A) Oxygen B) Sulphur
C) Selenium D) Tellurium

12. Sulphur exists as S₈ molecules in which allotrope?

A) Rhombic B) Monoclinic
C) Plastic D) All of these

13. Which gas is produced when sulphur reacts with hot concentrated H₂SO₄?
A) H₂S B) SO₂
C) SO₃ D) H₂

14. The catalyst used in the Contact Process for H₂SO₄ production is:
A) Fe B) Pt
C) V₂O₅ D) Ni

15. Sulphuric acid is a strong dehydrating agent. It removes water from sugar to form:
A) CO₂ B) C (carbon)
C) CO D) CH₄
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16. Which of the following is NOT an oxyacid of sulphur?

A) H₂SO₄ B) H₂SO₃
C) H₂S₂O₇ D) H₂S

17. The oxidation state of sulphur in H₂SO₄ is:

A) +2 B) +4
C) +6 D) +8

18. Which gas is released when H₂SO₄ reacts with NaCl?

A) Cl₂ B) HCl
C) SO₂ D) H₂S

19. Oleum is:

A) Pure H₂SO₄ B) H₂SO₄ + SO₃
C) H₂SO₄ + H₂O D) H₂SO₄ + HNO₃

20. Which property is common between oxygen and sulphur?

A) Paramagnetism B) Diatomic nature
C) Combustibility D) Allotropic forms

21. Group V-A includes following except:

A) Nitrogen B) Antimony
C) Bismuth D) Selenium

22. Ionization energy of group V-A:

A) Increases down the group B) Decreases down the group
C) Remains same D) Change is irregular

23. ---------- is most electronegative element in group V-A.

A) P B) N
C) As D) Sb
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24. Nitrogen is a _______ colour gas.

A) Yellow B) Greenish brown
C) Reddish orange D) Colourless

25. Group V-A generally shows +3, +5 oxidation state except:

A) Nitrogen B) Arsenic
C) Antimony D) Bismuth

26. Only metal in group V-A is:

A) As B) Sb
C) Bi D) Se

27. Oxides of nitrogen and phosphorus are:

A) Acidic B) Basic
C) Amphoteric D) Neutral

28. Which is not true about nitrogen?

A) It exists in air as major constituent B) It is inactive gas compared to oxygen
C) It is present in urea, protein and amino acid D) Inorganic compound of nitrogen are
commonly found as minerals

29. Chemical name of laughing gas is:

A) Nitrogen oxide B) Dinitrogen oxide
C) Nitrogen dioxide D) Dinitrogen trioxide

30. Laughing gas has _______ taste.

A) Sweetish B) Bitter
C) Irritating D) Soothing

31. Which is not property of laughing gas?

A) It is colourless gas B) It has irritating smell
C) It is not combustible D) It has fairly soluble in water
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32. Formula of white phosphorus is:

A) P₄ B) P₃
C) P₂ D) P₅

33. Which of the following is used as catalyst in manufacturing of Sulphuric acid by

contact process?
A) V₂O₅ B) Fe₂O₃
C) Ni D) Pt

34. Which of the following is incorrect?

A) H₂SO₄ acts as strong oxidizing agent B) H₂SO₄ acts as strong reducing agent
C) H₂SO₄ acts as strong dehydrating agent D) H₂SO₄ acts as strong sulphonating agent

35. Atomic number of Sulphur is:

A) 8 B) 16
C) 32 D) 64

36. Uses of nitric acid are except:

A) It is used as laboratory reagent B) It is used in manufacturing of nitrogen fertilizers
C) It is used as preservative in food D) It is used in manufacture of explosives

37. _________ is an oxide of phosphorus with garlic like odor.

A) Phosphorus Trioxide B) Phosphorus oxide
C) Phosphorus dioxide D) Phosphorus pentaoxide

38. Oxidation state shown by oxygen is:

A) +2 B) -2
C) +2, -2 D) 0

39. Oxygen shows electronegativity value of:

A) 1.5 B) 2.5
C) 3.5 D) 4.5
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40. Radioactive element in group VI-A is:

A) O B) S
C) Se D) Po

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 B 2 C 3 C 4 C
5 A 6 C 7 B 8 B
9 C 10 B 11 A 12 D
13 B 14 C 15 B 16 D
17 C 18 B 19 B 20 D
21 D 22 B 23 B 24 D
25 C 26 C 27 A 28 D
29 B 30 A 31 B 32 A
33 A 34 B 35 B 36 C
37 A 38 B 39 C 40 D
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Chapter 5: The Halogens and The Noble Gases

1. Which halogen has the lowest bond dissociation energy?

A) Fluorine B) Chlorine
C) Bromine D) Iodine

2. The most reactive halogen is:

A) Iodine B) Chlorine
C) Bromine D) Fluorine

3. Which halogen is obtained by the electrolysis of brine?

A) Fluorine B) Chlorine
C) Bromine D) Iodine

4. Interhalogen compounds are generally more reactive than halogens because:

A) Their bonds are weaker B) They are more polar
C) They have more lone pairs D) They are acidic

5. Which of the following is not an interhalogen compound?

A) ClF₃ B) BrF₅
C) IF₇ D) HF

6. Which halogen is used in antiseptics and tincture?

A) Fluorine B) Chlorine
C) Iodine D) Bromine

7. What is the oxidation state of Cl in HClO₄?

A) +1 B) +3
C) +5 D) +7
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8. Which of the following is used for etching of glass?

A) HCl B) HF
C) HBr D) HI

9. Which compound of chlorine is used as a bleaching agent in paper and textile

industry?
A) NaCl B) HClO
C) Ca(OCl)₂ D) Cl₂O

10. Which acid is the strongest among the oxoacids of chlorine?

A) HClO B) HClO₂
C) HClO₃ D) HClO₄

11. Noble gases are monoatomic because:

A) They are reactive B) They have incomplete shells
C) They have stable electron configurations D) They form ions easily

12. The noble gas with the highest boiling point is:
A) Helium B) Argon
C) Xenon D) Neon

13. Which noble gas is used in advertising signs due to its red-orange glow?
A) Xenon B) Argon
C) Neon D) Krypton

14. Who first synthesized compounds of noble gases?

A) Cavendish B) Neil Bartlett
C) Avogadro D) Mendeleev

15. Which noble gas forms the compound XeF₆?

A) Helium B) Neon
C) Krypton D) Xenon
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16. The geometry of XeF₄ is:

A) Tetrahedral B) Square planar
C) Octahedral D) Trigonal bipyramidal

17. Noble gases are used in discharge tubes because they:

A) Are reactive B) Are colored gases
C) Are monoatomic D) Do not react and conduct electricity under low pressure

18. Which oxide of iodine is used for the estimation of CO?

A) I₂O B) I₂O₃
C) I₂O₅ D) I₄O₉

19. The bleaching action of chlorine is due to:

A) Liberation of nascent oxygen B) Formation of HCl
C) Formation of ClO⁻ D) Formation of ozone

20. Which noble gas is used in balloons and airships?

A) Argon B) Helium
C) Neon D) Krypton

21. Radioactive element in halogens is:

A) F B) Cl
C) I D) At

22. Gases in halogens are:

A) F and Cl B) Br and I
C) Br and F D) F and At

23. The most stable isotope of astatine has a half-life of:

A) 4.5 hr B) 8.3 hr
C) 6.7 hr D) 8.1 hr
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24. Halogen that attacks skin and causes burn:

A) F B) Cl
C) Br D) At

25. Oxidation state shown by F is:

A) +2 B) +1
C) -2 D) -1

26. ----------- is only halogen that reacts with noble gases like Xe and Rn:
A) F B) Cl
C) Br D) At

27. All halogens are:

A) Good oxidizing agent B) Good reducing agent
C) Good dehydrating agent D) Good neutralizing agent

28. Reaction of Cl₂ with cold and hot NaOH is an example of:
A) Oxidation reaction B) Disproportion reaction
C) Reduction reaction D) Neutralization reaction

29. Stable oxyacids of which halogens do not exist?

A) F B) Cl
C) Br D) At

30. With the increase in oxidation state, the thermal stability of oxyacids of halogens
__________:
A) Increases B) Decreases
C) Remains constant D) Change is irregular

31. With the increase in oxidation state, the oxidizing power of oxyacids of halogens
__________:
A) Increases B) Decreases
C) Remains constant D) Change is irregular
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32. Formula of bleaching powder is:

A) CaCl₂ B) CaOCl₂
C) Ca₂OCl₂ D) Ca(OC)Cl

33. Number of shelves in Beckmann’s method for manufacturing of bleaching powder

is:
A) 4 B) 6
C) 8 D) 10

34. What is the colour of bleaching powder?

A) Clear white B) Crystal white
C) White with orange tone D) Yellowish white

35. Bleaching powder is used for:

A) Manufacture of chloroform B) Making unshrinkable wool
C) As a disinfectant D) All of these

36. Chemical name of Teflon is:

A) Polytetrafluoroethylene B) Polytetrachloroethylene
C) Polytetrabromoethylene D) Polytetraiodoethylene

37. Which halogen is used as fungicides?

A) F B) Cl
C) Br D) I

38. A mixture of __________ is used for breathing by sea divers:

A) Ne and O B) He and O
C) Ar and O D) Xe and O

39. Which noble gas is used in radiotherapy for cancer treatment?

A) He B) Ne
C) Rn D) Xe
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40. Which halogen is used as antiseptics?

A) F B) Cl
C) Br D) I

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 D 2 D 3 B 4 A
5 D 6 C 7 D 8 B
9 C 10 D 11 C 12 C
13 C 14 B 15 D 16 B
17 D 18 C 19 A 20 B
21 D 22 A 23 B 24 C
25 D 26 A 27 A 28 B
29 A 30 A 31 A 32 B
33 C 34 D 35 D 36 A
37 C 38 B 39 C 40 D
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Chapter 6: Transition Elements

1. Which of the following is not a transition element?
A) Fe B) Zn
C) Cu D) Cr

2. The general electronic configuration of transition elements is:

A) ns² np⁶ B) ns² (n–1)d¹–¹⁰
C) ns² ns⁶ D) ns² (n–2)d¹–¹⁰

3. Which of the following transition metals shows maximum number of oxidation

states?
A) Fe B) Mn
C) Cr D) Co

4. The color of transition metal compounds is mainly due to:

A) d–d transitions B) s–p transitions
C) f–f transitions D) charge transfer

5. Paramagnetism in transition elements is due to:

A) Paired electrons B) Unpaired d-electrons
C) Empty orbitals D) Filled shells

6. Which of the following elements forms a colorless compound?

A) Fe³⁺ B) Cr³⁺
C) Zn²⁺ D) Co²⁺

7. Which of the following elements does not form colored ions?

A) Mn B) Cu
C) Zn D) Fe
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8. Which of the following is not a property of transition metals?

A) High melting point B) Formation of colored ions
C) High electronegativity D) Variable oxidation states

9. The green color of Ni²⁺ solution is due to:

A) f–f transitions B) p–d transitions
C) d–d transitions D) charge transfer

10. A complex compound is formed when a transition metal:

A) Loses all electrons B) Gains protons
C) Forms coordinate bonds with ligands D) Reacts with nonmetals

11. Which metal is used in making stainless steel?

A) Zn B) Cu
C) Cr D) Ag

12. The magnetic moment is given by the formula:

A) √n(n + 1) BM B) √n(n – 1) BM
C) √2n BM D) n² BM

13. Transition elements show catalytic activity due to:

A) High ionization energy B) Inert electron pairs
C) Variable oxidation states and surface adsorption D) Large atomic size

14. Which of the following ions has the highest number of unpaired electrons?
A) Fe³⁺ B) Mn²⁺
C) Cr³⁺ D) Cu⁺

15. The +2 oxidation state is most common in:

A) Group I metals B) Group II metals
C) First row transition metals D) Noble gases
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16. Which one of these forms both +2 and +3 oxidation states?

A) Cu B) Zn
C) Sc D) Fe

17. Which transition element is used in galvanization?

A) Cu B) Zn
C) Cr D) Fe

18. Which transition element is used in making high-strength alloys?

A) Ti B) Ca
C) Na D) K

19. In which oxidation state does manganese form a purple-colored compound?

A) +2 B) +3
C) +4 D) +7

20. The complex [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻ has how many ligands around the central atom?
A) 4 B) 5
C) 6 D) 2

21. Which block elements are called transition elements?

A) d-block B) s-block and f-block
C) p-block D) d-block and f-block

22. Identify coinage metals.

A) Cu, Ag, Ar B) Zn, Cd, Hg
C) Cu, Ag, Au D) Sc, Y, La

23. Transition metals possess properties except:

A) They may be metal or metalloid B) They are good conductor of electricity and heat
C) They form alloys D) They show variable valencies
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24. Transition elements have _________ melting and boiling points due to _________
binding forces.
A) Low, strong B) High, weak
C) High, strong D) Low, intermediate

25. Paramagnetic behavior is due to:

A) Strong nucleus force B) Weak repulsive force of valence shell electrons
C) Paired electrons D) Unpaired electrons

26. Increasing number of unpaired electrons, substance becomes more:

A) Diamagnetic B) Paramagnetic
C) Radioactive D) Inert

27. Which of the following is paramagnetic in nature?

A) Na B) Th
C) Au D) Fe

28. Transition elements and their compounds show colour due to:
A) valence electrons B) variable Valency
C) d-orbital D) metal nature

29. Alloy of steel is an alloy of iron with following except:

A) Cr B) Se
C) Mn D) Ni

30. Central metal ion in [Cr(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ is:

A) Cr B) N
C) H D) Cl

31. Following are ores of iron except:

A) Magnetite B) Haematite
C) Asbestos D) Limonite
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32. Chemical formula of Haematite is:

A) Fe₂O B) Fe₂O₃
C) Fe₂O₂ D) Fe₂O₄

33. Salts of chromic acid are called:

A) Chromous B) Chromosomes
C) Chromates D) Chromatoses

34. In Stadeler’s process when Cl₂ is passed through green solution of K₂MnO₄, it
becomes _________
A) Red B) Purple
C) Orange D) Brown

35. Uses of Potassium Permanganate are:

A) As oxidizing agent B) As a disinfectant
C) As a germicide D) All of these

36. Coinage metals are present in which group in periodic table?

A) I-A B) I-B
C) II-A D) III-B

37. The colour of transition metal complexes is due to:

A) d–d transition elements B) Paramagnetic nature
C) Ionization D) Loss of s-electrons

38. Percentage of carbon in steel is:

A) 0.25 to 2.5% B) 0.12 to 0.20%
C) 3.0 to 4.5% D) 2.0 to 4.5%

39. The process of zinc coating on iron is called:

A) Zn plating B) Galvanizing
C) Tin plating D) All of above
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40. Which of the following does not show variable valency?

A) Cr B) Zn
C) Mn D) Fe

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 B 2 B 3 B 4 A
5 B 6 C 7 C 8 C
9 C 10 C 11 C 12 A
13 C 14 B 15 C 16 D
17 B 18 A 19 D 20 C
21 A 22 C 23 A 24 C
25 D 26 B 27 D 28 C
29 B 30 A 31 C 32 B
33 C 34 B 35 D 36 B
37 A 38 A 39 B 40 B

Chapter 7: Fundamental Principles of Organic

Chemistry
1. Which of the following is the simplest organic compound?
A) Methane B) Ethane
C) Propane D) Butane

2. The study of compounds containing carbon is called:

A) Inorganic chemistry B) Organic chemistry
C) Biochemistry D) Physical chemistry
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3. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of organic compounds?

A) High melting points B) High boiling points
C) Low reactivity D) Covalent bonding

4. The general formula of alkanes is:

A) CnH₂n B) CnH₂n+2
C) CnH₂n–2 D) CnH₂n+1

5. Which of the following is an example of a functional group?

A) Alkyl group B) Hydroxyl group
C) Methyl group D) Ethyl group

6. The hybridization of the central carbon atom in methane (CH₄) is:

A) sp B) sp²
C) sp³ D) sp³d

7. Which of the following compounds exhibits isomerism?

A) Methane B) Ethane
C) Butane D) Propane

8. The IUPAC name for CH₃CH₂OH is:

A) Methanol B) Ethanol
C) Propanol D) Butanol

9. Which of the following is a heterocyclic compound?

A) Benzene B) Pyridine
C) Toluene D) Xylene

10. The process of breaking down large hydrocarbons into smaller ones is called:
A) Cracking B) Reforming
C) Polymerization D) Substitution
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11. Which of the following is a source of organic compounds?

A) Air B) Water
C) Petroleum D) All of the above

12. Which type of isomerism involves compounds with the same molecular formula
but different structural arrangements?
A) Structural isomerism B) Geometrical isomerism
C) Optical isomerism D) Functional isomerism

13. The shape of a molecule with sp² hybridization is:

A) Linear B) Trigonal planar
C) Tetrahedral D) Octahedral

14. Which of the following is an example of a saturated hydrocarbon?

A) Ethene B) Ethyne
C) Methane D) Benzene

15. The process of converting straight-chain hydrocarbons into branched-chain

hydrocarbons is called:
A) Cracking B) Reforming
C) Polymerization D) Substitution

16. Which of the following compounds is an alcohol?

A) CH₃COOH B) CH₃OH
C) CH₃CH₃ D) CH₃CHO

17. The simplest alkene is:

A) Ethene B) Propene
C) Butene D) Methane

18. Which of the following is a characteristic of aromatic compounds?

A) They are highly reactive B) They contain benzene rings
C) They are saturated hydrocarbons D) They are colorless
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19. The process of joining small molecules to form a larger molecule is called:
A) Cracking B) Reforming
C) Polymerization D) Substitution

20. Which of the following is a property of organic compounds?

A) High melting points B) High boiling points
C) Low reactivity D) None of the above

21. Vital force theory was rejected by:

A) G.N. Lewis B) Freidrick Wohler
C) Rutherford D) Neil Bohr

22. Wohler prepared Urea from:

A) Ammonium chloride B) Ammonium carbonate
C) Ammonium cyanate D) Ammonium sulphate

23. Which method is used to obtain a gasoline of higher octane number?

A) Oxidative cleavage B) Thermal cracking
C) Steam cracking D) Catalytic cracking

24. A double bond consists of:

A) One sigma and one pi bond B) Two sigma bonds
C) One sigma and two pi bonds D) Two pi bonds

25. Which of the following is not a heterocyclic compound?

A) Pyridine B) Furan
C) Phenol D) Thiophene

26. Isomer of Ethanol is:

A) Dimethyl methane B) Diethyl ethane
C) Dimethyl ether D) Diethyl ether
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27. Number of isomers of pentane is:

A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 5

28. Which of the following does not show isomerism?

A) Pentane B) Hexane
C) Butane D) Propane

29. Organic compound with ----------- hybridization shows planar triangular shape.
A) sp³ B) sp
C) sp² D) dsp²

30. Ketone contains ----------------- as functional group.

A) Formyl group B) Carbonyl group
C) Ester group D) Carboxyl group

31. Additives used to improve octane number of fuel are:

A) Tetraethyl lead B) Tetra methyl lead
C) Tetra butyl lead D) Both a and b

32. Amino acid shows:

A) Chain isomerism B) Metamerism
C) Tautomerism D) Cis-trans isomerism

33. Which of the following has a planar shape?

A) CH₄ B) C₂H₆
C) C₂H₄ D) C₂H₂

34. General formula for alkane series is:

A) CₙHₙ B) CₙH₂ₙ₊₂
C) CₙH₂ₙ₋₂ D) CₙHₙ₋₁
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35. Which of the following depicts the true series for formation of coal?
A) wood → peat → lignite → anthracite → bituminous
B) wood → peat → bituminous → lignite → anthracite
C) wood → lignite → anthracite → peat → bituminous
D) wood → peat → lignite → bituminous → anthracite

36. Catalysts used in catalytic cracking are:

A) FeO and Al₂Cl₃ B) SiO₂ and Al₂O₃
C) SiO₂ and Al₂Cl₃ D) FeO and Al₂O₃

37. The refined form of mineral oil is called:

A) Natural gas B) Paraffin
C) Petroleum D) Gasoline

38. Temperature used for catalytic cracking is:

A) 500°C B) 700°C
C) 900°C D) 1000°C

39. Which of the following has an octane number of 0?

A) n-heptane B) Neo-pentane
C) Iso-butane D) Propane

40. Chain isomers of butane are:

A) 2 B) 3
C) 4 D) 5
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ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 A 2 B 3 D 4 B
5 B 6 C 7 C 8 B
9 B 10 A 11 C 12 A
13 B 14 C 15 B 16 B
17 A 18 B 19 C 20 D
21 B 22 C 23 D 24 A
25 C 26 C 27 B 28 D
29 C 30 B 31 D 32 C
33 C 34 B 35 D 36 B
37 C 38 A 39 A 40 A
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Chapter 8: Aliphatic Hydrocarbons

1. The general formula of alkanes is:
A) CₙH₂ₙ₊₂ B) CₙH₂ₙ
C) CₙH₂ₙ₋₂ D) CₙH₂ₙ₋₁

2. Which of the following is a method of preparing alkanes?

A) Hydrogenation of alkenes B) Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides
C) Addition of HX to alkenes D) All of the above

3. Which of the following is a characteristic of alkenes?

A) They are saturated hydrocarbons B) They contain at least one double bond
C) They are less reactive than alkanes D) They do not undergo addition reactions

4. The IUPAC name of CH₂=CH₂ is:

A) Ethene B) Ethyne
C) Ethane D) Methane

5. Which of the following is an example of an alkyne?

A) C₂H₄ B) C₂H₂
C) C₄H₁₀ D) C₆H₆

6. The addition of HCl to an unsymmetrical alkene follows:

A) Markovnikov’s rule B) Hund’s rule
C) Pauli’s Exclusion Principle D) None of the above

7. Which of the following is used for artificial ripening of fruits?

A) Ethene B) Ethyne
C) Methane D) Propane
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8. The process of adding hydrogen to an alkene to form an alkane is called:

A) Hydrogenation B) Dehydrogenation
C) Halogenation D) Hydrohalogenation

9. Which of the following is a method of preparing alkenes?

A) Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides B) Hydrogenation of alkenes
C) Addition of HX to alkenes D) All of the above

10. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂OH is:

A) Methanol B) Ethanol
C) Propanol D) Butanol

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of alkynes?

A) They are saturated hydrocarbons B) They contain at least one triple bond
C) They are less reactive than alkenes D) They do not undergo addition reactions

12. The IUPAC name of CH≡CH is:

A) Ethene B) Ethyne
C) Ethane D) Methane

13. Which of the following is used in the preparation of synthetic rubber?

A) Acetylene B) Chloroprene
C) Methane D) Ethene

14. Which of the following is a method of preparing alkynes?

A) Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides B) Hydrogenation of alkynes
C) Addition of HX to alkynes D) All of the above

15. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂CH₃ is:

A) Methane B) Ethane
C) Propane D) Butane
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16. Which of the following is a characteristic of aliphatic hydrocarbons?

A) They contain only carbon and hydrogen atoms B) They are derived from living
organisms
C) They contain aromatic rings D) They are highly reactive

17. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂COOH is:

A) Methanoic acid B) Ethanoic acid
C) Propanoic acid D) Butanoic acid

18. Which of the following is a method of preparing aliphatic hydrocarbons?

A) Cracking of petroleum B) Hydrogenation of alkenes
C) Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides D) All of the above

19. Which of the following is a characteristic of saturated hydrocarbons?

A) They contain at least one double bond B) They contain at least one triple bond
C) They contain only single bonds between carbon atoms D) They are highly reactive

20. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂CH₂OH is:

A) Methanol B) Ethanol
C) Propanol D) Butanol

21. Acetic acid is derived from Latin word:

A) Acetous B) Acetim
C) Acetum D) Aceticous

22. Carbon atoms in alkanes are ---------------- hybridized.

A) sp B) sp²
C) sp³ D) dsp²
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23. Kolbe’s electrolytic method can’t be used to prepare -------------

A) Ethane B) Methane
C) Butane D) Hexane

24. Alkenes are also called:

A) Paraffin B) Olefins
C) Fulium D) Dioxium

25. Which of the following is used for artificial ripening of fruit?

A) Methane B) Ethane
C) Ethene D) Propyne

26. Propyne at room temperature is:

A) Gas B) Liquid
C) Solid D) Waxy substance

27. Which hydrocarbon is used in oxyacetylene torch?

A) Methane B) Ethane
C) Ethene D) Ethyne

28. Acetylene has -------------- like odour.

A) Rotting meat B) Feces
C) Garlic D) Lemon

29. Formula of acetylene is:

A) C₂H₆ B) C₂H₄
C) C₂H₂ D) CH₂

30. ----------- are formed when one atom of oxygen is added to alkene.
A) Oxyalkanes B) Epoxides
C) Oxylenes D) Oxyglycol
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31. Hydrogenation of alkenes is:

A) Highly exothermic reaction B) Highly endothermic reaction
C) Mildly exothermic reaction D) Does not release or absorb heat

32. Formula of formic acid is:

A) CHOH B) CH₂OH
C) CHOOH D) CHOH₂

33. Which of the following property of alkanes decreases with increase in molecular
mass?
A) Boiling point B) Melting point
C) Density D) Solubility

34. Neoprene is obtained from Chloroprene through:

A) Hydrogenation B) Polymerization
C) Halogenation D) Oxidation

35. Addition of two molecules of halogens to the acetylene gives:

A) Monohaloethene B) Dihaloethene
C) Trihaloethene D) Tetrahaloethene

36. ---------- is high boiling liquid and causes blisters.

A) Ozonide B) Aspartic acid
C) Mustard gas D) March gas

37. Formula of chloroform is:

A) CH₃Cl B) CH₂Cl₂
C) CHCl₃ D) CCl₄

38. Vinyl acetylene combines with HCl to form:

A) Polyacetylene B) Divinylacetylene
C) Vinyl butene D) Chloroprene
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39. Saturated hydrocarbons give substitution reactions while unsaturated

hydrocarbons give:
A) Wurtz-Fittig reaction B) Ozonolysis
C) Elimination reaction D) Addition reaction

40. Baeyer’s test is used for detection of:

A) Saturation B) Unsaturation
C) Reduction D) Oxidation

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 A 2 A 3 B 4 A
5 B 6 A 7 A 8 A
9 A 10 B 11 B 12 B
13 B 14 A 15 C 16 A
17 C 18 D 19 C 20 C
21 C 22 C 23 B 24 B
25 C 26 A 27 D 28 C
29 C 30 B 31 A 32 C
33 D 34 B 35 D 36 C
37 C 38 D 39 D 40 B
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Chapter 9: Aromatic Hydrocarbons

1. Which of the following is the parent compound of aromatic hydrocarbons?
a) Methane b) Ethene
c) Benzene d) Cyclohexane

2. The term 'aromatic' was introduced by:

a) Kekulé b) Faraday
c) Lavoisier d) Avogadro

3. The bond angles in the benzene ring are:

a) 90° b) 120°
c) 109.5° d) 180°

4. The carbon-carbon bond length in benzene is:

a) 1.20 Å b) 1.34 Å
c) 1.39 Å d) 1.54 Å

5. Which of the following is an example of a monocyclic aromatic hydrocarbon?

a) Naphthalene b) Anthracene
c) Benzene d) Phenanthrene

6. The molecular formula of benzene is:

a) C₆H₆ b) C₆H₁₂
c) C₆H₆O d) C₆H₆Cl

7. The resonance energy of benzene is:

a) 100 kJ/mol b) 150 kJ/mol
c) 200 kJ/mol d) 250 kJ/mol
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8. Which of the following is a method of preparing benzene?

a) Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides b) Aromatization of n-hexane
c) Hydrogenation of alkynes d) All of the above

9. The electrophile in the nitration of benzene is:

a) NO₂⁻ b) NO₃⁻
c) NO₂⁺ d) NO

10. The product formed when benzene reacts with chlorine in the presence of
anhydrous AlCl₃ is:
a) Chlorobenzene b) Benzyl chloride
c) Hexachlorobenzene d) Benzene hexachloride

11. The reaction of benzene with concentrated H₂SO₄ is called:

a) Nitration b) Sulphonation
c) Halogenation d) Friedel–Crafts alkylation

12. Which of the following is an example of an ortho/para-directing group?

a) -NO₂ b) -COOH
c) -NH₂ d) -SO₃H

13. Which of the following is a meta-directing group?

a) -OH b) -COOH
c) -NH₂ d) -CH₃

14. The molecular formula of toluene is:

a) C₆H₆ b) C₆H₆Cl
c) C₆H₆O d) C₆H₇

15. The IUPAC name of C₆H₅CH₃ is:

a) Toluene b) Benzene
c) Phenylmethane d) Methylbenzene
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16. The process of adding a methyl group to benzene in the presence of AlCl₃ is called:
a) Friedel–Crafts alkylation b) Friedel–Crafts acylation
c) Nitration d) Sulphonation

17. Which of the following is a polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon?

a) Benzene b) Toluene
c) Naphthalene d) Styrene

18. The hybridization of carbon atoms in the benzene ring is:

a) sp b) sp²
c) sp³ d) sp³d²

19. The number of π-electrons in the benzene ring is:

a) 4 b) 6
c) 8 d) 10

20. The stability of benzene is primarily due to:

a) Resonance b) Hydrogen bonding
c) Ionic bonding d) Dipole-dipole interactions

21. Benzene reacts with halogens in the presence of catalysts like:

a) Dry Ether b) Sunlight
c) FeBr₃ and AlCl₃ d) KMnO₄

22. Conversion of n-hexane into benzene by heating in the presence of Pt is:

a) Condensation b) Polymerization
c) Aromatization d) Hydrogenation

23. Each carbon atom in benzene is ----------- hybridized.

a) sp² b) sp³
c) sp d) dsp
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24. Catalyst used in Friedel Craft’s reaction is:

a) HNO₃ b) AlCl₃
c) BeCl₂ d) NaCl

25. Benzene does not give which of the following reaction?

a) Substitution b) Oxidation
c) Elimination d) Addition

26. Molecular formula of naphthalene is:

a) C₁₀H₈ b) C₁₀H₁₀
c) C₁₀H₁₂ d) C₁₂H₁₂

27. Benzene is obtained from benzene sulphuric acid by treating with:

a) HCl b) NaOH
c) H₂O d) NaHCO₃

28. Benzene can be obtained by distilling -------- with zinc dust.

a) Phenol b) Toluene
c) Aniline d) Benzoic acid

29. The preparation of benzene from acetylene is an example of:

a) Condensation b) Oxidation
c) Dehydration d) Polymerization

30. When alkyl Benzene is treated with chlorine in the presence of sunlight it
produces:
a) Hexachlorocyclohexane b) P-dichlorobenzene
c) Benzotrichloride d) Benzalchloride

31. Empirical formula of benzene is:

a) CH b) C₂H
c) C₂H₃ d) CH₃
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32. Benzene reacts with alkyl and acyl halides in the presence of AlCl₃. The reaction is:
a) Aldol condensation b) Halogenation reaction
c) Nitration reaction d) Friedel’s craft reaction

33. How many resonance structure of Benzene are there?

a) 2 b) 3
c) 5 d) 7

34. Resonance energy of benzene is:

a) 145.5 kJ/mol b) 150.5 kJ/mol
c) 155.5 kJ/mol d) 160.5 kJ/mol

35. Benzene can be produced by passing acetylene over ----------- catalyst.

a) Iron b) AlCl₃
c) Organo-nickel d) Ether

36. Name of CH–COOH

CH–COOH is:
a) Maleic acid b) Benzoic acid
c) Picric acid d) Acyl benzene

37. Wurtz-fitting reaction is used for synthesis of:

a) Alkyl halide b) Halo-aromatic hydrocarbons
c) Benzoic acid d) Alkyl aromatic hydrocarbons

38. Sulphonating agent in sulphonation of benzene is:

a) SO₃⁺ b) SO₂⁺
c) SO⁺ d) SO₃

39. Which of the following is an ortho and para directing group?

a) –CHO b) –SO₃H
c) –NO₂ d) –Cl
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40. Structure of benzene molecule is:

a) Pyramidal b) Linear plane
c) Trigonal d) Hexagonal planar

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 C 2 A 3 B 4 B
5 C 6 A 7 B 8 B
9 C 10 A 11 B 12 C
13 B 14 D 15 A 16 A
17 C 18 B 19 B 20 A
21 C 22 C 23 A 24 B
25 C 26 A 27 C 28 A
29 D 30 C 31 A 32 D
33 C 34 B 35 C 36 B
37 D 38 D 39 D 40 D
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Chapter 10: Alkyl Halides

1. What type of alkyl halide is CH₃–CH₂–Cl?
A) Primary alkyl halide B) Secondary alkyl halide
C) Tertiary alkyl halide D) None of the above

2. What type of alkyl halide is (CH₃)₃C–Cl?

A) Primary alkyl halide B) Secondary alkyl halide
C) Tertiary alkyl halide D) None of the above

3. What is the first step in naming alkyl halides according to IUPAC rules?
A) Select the longest continuous carbon chain B) Number the carbon atoms in the
chain
C) Identify the functional group D) None of the above

4. Which catalyst is used in the reaction of alcohols with halogen acids to produce
alkyl halides?
A) ZnCl₂ B) NaCl
C) HCl D) H₂O

5. What is the order of reactivity of alkyl halides based on bond energy?

A) R-F > R-Cl > R-Br > R-I B) R-I > R-Br > R-Cl > R-F
C) R-Cl > R-Br > R-I > R-F D) R-Br > R-I > R-Cl > R-F

6. What is the electronegativity difference between carbon and fluorine atoms in alkyl
fluorides?
A) 1.5 B) 1.0
C) 0.5 D) None of the above

7. What is the bond energy of C–F bonds in alkyl halides?

A) 467 kJ/mol B) 413 kJ/mol
C) 346 kJ/mol D) 290 kJ/mol
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8. What is the result of the reaction between alcohols and phosphorus trihalides or
pentahalides?
A) Alkyl halides with the replacement of –OH group by a halo group B) Alkyl halides
with the addition of a halo group
C) Alcohols with the replacement of –OH group by a halo group D) Alcohols with the
addition of a halo group

9. Which type of reaction involves the replacement of a halogen atom in an alkyl

halide with another atom or group?
A) Addition reaction B) Elimination reaction
C) Nucleophilic substitution reaction D) Substitution reaction

10. Which of the following is an example of a nucleophile?

A) Cl⁻ B) OH⁻
C) H⁺ D) Na⁺

11. Which of the following is a good leaving group?

A) OH⁻ B) OR⁻
C) NH₂⁻ D) I⁻

12. What is the term for the alkyl halide molecule on which a nucleophile attacks?
A) Substrate molecule B) Leaving group
C) Nucleophile D) Electrophile

13. What is the term for the process in which the bond formation and breakage occur
simultaneously?
A) Sₙ2 B) Sₙ1
C) E1 D) E2

14. What is the term for the change in configuration of the alkyl halide molecule during
an Sₙ2 reaction?
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A) Inversion of configuration B) Retention of configuration

C) Racemization D) Isomerization

15. Which type of alkyl halide always follows the Sₙ2 mechanism?
A) Primary alkyl halides B) Secondary alkyl halides
C) Tertiary alkyl halides D) All of the above

16. What is the rate equation for an Sₙ1 reaction?

A) Rate = k [Alkyl halide] B) Rate = k [Alkyl halide] [Nucleophile]
C) Rate = k [Nucleophile] D) Rate = k [Alkyl halide]²

17. What type of reaction occurs when a nucleophile attacks an electrophilic carbon
atom and an electrophilic hydrogen atom simultaneously?
A) Nucleophilic substitution reaction B) Elimination reaction
C) Addition reaction D) Substitution reaction

18. What is the best method for preparing alkyl halides?

A) Reacting alcohols with inorganic halides B) Reacting alkanes with halogens
C) Reacting alkenes with halogens D) Reacting alkynes with halogens

19. What is the name of the reaction in which two atoms or groups are eliminated from
adjacent carbon atoms?
A) α-elimination reaction B) β-elimination reaction
C) γ-elimination reaction D) δ-elimination reaction

20. What type of carbon atom does Grignard reagent have?

A) Electrophilic carbon atom B) Nucleophilic carbon atom
C) Radical carbon atom D) Ionic carbon atom

21. What is the product of the reaction between CH₃–CH=CH₂–Mg–Br and HCHO?
A) Ethanol B) Propanol
C) Butanol D) 1-Propanol
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22. What is the primary use of the Wurtz synthesis reaction in organic chemistry?
A) To prepare asymmetrical alkanes B) To prepare symmetrical alkanes
C) To prepare alkyl halides D) To prepare Grignard reagents

23. What is the general formula for Grignard reagents?

A) RMgX B) RNaX
C) RZnX D) RPbX

24. Which of the following is a reducing agent used in the reduction of alkyl halides?
A) Zinc in the presence of an aqueous acid B) Sodium in ether solvent
C) Magnesium metal D) Sodium lead alloy

25. What is the product of the reaction between ethylmagnesium bromide and water?
A) Ethane B) Ethanol
C) Ethylmagnesium hydroxide D) Magnesium bromide

26. What type of kinetics do E2 reactions show?

A) First order kinetics B) Second order kinetics
C) Zero order kinetics D) Third order kinetics

27. What is Wurtz Synthesis?

A) Alkyl halides react with sodium in ether solvent to give alkanes B) Alkyl halides react
with zinc in acid to give alkanes
C) Alkyl halides react with sodium in ether solvent to give alkynes D) Alkyl halides
react with zinc in acid to give alkynes

28. Which of the following is a primary alkyl halide?

A) 2-Bromopropane B) 1-Bromobutane
C) 2-Chlorobutane D) 3-Iodobutane

29. What type of reaction do alkyl halides typically undergo?

A) Decomposition B) Addition
C) Substitution D) Elimination
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30. Which of the following reagents can be used to convert an alkyl halide to an
alcohol?
A) H₂O B) NaOH
C) KBr D) Both A and B

31. Which halide is the best leaving group in nucleophilic substitution reactions?
A) Fluoride B) Chloride
C) Bromide D) Iodide

32. What is the product of the reaction of 1-bromopropane with potassium hydroxide
(KOH) in ethanol?
A) Propene B) 1-Propanol
C) 2-Propanol D) No reaction

33. What is the expected product when 2-bromobutane reacts with sodium cyanide
(NaCN)?
A) 1-Butyne B) 2-Butanol
C) Butanenitrile D) No reaction

34. Which of the following alkyl halides would undergo elimination most readily?
A) 1-Chloropropane B) 2-Bromobutane
C) 2-Chloro-2-methylpropane D) 3-Bromopentane

35. Which of the following alkyl halides is least reactive towards nucleophiles?
A) CH₃Br B) C₂H₅Cl
C) (CH₃)₃CCl D) C₃H₇I

36. Which of the following halides can participate in both SN1 and SN2 mechanisms?
A) 1-Bromobutane B) 2-Bromobutane
C) 3-Bromobutane D) All of the above
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37. The mechanism of the reaction between alkyl halides and a strong base is:
A) SN1 B) SN2
C) E1 D) E2

38. What type of compound is formed when an alkyl halide reacts with lithium
aluminum hydride (LiAlH₄)?
A) Alkane B) Alcohol
C) Ether D) Alkene

39. Which alkyl halide would you expect to undergo a faster reaction in an SN2
mechanism?
A) CH₃Cl B) C₂H₅Br
C) (CH₃)₃CCl D) C₃H₇I

40. Which reaction mechanism is preferred for tertiary alkyl halides when reacted
with a strong nucleophile?
A) SN1 B) SN2
C) E1 D) E2

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 A 2 C 3 A 4 A
5 B 6 A 7 A 8 A
9 C 10 B 11 D 12 A
13 A 14 A 15 A 16 A
17 B 18 A 19 B 20 B
21 D 22 B 23 A 24 A
25 A 26 B 27 A 28 B
29 C 30 D 31 D 32 A
33 C 34 C 35 A 36 B
37 D 38 A 39 A 40 A
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Chapter 11: Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

1. What is the general formula for alcohols?
A) ROH B) RCOOH
C) RNH₂ D) RCHO

2. What is the IUPAC name of CH₃CH=CHCH₂OH?

A) 1-Butenol B) 2-Butenol
C) 3-Butenol D) 4-Butenol

3. What is the former method of preparing methanol?

A) Distillation of wood B) Fermentation
C) Reaction of CO and H₂ D) Reaction of CO₂ and H₂

4. What is the pressure required for the industrial preparation of methanol?

A) 100 atm B) 200 atm
C) 300 atm D) 400 atm

5. Which of the following alcohols is commonly used as anti-freeze?

A) Methanol B) Ethanol
C) Ethylene glycol D) All of the above

6. The conversion of ethanol to ethene is an example of:

A) Dehydration B) Hydration
C) Hydrogenation D) Fermentation

7. Which of the following is the weakest acid?

A) Phenol B) Alcohol
C) Carboxylic acid D) Water
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8. According to Lewis concept, ethers behave as:

A) Acid B) Base
C) Acid as well as base D) None of above

9. What is the order of reactivity of alcohols when the O-H bond breaks?
A) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary B) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
C) Secondary > Primary > Tertiary D) Primary > Tertiary > Secondary

10. Which reaction involves the breaking of the O-H bond in alcohols?
A) Reaction with sodium B) Reaction with HX
C) Oxidation D) Dehydration

11. What causes the higher boiling points of alcohols compared to alkanes?
A) Hydrogen bonding B) Ionic bonding
C) Covalent bonding D) Van der Waals forces

12. What is the chemical equation for ethanol reacting with sodium?
A) C₂H₅OH + Na → C₂H₅ONa + H₂ B) C₂H₅OH + Na → C₂H₅OH + NaH
C) C₂H₅OH + Na → C₂H₅Na + H₂O D) C₂H₅OH + Na → C₂H₅OH + NaOH

13. What is the product of tertiary alcohol + acidified potassium dichromate?

A) Aldehyde B) Ketone
C) Alkene D) None of the above

14. Best reagent to oxidize alcohols to aldehydes and ketones is:

A) Acidified potassium dichromate B) Alkaline potassium dichromate
C) Neutral potassium dichromate D) None of the above

15. What is the product of primary alcohol + PCl₅?

A) Alkyl chloride B) Alkyl bromide
C) Alkyl iodide D) None of the above
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16. Test to distinguish between primary, secondary, tertiary alcohols is:

A) Lucas Test B) Iodoform Test
C) Tollen’s Test D) None of the above

17. Method of preparing phenol from chlorobenzene is called:

A) Dow’s method B) Williamson’s synthesis
C) Dehydration D) None of the above

18. Alcohols + conc. H₂SO₄ at different temperatures is called:

A) Dehydration B) Oxidation
C) Reduction D) None of the above

19. Purpose of Williamson’s synthesis is to prepare:

A) Alcohols B) Ethers
C) Alkenes D) Alkynes

20. Product of ether + strong acid is:

A) Alkyl halide B) Alcohol
C) Alkene D) Alkyne

21. Which alcohol resists oxidation?

A) Primary B) Secondary
C) Tertiary D) All of the above

22. Which alcohol reacts instantly with Lucas reagent?

A) Primary B) Secondary
C) Tertiary D) None of the above

23. Product of phenol + bromine water is:

A) 2,4,6-Tribromophenol B) 2,4-Dibromophenol
C) 4-Bromophenol D) 2-Bromophenol
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24. Product of phenol + zinc is:

A) Phenol B) Benzene
C) Cyclohexane D) Zinc oxide

25. Why is phenol more acidic than alcohol?

A) Benzene ring present B) Benzene ring absent
C) Delocalization of negative charge D) Hydroxyl group present

26. What is the IUPAC name for CH₃CH₂OH?

A) Methanol B) Ethanol
C) Propanol D) Butanol

27. Which of the following is a phenolic compound?

A) Acetic acid B) Salicylic acid
C) Methanol D) Ethyl ether

28. Phenol + NaOH is what type of reaction?

A) Esterification B) Neutralization
C) Alkylation D) Oxidation

29. Major product of ethanol + excess HBr is:

A) Bromoethane B) Ethylene
C) Ethyl bromide D) 1,2-Dibromoethane

30. Alcohol to alkyl halide reaction type is:

A) Nucleophilic substitution B) Electrophilic addition
C) Elimination D) Hydrolysis

31. Which has the highest boiling point?

A) Ethanol B) Dimethyl ether
C) Propane D) Butanol
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32. Structure of isopropanol is:

A) CH₃OH B) CH₃CH₂OH
C) (CH₃)₂CHOH D) CH₃CH₂CH₂OH

33. Alcohol produced by fermentation is:

A) Methanol B) Ethanol
C) Butanol D) Isopropanol

34. Which is an aromatic ether?

A) Diethyl ether B) Phenetole
C) Ethyl alcohol D) Methanol

35. Which is a secondary alcohol?

A) 1-Butanol B) 2-Butanol
C) Methanol D) Isopropanol

36. Commonly used ether solvent is:

A) Diethyl ether B) Methyl ether
C) Ethylene glycol D) Propylene glycol

37. Primary industrial use of ethanol is:

A) Fuel B) Solvent
C) Disinfectant D) All of the above

38. Used to identify phenols:

A) Litmus paper B) Bromine water
C) Silver nitrate D) NaOH

39. Phenol + acetic anhydride gives:

A) Hydrolysis B) Esterification
C) Oxidation D) Halogenation
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40. Product of phenol + formaldehyde is:

A) Phenylmethanol B) Bakelite
C) Phenol-formaldehyde resin D) None of the above

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 A 11 A 21 C 31 D
2 A 12 A 22 C 32 C
3 A 13 C 23 A 33 B
4 B 14 A 24 B 34 B
5 D 15 A 25 C 35 B
6 A 16 A 26 B 36 A
7 B 17 A 27 B 37 D
8 B 18 D 28 B 38 B
9 A 19 B 29 A 39 B
10 A 20 B 30 A 40 C
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Chapter 12: Aldehydes and Ketones

1. What is the general formula for aldehydes and ketones?
A) CₙH₂ₙ₊₂O B) CₙH₂ₙO
C) CₙH₂ₙ₋₂O D) CₙH₂ₙ₊₁O

2. What is the IUPAC name for the compound CH₃CH₂CHO?

A) Butanal B) Propanone
C) Propanal D) Butanone

3. What is the byproduct of the dry distillation of calcium acetate?

A) Acetaldehyde B) Acetone
C) Calcium carbonate D) Ethylene

4. What is the catalyst used in the industrial preparation of acetaldehyde by air

oxidation of ethylene?
A) Palladium chloride with cupric chloride promoter B) Iron oxide or silver catalyst
C) Acidified sodium dichromate solution D) Platinised asbestos or copper or silver
catalyst

5. What is the composition of formalin?

A) 40% formaldehyde, 8% ethyl alcohol, 52% water B) 40% formaldehyde, 8% methyl
alcohol, 52% water
C) 40% acetaldehyde, 8% methyl alcohol, 52% water D) 40% acetone, 8% ethyl
alcohol, 52% water

6. What is the result of passing a mixture of methyl alcohol vapours and air over iron
oxide or silver catalyst at 500°C?
A) Formaldehyde B) Acetaldehyde
C) Acetone D) Ethylene
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7. What type of reactions can the carbonyl group undergo?

A) Addition reactions B) Substitution reactions
C) Elimination reactions D) Rearrangement reactions

8. Why does the oxygen atom in the carbonyl group have a partial negative charge?
A) It is more electronegative than carbon B) It is less electronegative than carbon
C) It has a higher atomic number than carbon D) It has a lower atomic number than
carbon

9. What is the product of the addition of hydrogen cyanide to aldehydes and ketones?
A) Cyanohydrins B) Alcohols
C) Carboxylic acids D) Esters

10. How many carbon atoms are present in the product of the reaction of hydrogen
cyanide with aldehydes and ketones compared to the starting material?
A) One more carbon atom B) One less carbon atom
C) Two more carbon atoms D) Two less carbon atoms

11. What is the name of the product formed when aldehydes and ketones possessing
α-hydrogen atoms react with cold dilute alkali?
A) Aldol B) Ketol
C) Alcohol D) Carboxylic acid

12. What is the result of adding Grignard reagents to aldehydes and ketones?
A) Formation of alcohols B) Formation of carboxylic acids
C) Formation of aldehydes D) Formation of ethers

13. What is the purpose of the reaction between aldehydes/ketones and sodium
bisulphite?
A) To form alcohols B) To form carboxylic acids
C) To purify carbonyl compounds D) To form esters
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14. What is the product of the reduction of an aldehyde in Cannizzaro’s Reaction?

A) Carboxylic acid B) Alcohol
C) Ketone D) Ester

15. What type of reaction is the acid-catalyzed addition reaction?

A) Nucleophilic addition B) Electrophilic addition
C) Substitution D) Elimination

16. What type of reaction is Cannizzaro’s Reaction?

A) Oxidation-reduction B) Addition
C) Substitution D) Elimination

17. Which of the following is used as ink preservative?

A) Alcohol B) Aldehyde
C) Ether D) Phenol

18. Which one of the following compounds is not a derivative of NH₃?

A) Aniline B) Hydrazine
C) Phenyl hydrazine D) Picric acid

19. Aldol compound consists of:

A) Aldehyde group B) Hydroxyl group
C) Carboxylic group D) Both A and B

20. Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent?

A) C₃H₈ B) CH₂O
C) C₃H₇OH D) CH₃COCH₃

21. What is the result of the reaction of a ketone with Benedict’s solution?
A) Brick-red precipitate B) Silver mirror
C) Yellow/red ppt D) No reaction
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22. What is the result of the reaction of an aldehyde with Fehling’s solution?
A) Brick-red precipitate B) Silver mirror
C) Yellow/red ppt D) No reaction

23. What is the result of the reaction of an aldehyde with Tollen’s reagent?
A) Brick-red precipitate B) Silver mirror
C) Yellow/red ppt D) No reaction

24. What is the lab method for preparing formaldehyde?

A) Oxidation of secondary alcohols B) Oxidation of methanol over heated catalyst at
300°C
C) Hydrolysis of alkynes D) Dry distillation of calcium acetate

25. What is the effect of a base catalyst on the nucleophilic addition reaction of
carbonyl group?
A) Increases electrophilic character B) Decreases electrophilic character
C) Increases nucleophilic character D) Decreases nucleophilic character

26. Which of the following is industrial method of preparation of formalin?

A) Methanol + air over Fe₂O₃-MoO₃ at 500°C B) Methanol + air over Ag or platinized
asbestos at 300°C
C) Oxidation of Ethyne with PdCl₂ D) Dry distillation of calcium acetate

27. Identify “X” in the equation: CH₃CH₂OH + [O] → X + H₂O (Na₂Cr₂O₇ / H₂SO₄ / ∆)
A) Formaldehyde B) Acetaldehyde
C) Propiopaldehyde D) Butyraldehyde

28. Which is not a use of Iodoform test?

A) Distinguish methyl ketones B) Distinguish ethanol from methanol
C) Distinguish aldehydes from ketones D) Distinguish acetaldehyde
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29. Reduction of acetaldehyde with Pd, Pt, or Ni gives:

A) Methanol B) Ethanol
C) Propanol D) Butanol

30. Which is used in anti-polio vaccine?

A) Formaldehyde B) Acetaldehyde
C) Acetone D) Propionic acid

31. What is the hybridization of carbon in the carbonyl group?

A) sp³ B) sp²
C) sp D) dsp

32. Which compound does not give Iodoform test?

A) Acetaldehyde B) Ethyl alcohol
C) Acetone D) Formaldehyde

33. Benzaldehyde + NaOH (heat) →

A) Benzyl alcohol + sodium benzoate B) Sodium benzoate + methanol
C) Benzyl alcohol + methanol D) Sodium benzoate + sodium formate

34. Which test distinguishes acetaldehyde from phenylacetaldehyde?

A) Iodoform test B) Benedict’s test
C) Fehling’s test D) Tollen’s test

35. Formalin is a _______ % solution of formaldehyde.

A) 10% B) 20%
C) 40% D) 50%

36. Formamint is a combination of:

A) Acetaldehyde + formaldehyde B) Acetic acid + formic acid
C) Formaldehyde + lactose D) Formic acid + formaldehyde
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37. Aldehydes + Fehling’s solution →

A) Yellow ppt B) Black ppt
C) White ppt D) Brick-red ppt

38. Aldehyde + hydroxylamine (acidic) →

A) Polymer B) Amide
C) Aldol D) Oxime

39. Aldehydes and ketones + NH₃ →

A) Amide B) Imines
C) Oximes D) Hydrazones

40. Which compound is a preservative in ink?

A) Alcohol B) Aldehyde
C) Ether D) Phenol

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 B 11 A 21 D 31 B
2 C 12 A 22 A 32 D
3 C 13 C 23 B 33 A
4 A 14 B 24 B 34 A
5 B 15 A 25 C 35 C
6 A 16 A 26 A 36 C
7 A 17 D 27 B 37 D
8 A 18 D 28 C 38 D
9 A 19 D 29 B 39 B
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10 A 20 B 30 A 40 D
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Chapter 13: Carboxylic Acids

1. At what temperature does pure acetic acid freeze to an ice-like solid?
a) 0°C b) 17°C
c) 100°C d) 118°C

2. Carboxylic acids are acidic because of:

a) Carbon b) Carboxyl group
c) Hydroxyl group d) Alkyl group

3. Formic acid is also known as:

a) Acetic acid b) Methanoic acid
c) Propanoic acid d) Ethanoic acid

4. Ethanoic acid has how many carbon atoms?

a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4

5. Carboxylic acids react with alcohols to form:

a) Ketones b) Aldehydes
c) Esters d) Acids

6. Which of the following is an example of an aromatic monocarboxylic acid?

a) Benzoic acid b) Acetic acid
c) Propionic acid d) Butyric acid

7. Which of the following methods is used to prepare carboxylic acids from primary
alcohols and aldehydes?
a) Oxidation b) Reduction
c) Hydrolysis d) Dehydration
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8. What is the product of the reaction between a Grignard reagent and carbon dioxide?
a) Alcohol b) Carboxylic acid
c) Ketone d) Aldehyde

9. What is the general trend in the solubility of carboxylic acids in water?

a) Increases with increase in molecular mass b) Decreases with increase in molecular
mass
c) Remains constant d) None of the above

10. The weakest carboxylic acid:

a) HCOOH b) CH₃CH₂COOH
c) CH₃COOH d) ClCH₂COOH

11. Carboxylic acid can be changed to acid chloride by treatment with:

a) S₂Cl₂ b) SOCl₂
c) HCl d) HOCl

12. The amino acids which body can synthesize are called:
a) Essential b) Non-essential
c) Acidic d) Basic

13. Which of the following derivatives can’t be prepared directly from acetic acid?
a) Acetic anhydride b) Acetyl chloride
c) Acetamide d) Ethyl ethanoate

14. Which reagent is used to reduce a carboxylic group to an alcohol?

a) H₂/Ni b) HI/P
c) NaBH₄ d) LiAlH₄

15. The solution of which acid is used for seasoning of food:

a) Formic acid b) Acetic acid
c) Benzoic acid d) Butanoic acid
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16. What is the primary function of the ninhydrin test in biochemistry?

a) To synthesize amino acids b) To identify the presence of amino acids
c) To form peptide bonds c) To hydrolyze proteins

17. Which of the following reactions is used to synthesize amino acids?

a) Strecker Synthesis b) Ninhydrin Test
c) Esterification d) Reaction with Nitrous Acid

18. What is the result of the reaction between an amino acid and nitrous acid?
a) Formation of peptide bond b) α-hydroxy carboxylic acid + nitrogen gas
c) Synthesis of protein d) Hydrolysis of peptide

19. What is the product of the reaction between CH₃COOH and C₂H₅OH in presence of
conc. H₂SO₄?
a) CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O b) CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂
c) CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH d) None of the above

20. What is the product of the reaction between a carboxylic acid and a base?
a) Salt and water b) Ester and alcohol
c) Acid and base d) None of the above

21. What is the name of the synthesis method involving HCN and aldehyde with
ammonia?
a) Strecker Synthesis b) Gabriel Synthesis
c) HVZ Synthesis d) Williamson Synthesis

22. What is the conventional molecular mass range for a polypeptide?

a) Up to 10,000 b) More than 10,000
c) Up to 50,000 d) More than 50,000

23. What is the product of the reaction between an amino acid and alcohol in acid?
a) Amino ester b) Carboxylic acid
c) Amide d) Ester
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24. What results from heating carboxylic acids with phosphorus pentoxide?
a) Acid anhydride b) Alcohol
c) Alkane d) Ester

25. What is the product when carboxylic acids react with LiAlH₄?
a) Alcohol b) Alkane
c) Ester d) Acid anhydride

26. What is the common name of dilute acetic acid solution?

a) Vinegar b) Glacial acetic acid
c) Acetic anhydride d) Ethyl alcohol

27. What is the boiling point of acetic acid?

a) 100°C b) 118°C
c) 150°C d) 200°C

28. What is acetic acid called when it freezes at 17°C?

a) Vinegar b) Glacial acetic acid
c) Acetic anhydride d) Ethyl alcohol

29. Which of the following is not a fatty acid?

a) Palmitic acid b) Oleic acid
c) Stearic acid d) Picric acid

30. Which of the following is not a method of preparation of carboxylic acid?

a) Grignard reagent + ethanol b) Oxidation of aldehydes
c) Oxidative cleavage of alkenes d) Hydrolysis of esters

31. Carboxylic acid on heating with ----------- gives esters.

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones
c) Alcohol d) Ethers
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32. Partial reduction of acetic acid with LiAlH₄ gives:

a) Ethanol b) Methanol
c) Formaldehyde d) Acetaldehyde

33. Benzyl acetate has a flavour of:

a) Banana b) Jasmine
c) Apricot d) Orange

34. Structural formula of oxalic acid is:

a) HOOC–COOH b) HOOC–CH₃–COOH
c) HOOC–CH₂–COOH d) HOOC–CH₃

35. Molecular formula of stearic acid is:

a) C₁₅H₃₁COOH b) C₁₇H₃₅COOH
c) C₂₁H₃₉COOH d) C₁₂H₂₆COOH

36. Vinegar is:

a) Concentrated acetic acid b) Dilute acetic acid
c) Tasteless d) Odorless

37. A carbon atom in carboxyl group is:

a) sp³ hybridized b) sp² hybridized
c) sp hybridized d) dsp hybridized

38. Irritation by red ants’ bite is due to:

a) Acetic acid b) Formic acid
c) Salicylic acid d) Malonic acid

39. Test used to identify amino acids:

a) Ninhydrin test b) Fehling test
c) Silver mirror test d) Benedict test
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40. Carboxylic acid reacts with ammonia to form ammonium salts which on heating
gives:
a) Carbon dioxide b) Acetamide
c) Acetic anhydride d) Ethyl acetate

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 B 11 B 21 A 31 C
2 B 12 B 22 A 32 A
3 C 13 C 23 A 33 B
4 B 14 D 24 A 34 A
5 C 15 B 25 A 35 B
6 A 16 B 26 A 36 B
7 A 17 A 27 B 37 B
8 B 18 B 28 B 38 B
9 B 19 A 29 D 39 A
10 B 20 B 30 A 40 B
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Chapter 14: Macromolecules

1. Which of the following is NOT a major class of biopolymers in living cells?
a) Lipids b) Proteins
c) Alcohols d) Nucleic acids

2. Carbohydrates are mainly composed of which elements?

a) C, H, O b) C, H, N
c) C, O, N d) H, O, S

3. What is the empirical formula of most monosaccharides?

a) CH₄ b) Cn(H₂O)n
c) CnH₂nOn d) CnHnOn

4. Which of the following are examples of hexoses?

a) Glyceraldehyde & glucose b) Glucose & fructose
c) Fructose & sucrose d) Galactose & ribose

5. Oligosaccharides are formed by:

a) Oxidation of monosaccharides b) Breaking polysaccharides
c) Combining 2–9 monosaccharides via loss of water d) Polymerization of lipids

6. A copolymer is formed by polymerizing:

a) One monomer b) Two different monomers
c) Three monomers d) Repeating units

7. Which polymer can be softened again and again by heating?

a) Thermosetting b) Thermoplastic
c) Copolymer d) Homopolymer
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8. Free radicals are produced from:

a) UV light b) Heat
c) Organic peroxides d) All of these

9. Hardening of oil involves which of the following process:

a) Oxidation b) Hydrogenation
c) Saponification d) Hydrolysis

10. Which one of the following is inorganic polymer:

a) Graphite b) Rubber
c) DNA d) Protein

11. The most abundant protein that is present in the tissues throughout the body is:
a) Albumin b) Collagen
c) Both d) None of the above

12. Which of the following is optimum temperature of most of enzymes:

a) 0°C b) 37°C
c) 45°C d) 100°C

13. Which of the following enzymes bring about the hydrolysis of fats:
a) Urease b) Maltase
c) Zymase d) Lipase

14. Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin:

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin E d) Vitamin C

15. Which one of the following elements is not present in all proteins:
a) Carbon b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen d) Sulphur
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16. Which of these enzymes is an acidic pH active enzyme:

a) Lipases b) Amylase
c) Pepsin d) Trypsin

17. The substance that retards the activity of enzyme is called:

a) Co-enzyme b) Apo-enzyme
c) Activator d) Inhibitor

18. Which of the following is not a polymer:

a) Starch b) Glucose
c) Protein d) Nylon

19. Which one of the following is purine:

a) Cytosine b) Uracil
c) Adenine d) Thymine

20. Amino acids in protein are linked together by:

a) Ester linkage b) Peptide linkage
c) Ether linkage d) Glycosidic linkage

21. Macromolecules are made from small units called:

a) Monomers b) Fibres
c) Oligomers d) Polymers

22. Which of the following is a condensation polymer?

a) Polystyrene b) Polyvinyl chloride
c) Nylon d) Polyethene

23. The term “degree of polymerization” refers to:

a) Number of side chains b) Number of repeating units
c) Molecular mass d) Number of polymers
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24. Polymers formed by two different monomers are called:

a) Homopolymers b) Copolymers
c) Monomers d) Condensation polymers

25. Which of the following is NOT a synthetic polymer?

a) PVC b) Polystyrene
c) Cellulose d) Polyester

26. Which of the following is an addition polymer?

a) Nylon b) Terylene
c) Polystyrene d) Bakelite

27. The structure of cellulose is made of:

a) α-D glucose b) β-D glucose
c) Fructose d) Maltose

28. A reaction in which a fat reacts with NaOH to form soap is:
a) Esterification b) Hydrolysis
c) Fermentation d) Saponification

29. The sugar in DNA is:

a) Glucose b) Deoxyribose
c) Fructose d) Ribose

30. Which of these polymers is biodegradable?

a) PVC b) Polystyrene
c) Starch d) Terylene

31. Which of the following sugars is a pentose?

a) Glucose b) Galactose
c) Ribose d) Fructose
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32. Lactose is formed by the combination of:

a) Glucose + Glucose b) Glucose + Galactose
c) Glucose + Fructose d) Glucose + Ribose

33. Which one of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

a) Glucose b) Maltose
c) Lactose d) Sucrose

34. The nitrogenous base not found in RNA is:

a) Adenine b) Uracil
c) Cytosine d) Thymine

35. The enzyme that converts starch to maltose is:

a) Zymase b) Amylase
c) Pepsin d) Lipase

36. The hydrolysis of sucrose gives:

a) Glucose only b) Glucose and fructose
c) Glucose and galactose d) Fructose only

37. Which one of the following is a component of cell membranes?

a) Glucose b) Phospholipids
c) Cellulose d) Glycogen

38. Which one of the following vitamins is fat-soluble?

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin B₁
c) Vitamin C d) Vitamin B₁₂

39. The function of DNA is to:

a) Provide energy b) Store genetic information
c) Break down food d) Act as enzyme
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40. Terylene is a polymer of:

a) Ethene b) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
c) Vinyl chloride and benzene d) Acrylic acid and urea

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 c 11 b 21 a 31 c
2 a 12 b 22 c 32 b
3 b 13 d 23 b 33 d
4 b 14 d 24 b 34 d
5 c 15 d 25 c 35 b
6 b 16 c 26 c 36 b
7 b 17 d 27 b 37 b
8 d 18 b 28 d 38 a
9 b 19 c 29 b 39 b
10 a 20 b 30 c 40 b
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Chapter 15: Common Chemical Industries in Pakistan

1. Substances added to the soil to increase its fertility are
a) Manure b) Fertilizers
c) Soil enhancer d) All of these

2. All of the following are examples of micronutrients except:

a) Copper b) Iron
c) Zinc d) Nitrogen

3. Micronutrients are required in quantities ranging from

a) 5kg to 200kg/acre b) 20kg to 50kg/acre
c) 50kg to 200kg/acre d) 5kg to 20kg/acre

4. All of the following are qualities of a good fertilizer except:

a) Fairly soluble in water b) Should be cheap
c) Should alter pH of soil d) Should be stable

5. Which of the following is an example of nitrogen fertilizers?

a) Calcium cyanamide b) Calcium nitrate
c) Triple phosphate d) Both A and B

6. The preparation of diammonium phosphate is

a) Exothermic reaction b) Endothermic reaction
c) Isothermic reaction d) Neutralization reaction

7. Which is the most useful fertilizer for tobacco and coffee?

a) Potassium fertilizers b) Nitrogen fertilizer
c) Phosphorus fertilizer d) Both A and B
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8. The acidic component of cement is obtained from

a) Limestone b) Marble
c) Gypsum d) Clay

9. Which of the following is present in highest quantity in cement?

a) Silica b) Alumina
c) Lime d) Magnesia

10. Which of the following is a non-woody raw material for paper production?
a) Poplar b) Eucalyptus
c) Bamboo d) Douglas fir

11. What is the percentage of water present initially in slurry?

a) 35–45% b) 30–40%
c) 40–65% d) 30–60%

12. The only fertilizer used in liquid state is

a) Urea b) Triple phosphate
c) Ammonia d) Both A and C

13. The pH maintained in a digester during pulping process is

a) 7–9 b) 6–8
c) 6–9 d) 7–10

14. The aromatic polymer that causes paper to become brittle is called
a) Pectin b) Cellulose
c) Resin d) Lignin

15. What is the annual per person paper consumption in Pakistan?

a) 3kg b) 4kg
c) 6kg d) 5kg
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16. The brown colour of the pulp is due to the presence of

a) Pectin b) Cellulose
c) Residual lignin d) Both A and C

17. The chlorine is injected in the chlorinator tank at the pressure of

a) 4–6 bar b) 4–5 bar
c) 4–6 atm d) 4–5 atm

18. What is the temperature required for decomposition zone?

a) 800°C b) 900°C
c) 1000°C d) 700°C

19. What is the appearance of cement clinkers?

a) Greenish black b) Greenish blue
c) Black d) Both A and B

20. In the burning zone the oxides combine at high temperature to form the product
a) Calcium silicate b) Calcium aluminate
c) Calcium nitrate d) Both A and B

21. The most widely used nitrogen fertilizer in Pakistan is:

a) Urea b) Ammonium nitrate
c) Calcium ammonium nitrate d) Ammonia

22. Which nutrient is essential for root development and seed formation?
a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus
c) Potassium d) Calcium

23. Which of the following is a micro-nutrient?

a) Calcium b) Sulphur
c) Potassium d) Boron
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24. The nitrogen content in urea is approximately:

a) 60% b) 33%
c) 46% d) 28%

25. The primary raw material for cement is:

a) Limestone b) Gypsum
c) Dolomite d) Feldspar

26. Which material is added during cement grinding to control setting time?
a) Lime b) Gypsum
c) Clay d) Silica

27. Cement sets to a hard mass due to:

a) Cooling b) Loss of water and crystallization
c) Evaporation d) Freezing

28. Which plant gave its name to "paper"?

a) Bamboo b) Cotton
c) Papyrus d) Mulberry

29. Which step removes additional water from the paper sheet?
a) Bleaching b) Press section
c) Head box d) Stock preparation

30. Prills are:

a) Solutions of fertilizer b) Small solid pellets
c) Gaseous forms d) Fertilizer slurries

31. The basic raw materials for ammonia synthesis are:

a) Nitrogen and hydrogen b) Nitrogen and methane
c) Hydrogen and oxygen d) Methane and oxygen
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32. In the manufacturing of urea, which two gases are used as reactants?
a) NH₃ and N₂ b) NH₃ and CO₂
c) CO and H₂ d) N₂ and CO

33. The white crystalline solid formed in prilling tower is:

a) Ammonium nitrate b) Urea
c) Calcium nitrate d) Superphosphate

34. Urea is produced under which of the following conditions?

a) Low temperature and pressure b) High temperature and pressure
c) Atmospheric pressure d) Vacuum

35. In cement industry, the rotary kiln is inclined:

a) Vertically b) Horizontally
c) Slightly downward d) At 45 degrees

36. Which compound in cement contributes to early strength development?

a) Dicalcium silicate b) Tricalcium aluminate
c) Tetracalcium aluminoferrite d) Gypsum

37. Bagasse is used in paper industry as:

a) Bleaching agent b) Colouring material
c) Cellulose source d) Dehydrating agent

38. In the digesting step of paper manufacture, the purpose is to:

a) Dry the pulp b) Break lignin bonds
c) Add perfume d) Increase pH

39. Which of the following is used as bleaching agent in paper production?

a) Nitrogen dioxide b) Calcium oxide
c) Chlorine d) Sodium hydroxide
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40. Which of the following steps in cement manufacturing involves gypsum addition?
a) Mixing raw materials b) Burning in kiln
c) Grinding of clinker d) Cooling of clinker

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 b 2 d 3 a 4 c
5 d 6 a 7 a 8 d
9 c 10 c 11 a 12 c
13 a 14 d 15 d 16 c
17 b 18 b 19 a 20 d
21 a 22 b 23 d 24 c
25 a 26 b 27 b 28 c
29 b 30 b 31 a 32 b
33 b 34 b 35 c 36 b
37 c 38 b 39 c 40 c
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Chapter 16: Environmental Chemistry

1) Which of the following is present in highest proportion in the atmosphere
a) O₂ b) N₂
c) CO₂ d) O₃

2) The region of earth capable of supporting life is called

a) Biosphere b) Hydrosphere
c) Lithosphere d) Atmosphere

3) Which of the following cause an increase in environmental pollution

a) Urbanization b) Industrialization
c) Transportation d) All of these

4) Which of the following is a secondary pollutant

a) H₂SO₄ b) CO₂
c) SO₂ d) SO₃

5) The major source of carbon monoxide in the atmosphere is

a) Transportation b) Volcanic eruption
c) Forest fire d) All of these

6) The major nitrogen oxide produced by bacterial action is

a) NO₂ b) NO
c) N₂O₃ d) Both b and c

7) The mean residence time of methane in the atmosphere is

a) 2–6 years b) 3–7 years
c) 3–6 years d) 4–8 years
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8) Acid rain has a pH

a) Less than 5 b) Less than 4
c) Greater than 5 d) None

9) The smog that contains high content of SO₂ is considered as

a) Reducing smog b) Oxidizing smog
c) Photochemical smog d) Both a and c

10) The yellow color of photochemical smog is due to

a) Unburnt hydrocarbon b) Oxidizing smog
c) Nitrogen dioxide d) All of these

11) The normal amount of overhead ozone is

a) 360 DU b) 350 DU
c) 340 DU d) 355 DU

12) What are the harmful effects of ozone air pollution

a) Damages eyes b) Aggravates asthma
c) Chest discomfort d) All of these

13) The temperature in troposphere is

a) 15 to -56°C b) -56 to -2°C
c) -2 to -92°C d) -92 to 1200°C

14) The process in which plastic is converted into low quality substance is called
a) Depolymerization b) Reprocessing
c) Transformation d) Bleaching

15) In the rotating chamber in incineration, the waste is burnt at a temperature of:
a) 650 to 1100°C b) 950 to 1300°C
c) 700 to 1200°C d) 600 to 1000°C
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16) In which chamber during incineration are the organic compounds completely
destroyed
a) Primary chamber b) Secondary chamber
c) Rotating chamber d) Scrubber

17) Which of the following gases are produced in landfills

a) Methane b) Ammonia
c) Hydrogen d) All of these

18) The formation of chloramines can be prevented by

a) Acidic pH b) Basic pH
c) Neutral pH d) pH < 7

19) The salts of iron commonly used as coagulating agents are

a) Ferrous salts b) Ferric salts
c) Alum d) Both b and c

20) What is the range of dissolved oxygen in water

a) 2 to 6 ppm b) 2 to 4 ppm
c) 4 to 10 ppm d) 4 to 8 ppm

21) Which gas makes up the largest percentage of the atmosphere?

a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide
c) Argon d) Nitrogen

22) The average pH of unpolluted rainwater is:

a) 4.6 b) 6.0
c) 7.0 d) 5.6

23) Acid rain is caused by the presence of:

a) CO and H₂ b) Sulphur and nitrogen oxides
c) Methane and CFCs d) Ozone and ammonia
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Chemistry 800+ MCQs with Answer Key 167

24) PAN is an example of a:

a) Reducing agent b) Fuel additive
c) Secondary pollutant d) Hydrocarbon

25) Which pollutant binds with hemoglobin more strongly than oxygen?
a) NO₂ b) CO
c) SO₂ d) PAN

26) Ozone layer depletion is most severe over:

a) Arctic b) Antarctic
c) Equator d) Sahara

27) The harmful compound formed by UV decomposition of CFCs is:

a) PAN b) Cl• (chlorine radical)
c) NOx d) CO₂

28) The term BOD refers to:

a) Chemical oxygen demand b) Biochemical oxide demand
c) Biochemical oxygen demand d) Basic oxygen deficiency

29) Photochemical smog formation requires all except:

a) Sunlight b) NO
c) Hydrocarbons d) Rapid air movement

30) The ozone layer absorbs:

a) Visible light b) Infrared rays
c) Ultraviolet rays d) X-rays

31) The major cause of depletion of ozone layer is:

a) Carbon dioxide b) Sulphur dioxide
c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) d) Methane
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Chemistry 800+ MCQs with Answer Key 168

32) Which gas is primarily responsible for global warming?

a) Oxygen b) Ozone
c) Carbon dioxide d) Nitrogen

33) The effect of greenhouse gases is to:

a) Increase UV radiation b) Trap heat in the atmosphere
c) Destroy ozone d) Cause acid rain

34) The major contributor to water pollution by nutrients is:

a) Industrial discharge b) Domestic sewage
c) Agricultural runoff d) Ocean currents

35) Which of the following is used as a coagulant in water treatment?

a) Lime b) Alum
c) Sodium chloride d) Chlorine

36) Excessive use of fertilizers and detergents in agriculture leads to:

a) Acid rain b) Eutrophication
c) Sedimentation d) Decomposition

37) Which method is best for the disposal of hospital waste?

a) Landfilling b) Composting
c) Recycling d) Incineration

38) The most abundant greenhouse gas is:

a) Methane b) Ozone
c) Water vapour d) Nitrous oxide

39) Which metal commonly causes water pollution from industrial effluents?
a) Sodium b) Calcium
c) Potassium d) Mercury
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Chemistry 800+ MCQs with Answer Key 169

40) The process of converting waste into reusable material is called:

a) Decomposition b) Incineration
c) Recycling d) Filtration

ANSWER KEY
[Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans [Link] Ans
1 B 2 A 3 D 4 A
5 D 6 B 7 B 8 A
9 A 10 C 11 B 12 D
13 A 14 C 15 A 16 B
17 D 18 B 19 B 20 D
21 D 22 D 23 B 24 C
25 B 26 B 27 B 28 C
29 D 30 C 31 C 32 C
33 B 34 C 35 B 36 B
37 D 38 C 39 D 40 C