04-02-2026

NURTURE-PT-RT-04_Kohinoor MD

PHYSICS

1) A uniform rod of length ℓ, mass m is hung from two strings of equal length from a ceiling as
shown in fig. Determine the tension in the string at B ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Find minimum value of ℓ so that truck can avoid the collision, without toppling the block kept on
it.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Assertion (A) :- if a particle is moving with a constant velocity, then it's angular momentum
about any fixed point always remains constant.
Reason (R) :- If a particle is moving with a constant velocity then, net torque on it about every fixed
point in space must be zero.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (R) is correct but (A) is not correct

4) The moment of inertia of a uniform rod about a perpendicular axis passing through one end is I1.
The same rod is bent into a ring and its moment of inertia about a diameter is I2. Then I1/I2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) From a circular disc of mass M and radius R, a part of 60° is removed. The M.I. of the remaining
portion of disc about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to plane of disc is :-

(1)
MR2
(2)
MR2

(3)
MR2

(4)
MR2

6) A solid sphere is rotating about a diameter at an angular velocity ω. If it cools so that its radius
reduces to 1/n of its original value, its angular velocity becomes :-

(1)

(2)

(3) nω
(4) n2ω

7) A cockroach is moving with velocity v in anticlockwise direction on the rim of a disc of radius R of
mass m. The moment of inertia of the disc about the axis is I and it is rotating in clockwise direction
with an angular velocity ω. If the cockroach stops, the angular velocity of the disc will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A tangential force F acts at the top of a thin spherical shell of mass m and radius R. Find the
acceleration of the shell if it rolls without slipping.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

9) A circular disc of mass m and radius R rests flat on a horizontal frictionless surface. A bullet also
of mass m, moving with a velocity v, strikes the disc and gets embedded in it. The angular velocity
with which the system rotates after the bullet strikes the hoop is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The radius of gyration of a sphere of radius R about a tangent is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A hoop rolls on a horizontal ground without slipping with linear speed v. Speed of a particle P on
the circumference of the hoop at angle θ is :-

2v sin
(1)

(2) v sin θ
2v cos
(3)

(4) v cos θ

12) Assertion :- A body rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The fraction of total energy
associated with its rotation will depend on its radius of gyration.
Reason :- Total kinetic energy of rolling body is equal to addition of kinetic energy of rotation and
kinetic energy of translation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) A solid sphere rolls on horizontal surface without slipping. What is the ratio of its rotational to
translation kinetic energy.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

14) An inclined plane makes an angle of 37° with the horizontal. A solid sphere rolling down this
inclined plane from rest without slipping has a linear acceleration equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A body attains a height equal to the radius of the earth when projected from earth' surface. The
velocity of the body with which it was projected is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A body is projected vertically upwards from the surface of a planet of radius R with a velocity
equal to half the escape velocity for that planet. The maximum height attained by the body is :-

(1) R/3
(2) R/2
(3) R/4
(4) R/5

17) The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satellite of mass m revolving around a planet of
mass M, to transfer it from a circular orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2(R2 > R1) is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The escape velocity for the earth is ve. The escape velocity for a planet whose radius is four times
and density is nine times that of the earth is :-

(1) 36ve
(2) 12ve
(3) 6ve
(4) 20ve

19) The change in the value of g at a height h above the surface of the earth is the same as at a
depth d below the surface of earth. When both d and h are much smaller than the radius of earth,
then which one of the following is correct ?

d=
(1)

d=
(2)

(3) d = 2h
(4) d = h

20) The gravitational potential due to the earth at infinite distance from it is zero. Let the
gravitational potential at a point P be –5 J/kg. Now suppose, we arbitrarily assume the gravitational
potential at infinity to be +10 J/kg, then the gravitational potential at P will be :-

(1) –5 J/kg
(2) +5 J/kg
(3) –15 J/kg
(4) +15 J/kg

21) A planet moves around the sun. At a given point P, it is closed from the sun at a distance d1 and
has a speed v1. At another point Q, when it is farthest from the sun at a distance d2, its speed will be
:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Mass particles of 1 kg each are placed along x-axis at x = 1, 2, 4, 8,.....∞. Then gravitational
force on a mass of 3kg placed at origin is (G = universal gravitational constant) :-

(1) 4G

(2)

(3) 2G
(4) ∞

23) A piece of solid weighs 120 g in air, 80 g in water and 60 g in a liquid, then the relative density
of the solid, and that of liquid are :-

(1) 3, 2

(2)

(3)

(4) 4, 3

24) A U tube contains water and methylated spirit separated by mercury. The mercury columns in
the two arms are at the same level with 10 cm of water in one arm and 12.5 cm of spirit in the other
as shown in figure. The relative density of the spirit is :-

(1) 0.6
(2) 0.8
(3) 1.0
(4) 1.25

25) The speed of flow passed the lower surface of a wing of an aeroplane is 50 ms–1. What speed of
flow over the upper surface will give a dynamic lift of 1000 Pa? Density of air = 1.3 kg m–3 :-
(1) 25.55 m/s
(2) 63.55 m/s
(3) 13.25 m/s
(4) None

26) A water tank of height 10m, completely filled with water is placed on a level ground. It has two
holes one at 3m and the other at 7m form its base. The water ejecting from :-

(1) both the holes will fall at the same spot

(2) upper hole will fall farther than that from the lower hole
(3) upper hole will fall closer then that from the lower hole
(4) more information is required.

27) A rectangular bar of soap has density 800 kg/m3 floats in water of density 1000 kg/m3. Oil of
density 300 kg/m3 is slowly added, forming a layer that does not mix with the water. When the top
surface of the oil is at the same level as the top surface of the soap. What is the ratio of the oil layer
thickness to the soap's thickness, x/L ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A thin liquid film formed between a U shaped wire and a light slider supports a weight of 1.5 ×
10–2 N, as shown in the figure. The length of the slider is 30 cm and its weight negligible. The
surface tension of the liquid film is :-
(1) 0.0125 N m–1
(2) 0.1 N m–1
(3) 0.05 N m–1
(4) 0.025 N m–1

29) A cylindrical tank has a hole of 3 cm2 in its bottom. If the water is allowed to flow into the tank
from a tube above it at the rate of 80 cm3/sec. then the maximum height up to which water can rise
in the tank is :–

(1) 1.1 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 0.25 cm

30) Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are connected by a metal wire going over a smooth pulley as

shown. The breaking stress of the metal is . If g = 10 m s–2 , then what should be the
minimum radius of the wire used if it is not to break ?

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 1 mm
(3) 1.5 mm
(4) 2 mm

31) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young's moduli of steel and brass wires in the figure are a, b and
c respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A capilalry tube of radius r is immersed in a liquid. The liquid rises to a height h. The
corresponding mass is m. What mass of water shall rise in the capillary if the radius of the tube is
doubled ?

(1) m
(2) 2m
(3) 3m
(4) 4m

33) If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to 2/3 pressure at the bottom of the lake then what
is the depth of the lake:- [Take : P0 = 10m of water]

(1) 10 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 60 m
(4) 30 m

34) Two liquid drops of equal radii are falling through air with terminal velocity v. If these two drops
coalesce to form a single drop, its terminal velocity will be :-

(1)
(2) 2 v
(3)
(4)

35) Assertion :- Viscosity of a liquid increases with increase in its density.

Reason :- Density is mass per unit volume while viscosity is the liquids resistance to movement
under a shear force.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

36) A tank with a square base of area 2 m2 is divided into two compartments by a vertical partition in
the middle. There is a small hinged door of face area 20 cm2 at the bottom of the partition. Water is
filled in one compartment and an acid of relative density 1.5 in the other, both to a height of 4m. The
force necessary to keep the door closed is (Take g = 10 ms–2) :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 40 N
(4) 80 N

37) Two spheres of volume 250 cc each but of relative densities 0.8 and 1.2 are connected by a
string and the combination is immerssed in a liquid. The tension in the string is:
(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 5.0 N
(2) 0.5 N
(3) 1.0 N
(4) 2.0 N

38) Three identical blocks each of mass m = 1 kg and volume 3 × 10–4 m3 are suspended by massless
strings from a support as shown. Underneath are three identical containers containing the same
amount of water that are placed over the scales. In Fig. (a), the block is completely out of the water;
In Fig. (b), the block is completely submerged but not touching the beaker and in Fig.(c), the block
rests on the bottom of the beaker. The scale in Figure (a) reads 14 N. :-

(1) The tension in the string in (b) is 10 N.

(2) The tension in the string in (b) is 5 N.
(3) The reading of the scale in (b) is 10 N.
(4) The reading of the scale in (c) is 24 N.

39) An object of specific gravity ρ is hung from a massless string. The tension in the string is T. The
object is immersed in water so that one half of its volume is submerged. The new tension in the
string is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Two rods of different materials having coefficients of thermal expansions α1, α2 and Young's
moduli Y1,Y2 respectively are fixed between two rigid massive [Link] rods are heated such that
they undergo the same increase in temperature. There is no bending of the rods. If a1 : a2 = 2 : 3, the
thermal stresses developed in the two rods are equal provided Y1 : Y2 is equal to :–
(1) 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 4 : 9

41) A uniform metal rod is used as a bar pendulum. If the room temperature rises by 10° C and the
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal of the rod is 2 × 10–6 per ° C, the period of the pendulum
will have percentage increase of :-

(1) –2 × 10–3
(2) –1 × 10–3
(3) 2 × 10–3
(4) 1 × 10–3

42) The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass vessel is 153 × 10–6/°C and in a steel
vessel is 144 × 10–6/°C. If α for steel is 12 × 10–6/°C, then that of glass is :-

(1) 9 × 10–6/°C
(2) 6 × 10–6/°C
(3) 36 × 10–6/°C
(4) 27 × 10–6/°C

43) Find out the increase in moment of inertia I of a uniform rod (coefficient of linear expansion α)
about its perpendicular bisector when its temperature is slightly increased by ΔT :-

(1) 2I α ΔT
(2) 4I α ΔT
(3) 6I α ΔT
(4) 3I α T

44) A centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometer are dipped in boiling water at boiling point. The
water temperature is lowered until the Fahrenheit thermometer registers change of 72°. What is the
fall in temperature as registered by the centigrade thermometer ?

(1) 30°
(2) 40°
(3) 60°
(4) 80°

45) The radius of a ring is R and its coefficient of linear expansion is α. If the temperature of ring
increases by θ then its circumference will increase by :–
(1) πRα θ
(2) 2πRαθ

(3)
πRα

(4)
πRα

CHEMISTRY

1)

IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 1–acetoxy–4–methyl benzene

(2) 4–methyl phenyl ethanoate
(3) 1–ethanoyloxy–4–methyl benzene
(4) O–Tollyl ethanoate

2) Choose the correct IUPAC name :-

(1) 3-Isopropyl-4-methylpentane
(2) 4-Methyl-3-isopropylpentane
(3) 2,4-Dimethyl-3-ethylpentane
(4) 3-Ethyl-2,4-dimethylpentane

3) 2 mole of N2H4 loses 16 mole of electron is being converted to a new compound X. Assuming that
all of the N appears in the new compound. What is the oxidation state of 'N' in X ?

(1) –1
(2) –2
(3) +2
(4) +4

4) For the redox reaction,

MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ → Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O
the correct coefficients of MnO4–, C2O4–2, H+ for the balanced reaction respectively are

(1) 2, 5, 16
(2) 16, 3, 12
(3) 15, 16, 12
(4) 2, 16, 5

5) When HNO3 is converted into NH3, the equivalent weight of HNO3 will be :
(M = molecular weight of HNO3)

(1) M/2
(2) M/1
(3) M/6
(4) M/8

6) In the reaction, 8Al + 3Fe3O4 —→ 4Al2O3 + 9Fe, the number of electrons transferred from
reductant to oxidant is :

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 7
(4) 24

7)

For the reaction

SnO2(s) + 2H2(g) 2H2O(g) + Sn(l)

calculate Kp at 900 K, where the equilibrium steam-hydrogen mixture contains 45% H2 by volume:-
(1) 1.49
(2) 1.22
(3) 0.67
(4) None of these

8)

The exothermic formation of ClF3 is represented by the equation

Cl2(g) + 3F2(g) 2ClF3(g) ; ΔHr = – 329 kJ
Which of the following will increase the quantity of ClF3 in an equilibrium mixture of Cl2, F2 and ClF3
?

(1) Removing Cl2

(2) Increasing the temperature
(3) Adding inert gas at constant volume
(4) Decreasing the volume of the container

9) The dissociation equilibrium of a gass AB2 can be represented as:

The degree of dissociation is x and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of
dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) An endothermic reaction is represented by the graph :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The pH of an aqueous solution of Ba(OH)2 is 10. If the Ksp of Ba(OH)2 is 1 × 10–9, then the
concentration of Ba+2 ions in the saturated solution in mol L–1 is :

(1) 1 × 10–3
(2) 2 × 10–4
(3) 1 × 10–1
(4) 1 × 10–5

12) The degree of hydrolysis of salt of weak monobasic acid and weak monoacidic base in its 0.1 M
solution is found to be 50%. If the molarity of the solution is 0.2M, the percentage hydrolysis of the
salt should be :-
(1) 100%
(2) 50%
(3) 25%
(4) 10%

13) M(OH)x (producing Mx+ and ions) has ksp = 4 × 10–12 and solubility 10–4 M, the value of x is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Calculate the ratio of pH of a solution containing 1 mole of CH3COONa + 0.5 mole of HCl per
litre and of other solution containing 1 mole CH3COONa + 1mole of acetic acid per litre :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 3

15) Minimum pH is shown by an aqueous solution of :-

(1) 0.1 M Ba(OH)2

(2) 0.1 M BaCl2
(3) 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2
(4) 0.1 M BeCl2

16) Statement-I :- pH of pure water increases with increase in temperature.

Statement-II :- Degree of ionisation increase with increase in temperature.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

17)

Functional group isomer of methylacetate is :-

(1) Ethanoic acid

(2) 2-hydroxybutanal
(3) 2-Methoxyethanal
(4) 1-hydroxybutane-2-one

18)
The given following structures are :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Ring-chain isomer
(3) Position isomer
(4) Not isomer

19) Diethylamine is a functional group isomer of :-

(1) Propyl cyanide

(2) Isopropyl isocyanide
(3) 2-butanamine
(4) Ethylamine

20) Given compound shows which type of isomerism?

and

(1) Chain isomerism

(2) Positional isomerism
(3) Functional group isomerism
(4) Metamerism

21) What is the total no. of structural isomers with the formula that are cyclic

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 7

22) Compounds, and exhibit

(1) Geometrical Isomerism

(2) Optical Isomerism
(3) Position Isomerism
(4) Metamerism
23) How many chain isomers can be obtained from the alkane is

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 7

24) Which of the following is incorrect match regarding type of isomerism :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The hybrid state of C-atoms which are attached to a single bond with each other in the following
structure are :
O=CH–C≡N

(1) sp2, sp3

(2) sp2,sp2
(3) sp3,sp3
(4) sp, sp2

26) Correctly match the number of sigma and Pi bond in the given compounds :
(i) Furan (a) σ = 7; π = 1
(ii) Pyridine (b) σ = 9; π = 2
(iii) Urea (c) s = 11; π = 3
(1) (i) → a, (ii) → c, (iii) →b
(2) (i) → a, (ii) → b, (iii) → c
(3) (i) → b, (ii) → c, (iii) → a
(4) (i) → c, (ii) → a, (iii) → b

27) The IUPAC name of is -

(1) 3-Methyl cyclo-1-buten-2-ol

(2) 4-Methyl cyclo-2-buten-1-ol
(3) 4-Methyl cyclo-1-buten-3-ol
(4) 2-Methyl cyclo-3-buten-1-ol

28) How many functional groups are present in given compound :-

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

29) Which of the following are tertiary radicals :-

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a and d
(4) b and d

30) Find the number of moles of KMnO4 needed to oxidise one mole Cu2S in acidic medium. The
reaction KMnO4 + Cu2S → Mn+2 + Cu+2 + SO2

(1) 1.9
(2) 2.1
(3) 1.6
(4) 3
31) The oxidation number of phosphorus in Ba(H2PO2)2 is :-

(1) +3
(2) +2
(3) +1
(4) –1

32) The oxidation state of A, B and C in a compound are +2, +5 and –2 respectively. The compound
is :-

(1) A2(BC)2
(2) A2(BC)3
(3) A3(BC4)2
(4) A2(BC4)3

33) The oxidation states of S-atoms in Caro's and Marshall's acids are :-

(1) +6, +6
(2) +6, +4
(3) +6, –6
(4) +4, +6

34) I2 + OH– → I– + IO3– + H2O n-factor of I2 in the above reaction will be:

(1) 10

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

35) Reaction N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) degree of dissociation (a) is terms of Kp and total equilibrium pressure
P is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

36) When alcohol and acetic acid are mixed together in equal molar ratio at 27°C, 33% is converted
into ester then the kc for the equilibrium:
CH3COOH(ℓ) + C2H5OH(ℓ) CH3COOC2H5(ℓ) + H2O(ℓ)
(1) 4

(2)

(3) 9

(4)

37)

For 2NOBr(g) 2NO(g) + Br2(g) at equilibrium and P is the total pressure, the ratio
of will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Densities of diamond and graphite are 3.5 and 2.3 g/ml :
C(diamond) C(graphite) ΔrH = –1.9 kJ/mole
favourable condition for formation of diamond

(1) High temperature & low pressure

(2) Low pressure and high temperature
(3) High temperature and high pressure
(4) Low pressure and low temperature

39) Consider the equilibrium ; a sample of 0.05 mol of water is introduced

in to 1 litre container at 2500°C. If 4% of the water decomposes, the concentration of O2 formed in
moles per litre is

(1) 0.01
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.001
(4) 0.0001

40) The number of OH– ions in 1 L of solution having pH = 4 is :-

(1) 10–4
(2) 10–10
(3) 6.02×1010
(4) 6.02×1013

41) It is found that at 25°C 0.1M solution of four sodium salts NaA, NaB, NaC and NaD have the pH
values 7, 9, 10, 11 respectively. Which one of the corresponding acids is strongest ?

(1) HB
(2) HA
(3) HC
(4) HD

42) For anionic hydrolysis, pH is given by:-

(1)
pH = pKw – pKb – logC

(2)
pH = pKw + pKa – pKb

(3)
pH = pKw + pKa + logC
(4) None of above

43) Solubility of CaF2 in a solution of 0.1M Ca(NO3)2 is given by :

(1) [Ca2+]
(2) [F–]
(3) 1/2 [F–]
–
(4) 2[NO3 ]

44) A weak acid HA has a Ka of 10–5. If 0.1 moles of this acid is dissolved in one litre of water, the
percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closed to :-

(1) 99.0%
(2) 1.00%
(3) 99.9%
(4) 0.100%

45)

For the reaction :

CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
∆rH = –170.8 kJ mol–1
Which of the following statements is not true :

(1) At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO2(g) and H2O(l) are not equal

(2) The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by KP =

(3) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right
(4) The reaction is exothermic
 BIOLOGY

1)

The following compounds are intermediates in the pathway of photorespiration :-

I. phosphoglycolate II. serine
III. glyoxylate IV. glycine
The correct sequence of their appearance in pathway is :-

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) I, III, IV, II
(3) II, I, III, IV
(4) II, I, IV, III

2) Artificial light can :-

(1) Destroy chlorophyll

(2) Synthesize chlorophyll
(3) Bring about photosynthesis
(4) Not bring about photosynthesis

3) A artificial hill reagent which become colourless on reduction ?

(1) NADP+
(2) Benzoquinone
(3) DCPIP
(4) Chromate

4) The main difference between chlorophyll 'a' and 'b' is :

(1) Chlorophyll 'a' is a linear chain compound and 'b' is branched chain
(2) Chlorophyll 'a' has no Mg+ ion in center of molecule
nd
(3) In chlorophyll 'a' there is –CH3 group whereas in 'b' it is –CHO group in 2 pyrole
(4) All of the above

5) To fix one molecule of CO2 in C3 cycle and C4 cycle _______ and ______ ATP molecules are required
respectively :

(1) 3, 5
(2) 2, 3
(3) 18, 12
(4) 18, 30

6) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Absorption spectra of chlorophyll-a shows one to one complete overlapping with action spectra of
photosynthesis.
(b) Most of the photosynthesis takes place in green light.
(c) Dark reactions takes place only in dark condition.
(d) There is a clear division of labour within the chloroplast.

(1) a and d
(2) b and c
(3) b only
(4) d only

7) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Electron carriers arranged

in the Ultimate electron donor
(i) Z-scheme
sequence of redox potential is H2O
scale

Synthesis of
(ii) Non-cyclic ETS Photolysis of H2O
NADPH·H+ only

Hundreds of pigment Increase the efficiency

(iii) LHC
molecules bound to protein of photosynthesis

Blue green in
(iv) Chlorophyll-a C55H70O6N4Mg
chromatogram
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i) only
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iii)

8) How many water molecules are produced with the help of ETS during complete oxidation of one
pyruvic acid molecule ?

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 12

9) Choose the correct combinations of labelling the carbohydrate molecule involved in the Calvin
cycle.

(1) (A) RuBP (B) Triose phosphate (C) PGA

(2) (A) PGA (B) RuBP (C) Hexose phosphate
(3) (A) PGA (B) Triose phosphate (C) RuBP
(4) (A) RuBP (B) PGA (C) Triosphosphate

10) Which of the following is required for both respiration and photosynthesis?

(1) Carbohydrates
(2) Chlorophyll
(3) Cytochromes
(4) Sun-light

11) Assertion : (A) In C4 plants, chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells are granal.
Reason (R) : PS I mostly found in appressed part of granum.

If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,
(1)
then mark (1)
If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion, then mark (2)
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (3)
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (4)

12) Which of the following group represents correct sequence of CAM, C3 and C4 plants respectively?

(1) Barley, Aloe, Bell pepper

(2) Aloe, wheat, Sugarcane
(3) Wheat, Mango, Rice
(4) Bryophyllum, Mustard, Wheat

13) Photosynthesis was taking place at a normal pace. Suddenly, the source of CO2 was cut-off. As a
result, what will happen to the concentrations of RuBP and 3-PGA?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) Assertion : C4 photosynthetic pathway is more efficient than the C3 pathway.

Reason : Photorespiration is suppressed in C4 plants.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

15) FAD acts as an electron acceptor in between

(1) Fumaric and malic acid

(2) Succinic and fumaric acid
(3) Malic and oxaloacetic acid
(4) Citric and isocitric acid

16) Pyruvic acid in aerobes undergo

(1) Oxidation only

(2) Phosphorylation
(3) Reduction
(4) Oxidative decarboxylation

17)

Law of limiting factor comes in effect if :-

(1) One factor is affecting the process

(2) More than one factors are affecting the process
(3) Both of the above
(4) All the factors are unlimited

18) Which of the following are common between biosynthetic phase of C3 plants and C4 plants? (A)
Regeneration of PEP
(B) Carboxylation by RuBisCO
(C) Dephosphorylation of ATP
(D) Oxidation of NADPH+H+
(E) Reduction of OAA
(F) Regeneration of RuBP
Options :-

(1) A, B, D and E
(2) B, C, D and F
(3) B, D, E and F
(4) A, C, D and E

19) All the value of saturation points for CO2 :-

for C4 plants 360 , for C3 plants 400

(1)

for C4 plants 300 , for C3 plants 450

(2)

for C4 plants 360 , for C3 plants 450

(3)

for C4 plants 450 , for C3 plants 300

(4)

20) Given diagram explains-

(1) Revealed the essential role of air in growth of plant

(2) A series of experiment that demonstrated by J. Priestley
Similar setup showed by Jan
(3)
Ingenhouz
(4) All the above

21) How many statements are correct regarding the relationship of rate of photosynthesis with

inensity of light as depicted in the graph given below :- (A) At

high light intensity, rate of photosynthesis is saturated, as light is no more utilised in
photosynthesis.
(B) Light saturation point is observed in segment 'A' of the curve
(C) At low light intensity, chlorophyll acts as a limiting factor.
(D) In segment 'C' of the curve light intensity is not a limiting factor

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

22) Which one shows highest photosynthetic efficiency(yield and productivity)?

(1) Sugarcane
(2) Rice
(3) Wheat
(4) Papaya

23) The diagram represents the Calvin cycle :

At which stage is CO2 incorporated ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
24) Which of the following is actually not a flower?

(1) China rose

(2) Sunflower
(3) Rose
(4) Jasmine

25) Stilt roots :

(a) Arise from lower nodes of stem
(b) Provide support as they are hanging from branches
(c) present in maize and sugarcane
(d) Help in gaseous exchange
Choose correct option :

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (b) and (d)

26) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the option given :-

Column-I Column-II
(a) In this leaf lamina entire (i) Simple leaf
In this if lamina is incised
(b) the incisions do not touch (ii) Compound Leaf
the midrib
If the incision of the lamina
reach up to the mid rib Pinnately
(c) (iii)
breaking it into a number of compound leaf
leaflets
Palmately
(iv)
compound leaf
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(4) a-i, b-i, c-ii

27) Which one of the following option give the correct adelphy with respect to their examples :

Monoadelpho
Diadelphous Polyadelphous
us

(1) Pea Mustard Mustard

(2) Mustard China rose Pea

China
(3) Pea Citrus
rose
 (4) Citrus Citrus China rose
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Match the columns-I, II, and III, and choose the correct combination from the option given :-

Column - I Column -II Column-III

Adventious
(a) (i) (K) Mustard
root

Triticum
(b) (ii) Tap Root (L)
aestivam

(c) (iii) Fibrous Root (M) Monstera

(1) a-ii-L, b-i-M, c-iii-K

(2) a-iii-K, b-ii-L, c-i-M
(3) a-iii-L, b-i-M, c-ii-K
(4) a-iii-K, b-i-M, c-ii-L

29) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of aestivation. Identify the A, B, C and
D and select the correct option about them :
Options :

A B C D

1 Twisted Valvate Imbricate Vexillary

2 Valvate Twisted Imbricate Vexillary

3 Valvate Imbricate Vexillary Twisted

4 Valvate Twisted Vexillary Imbricate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30) Example of zygomorphic flower are :-

(1) Mustard, Chilli, Canna

(2) Canna, Soyabean, Sesbania
(3) Pea, bean, Gulmohur, Cassia
(4) Mustard, Chilli, Datura

31) Which of the following is/are correctly matched ?

(A) Mango - Fleshy mesocarp
(B) Coconut - Drupe
(C) Mango - Stony endocarp
(D) Coconut - Fibrous mesocarp
(E) Coconut - Edible endocarp

(1) A, B, D, E only
(2) A, B, C, D only
(3) A, C, D, E only
(4) All are correct

32) Glumes and lodicules are found in the members of family :-

(1) Astraceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Poaceae

33) A botany student encountered a plant having following characters :-

Alternate phyllotaxy, free lateral stipules, epicalyx, five fused sepals with valvate aestivation, five
free sepals with twisted aestivation, monoadelphous condition of stamens, Gynoecium
pentacarpellary and syncarpous with five free stigma. The plant should be :-

(1) Tulip
(2) Lupin
(3) Chinarose
(4) Cucumber

34) Pick up the correct match :-

Fruit Family

(I) Compositae (A) Caryopsis

(II) Papilionoideae (B) Pepo

(III) Poaceae (C) Legume

(IV) Cucurbitaceae (D) Cypsela

A B C D

(1) II III I IV

(2) III IV II I

(3) I II III IV

(4) III II I IV

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Identify the correct match from the column-I, II and III

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(I) Dicot stem (a) Polyarch (i) Well developed pith

(II) Monocot stem (b) Sun flower (ii) Less developed pith

(III) Monocot root (c) Maize (iii) Starch sheath

(IV) Dicot root (d) 2 to 4 xylem patches (iv) Scattered vascular bundle
(1) I-b-iii, II-c-iv, III-a-ii, IV-d-i
(2) I-b-iii, II-c-iv, III-a-i, IV-d-ii
(3) I-d-iv, II-c-iii, III-b-ii, IV-a-i
(4) I-c-ii, II-b-i, III-a-iii, IV-d-iv

36) Read the following statements:

(a) Outer walls of guard cells are thick and the inner walls are thin.
(b) Only stomatal aperture and subsidiary cells together form stomatal apparatus.
(c) Cuticle is a waxy layer which prevents loss of water in roots.
(d) Epidermis is usually multilayered.
(e) In grasses, the guard cells are dumb-bell shaped.
How many of the above statements is/are correct:

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

37) Statement-I: In dicot stem, the endodermis is also referred to as the starch sheath.
Statement-II: The cells of the endodermis are rich in starch grains.

(1) Statement-I true but statement-II not correct explanation of statement-I.

(2) Statement-I true but statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I and statement-II are true and statement-II is correct explanation of statement-I.

38) The transverse section of plant material shows the following anatomical features under
microscope: Palisade parenchyma towards adaxial surface and spongy parenchyma towards abaxial
[Link] material should be :-

(1) Isobilateral leaf

(2) Dorsiventral leaf
(3) Monocotyledonae stem
(4) Dicotyledonae stem

39) Select the incorrectly matched vascular bundles

A B

Radial vascular
(1)
bundle

Conjoint and
(2)
closed

(3) Bicollateral
 (4) Concentric

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) How many in the list given below are the part of epidermal tissue system ?
Epidermis, Xylem, Phloem, Root hair, stomata, Cortex, Pericycle, Pith

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

41)
Label the parts of a monocot seed.

(1) [Link], B. Scutellum, C. Radicle, D. Coleoptile, E. Plumule

(2) [Link], B. Coleoptile, C. Scutellum, D. Radicle, E. Plumule
(3) [Link], B. Scutellum, C. Coleoptile, D. Radicle, E. Plumule
(4) [Link], B. Scutellum, C. Coleoptile, D. Plumule, E. Radicle

42) Assertion : is a symbol in floral formula for superior ovary

Reason : Superior ovary containing flowers are epigynous

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both Assertion and Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If the Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statement
43)
The given diagram shows _______

(1) One is superior and other one is inferior ovary

(2) Both are superior ovary
(3) Both are inferior ovary
(4) Both are half inferior ovary

44) A2+4 indicates :-

(1) Tetramerous condition

(2) Tetradynamous condition
(3) Pentamerous condition
(4) Didynamous condition

45) Which of the floral formula is correct for given floral diagram ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

46) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II, III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A Thyroxine a Adrenal medulla i Stress hormone

B Cortisol b Anterior pitutary ii Emergency hormone

 C Epinephrine c Thyroid gland iii Lactogenic hormone

D Prolactin d Adrenal cortex iv Tempo of life

(1) A-a-(i), B-b-(ii), C-c-(iii), D-d-(iv)
(2) A-d-(i), B-c-(ii), C-b-(iii), D-a-(iv)
(3) A-c-(iv), B-d-(i), C-a-(ii), D-b-(iii)
(4) A-a-(i), B-b-(i), C-d-(iii), D-c-(iv)

47) Identify the correct match form the column-I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Unit of
1. Meromysosin a. Three unit i.
contraction

2. Troponin b. Two binding site ii. HMM

Masking of
Portion between two
3. Sarcomere c. iii. myosin
successive Z-line
binding site

4. Dark band d. Myosin filament iv. Isotropic band

(1) 1-b-i
(2) 2-a-iii
(3) 3-c-ii
(4) 4-d-iv

48) Name the type of joint between following :-

(A) Between atlas and axis ?
(B) Between carpals ?
(C) Between cranial bone ?
(D) Between femur and Acetabulum cavity ?
Choose the correct option :

(1) Pivot, Hinge, Suture, Ball and Socket

(2) Pivot, Elipsoid, Fibrous, Gliding
(3) Pivot, Gliding, Suture, Ball and Socket
(4) Gliding, Pivot, Suture, Ball and Socket
49) How many of the following statements are correct regarding given diagram ?
(a) 'A' is commonly called collar bone and has two curvatures.
(b) 'B' is ventrally situated, large, Triangular, flat bone
(c) Joint formed between C, D and E is a type of Synovial joint
(d) F is larger sesamoid bone

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) One

50) How many of the following are facial bones. Frontal, maxilla, Temporal, Ethmoid, Mandible,
Zygomatic :-

(1) two
(2) three
(3) four
(4) five

51)

Which of following rib pair is also called vertebro-chondral rib ?

(1) 7th Rib pair

(2) 8th Rib pair
(3) 11th Rib pair
(4) 1st-7th Rib pairs

52)

Fill in the blanks

(i) a is the only bone which is not attached with any other bone of the body.
(ii) Cavity of sphenoid bone is called b in which c is present.
(iii) d is smallest bone.

(1) a. Mandible b. Sella turcica c. Pituitary gland d. Incus

(2) a. Hyoid b. Sella turcica c. Hypothalamus d. Malleus

(3) a. Hyoid b. Sella turcica c. Pituitary gland d. Stapes

(4) a. Hyoid b. Sella turcica c. Pituitary gland d. Incus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(A) A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through junctions called synapses.
(B) There are two types of synapses, namely, electrical synapses and chemical synapses.
(C) Across electrical synapses, electric current can flow directly from one neuron into the other
(D) Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapses is very similar to impulse conduction along
a single axon.
(E) Impusle transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that across a chemical
synapse.
(F) Electrical synapses are rare in our system

(1) six
(2) four
(3) five
(4) three

54) Which of the following statements is/are correct ? (i) During muscle contraction, isotropic band
gets elongated.
(ii) Acetylcholine is relased when the neural signal reaches the motor end plate.
(iii) Muscle contraction is initiated by the signal sent by CNS via a sensory neuron.
(iv) Repeated activation of muscle can lead to lactic acid accumulation.

(1) (i) and (iii) are correct.

(2) (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

55) Read the following statements carefully :-

(a) Cross-bridge formation
(b) Neurotransmitter released
(c) Action potential generated in sarcolemma
(d) Shortening of sarcomere
(e) Binding of calcium at Troponin C-site.
Arrange the following statements in a correct sequence of muscle contraction.

(1) c → b → e → a → d
(2) b → c → e → a → d
(3) c → b → a → e → d
(4) a → c → b → d → e

56)

When levels of estrogen is decrease than cause :

(1) Gout
(2) Osteroporosis
(3) Arthritis
(4) Myasthenia gravis

57) Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular of skeletal system.

(1) Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(2) Gout – inflammation of joints due the extra deposition of calcium
(3) Muscular dystrophy – Age related activation of muscles
(4) Osteoporosis – Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age.

58) Read the given statements and choose the option in which all statements are correct.
(A) Streaming of protoplasm in unicellular organisms is a simple form of movement.
(B) Some of movements result in a change of place or location such voluntary movements are called
locomotion
(C) Locomotory structures always need to be different from those affecting other types of
movements
(D) All movements are locomotion but all locomotions are not movements.

(1) B, C and D
(2) A, C and D
(3) A and B
(4) B and D

59) Muscles with characteristic striations and involuntary are

(1) Muscles of heart

(2) Muscles of Eyelids
(3) Muscles in the wall of alimentary canal.
(4) Muscles of Hand

60) (I) Number of mitochondria less.

(II) Number of mitochondria more
(III) Saracoplasmic reticulum is abundant
(IV) Myoglobin content high
(V) Sarcoplasmic reticulum moderate
(VI) Aerobic muscles
(VII) Depend on anaerobic respiration for energy
(VIII) Less myoglobin content
 (A) Red muscles (B) White muscles
Indentify above (I to VIII) traits as charactristic of A and B types of muscles -

(1) A - I, III, VII, VIII; B - II, IV, V, VI

(2) A - II, IV, V, VI; B - I, III, VII, VIII
(3) A - I, III, IV, VII; B - II, V, VI, VIII
(4) A - II, V, VI, VIII; B - I, III, IV, VII

61) The______is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour, emotional reaction and motivation.

(1) Cerebral cortex

(2) limbic system
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Corpus callosum

62) System that provides an organised network of point to point connection for quick coordination

(1) Neural system

(2) endocrine system
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Skeletal system

63) Why the potential across the axolemma became negative inside during resting?

(1) Due to efflux of Na+ and in flux of K+ actively

(2) Due to presence of negatively charged protein inside the cell
(3) Due to excess efflux of K+ passively
(4) All of these

64) Which of the following pair is not matched correctly.

(1) Multipolar neuron ⇒ Cerebral cortex

(2) Unipolar neuron ⇒ Nervous system of embryo
(3) Spinal and cranial nerves ⇒ Myelinated axons
(4) Somatic neural system ⇒ Schwann cells absent

65) Transmission of nerve impulse or action potential is not possible in those neurons which are :-

(1) Discontinuous myelinated with node of ranvier

(2) Continuous myelinated without node of ranvier
(3) Non myelinated axon/neuron
(4) Transmission is always possible

66) Fine and skill full voluntary movements is function of

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Pons

67) If we damage crura cerebri of mid brain which of the following function is effected ?

(1) Auditory Reflex

(2) Limb muscle control
(3) Cardiovascular reflex
(4) Visual reflex

68) Which part of human brain is concerned with the regulation of body temperature?

(1) Cerebellum
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Medulla Oblongata

69) Assertion : Cerebrum is the most developed part of brain which controls maximum functions of
body.
Reason : Surface of Cerebrum is highly folded so that more number of neurons can be present.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements

70) Assertion : At a chemical synapse, the pre-synaptic neuron transmits an impulse (action
potential) across the synaptic cleft to the post synaptic neuron.
Reason : Chemicals called neurotransmitter are involved in the transmission of impulse at these
synapses.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements

71) When a membrane is depolarized, the charge of the cells is :-

(1) Outside positive and inside negative

(2) Inside positive and outside negative
(3) Both sides have zero potential
(4) Both sides are electronegative

72) The binding of the neurotransmitter with the receptors opens ion channels allowing the entry of
ions which can generate a new potential in the.

(1) Pre-synaptic membrane

(2) Post-synaptic membrane
(3) Synaptic cleft
(4) Synaptic vesicles

73) Odd one out w.r.t. origin

(1) Astrocyte
(2) Microglial cells
(3) Oligodendrocytes
(4) Ependyma cells

74) If the Na+ - K+ pump stops working then the

(1) Na+ and K+ will be in excess in extracellular fluid

(2) Na+ will be in excess in extracellular fluid
(3) K+ will be excess in intracellular fluid
(4) Na+ will be in excess in intracellular fluid

75) Select the incorrect statement-

(1) Brain stem forms the connection between brain and spinal cord
(2) Cerebellum has very convoluted surface
(3) Pons contain fiber tracts that interconnect different regions of spinal cord
(4) Medulla contains centers which control respiration and gastric secretions.

76)
Identify letter in given figures :-

(1) x-parathyroid gland, a-adrenal gland

(2) y-PTH, b-Cortisol
(3) x-thyroid gland, b-thyroxine
(4) y-calcitonin, b-glucagon

77) Given match is related to functions of particular hormone. Find out the incorrect match :-
(A) Proteolysis – Cortisol
(B) Glycogenolysis – Nor Adrenaline
(C) Libido – Progesterone
(D) Critinism – Decrease level of thyroxine
(E) Gluconeogenesis – Glucagon
(F) Erythropoiesis – Thyrocalcitonin
(G) Development of somatic tissue – Growth hormone

(1) B, C and F are incorrect

(2) C, E and G are incorrect
(3) Only C & F are incorrect
(4) A, B, C, D are incorrect

78) Assertion (A) :- Diabetes insipidus is marked by excessive urination and too much thirst for
water.
Reason (R) :- Anti-diuretic hormone is released by posterior lobe of pitutary gland.

(1) Assertion & Reason both are correct and Reason is explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason both are correct but Reason is not a explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect.

79) A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low
intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of:

(1) Over secretion of pars distalis

(2) Deficiency of iodine in diet
(3) Low secretion of growth hormone
(4) Cancer of the thyroid gland

80)
Observe the following diagram and find out the correct option for (A) :-

(1) Androgen, FSH, LH

(2) Cortisol, Thyroxine, Androgen
(3) Oestrogen, Thyroxine, PTH
(4) Cortisol, ADH, Thyroxine

81) How many of these hormones help in increasing RBC count :-

Renin, erythropoietin, growth hormone, cortisol, thyroxine, testosterone, epinephrine.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five
82)

How many of these hormones are secreted from ectodermal endocrine glands?

Melatonin, ADH, oxytocin, calcitonin, iodothyronine, prolactin, somatotrophic hormone,relaxin

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Six

83) A : Oxytocin stimulates dilation of uterine muscles during birth and prevent ejection of milk.
R : It is synthesized in the posterior lobe of pituitary.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

84) Hormone that decrease calcium level in blood:-

(1) Thyroxine
(2) Parathormone
(3) Thyrocalcitonin
(4) Cortisol

85) Life saving hormone is secrete by :–

(1) Adrenal gland

(2) Pancreas
(3) Thyroid gland
(4) Pineal body

86) Question

Choose the correct option for labelling (A), (B), (C) & (D) respectively :-

(1) GnRH, Adenohypophysis, LH, FSH

(2) GnRH, Adenohypophysis, FSH, LH
(3) GnRH, Neurohypophysis, LH, FSH
(4) GnRH, Neurohypophysis, FSH, LH

87) Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following?

(1) Aldosterone
(2) Glucocorticoid
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Cortisol

88) Glucagon produced by alpha cells of islet of Langerhans which :-

(1) Converts glucose to glycogen

(2) Converts glycogen to glucose
(3) Decreases concentration of glucose in blood
(4) None of the above

89) Hypercalcemic hormone which also plays a role in phosphate metabolism is:

(1) Calcitonin
(2) Parathormone
(3) Renin
(4) Prolactin

90) Find out the property that is not true for hormones.

(1) Non-nutrient chemicals

(2) Intra cellular messengers
(3) transported by body fluids
(4) Produce in trace amounts
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 1 4 3 4 3 2 3 4 1 1 1 3 1 1 4 2 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 1 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 1 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 3 1 4 4 1 4 4 2 3 2 2 1 4 2 3 4 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 3 3 1 3 2 2 3 3 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 3 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 3 3 1 4 4 1 4 3 4 2 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 1 2 1 4 3 3 2 3 2 4 3 2 2 1 4 2 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 4 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 1 2 2 2 4 3 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 4 4 2 3 2 3 1 1 2 2 2 4 3 3 3 2 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 4 3 1 1 3 2 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) TA + TB = mg ...(1)
Torque about point A is zero

So, ...(2)
From equations (1) and (2),
TA = mg/3, TB = 2mg/3.

2)

Final velocity of truck is zero. So that

3)

conservation of angular momentum.

4)

I1 =

L = 2πR ⇒ R =

I2 =

5)
 Mass of the removed portion = M ×

Its M.I. I1 =

M.I. of the complete disc I2 =

M.I. of the remaining portion = I2 – I1 = MR2

6)

I1ω1 = I2ω2

ω2 = n2ω

7)

(Iω – mvR) = (I + mR2)ω' ω' =

8) F – f = ma .........(1)

F.R. – f(R) = .........(2)

a = αR .........(3)

F.R. + fR =

F+f= .........(4)
by (1) & (4)
F – f = ma

F+f=

2F =

9) Li = Lf
mvR = (IR + I)ω

mvR =

v=
 10) Moment of inertia about tangent :

Radius of Gyration :

11)

This can be assumed as a pure rotation about point of contact, say O, with angular velocity

, where R is the radius of hoop.

Speed of P will be,
νP = (OP)ω

or

or

12)

Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

KE of rotation =

13)
 (for solid sphere)
Hence option (1)

14) Acceleration of a rolling body on an inclined plane is given by :

here θ = 37° and (for solid sphere)

15) Apply energy conservation

Energy at surface = Energy at height

⇒ ⇒

16) If body is projected with velocity v (v < ve) then

height up to which it will rise, h =

v= (Given) ∴ h = = =

17)

KE = .

18)

⇒
⇒

19)

Δgh = Δgd ⇒ 2h = d

20) According to the problem, as the potential at ∞ increases by +10 J/kg, hence potential will
increase by the same amount everywhere (Potential gradient will remain constant). Hence,
potential at point P.
= –5 + 10 = +5J/kg

21) According to law of conservation of angular momentum mv1d1 = mv2d2

mv1d1 = mv2d2

22) Fg =

Fg =

=3

Fg =

23) Relative density of solid =

Relative density of liquid = .

24) Refer figure.

As the mercury columns in the two arms of U tube are at the same level, therefore

Pressure due to water = Pressure due to spirit column

ρwhwg = ρshsg

∴ Relative density of spirit

25) Applying Bernoulli's theorem to the lower and upper surface of a wing
or

⇒ [∵ lift = P1–P2]
or – 2500 = 2000/1.3
or, v2 = 63.55 m/s

26) Range is same for holes equal distance from top and bottom of tank.

27) Let A be area of soap bar.

PA – P0A = mg ⇒ (P–P0)A = mg
⇒ [300gx + 1000g (L–x) A = AL 800g

28) Here, W = 1.5 × 10–2 N,

ℓ = 30 cm = 30 × 10–2 m

A liquid film has two free surfaces. A slider will support the weight when the force of surface
tension action upwards on the slider (2Sℓ) balances the downward force due to weight (=W)

29) The height of water in the tank becomes maximum when the volume of water flowing into
the tank per second becomes equal to the volume flowing out per second.
Volume of water flowing out per second = Av
Volume of water flowing out per second = 80cm3/sec.
 ∴
⇒ 3×

1.1 cm

30)
If r is the minimum radius, then

Breaking stress =

or ⇒ r = 1 mm

31) TS = 3mg

32) Mass of liquid which rises in the capillary,

m = (πr2)
Clearly, if the radius is doubled, the mass is doubled.

33)

P1 = P + ρg . P2 = P + rgh
0 0

P1 =

0
P +

h = 20 m
34)

35) Viscosity and density are independent phenomenon and are not interrelated with each
other. Assertion is false but reason is a true statement.

36)

The situation is as shown in the figure.

For compartment containing water,

H = 4m, ρw = 103 kg m–3
Pressure exerted by the water at the door at the bottom is
Pw = ρhg = 103 kg m–3 × 4 m × 10ms–2
= 4 × 104 Nm–2
For compartment containing acid,
ρa = 1.5 × 103 kg m–3 , h = 4m
Pressure exerted by the acid at the door at the bottom is
Pa =
= 6 × 104 N m–2
∴ Net pressure on the door = Pa – Pw
= (6 × 104 – 4 × 104) Nm–2
= 2 × 104 Nm–2
Area of the door = 20cm2 = 20 × 10–4 m2
Force = Pressure × Area = 40 N
Thus, to keep the door closed the force of 40 N must be applied horizontally from the water
side.

37) The tension on heavier sphere is upwards and on lighter sphere is downwards

For lighter sphere W + T = Th

250 × 10–6 × 800g + T = 250 × 10–6 × ρL × g
For heavier sphere W = T + Th
250 × 10–6 × 1200 g = T + 250 × 10–6 ρLg
on solving T = 0.5 N

38) Density of the block

=
Buoyant force B = 3 × 10–4 × 103 × g = 3 N
∴ TB = 10 – 3 = 7 N
Reading of B = 14 + 3 = 17 N
Reading of C = [14 + (10 – 3) + 3] N = 24 N

39) Let density of body = ρb

For case-1 T = Wbody = Vρbg ..(1)
For case-2
T' = mg – Fup

= Vρbg –

= Vρbg Here ρℓ = ρw

T' = T

40) Stress same

(stress)1 = (stress)2
Y1α1ΔT = Y2α2ΔT

41) We know that, T = 2π

or
 ∴

42) γreal = γapp + γvessel

So, (γapp + γvessel)glass = (γapp + γvessel)steel
or 153 × 10–6 + (γvessel)glass = 144 × 10–6 + (γvessel)steel
Further, (γvessel)steel = 3α = 3 × (12 × 10–6)
= 36 × 10–6/°C
∴ 153 × 10–6 + (γvessel)glass = 144 × 10–6 + 36 × 10–6
∴ (γvessel)glass = 27 × 10–6/°C

or

43) Let the mass and length of a uniform rod be M and l, respectively. Moment of inertia of the
rod about its perpendicular bisector,

I=
Increase in length of the rod when temperature is increased by ΔT is given by
Δl = lαΔT .....(i)
∴ New moment of inertia of the rod,

I' =
As change in lenght Δl is very small, therefore neglecting (Δl)2, we get

I2 = =

=
∴ Increase in moment of inertia,
ΔI = I' – I =

=2×
ΔI = 2I α ΔT [Using Eq. (i)]

44)

45)

Circumference = 2πR
ΔR = Rαθ

CHEMISTRY
46)

47)

48)

Explain the Question : Find the oxidation state of nitrogen in the new compound formed
when N2H4 loses electrons.
Concept : This question is based on Oxidation state changes can be determined using the
number of electrons lost or gained per atom.
Solution :
1 mole of N2H4 loses 8 mole of e–;
1 mole of N loses 4 mole of e–;
Initial oxidation state of N in N2H4 = –2;
New oxidation state of N = –2 + 4 = +2
Final answer : 3

49)

Explaining the Question :- Balance the redox reaction between permanganate and oxalate
ions in acidic medium.
Concept:- This question is based on Balance oxidation and reduction separately and then
equalize electrons exchanged.
Solution :-
Half reactions:
• Reduction:
• Oxidation:
To balance electrons: multiply half by 2 and half by 5.

Final Answer :- 1

50) Question Explanation: To find equivalent weight of HNO3 in given reaction.

Concept: Equivalent weight in Redox reactions.
Solution: When HNO3 is converted to NH3, the o. state of N changes from +5 to –3.
HNO3
+ 1 + × + (–2) 3 = 0
x = + 5 ([Link] of N)
NH3
y+153=0
y = – 3 ([Link] of N)
So, v. factor HNO3 = 5 – (–3) = 8

equivalent weight =
Final Answer: Option (4)

51)

Given Data:
The balanced chemical equation is:
8Al + 3Fe3O4 → 4Al2O3 + 9Fe
Concept:

A. Redox Reaction: A reaction involving both oxidation (loss of electrons) and reduction
(gain of electrons).

B. Oxidation State: The charge an atom would have if all bonds were ionic.

C. Oxidant: The substance that accepts electrons and gets reduced.

D. Reductant: The substance that donates electrons and gets oxidized.

Mathematical Calculation:

A. Assign oxidation states:

A. In 8Al, the oxidation state of Al is 0.

B. In 3Fe3O4 , the oxidation state of O is -2. The oxidation state of Fe is found as

follows: 3(3x) + 4(-2) = 0 9x - 8 = 0 9x = +8 x = +8/3

C. In 4Al2O3 , the oxidation state of O is -2. The oxidation state of Al is: 2(2x) + 3(-2) =
0 4x - 6 = 0 4x = +6 x = +3

D. In 9Fe, the oxidation state of Fe is 0.

B. Identify oxidation and reduction:

A. Al is oxidized (0 to +3): Al → Al3+ + 3e–

B. Fe is reduced (+8/3 to 0). Each Fe atom gains 8/3 electrons.

 C. Calculate total electron transfer:

8 Al atoms each lose 3 electrons, so total electrons lost = 8 × 3 = 24 electrons.

In 3Fe3O4 , there are 9 Fe atoms. Each Fe atom gains 8/3 electrons, so total electrons gained =
9 × (8/3) = 24 electrons.

Final Answer:
The total number of electrons transferred from the reductant (Al) to the oxidant (Fe3O4 ) is 24.
Therefore, the correct option is (4).

52) Question Explanation: We need Kp for the equilibrium reaction at 900 K. At equilibrium,
the gaseous mixture has 45% H₂ by volume, so mole fractions are directly used. Solids and
liquids are not included in Kp.
Concept: Volume % = mole fraction for gases, Equilibrium constant (Kp)
Solution:
Kp expression depends only on gaseous species.
For the reaction: SnO₂(s) + 2H₂(g) ⇌ 2H₂O(g) + Sn(l)

Mole fraction of H₂ = 0.45

Mole fraction of H₂O = 0.55

So,

= (0.55 / 0.45)²
= (11 / 9)²
= 1.49
Final Answer: Option (1)

53)

Question Explanation :
We are asked which change will increase the amount of ClF₃ at equilibrium for the exothermic
reaction:
Cl₂(g) + 3F₂(g) ⇌ 2ClF₃(g), ΔH = –329 kJ
Concept : Le Chatelier’s Principle — predict the direction of shift in equilibrium due to
changes in concentration, pressure (volume), or temperature.
Solution :
Let’s analyze each option:

A. Removing Cl₂
→ Decreases reactant concentration ⇒ shifts left
B. Increasing temperature
→ Exothermic reaction (ΔH < 0), so adding heat favors reverse direction
C. Adding inert gas at constant volume
 → No change in partial pressures ⇒ no effect on equilibrium
D. Decreasing volume of the container
→ Increases pressure
→ Gas moles: Left = 1 (Cl₂) + 3 (F₂) = 4 mol
Right = 2 (ClF₃) = 2 mol
→ Equilibrium shifts toward fewer moles, i.e., to the right
→ More ClF₃ will form

Final Answer : Option (4)

54) At equilibrium 2(1 - x) 2x x

Amount of moles at equilibrium = 2(1 - x) + 2x + x = 2 + x

55) For endothermic; ΔH > 0 so, Slope is negative.

56) [Ba2+] × [OH–]2 = Ksp

[Ba2+] × [10–4]2 = 10–9
[Ba2+] = 10–1

57) h = so it is independent of concentration.

58) M(OH)2 M2+ + 2OH–

S 2S
4S3 = 4 × 10–12
S = 10–4

59)
This is acidic buffer solution.

60) Explain the Question : Determine which 0.1 M aqueous solution exhibits the minimum
pH (most acidic).
Concept : This question is based on hydrolysis of salt. Salts formed from a strong acid and
weak base are acidic (pH < 7).
Solution :
1. Ba(OH)2 : Strong base. Produces high [OH–]
2. BaCl2 : Salt of strong acid/strong base. Neutral (pH ≈ 7).
3. Ba(NO3)2 : Salt of strong acid/strong base. Neutral (pH ≈ 7).
4. BeCl2 : Salt of strong acid (HCl) and weak base (Be(OH)2). The small, highly charged
Be2+ undergoes hydrolysis:
Be2+(aq) + 2H2O(l) ⇌ Be(OH)2(aq) + 2H+ (aq)
The resulting H+ ions make the solution acidic (pH < 7)
As BeCl2 is the only acidic solution, it shows the minimum pH.
Final Answer : 4

+ –
61) On increasing temperature ∝ increases, (H ) & (OH ) both increases hence pH↓

62) are functional group isomer of methyl acetate.

Because both compounds having same molecular formula but different

structural formula due to different functional group.

63) (a) and (b) are not isomer because they have different molecular formula. Molecular
formula of (a) is C8H18 & mol for. of (b) is C8H16.

64) C2H5–NH–C2H5
Diethylamine
2° amine

2-Butanamine
1° amine

65)
 Locant position (3, 4, 5) & (2, 4, 5) differ along same parent chain.

66)

67) and both have same formula and contain amine group but
the amine group is surrounded by different alkyl group, so they exhibit metamerism.

68) Chain Isomer of alkane

(1) (2)

70) Question Explanation:

Determine the hybridization of the specified carbon atoms in the given molecule.

Concept:
Hybridization of carbon atoms depends on the number of σ (sigma) bonds formed by the
carbon atom:

A. sp2 → 3 σ bonds

B. sp → 2 σ bonds

Solution:

Consider the structure O=CH–C≡N:

A. C1 (aldehyde carbonyl carbon):

This carbon forms three σ bonds (one with oxygen and two with neighboring atoms).
Hence, it is sp2 hybridized.

B. C2 (nitrile carbon):
This carbon forms two σ bonds (one with the adjacent carbon and one within the C≡N
triple bond).
Hence, it is sp hybridized.
Final Answer: Option (4)

71)

Question Explanation:
The question asks to correctly match each given compound with its number of σ (sigma) and π
(pi) bonds.

Concept :
This question is based on Sigma and Pi Bonds, Aromatic Heterocycles, Bond Counting in
Organic Molecules

Solution:

(1) Furan (C4H4O):

Five-membered ring with two C=C double bonds.
σ bonds: 5 (ring) + 4 (C–H) = 9
π bonds: 2
→ Matches (b) σ = 9; π = 2

(2) Pyridine (C5H5N):

Six-membered aromatic ring with three π bonds.

σ bonds: 6 (ring) + 5 (C–H) = 11
π bonds: 3
→ Matches (c) σ = 11; π = 3

(3) Urea (NH2–CO–NH2):

One C=O double bond, two C–N single bonds, four N–H bonds.
σ bonds: 1 (C=O) + 2 (C–N) + 4 (N–H) = 7
π bonds: 1
→ Matches (a) σ = 7; π = 1
Final Answer: Option (3)

72)

73)

74) If valency free on tertiary carbon than radical

tertiary radical tertiary radical

75)

KMnO4 + Cu2 S → Mn+2 + Cu+2 + SO2

(+7) (+1) (–2) (+2) (+2) (+4)
equivalents of oxidant = equivalents of reductant
∴ n × 5 = 1 × (2 × 1 + 6)
or n = 8/5 = 1.6 mol

76) Ba(H2PO2)2
Ba+2(H2PO2)–2 ⇒ 2(2 +x – 4) = –2
⇒ x = +1

77) By option – A3(BC4)2 total oxidation no of compound is zero

⇒ 3(2) + 2(+5) + 4(–2)
⇒ 6 + 2(5 – 8) ⇒ 0

78) Caro's acid = H2SO5

= Peroxomono-sulphuric acid
Marshell's acid = H2S2O8
= Peroxodi-sulphuric acid
The oxidation state in both the acids is +6 each because oxidation state cannot be greater than
the number of valuence electrons.

79) 6I2 + 12OH– → 10I– + 2IO3– + 6H2O

no. of electrons involved = 10
n-factor of I2 =
(I2 → ) n1 = 10
I2 → I–
n2 = 2

80) N2O4 2NO2

1 0
1–x 2x = 1 + x
= 1 – α 2α = 1 + α

kp =

kp =
Kp – Kp α2 = 4k2.p
α2 (4p + kp) = Kp

α=

81) CH3COOH(ℓ) + C2H5OH(ℓ) CH3COOC2H5(ℓ) + H2OCl

t=0 1 1 0 0
t = equation (1-x) (1-x) x x
x = 0.331

82)

2NOBr 2NO + Br2

=
83)

High temperature and high pressure

84)
The amount of H2O decomposes is

2 moles of H2O produces 1 mole of O2

0.002 mole of H2O produce 0.001 mole O2

85) pOH = 10 ; [OH–] = 10–10 M

Number of OH– ion = 10–10 mole
= 10–10 × 6.02 × 1023
= 6.02 × 1013

86) Aqueous solution of a salt which is obtained from strong acid and strong base is neutral.
Hence HA is strong acid in among other acids.

87)

For anionic hydrolysis

pH = (pKw + pKa + logC)

88) Ca(NO3)2 → Ca+2 +

0.1 2 × 0.1
CaF2 → Ca+2 + 2FΘ
(S + 0.1) 2S

[FΘ] = 2S S = [F ]

89) Asking about : Degree of Dissociation of Acid

Concept : (for weak Acid)

Solution/Explanation:
Given Data → Ka = 1 × 10–5
mole of Acid = 0.1

Concentration =
Volume = 1 L

Calculation :
 Concentration of Acid (C) = = 0.1

= 1 × 10–2
∝ = 0.01 or 1%
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

90)

Option (2) is correct

BIOLOGY

91)

Option (2) is correct

92) NCERT Pg.# 206,207

93) Module-06, Pg # 66

94)

Option (3) is correct

95)

Option (1) is correct

96) NCERT Pg # 208-209

97)

Option (4) is correct

98)

Option (1) is correct

99)

Option (4) is correct

100)

Option (3) is correct

101)

Explain Question: The question is asking to analyze the Assertion-Reason pair and determine
their truth and whether the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Concept: C4 plants and location of Photosystem.

Solution:

Assertion (A): “Chloroplasts of bundle sheath cells in C4 plants are granal” → False, because
bundle sheath chloroplasts are agranal, specialized for the Calvin cycle.

Reason (R): “PS II mostly found in appressed part of granum” → False in this context, because
PS II is absent in bundle sheath cells of C4 plants.

Final answer: Option 4

102)

Option (2) is correct

103)

Option (3) is correct

104) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 146

105) 11_233_2021-22

106) 11_231_2021-22

107) Explain Question:

The question asks that when does law of limiting factor applied.

Concept:
Factors affecting photosynthesis.

Solution:
Law of limiting factor comes in effect if more than one factors are affecting the process.
So, the correct answer is: 2.

Final answer: Option (2)

108)

NCERT-XI (E), Pg. # 216, 217, 218, 219

109) NCERT Pg. No. 150

110) NCERT Pg # 134

111)

Explain Question – The question is asking how many statements correctly describe the graph
showing photosynthesis rate versus light intensity.

Concept – Based on light saturation and intensity of light.

Solution – Only statement D is correct; In segment 'C' of the curve light intensity is not a
limiting factor.

Final answer – Option 4.

112)

Option (1) is correct

113)

NCERT XI Pg.# 144

114)

Option (2) is correct

115)

Option (1) is correct

116)

Option (4) is correct

117) NCERT-XI [Link]. 75

118)

Option (3) is correct

 119) NCERT-XI [Link]. 74

120)

Option (3) is correct

121)

Explain Question: The question is asking which of the given fruit–structure pairs are
correctly matched.

Concept: Types of Fruits : Drupe fruits

Solution:

(A) Mango – Fleshy mesocarp

Correct. Mango is a drupe type of fruit(hard and stony endocarp). Its mesocarp is fleshy and
edible.

(B) Coconut – Drupe

Correct. Coconut is also a drupe type of fruit(hard and stony endocarp), though it appears
different from mango.

(C) Mango – Stony endocarp

Correct . The hard “stone” surrounding the seed in mango is the stony endocarp.

(D) Coconut – Fibrous mesocarp

Correct. The husk of coconut is the fibrous mesocarp.

(E) Coconut – Edible endocarp

Incorrect. In coconut, the endocarp is hard and woody, not edible. The edible white part is
the endosperm, not the endocarp.

Final answer: Option 2

122)
Explanation Answer:

A. Glumes are the basal bracts of a grass spikelet, protecting the developing flowers.

B. Lodicules are small, fleshy structures in grass flowers that help in their opening by
swelling.

These structures are characteristic of Poaceae (Gramineae), the grass family, which includes wheat,
rice, maize, and barley.
Final Answer: (4)

123)
Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question describes specific botanical characteristics of a plant and
asks to identify which plant among Tulip, Lupin, Chinarose, and Cucumber matches these
traits.

Underlying Concept: The problem is based on plant morphology and taxonomy, focusing on
characteristics such as phyllotaxy (leaf arrangement), stipules, flower structure including calyx
and epicalyx, types of aestivation (arrangement of sepals/petals in a bud), stamen arrangement
(monoadelphous condition), and gynoecium structure (carpels and stigma). These features
help classify and identify different plant species.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Chinarose (Hibiscus rosa-sinensis) typically exhibits
monoadelphous stamens forming a tubular structure and has free lateral stipules and epicalyx.
This helps differentiate it from the other options.

Common Mistakes: Confusing aestivation types or ignoring stipule and epicalyx features may
lead to incorrect identification. Also, mixing up plants with similar floral structures can cause
errors.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Tulip and Lupin do not have the combination of free
lateral stipules and monoadelphous stamens with epicalyx. Cucumber has alternate phyllotaxy
but lacks the described floral details, such as fused sepals and epicalyx, typical of Chinarose.

124)

Option (2) is correct

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg#90-93

126) Ncert Page 89.

127)

Explain Question : The question asks to evaluate the correctness of two statements related
to the endodermis of dicot stem and identify the correct option.

Concept : Anatomy of Flowering Plants: :Anatomy of Stem

Solution : in a dicot stem, the endodermis is called the starch sheath because its cells are rich
in starch grains. Hence, Statement-I is true. Since the presence of abundant starch grains is
the reason why the endodermis is termed starch sheath, Statement-II is also true and correctly
explains Statement-I.

Final answer : 4
128)

Option (2) is correct

129)

Option (3) is correct

130)

Option (1) is correct

131)

Option (4) is correct

132)

Option (4) is correct

133) XI NCERT Page no 73

134)

Explain Question:

Question asking about semi-technical description of androecium found in mustard plants.

Concept: This question is based on Brassicaceae family.

Solution:
A 2 + 4 indicates :-

A-Androecium ,Stamens 6, arranged in two whorls - In which two outer stamens are

small and inner four stamens are long. This condition is known as tetradynamous.

Final answer: 2

135)

Option (4) is correct

136)

NCERT 11th Pg#221

137)

NCERT 11th Pg#221

138)

NCERT 11th Pg#227

139) NCERT 11th Pg. # 226

140)

Option (2) is correct

141) NCERT XIth Pg # 310

142) NCERT Pg No. 224

143) Pg. No. 234 XI-NCERT

144) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 307

145) NCERT Pg No. 222, 223

146)

Option (2) is correct

147)

Explain the Question : The question asks to select the correct statement related to a specific
disorder of the muscular or skeletal system.
Concept : This question is based on disorders of muscular and skeletal system.
Solution :
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder affecting the neuromuscular junction, not
inhibiting sliding of myosin
filaments.
Gout is caused by deposition of uric acid crystals, not calcium.
Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder causing progressive muscle degeneration, not age-
related activation of
muscles.
Osteoporosis involves a decrease in bone mass, leading to weak bones and increased chances
of fractures with
advancing age.
Final answer : 4
148) Explain question:
The question is asking to identify which statements about types of movement and locomotion
are correct.

Concept:
Movement and locomotion in organisms

Solution:
Statement (A) is correct: Steaming of protoplasm is a simple form of movement.
Statement (B) is correct: Voluntary movements that result in change of location are called
locomotion.
Statement (C) is incorrect: Locomotion structures may overlap with other movement
structures; they are not always different.
Statement (D) is incorrect: All locomotion are movements, but not all movements are
locomotion.

Final answer: option (3)

149)

Question Explanation: Which muscles show striations but are involuntary in nature?

Concept: The question is based on the types of muscles.

Solution: The correct answer is option 1 because cardiac muscles have characteristic
striations like skeletal muscles but their activity is involuntary.

Final answer: Option 1

150)

Option (2) is correct

151) NCERT, Pg. # 236

152)

Option (1) is correct

153)

NCERT 11th Pg#233

154)

Option (4) is correct

155)

Option (2) is correct

156)

Option (3) is correct

157)

NCERT 11th Pg#236

158)

Option (3) is correct

159)

NCERT 11th Pg#236

160)

Option (1) is correct

161)

Option (2) is correct

162)

Option (2) is correct

163)

Option (2) is correct

164)

Option (4) is correct

165) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 321

166)

Explain Question:
The question asks to identify the labelled structures in the figure.

Concept:
Endocrine glands and their hormones

Solution:
• x = Thyroid gland – SECRETE THYROCALCITONIN (y) – increase calcium in bone
• a = Thyroid gland – secrete b = Thyroxine – its deficiency causes stunted growth of body

Final answer: Option (3)

167) NCERT Page # 333, 335, 336

168)

Option (2) is correct

169)

NCERT_XI_Pg.No: 242, 243

170)

Option (2) is correct

171) Erythropoietin, Growth hormone, thyroxine and cortisol help in increasing RBC count.

172)

Option (2) is correct

173)

Option (4) is correct

174)

Option (3) is correct

175) Module, Pg. # 91

177)

NCERT, Pg. # 333

178)

Option (2) is correct

179)

Option (2) is correct

180)

Option (2) is correct