Easy to Learn….

NEET DIVISION

BIOLOGY
Class – XII

Module-11

Medium: English

CONTENTS

Chapter No. Topic Page No.

1. Organisms and Populations 1-40

2. Ecosystem 41-76

3. Biodiversity & Conservation 77-110

BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

Chapter

Organisms and Populations 01

INTRODUCTION
CONTENT
➢ Ecology is a subject which studies the interaction among
• Introduction organisms, between the organisms and its physical (abiotic)
• Some ecological terminology environment.
• Organism and its ➢ Ecology is basically concerned with four levels of biological
environment
organization-organisms, populations, communities and biomes.
• Populations
➢ The term ecology was coined and described by [Link]. The
• Characteristics of term ecology was first authentically used by Reiter.
population
• Father of ecology – Alexender Von Humboldt
• Population interactions/
ecological interactions • Father of Modern ecology – E.P. Odum
• Father of Indian Ecology – Prof. Ramdeo Mishra

SOME ECOLOGICAL TERMINOLOGY

Biosphere

Biome

Ecosystem

Community

Population

Organism (individual)

Ecological hierarchy
➢ Organism: Basic unit of study of ecology.
➢ Species: Similar organisms having the potential to interbreed and producing fertile offspring.
➢ Population: Group of individuals of same species inhabiting a given area at a given time.
➢ Community: Assemblage of different populations of different species in an area, interacting with
each other.
➢ Ecosystem: Biological communities integrated with its physical (abiotic) environment through the
exchange of energy and recycling of nutrients.
➢ Biome: Large regional unit or ecosystem characterised by major vegetation type (flora) and
associated fauna in a specific climatic zone.
Page | 1
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

Practice Section-01
Q.1 The prickly pear Cactus introduced into Australia in the early 1920’s caused havoc by spreading
rapidly into millions of hectares of rangeland. It was controlled by a cactus feeding…..
(1) Moth (2) Butterfly (3) Bird (4) Goat

Q.2 Which of the following is an example of Mutualism

(1) Pollinator insects and flowering plants (2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Lichen (4) All of these

Q.3 Interspecific interactions can be

(1) Beneficial (2) Detrimental (3) Neutral (4) All of these

Q.4 The number of individuals of the same species that have come into the habitat from elsewhere during
the time period under consideration is known as
(1) Immigration (2) Emigration (3) Influx (4) Efflux

Q.5 If in a pond there were 40 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 8 new plants are added,
taking the current population to 48, calculate the birth rate
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.8 (4) None of these

Q.6 Observe the age pyramids given in the diagram and mark the option with correct labelling

Post-reproductive
Reproductive
Pre- reproductive

(1) A-expanding, B-stable, C-declining (2) A-stable, B-expanding, C-declining

(3) A-expanding, B-declining, C-stable (4) A-declining, B-stable, C-expanding

Q.7 In nature, a given habitat has enough resources to support a maximum possible number, beyond
which no further growth is possible, this is known as
(1) Reproductive potential (2) Carrying capacity
(3) Growth potential (4) Carrying potential
Page | 17
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS
Q.8 Which organism breeds only once in their lifetime?
(1) Pacific salmon fish (2) Bamboo
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) None of these

Q.9 Darwinian fitness is fitness pertaining to

(1) Evolution (2) Adaption
(3) Reproduction (4) Competition

Q.10 The relationship of cuckoo crow represents

(1) Commensalism (2) Brood parasitism
(3) Mutualism (4) Competition

Page | 18
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS

INTRODUCTION, CHARACTERISTICS OF Q.5 A population growing in a habitat with
POPULATION limited resources show the phases in
Q.1 Ecology takes into account: following pattern
(1) Environmental factors only (1) lag phase → phase of deceleration →
(2) Plant adaptations only
phases of acceleration → asymptote
(3) Effect of plants on environment
(2) lag phase →phases of acceleration →
(4) Relationships between organisms and
phase of deceleration → asymptote
their environment
(3) lag phase → phases of accleration
Q.2 What is true about population?
asymptote → phase of deceleration
i. Live in a well-defined geographical area
ii. Share similar resources (4) phases of acceleration → lag phase →

iii. Compete for similar resources phase of deceleration → asymptote

iv. Potentially interbreed
Q.6 Complete the following equation by putting
(1) i, ii, and iv
one of the following option respectively. For
(2) ii, iii and iv
constant size population : Birth + ..... = Death
(3) i, ii and iv
+ ........
(4) all the above
(1) Emigration, immigration,
Q.3 Father of Indian ecology is :
(2) Immigration, emigration
(1) Prof. R Mishra (2) G.S. Puri
(3) Emigration, population density
(3) S.C. Pandeys (4) E. Haeckel
(4) Immigration, population density
Q.4 Select the wrong pair. Q.7 Which of the following set of value would
(1) Barnacles on back of whale - Parasitism result in a population with a grwoth rate of
(2) Ticks on dogs - Ectoparasitism zero ?
(3) Competition – Abingdon tortoise and b = birth d = death
goat at Galapagos island i = immigration e = emigration
(4) Resources partitioning – Co-existence of (1) b = 1000 d = 500 i = 750 e = 1000
five species of warblers birds on same (2) b = 1000 d = 500 i = 1000 e = 1000

tree due to behavioural differences in (3) b = 1000 d = 500 i = 1500 e = 1000

(4) b = 1000 d = 500 i = 500 e = 1000
their foraging activities.
Page | 19
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS
Q.8 Which of the following statement is correct? Q.14 The carrying capacity of a population mean:
(1) Two species within given community (1) The rate at which the density of
can have exactly the same niche. individual increase over time
(2) Two species within given community
(2) The maximum number of individual
cannot have exactly the same niche
which can be supported in a given
(3) Two species can live permanently together
environment
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) The proportion of individual which are
Q.9 Crow also incubates the eggs of :
most responsible for population growth
(1) Pigeon (2) Dove
(4) The minimum number of individual
(3) Koel (4) Weaver bird
necessary to avoid extinction
Q.10 The population of a place tends to increase
when :
Q.15 The actual rate of growth of population is the
(1) Predation increases
difference between the :
(2) Emigration occur
(3) Immigration occur (1) Number of adult and number of new born
(4) Reproductivity decrease (2) Size last year minus death rate
(3) Number of breeding and non-breeding
Q.11 Two different species can not live for long
duration in the same niche or habitat. This individual
law is called : (4) Birth rate & Death rate
(1) Allen's law (2) Gause's law
(3) Jorden's law (4) Weisman's theory Q.16 Which equation shows logistic growth ?
Q.12 Which of the following are characteristic (1) dN/dt = rN  K − N 
 K 
feature of population ?
(1) Birth rate (2) Death rate (2) dN/dt = rN
(3) Sex ratio (4) All of the above (3) dN/dt = rN(1+N/K)
(4) Nt = N0ert
Q.13 Biotic potential refers to :
(1) Increase of population under optimum
conditions Q.17 The number of individual in reproductive
(2) Increase of population under given age is more than pre reproductive phase in :
conditions (1) Declining population
(3) Increase of population under natural (2) Stable population
conditions
(3) Expanding population
(4) Increase of population under stress
(4) None
conditions

Page | 20
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.18 Which equation shows exponential growth? (i) ‘a’ labelling represents exponential
(1) dN/dt = – rN (2) dN/dt = rN growth in unicellular organisms when
(3) dN/dt = rN K − N  (4) dN/dt = rN K + N  resources are unlimited with favourable
 K   K 
environmental conditions.
Q.19 J-shaped curve is formed in : (ii) dN / dt = rN  K − N  represents logistic
(1) Logistic growth (2) Exponential growth  K 

(3) Limited growth (4) 2 & 3 Both growth.

(iii)At asymptote, the value of K < N for ‘b’.
Q.20 S-shaped growth curve is obtained in :
(iv) ‘a’ labelling can also show by Nt = N0 ert
(1) Logistic growth (2) Exponential growth
How many above statements are correct ?
(3) Limited growth (4) 1 & 2 Both
(1) i, ii, iii (2) ii, iii, iv
Q.21 Which of the following counteracts biotic
(3) i, iii, iv (4) i, ii, iv
potential ?
(1) Limitation of food supply Q.25 Ability of an environment to support a
(2) Predation population is called its :
(3) Competition (1) Biotic potential
(4) All of the above (2) Purifying capacity
Q.22 Proportion of young individuals is highest in: (3) Carrying capacity
(1) Declining population (4) Environmental resistance
(2) Stable population
(3) 1 & 2 Both Q.26 The equation for J-shaped population
(4) Expanding population growth curve :

Q.23 When a population reaches up to carrying dN

(1) = rN
capacity of environment than ? dt
(1) Mortality rate = Birth rate dN K–N
(2) = rN  
dt  K 
(2) Mortality rate > Birth rate
(3) Mortality rate < Birth rate (3) Nt = N0 + (B + I) – (D – E)
(4) None of the above (4) none of the above

Q.24 Q.27 In the equation for S-shaped population

growth, dN = rN K − N  , r represents :
dt  K 

(1) Carrying capacity

(2) Environmental resistance
(3) Intrinsic growth rate
On the basis of above graph, given below the
following statements (4) Population size

Page | 21
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS
Q.28 Which is not true for J-shaped growth curve? Q.33 Study the age pyramid shown below and
(1) Exponential phase is prolonged choose the correct option:
(2) Population never grows beyond carrying
capacity
(3) Population crash occur
(4) Population seldom reaches equilibrium A B C
Q.29 The exponential increase in insect populations (1) Triangular Urn-shaped Bell-shaped
during rains is finally controlled by : pyramid pyramid pyramid
(2) Expanding Pyramid Bell-shaped
(1) Environmental stress
population showing pyramid
(2) Reproductive potential
negative growth
(3) Growth rate
(3) Expanding Bell-shaped Pyramid
(4) Carrying capacity
population pyramid showing
Q.30 Which statement is not related to S-shaped negative
populations curve ? growth
(1) Environmental resistance suddenly (4) Bell shaped Triangular Urn-shaped
pyramid pyramid pyramid and
become effective
clown fish
(2) Exponential phase is followed by decline
phase Q.34 If there are 50 Drosophila in a laboratory and
(3) Mass mortality and population crash occurs 3 of these died in a week, then the per capita
(4) Both (1) & (3) death is :
(1) 0.06 individuals per Drosophila per week
Q.31 The periodic departure and return is known (2) 0.04 individuals per Drosophila per week
as: (3) 0.05 individuals per Drosophila per week
(1) Migration (2) Immigration (4) 0.03 individuals per Drosophila per week
(3) Emigration (4) Mutation
Q.35 Carrying capacity is :
Q.32 A population of rabbits has an annual per (1) The term used to describe the stress a
capita birth rate of 0.06 and annual per capita population undergoes due to limited
death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of resources
the number of individuals added (net) to a (2) Always unlimited
(3) The maximum population size that a
population of 1,000 individuals in one year:
particular environment can support
(1) 400 individuals added
(4) Seldom reached by marine producers
(2) 20 individuals added
and consumers because of the vast
(3) 40 individuals added
resources of ocean
(4) 120 individuals added
Page | 22
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.36 Which of the following is correct? Q.40 The population at time (t + 1) can be
(1) Logistic growth model is more realistic
calculated as: N t + 1 =N t +[(X+Y)-(W+Z)]
than exponential growth model
In the above equation :
(2) R-selected species have low fecundity,
large body size and late maturity (1) X IS immigration and Z is mortality
(3) K-selected species have high fecundity, (2) X is immigration and Z is natality
small body size and early maturity (3) Y is immigration and W is natality
(4) Altruistic behaviour is common in dogs (4) Y is emigration and W is mortality

Q.37 During exponential growth, a population

always: POPULATION INTERACTIONS
(1) Loses some individuals to emigration Q.41 In commensalism:
(2) Cycles through time (1) Both partners are harmed
(3) Grows at its maximum per capita rate (2) Both partners are benefited
(4) Quickly reaches and stay at its carrying
(3) None of the partners benefited
capacity
(4) One partner is benefited, other is
Q.38 Which of the following has a negative effect
unaffected
on the population growth rate?
(1) Immigration
(2) Emigration Q.42 Match the Column I and Column II
(3) Emigration and mortality Column-I Column-II
(4) Immigration and natality (a) Commensalism (i) Relationship of Fig

Q.39 Identify A, B, C and D : and Wasp

(b) Predation (ii) Relationship of
Balanus barnacle &
Chathamalus
(c) Competition (iii) Animal eating
plants
(d) Mutualism (iv) Relationship of sea
(1) A = Imigration, B = Emigration,
anemone and clown
C = Natality, D = Mortality
(2) A = Mortality, B = Natality, fish
C = Emigration, D = Immigration (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) A = Emigration, B = Immigration, (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
C = Natality, D = Mortality (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(4) A = Immigration, B = Natality,
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
C = Mortality, D = Emigration
Page | 23
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS
Q.43 When one organism inhibits another Q.48 Which of the following is a case of
organism without a significant gain (OR) mutualism?
Antagonism between two organism through (1) Lichen (2) Mycorrhiza
gases or allochemicals is called ? (3) Fig and wasp (4) All of these
(1) Parasitism (2) Mutalism
Q.49 Read the following statements:
(3) Amensalism (4) Commensalism
(i) Cattles do not browse Calotropis as these
Q.44 Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association plants produce highly poisonous cardiac
between: glycosides
(1) Fungi and roots of higher plants (ii) Totally unrelated species can compete
(2) Algae and roots of gymnosperms for the same resource
(3) Algae and bryophytes (iii)Resources need not always be limiting
(4) Algae and fungi for competition to occur
(iv) In 'Interference competition', the feeding
Q.45 Which of the following interaction is not a
efficiency of one species might be
positive interaction ?
reduced due to the interfering and
(1) Flower and pollinator
inhibitory presence of the other species
(2) Plant & herbivore
(v) Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands
(3) Legume plant and N2 fixing organism
became extinct within a decade after
(4) Lichen
goats were introduced, apparently due to
Q.46 Which of the following is not an example of the greater browsing efficiency of goats
predation ? How many of the above statements are
(1) Browsing by goats correct?
(2) Killing of deer by lion (1) Four (2) Five (3) Two (4) Three
(3) Killing of small fish by shark
Q.50 If a population of 50 Paramecium present in
(4) Ticks on dogs
a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what
Q.47 What interaction exist between a bee and a would be the growth rate of population?
flower? (1) 50 per hour (2) 200 per hour
(1) +/– (2) +/+ (3) –/– (4) +/ 0 (3) 5 per hour (4) 100 per hour

Page | 24
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

RANKER'S STUFF
Q.1 Basic unit of ecological study is : Q.6 Select incorrect statement about predators :
(1) Organism (2) Species (1) Predators are prudent in nature
(3) Population (4) Ecosystem (2) Predators are responsible for their prey
species extinction.
Q.2 Which one of the following is a matching
(3) Predators maintains species diversity of
pair of certain organism (s) and the kind of
their prey species.
association?
(4) Predators regulates relative abundance
(1) Shark and sucker fish- mutualism
of their prey species.
(2) Algae and fungi in lichens-mutualism
(3) Orchids growing on trees-parasitism Q.7 Match the list-I with list-II and select correct
(4) Cuscuta (dodder) growing on other answer :

flowering plants-epiphytism List-I List-II

(A) Seeds and Birds (I) Amensalism
Q.3 What will happen if the number of
Copepods and
organisms of a population increased at a (B) (II) Commensalism
Fishes
place ?
Parthenium and
(1) Inter specific competition (C) (III) Predation
Other plants
(2) Intra specific competition
Barnacles on
(3) Both (1) and (2) (D) (IV) Parasitism
whale
(4) None of the above
(1) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
Q.4 In a population, unrestricted reproductive (2) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
capacity is called as : (3) A– III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(1) Biotic potential (2) Fertility (4) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(3) Carrying capacity (4) Birth rate
Q.8 Key stone species of community:
Q.5 Lichens are well known combination of an
(1) Regulate species diversity of community
algae and a fungus where fungus has :
(2) Regulates relative abundance of species
(1) An epiphytic relationship with the alga in community
(2) A parasitic relationship with the alga (3) Connects the two individuals of different
(3) A symbiotic relationship with the alga species
(4) A saprophytic relationship with the alga (4) Are always predators

Page | 25
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS
Q.9 Which of the following is not true for a Q.13 Which one of the following is most
species? appropriately defined

(1) Members of a species can interbreed (1) Amensalism is a relationship in which

one species is benefited where as the
(2) Gene flow does not occur between the
other is unaffected
populations of a species
(2) Predator is an organism that catches and
(3) Each species is reproductively isolated kills other organism for food.
from every other species (3) Parasite is an organism which always
(4) Variations occur among members of a lives inside the body of other organism
species and may kill it.
(4) Predator is an organism which always
provides food to another organism.
Q.10 Niche overlap indicates :
(1) Sharing of one or more resources Q.14 Consider the following statements (A)-(D)
between the two species each with one or two blanks :
(A) Bears go into ____(i)____ during winter
(2) Mutualism between two species
to ____(ii)____ cold weather.
(3) Active cooperation between two species
(B) A conical age pyramid with a broad base
(4) Two different parasites on the same host
represents ____(iii)____ human
population.
Q.11 A high density of elephant population in an (C) A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an
area can result in : example of ___(iv)____.
(1) Prediation on one another (D) An area with high levels of species
richness is known as _____(v)___.
(2) Mutualism
Which of the following options, gives the
(3) Intra specific competition
correct fill ups for the respective blank
(4) Inter specific competition
numbers from (i) to (v) in the statements?
(1) (i) - hibernation, (ii) - expanding,
Q.12 Geometric representation of age structure is (iii) - mutualism, (v) - hot spot
a characteristic of : (2) (iii) - stable, (iv) - commensalism,
(1) Ecosystem (v) - marsh
(3) (i) - aestivation, (ii) - escape,
(2) Biotic community
(iii) - stable, (iv) - mutualism
(3) Population
(4) (iii) - expanding, (iv) - commensalism,
(4) Landscape
(v) - biodiversity park

Page | 26
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.15 Which one of the following is categorised as Q.18 Browsing by animals is an example of :
a parasite in true sense (1) Parasitism (2) Predation
(1) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s (3) Commensalism (4) Ferns
nest Q.19 Different type of interactions and the nature
(2) The female anopheles bites and sucks of interactions between species A & B are
blood from humans given in column I and II respectively:
(3) Human foetus developing inside the Choose the correct options:
uterus draws nourishment from the Column I Column II
mother I. Mutualism P. Beneficial to A, no
(4) Head louse living on the human scalp as effect for B
well as laying eggs on human hair II. Competition Q. Beneficial to both A
&B
Q.16 What type of human population is III. Parasitism R. Beneficial to A &
represented by the following age pyramid ? inhibitory for B
IV. Predation S. Benficial to A &
harmful to B
V. Commensalism T. Harmful to A & B
(1) I – Q , II – T , III – S, IV – R , V – P
(2) I – P , II – Q , III – S, IV – R , V – T
(3) I – Q , II – R , III – T, IV – S , V – P
(4) I – R , II – T , III – S, IV – Q , V – P
(1) Expanding population
Q.20 Match the Column I and Column II
(2) Vanishing population
Column-I Column-II
(3) Stable population
Bell shaped age Triangular shaped
(4) Declining population (i) (a)
pyramid age pyramid
Pre-reproductive Reproductive
Q.17 The logistic population growth is expressed
(ii) individuals are (b) individuals are
by the equation dN/dt = rN  K − N  . Here maximum maximum
 K 

 K −N  (iii) Declining population (c) Stable population

  represents:
 K  (iv) Mortality (d) Death rate
(1) Carrying capacity (1) i–c, ii–b, iii–a, iv–d
(2) Biotic potential (2) i–c, ii–a, iii–b, iv–d
(3) Environmental resistance (3) i–b, ii–c, iii–a, iv–d
(4) Crash phase (4) i–a, ii–b, iii–c, iv–d

Page | 27
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS
Q.21 Match the Column I and Column II Q.24 The growth speed of a population can often
Column-I Column-II be described with the logistic growth
(i) Calotropis (a) Mutualism equation dN/dt = rN (K – N )/K In this
(ii) Fig & wasp (b) Cardiac glycosides equation 'N' is the number of individuals 'r'
Marine fish & is the intrinsic relative rate and 'K' is the
(iii) (c) Endoparasitism
copepods carrying capacity. According to this equation
Human & liver the equilibrium number of individuals in the
(iv) (d) Ectoparasitism
fluke population is determined by
(1) i–d, ii–b, iii–a, iv–c
(1) r only (2) K only
(2) i–c, ii–d, iii–b, iv–a
(3) r and K (4) N and K
(3) i–b, ii–a, iii–c, iv–d
(4) i–b, ii–a, iii–d, iv–c ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Q.22 Match the Column I and Column II Direction: (Q.25 - 40) In the following questions,
Column-I Column-II a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a
The value of 'r' is statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice.
(i) Norway rat (a)
0.12
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and
The value of 'r' is
(ii) Flour beetle (b) Reason is the correct explanation of assertion
0.0205
(B) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason
Human population The value of 'r' is
(iii) (c) is not the correct explanation of assertion
in India in 1981 0.015
(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Unicellular Exponential
(iv) (d) (D) Assertion is false, but reason is true.
organisms growth
(1) i–c, ii–a, iii–b, iv–d Q.25 Assertion: Biotic community has higher
(2) i–b, ii–c, iii–a, iv–d position than population in ecological
(3) i–a, ii–b, iii–c, iv–d hierarchy.
(4) i–c, ii–b, iii–a, iv–d Reason: Population is similar individuals
Q.23 The carnivorous plants trap & digest insects remains isolated in the community.
by trapping insects, they obtain: (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
I. Water to survive in dry soil
Q.26 Assertion: A high density of elephant
II. Phosphorus for nucleic acid synthesis
population in an area can result in intra
III. Phosphorus for protein synthesis
IV. Sugars to supplement those produced by specific competition.
photosynthesis Reason : It plays an important role in
V. Nitrogen for protein synthesis supporting other species.
(1) III and IV (2) II and V (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(3) I and II (4) I, II and III

Page | 28
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.27 Assertion: Many parasites have evolved to Q.32 Assertion: Ecologically, herbivores are not
be host specific (They can parasitise only a very different from predators.
single species of host) Reason: Herbivores also consume living
Reason: Both host and parasite do not co- organisms.
evolve in it. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.33 Assertion: Predators help in maintaining
Q.28 Assertion: An individual may have births species diversity in a community.
and deaths. Reason: Predators keep prey population
Reason: Sex ratio is another attribute of a under control.
population. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.34 Assertion: Prickly pear cactus introduced
Q.29 Assertion: Predators also help in maintaining
into Australia in the early 1920's caused
species diversity in a community.
havoc by spreading rapidly.
Reason: Predators reduce the intensity of
Reason: The invasive cactus was brought
competition among competing prey species.
under control after a cactus-feeding
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
mammalian herbivore was introduced in
Q.30 Assertion: In case of Banyan tree, the
Australia.
percent cover or biomass is a more
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
meaningful measure of the population size.
Q.35 Assertion: Cattles and goats never browse
Reason : For large trees the population is
on Calotropis.
always measured in biomass.
Reason: Calotropis produces highly
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
poisonous cardiac glycosides.
Q.31 Assertion: The equation describes the
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
exponential or geometric growth pattern of a
population results in J-shaped curve Q.36 Assertion: Opium, strychnine, quanine,

Reason: When resources in the habitat are caffeine and nicotine are products of various

unlimited, each species has the ability to plants.

realise fully its innate potential to grow in Reason: These chemicals are produced as

number. defences against grazers and browsers.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Page | 29
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS
Q.37 Assertion: Gause's 'competitive exclusion Direction (Q.41-Q.47): In the light of the above
principle' is not always correct. statements, choose the correct answer from the
Reason: Exclusion of one species relative to options given below:
the other may happen if resources are (A) Statement I is correct but statement II is
limiting or else not. incorrect
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (B) Statement II is correct but statement I is
incorrect
Q.38 Assertion: Majority of the parasites harm (C) Both statements I and II are correct
host. (D) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Reason: Majority of the parasites are
obligate or permanent. Q.41 Statement-I : In a population birth rate refer
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D to per capita births.
Statement-II : In a population death rate
Q.39 Assertion: In brood parasitism the eggs of refer to per capita deaths.
parasitic bird have evolved to resemble the (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
host's egg.
Q.42 Statement-I: Oysters, pelagic fishes produce
Reason: This reduces the chance of host bird
a large number of small-sized offspring
detecting the foreign eggs and ejecting them
Statement-II: The tiger census is often
from the nest.
based on pug marks and faecal pellets
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.40 Assertion: Mycorrhizae are symbiotic Q.43 Statement-I: A group of individuals

association between fungi and roots of resulting from asexual reproduction is not
higher plants. considered a population
Reason: Fungi help the plant in absorbing Statement-II: Emigration is the number of
essential nutrients from the soil while the individuals of the population who left the
plant provides the fungi with energy yielding habitat and gone elsewhere during the time
carbohydrates. period under consideration.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Page | 30
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.44 Statement-I: Balanus the superior barnacle Q.46 Statement-I: Darwin was convinced that
dominated the intertidal area interspecific competition is a potent force in
Statement-II : Herbivores and plants appear organic evolution
to be move adversely affected by Statement-II: Competition is best defined
competition than carnivores. as a process in which the fitness of one
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D species (measured in terms of its ‘r’ the
intrinsic rate of increase) is significantly
Q.45 Statement-I: Ophrys employ’s ‘sexual
lower in the presence of another species.
deceit’ to get pollination done
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Satement-II: The female bee is attracted to
what it perceives as a male, Q.47 Statement-I: Predators act as ‘conduits’ for
‘pseudocopulates’ with the flower energy transfer across trophic levels
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D Statement-II: Predators keep prey
populations under control
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Page | 31
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS

NEET–FLASHBACK
Q.1 Cuscuta is an example of : Q.5 A location with luxuriant growth of lichens
[AIPMT Mains-2012] on the trees indicates that the :-
(1) Predation [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Trees are very healthy
(2) Endoparasitism
(2) Trees are heavily infested
(3) Ectoparasitism
(3) Location is highly polluted
(4) Brood parasitism
(4) Location is not polluted
Q.2 A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the
Q.6 The following graph depicts changes in two
shell lining of hermit carb. The association is populations (A and B) of herbivores in a
: [AIPMT-UG 2013] grassy field. A possible reason for these
(1) Amensalism changes is that: [AIPMT-2015]
(2) Ectoparasitism
B
Organisms
Number of

(3) Symbosis
(4) Commensalism A
Time
Q.3 Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla
(1) Population B competed more
to escape the heat for the duration of hot
successfully for food than population A
summer, thousands of migratory birds from (2) Population A produced more offspring
Siberia and other extremely cold northern than population B
regions move to: [AIPMT-2014] (3) Population A consumed the members of
(1) Western Ghat population B
(2) Meghalaya (4) Both plant populations in this habitat
(3) Corbett National Park decreased

(4) Keoladeo National Park Q.7 An association of individuals of different

species living in the same habitat and having
Q.4 Which of the following is an example of
functional interactions is :
mutualism ? [AIPMT-2014]
[Re-AIPMT 2015]
(1) Worm in intestine
(1) Population
(2) Fig and wasp (2) Ecological niche
(3) Barnacle on whale (3) Biotic community
(4) Sea anemone and clown fish (4) Ecosystem

Page | 32
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.8 In which of the following interactions both Q.13 Gause's principle of competitive exclusion
partners are adversely affected ? states that : [NEET-II 2016]
[Re-AIPMT 2015] (1) More abundant species will exclude the
(1) Mutuation (2) Competition less abundant species through
(3) Predation (4) Parasitism competition.
(2) Competition for the same resources
Q.9 Which of the following is correct for r-
excludes species having different food
selected species ? [NEET-I 2016]
preferences.
(1) Large number of offsprings, of small size
(3) No two species can occupy the same niche
(2) Large number of offsprings, of large size indefinitely for the same limiting
(3) Small number of offsprings, of small size resources.
(4) Small number of offsprings, of large size (4) Larger organisms exclude smaller ones

Q.10 If '+' indicates beneficial interaction, '–' through competition

indicates harmful interaction and '0' indicates Q.14 Mycorrhizae are the example of :
neutral interaction, then population showing [NEET-2017]
'+' '–' interactions indicates : [NEET-I 2016] (1) Fungi stasis
(1) Mutualism (2) Amenselism (2) Amensalism
(3) Simbiosis (4) Parasitism (3) Antibiosis
(4) Mutualism
Q.11 When does the growth rate of a population
following the logistic model equal zero ? The Q.15 Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is

logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN (1- obtained when : [NEET-2017]

(1) The value of 'r' approaches zero
N/K):- [NEET-I 2016]
(2) K = N
(1) when N/K is exactly one.
(3) K > N
(2) when N nears the carrying capacity of the
(4) K < N
habitat.
(3) when N/K equals zero. Q.16 In a hypothetical population of 100
(4) when death rate is greater than birth rate. individual having 'r' = 0.5/female/year, what
will be the population size in 6 years (with e
Q.12 The principle of competitive exclusion was
= 2.72) showing exponential rate of growth?
stated by :- [NEET-II 2016]
[NEET - (UG) -2017]
(1) MacArthur (2) Verhulst and Pearl
(1) 1218 (2) 739
(3) C. Darwin (4) G.F. Gause (3) 2012 (4) 448

Page | 33
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS
Q.17 Niche is : [NEET-2018] Q.21 Which one of the following plants shows a
(1) The functional role played by the very close relationship with a species of
organism where it lives moth, where none of the two can complete its
(2) All the biological factors in the organism life cycle without the other ?
environment [NEET-2018]
(3) The range of temperature that the (1) Viola (2) Hydrilla
organism needs to live (3) Banana (4) Yucca
(4) The physical space where an organism
Q.22 Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish
live
without fungal association. This is because.

Q.18 Which one of the following population [NEET-2019]

interactions is widely used in medical science (1) it has very hard seed coat.

for the production of antibiotics? (2) its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent

[NEET-2018] germination.

(1) Amensalism (2) Commensalism (3) its embryo is immature.

(3) Parasitism (4) Mutualism (4) it has obligate association with

mycorrhizae.
Q.19 In a growing population of a country.
Q.23 Match Column-I with Column-II.
[NEET-2018]
(1) Pre-reproductive individuals are less than Column-I Column-II
Symbiotic
the re-productive individuals. (a) Saprophyte (i) association of fungi
(2) Pre-reproductive individuals are more with plant roots
Decomposition of
than the reproductive individuals. (b) Parasite (ii) dead organic
(3) Reproductive and pre-reproductive materials
Living on living
individuals are equal in number. (c) Lichens (iii)
plants or animals
(4) Reproductive individuals are less than the Symbiotic
(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) association of algae
post reproductive individuals. and fungi

Choose the correct answer form the options

Q.20 Natality refers to : [NEET-2018]
given below. [NEET-2019]
(1) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)
(2) Death rate
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(3) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(4) Birth rate
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)

Page | 34
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.24 Carnivorous animals - lions and leopards, Q.28 The impact of immigration on population
occupy the same niche but lions predate density is: [NEET-2020]
mostly larger animals and leopards take (1) Both positive and negative
smaller ones. This mechanism of competition (2) Neutralized by natality
is referred to as :- (3) Positive
[NEET(UG)-2019 (Odisha)] (4) Negative
(1) Character displacement
Q.29 A species which was introduced for
(2) Altruism
ornamentation but has become a trouble-
(3) Resource partitioning
some weed in India :
(4) Competitive exclusion
[NEET(UG)-2020 (Covid-19)]
Q.25 Between which among the following, the (1) Parthenium hysterophorus
relationship is not an example of (2) Eichhornia crassipes
commensalism?[NEET(UG)-2019 (Odisha)] (3) Prosopis juliflora
(1) Orchid and the tree on which it grows (4) Trapa spinosa
(2) Cattle Egret and grazing cattle
Q.30 Amensalism can be represented as :
(3) Sea Anemone and Clown fish
[NEET-2021]
(4) Female wasp and fig species
(1) Species A (–) ; Species B (0)
Q.26 Which of the following is not an attribute of (2) Species A (+) ; Species B (+)
a population? [NEET-2020] (3) Species A (–) ; Species B (–)
(1) Natality (4) Species A (+) ; Species B (0)
(2) Mortality
Q.31 Inspite of interspecific competition in nature,
(3) Species interaction
which mechanism the competing species
(4) Sex ratio
might have evolved for their survival?
Q.27 Match the items in Column I with those in [NEET-2021]
Column II: [NEET-2020] (1) Resource partitioning
Column-I Column-II (2) Competitive release
A Herbivores Plants (i) Commensalism (3) Mutualism
B Mycorrhiza Plants (ii) Mutualism (4) Predation
C Sheep-Cattle (iii) Predation
Q.32 In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0 ert,
D Orchid-Tree (iv) Competition
e represents: [NEET-2021]
(1) A–(iii), B–(ii), C– (iv), D–(i)
(1) The base of number logarithms
(2) A–(ii), B–(i), C– (iii), D–(iv)
(2) The base of exponential logarithms
(3) A–(i), B–(iii), C– (iv), D–(ii)
(3) The base of natural logarithms
(4) A–(iv), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(iii)
(4) The base of geometric logarithms
Page | 35
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS
Q.33 If a pond has 40 lotus plants last year and Q.36 If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of
through reproduction 8 new plants are added, '80' died during a week, the death rate in the
taking the current population to 48, what will population is per Drosophila per week.
be the birth rate? Individuals [NEET (UG) -2022]
[NEET(UG)-2021 (Paper-2)] (1) 10 (2) 1.0
(1) 0.6 offspring per lotus per year (3) zero (4) 0.1
(2) 0.5 offspring per lotus per year
Q.37 Species Area relationship is described by the
(3) 0.2 offspring per lotus per year
following equation.
(4) 0.1 offspring per lotus per year
log S=log C+Z log A
Q.34 Which one of the following statements where Z is:
cannot be connected to Predation? [NEET (UG) -2022 (OVERSEAS)]
[NEET-2022] (1) Species richness
(1) It is necessitated by nature to maintain the (2) Slope of the line
ecological valance (3) Y-intercept
(2) It helps in maintaining species diversity (4) Area
in a community Q.38 The process of individuals of the same species
(3) It might lead to extinction a species that have come into the habitat from
(4) Both the interaction species are elsewhere during the time period under
negatively impacted consideration is referred as :

Q.35 While explaining interspecific interaction [NEET (UG) -2022 (OVERSEAS)]

Population (+) sign is assigned for beneficial (1) Emigration (2) Competition

interaction (–) sign is assigned for (3) Immigration (4) Association

detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral Q.39 Two butterfly species are competing for the
interaction. Which of the following same nectar of a flower in a garden. To
interactions can be assigned (+) one species survive and coexist together, they may avoid
and (–) for another species involved the competition in the same garden by:
interaction? [NEET-2022] [Re - NEET (UG) -2022]
(1) Competition (1) Feeding at the same time
(2) Predation (2) Choosing different foraging patterns
(3) Amensalism Salim (3) Increasing time spent on attacking each other
(4) Commensalism (4) Predating on each other

Page | 36
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.40 A population with finite resources shows a Q.42 Match List I with List II. List I List II
logistic growth curve where the correct [NEET-2023]
sequence of events will be : A. Logistic I. Unlimited resource
growth availability condition
[Re - NEET (UG) -2022]
B. Exponential II. Limited resource
(1) Acceleration phase → Deceleration
growth availability condition
Asymptote C. Expanding III. The percent individuals
(2) Acceleration phase → Lag phase → age pyramid of pre-reproductive age
Stationary phase is largest followed by
reproductive and post
(3) Lag phase → Acceleration phase
reproductive age
Deceleration → Asymptote
groups
(4) Stationary phase → Acceleration phase D. Stable age IV. The percent individuals
→ Lag phase → Asymptote pyramid of pre-reproductives
and reproductive age
group are same
Q.41 Given below are two statements:
Choose the correct answer from the options
Statement I: Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion
given below:
Principle’ states that two closely related species
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
competing for the same resources cannot co- (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
exist indefinitely and competitively inferior (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
one will be eliminated eventually. (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Statement II : In general, carnivores are Q.43 Match List I with List II. List I List II
more adversely affected by competition than (Interacting species) (Name of interaction)
[NEET-2023]
herbivores. In the light of the above
List-I List-II
statements, choose the correct answer from A. A Leopard and a I. Competition
the options given below: [NEET-2023] Lion in a
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are forest/grassland
incorrect. B. A Cuckoo laying II. Brood parasitism
egg in a Crow’s
(2) Statement I is correct Statement II is
nest
incorrect.
C. Fungi and root of III. Mutualism
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
a higher plant in
is correct. Mycorrhizae
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are D. A cattle egret and IV. Commensalism
correct. a Cattle in a field

Page | 37
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
given below. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
true.
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Q.47 The equation of Verhulst-Pearl logistic
Q.44 Match List I with List II : List I (Interaction)
List II (Species A and B) [NEET-2023] dN K − N
growth is = rN   . From this
dt  K 
List-I List-II
A. Mutualism I. +(A), 0(B) equation, K indicates: [NEET-2024]
B. Commensalism II. –(A), 0(B) (1) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
C. Amensalism III. +(A), –(B) (2) Biotic potential
D. Parasitism IV. +(A), +(B) (3) Carrying capacity
Choose the correct answer from the options (4) Population density
given below: Q.48 What do 'a' and 'b' represent in the following
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III population growth curve?
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II [Re - NEET -2024]
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Q.45 Plants offer rewards to animals in the form of

pollen and nectar and the animals facilitate
the pollination process. This is an example
of: [NEET (UG) -2023 (MANIPUR)]
(1) Amensalism (2) Competition
(1) 'a' represents exponential growth when
(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism
responses are not limiting the A growth;
Q.46 Given below are two statements: and 'b' represents logistic growth when
[NEET-2024] responses are limiting the growth.
Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusion (2) 'a' represents logistic growth when
principle states that two closely related responses are not limiting the growth; 'b'
species competing for different resources
represents exponential growth when
cannot exist indefinitely.
responses are limiting the growth.
Statement II: According to Gause's
(3) 'a' represents carrying capacity and 'b'
principle, during competition, the inferior
shows logistic growth when responses are
will be eliminated. This may be true if
limiting the growth.
resources are limiting.
(4) 'a' represents exponential growth when
In the light of the above statements, choose
responses are not limiting the growth and
the correct answer from the options given
below : 'b' shows carrying capacity.

Page | 38
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.49 Match List-I with List-II. Q.50 When will the population density increase,
[Re - NEET -2024] under special conditions? When the number
of : [Re - NEET -2024]
List - I List - II
(1) Deaths exceeds number of births and
A. Migratory I. Interference
also number of emigrants equals number
flamingoes and competition
of immigrants.
resident fish in South (2) Births plus number of immigrants equals
American lakes number of deaths plus number of
B. Abingdon tortoise II. Competitive emigrants.
became extinct after release (3) Births plus number of emigrants is more

introduction of goats than the number of deaths plus number of

immigrants.
in their habitat
(4) Births plus number of immigrants is more
C. Chathamalus III. Resource
than the sum of number of deaths and
expands its Partitioning
number of emigrants.
distributional range
Q.51 Which one of the following equations
in the absence of
represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic
Balanus
Growth of population? [NEET-2025]
D. Five closely related IV. Interspecific dN  N−K
(1) = rN  
species of Warblers competition dt  N 

feeding in different dN r−K

(2) = N 
dt  K 
locations on same
dN K−N
tree (3) = r 
dt  K 
Choose the correct answer from the options dN K−N
(4) = rN  
given below. dt  K 

(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II Q.52 Epiphytes that are growing on a mango
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III branch is an example of which of the
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV following? [NEET-2025]

(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (1) Predation (2) Amensalism

(3) Commensalism (4) Mutualism

Page | 39
 Easy to Learn…. ORGANISM AND POPULATIONS

ANSWER KEY
PRACTICE SECTION-01
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans: 1 4 4 1 2 1 2 3 3 2

TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 1 1 2 2 4 4 3 3 2 4 1 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 1 2 2 1 4 4 1 4 3 1 3 2 1 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 4 1 4 4 3 1 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 4 2 4 2 4

RANKER'S STUFF
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 2 1 3 2 3 2 2 1 3 3 2 1 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 1 2 1 2 4 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 1 1 3 1 1 1 2 1 1 3 3 2 3 1
Que. 46 47
Ans. 3 3

NEET-FLASHBACK
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 4 4 2 4 1 3 2 1 4 1 4 3 4 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 1 1 2 4 4 4 2 3 4 3 1 3 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 3 3 4 2 4 2 3 2 3 2 4 4 1 4
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. 4 3 1 2 4 4 3

Page | 40
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

Chapter

Ecosystem 02
INTRODUCTION
CONTENT • [Link] - The term "Ecosystem" was coined by A.G.
• Introduction Tansley.
• Structure and function of ecosystem According to Tansley - Ecosystem is symbol of structure and
• Productivity, Decomposition function of nature.
• Energy flow • [Link] - Father of ecosystem ecology.
• Ecological pyramids According to E.P. Odum - Ecosystem is the smallest
structural and functional unit of nature or environment.

ECOSYSTEM
EARTH-GIANT
• Definition: An ecosystem can be ECOSYSTEM
SUN
visualised as a functional unit of l M
A
L
nature, where living organisms interact
C
among themselves and also with the PRODUCERS

surrounding physical environment. NUTRIENT

POOL
• An ecosystem may be small pond and as
large sea or forest. DECOMPOSERS CONSUMERS

• Major functional aspects of ecosystems M

G l
materials
are energy flow, nutrient cycle, energy

decomposition and productivity.

TYPES OF ECOSYSTEM :
There are two types of ecosystem:
(A) Natural Ecosystem (B) Artificial Ecosystem
(A) Natural Ecosystem :
(a) Terrestrial Ecosystem :
eg. forest, grassland, tree, desert ecosystems.
(b) Aquatic Ecosystem :
eg. Lake, pond, Wetlend, rivers, estuary

(B) Artificial Ecosystem : Man made ecosystem eg., Cropfield, Aquarium

Page | 41
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

Practice Section-01
Q. 1 A functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact among themselves and also with the
surrounding physical environment is
(1) Biosphere (2) Ecosystem (3) Environment (4) None of these

Q.2 Abiotic components refer to

(1) Non-living physico-chemical factors (2) Living physico-chemical factors
(3) Gases produced by industries (4) Living organisms

Q.3 Stratification is more pronounced in

(1) Tropical rainforest (2) Deciduous forest (3) Temperate forest (4) Tropical savannah

Q.4 Maximum primary productivity of pond is achieved by

(1) Phytoplankton (2) Zooplankton (3) Floating plants (4) Red algae

Q.5 The rate of biomass production is

(1) Productivity (2) Photosynthesis (3) Respiration (4) Decomposition

Q.6 Net primary productivity is equal to

(1) Organic matter synthesised by photosynthesis plus utilisation in respiration and other losses
(2) Organic matter synthesised by photosynthesis minus utilisation in respiration and other losses
(3) Rate of increase in body weight of producers plus loss suffered through respiration and damages
(4) Rate of resynthesis of organic matter by the consumers

Q.7 PAR stands for

(1) Photosynthesis Active Reaction (2) Photosynthesis Absorb Radiation
(3) Photosynthetically Active Radiation (4) Photosynthetically Active Reaction

Q.8 The green plants in an ecosystem which can trap solar energy to convert it into chemical bond energy
are called
(1) Producer (2) Decomposer (3) Consumer (4) Predators

Q.9 Vegetable eating person acts as

(1) Primary producer (2) Primary consumer
(3) Secondary consumer (4) Tertiary consumers

Page | 51
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
ECOSYSTEM SERVICES:
Healthy ecosystems are the base for a wide range of economic, environmental and aesthetic goods
and services. The products of ecosystem processes are named as Ecosystem services, for example,
healthy forest ecosystems purify air and water, mitigate (minimise) droughts and floods, cycle
nutrients, generate fertile soils, provide wildlife habitat, maintain biodiversity, pollinate crops,
provide storage site for carbon and also provide aesthetic, cultural and spiritual values.

Practice Section-02
Q.1 The relation between producers and consumers in an ecosystem can be graphically represented in
the form of a pyramid called
(1) Ecological pyramid (2) Trophic level
(3) Pi chart (4) Pyramid of biomass

Q.2 Which of the following representations show both the pyramid of numbers and biomass in a
grassland ecosystem?

A B C
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) None of these

Q.3 In ecological pyramid, the base always represents the …A… and the apex represents…B… . Here,
A and B represent.
(1) A–producers, B–top level consumers
(2) A–top level consumers, B–producers
(3) A–producers, B–secondary consumers
(4) A–producers, B–primary consumers

Q.4 How many trophic levels human beings' function at in a food chain?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Q.5 An inverted pyramid of …A… may be observed in …B… communities.

(1) A–energy, B–grassland (2) A–energy, B–forest
(3) A–biomass, B–marine (4) A–biomass, B–grassland

Page | 55
 Easy to Learn…. ECOSYSTEM
Q.6 Pyramid of ……… is never inverted.
(1) Energy (2) Mass (3) Numbers (4) Size

Q.7 What is common characteristic of earthworm, soil mites and dung beetle of an ecosystem?
(1) Primary producer (2) Primary consumer
(3) Secondary consumer (4) Tertiary consumer

Q.8 Which of the following two organisms are producers?

(1) Plants and phytoplanktons (2) Plants and consumers
(3) Zooplanktons and phytoplanktons (4) Phytoplanktons and chlorophylls

Q.9 The 10% law is related to

(1) Mendelian genetics
(2) Non-Mendelian genetics
(3) Energy transfer from lower trophic level to higher trophic level
(4) Energy consumption during photosynthesis in C4 – plants

Page | 56
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS

INTRODUCTION, STRUCTURE AND Q.7 Which of the following is a function of
FUNCTION OF ECOSYSTEM ecosystem
Q.1 The term 'ecosystem' was coined by : (1) Conversion of inorganic into organic
(1) Elton (2) Tansley material by the autotrophs
(3) Odum (4) Billing (2) Consumption of the autotrophs by
heterotrophs
Q.2 Vertical distribution of different species (3) Decomposition and mineralization of the
occupying different levels, called as :- dead matter
(1) Physiognomy (2) Stratification (4) All of these
(3) Dominance (4) Topography
Q.8 A functional unit of nature, where living
Q.3 Which of the following is not a functional organisms interact among themselves and
component of an ecosystem :- also with the surrounding physical
(1) Productivity (2) Decomposition environment is known as
(3) Stratification (4) Nutrient cycling (1) Ecosystem (2) Biome
(3) Biosphere (4) Living world
Q.4 Which of the following is an example of an
Q.9 Substraction of which of the following will
aquatic ecosystem?
convert gross primary productivity into net
(1) Pond and lake (2) Wetland and river
primary productivity?
(3) Estuary (4) All of these
(1) The energy contained in the standing crop
(2) The energy used by heterotrophs in
Q.5 Which of the following is an example of a
respiration
terrestrial ecosystem?
(3) The energy used by autotrophs in
(1) Forest (2) Grassland
respiration
(3) Desert (4) All of these
(4) The energy fixed by photosynthesis

Q.6 Which of the following is an example of a Q.10 The annual net primary productivity (NPP) of
man- made ecosystem? the whole biosphere is approximately ______
(1) Crop fields billions tons. The NPP of ocean is _______
(2) An aquarium billion tons whereas that of terrestrial
(3) Both 1 and 2 ecosystem is _______billion tons.
(4) Waterfall (1) 170, 115, 55 (2) 130, 50, 80
(3) 120 (4) 170, 55, 115
Page | 57
 Easy to Learn…. ECOSYSTEM
Q.11 Secondary consumers that can eat only Q.15 Which of the following type of primary
primary consumers receive what percent of productivity is utilised by animals in
respiration:-
the energy fixed by primary producers in a
(1) Net primary productivity (NPP)
typical field ecosystem?
(2) Net community productivity (NCP)
(1) 10% (2) 20% (3) Gross primary productivity (GPP)
(3) 1% (4) 0.1% (4) All of the above

Q.12 Consider the food chain : Q.16 Raw material for the process of
decomposition, are called as :-
Grass → Grasshopper → Mouse → Snake
(1) Humus (2) Duff
→ Hawk
(3) Detritus (4) All of the above
How much of the chemical energy fixed by
Q.17 Which of the following option is not correct
photosynthesis of the grass (100 J) is
about Humus :-
available to the hawk? (1) Degrades very easily
(1) 0.01 J (2) 0.1 J (2) Amorphous substance
(3) 1 J (4) 10 J (3) Highly resistant to microbial action
(4) All of the above
Q.13 The biomass available for consumption by
Q.18 Which of the following factor favours rate of
the herbivores and decomposers is called :
decomposition :-
(1) Secondary productivity (1) High lignin content of detritus
(2) Net primary production (2) Low temperature
(3) Gross primary productivity (3) Anaerobic condition
(4) High soil moisture
(4) Gross primary productivity + Net primary
productivity Q.19 Which of the following statement(s) are
correct among the following :-
PRODUCTIVITY AND DECOMPOSITION (a) Gross primary productivity plus
Q.14 Gross primary productivity is : respiratory losses are called net primary
productivity.
(1) Rate at which organic molecules are
(b) Out of total productivity of whole
formed in an autotroph biosphere, productivity of oceans are
(2) Rate at which organic molecules are used only 170 billion tons.
up by an autotroph (c) A considerable amount of GPP is utilised
(3) Storage of organic molecules in the body by plants in respiration.
(d) A constant input of solar energy is basic
of an autotroph
requirement of all ecosystem.
(4) Rate at which organic molecules are (1) a and b (2) b and c
transferred to next higher trophic level (3) c and d (4) b, c and d
Page | 58
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.20 The rate at which new tissues are formed in Q.25 The important steps in the process of
producers is the ecosystem's : decomposition are
(1) Net primary productivity (1) Mineralization → leaching → catabolism
(2) Gross primary productivity → humification → fragmentation.
(3) Net secondary productivity (2) Fragmentation → leaching → catabolism
(4) Gross secondary productivity → humification → mineralization.

Q.21 The amount of living matter present in a (3) Fragmentation → humification →

component population of a particular trophic catabolism → leaching → mineralization.
level is called as : (4) Fragmentation → catabolism → leaching
(1) Standing crop → humification → mineralization.
(2) Standing quality
(3) Both of these ENERGY FLOW, ECOLOGICAL PYRAMIDS
(4) Standing state Q.26 Fraction of photosynthetically active
radiation in the incident solar radiation:-
Q.22 The gross production minus respiration
(1) 2 - 10%
losses by plants in an ecosystem is indicated
(2) 1 - 5%
as :
(3) Both 1 and 2 given above
(1) Net production
(4) Less than 50%
(2) Secondary production
(3) Net storage
Q.27 Energy trapped by producers may further
(4) Net primary production
passes to:-
Q.23 The rate of storage at consumer level is : (1) Macro consumers only
(1) Secondary productivity (2) Micro consumers only
(2) Tertiary productivity (3) Both macro & Micro consumers
(3) Both of these (4) Remains in producers forever
(4) Net productivity
Q.28 A sparrow which feeds on an insect, is an
Q.24 Mineralization is carried out by example of :-
(1) Microbes (1) Primary consumer
(2) Herbivorous (2) Secondary carnivore
(3) Carnivorous (3) Secondary consumer
(4) Producers (4) Both 2 and 3 given above

Page | 59
 Easy to Learn…. ECOSYSTEM
Q.29 Food webs are 3-D web of interrelations in
Hawk T5
which several food chains are interlinked. It Q.33 Snake T4
helps to provide : Frog T3
Grasshopper 1000 Kcal T2
(1) Alternate pathways for flow of energy Grass T1
(2) More variety and quality of food at each
If T2 has 1000 Kcal energy then the amount
trophic level
of energy in T5 will
(3) Stability to ecosystem (1) 100000 Kcal
(4) All of these (2) 100 Kcal
(3) 10 Kcal
Q.30 The limitations of ecological pyramid is/are:
(4) 1 Kcal
(1) It has no place for decomposers and
detrivores
Q.34 The last organisms of the food chain are
(2) It is based on simple food chain and not generally:
food web (1) Photosynthetic plants
(3) It has no place for insectivorous plants (2) Herbivores
which simultaneously belong of the T1 (3) Carnivores
and T3 levels (4) Top carnivores
(4) All are correct
Q.35 The best arrangement of an energy system
Q.31 What is true? consisting of hawks, snakes, mice and grasses
(1) The biomass of a species is expressed in is :
terms of fresh weight. (1) Grass → mice → snake → hawks
(2) The biomass of a species is expressed in (2) Grass → snake → mice → hawks
terms dry weight. (3) Grass → mice → hawks → snakes
(3) Measurement of biomass in terms of dry (4) Mice → snake → hawks → grass
weight is more accurate
(4) All of these Q.36 If a big fish eats small fish which eats Hydra
who in turn eats water fleas ; water fleas in turn
Q.32 The detritus food chain (DFC) begins with eat phytoplankton. In this chain, water fleas
(1) Phytoplankton will be :
(2) Dead organic matter (1) Producers
(3) Zooplanktons (2) Primary consumers
(4) Herbivorous (3) Secondary consumers
(4) Top consumer
Page | 60
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.37 Autotrophic organisms (green plants), which Q.42 Which biotic components mainly help in
capture solar energy to synthesise organic recycling of minerals ?
food are called : (1) Producers
(1) Producers (2) Consumers
(2) Consumers (3) Decomposers
(3) Decomposers (4) All the above
(4) None of the above
Q.43 Trophic levels are formed by :
Q.38 In a pyramid of numbers representing an (1) Only plants
ecosystem of a large freshwater pond the (2) Only carnivores
number of primary consumers is : (3) Only animals
(1) Less than the Top consumers (4) Organisms linked in food chain
(2) Less than the secondary consumers
(3) Less than the producers Q.44 The type of food chain in which decomposed

(4) Less than the tertiary consumers organic matter is converted into energy rich
compounds is called:

Q.39 Food chain refers to : (1) Detritus food chain

(1) A number of human beings forming a (2) Grazing food chain

chain for food (3) Cybernetics

(2) The transfer of food energy from (4) None of the above

producers to consumers
Q.45 The sequence of species through which the
(3) Animals near a source of food
organic molecules in community pass is called
(4) None of the above
is:
(1) Food web
Q.40 When frog eats grasshopper which thrives on
(2) Food chain
green plants, the frog is ?
(3) Nutrient cycle
(1) Primary producer
(4) Pyramid of energy
(2) Herbivore
(3) Primary carnivore Q.46 A group of interconnected food chains is
(4) Top consumer called:
(1) Pyramid of energy
Q.41 The source of energy in an ecosystem is :
(2) Food web
(1) Sunlight (2) DNA
(3) Food cycle
(3) ATP (4) RNA
(4) Complex food chain

Page | 61
 Easy to Learn…. ECOSYSTEM
Q.47 Energy flow in ecosystem is : Q.51 The dominant second trophic level in a lake
(1) Unidirectional ecosystem is :
(2) Bidirectional (1) Phytoplankton
(3) Multidirectional (2) Zooplankton
(4) None of the above (3) Benthos
(4) Nekton
Q.48 The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is :
(1) Always upright Q.52 Observe the ecological pyramid :
(2) May be upright
(3) Always inverted
(4) None of the above
Which of the following is correct for this type
Q.49 The pyramid of number in a forest ecosystem
of ecological pyramid? It represents :
is :
(1) Pyramid of number of a single tree
(1) Triangular
ecosystem
(2) Upright
(2) Pyramid of biomass in a pond ecosystem
(3) Never Upright
(3) Either (1) or (2)
(4) Linear
(4) Pyramid of biomass of a single tree
ecosystem
Q.50 The animals that feed directly on producers
are called :
(1) Primary consumers
(2) Secondary consumers
(3) Tertiary consumers
(4) Quaternary consumers

Page | 62
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

RANKER'S STUFF
Q.1 The pyramid of energy in a forest ecosystem Q.7 Pyramids of biomass in pond ecosystem is -
is- (1) Inverted
(1) Always upright (2) Upright
(2) Always inverted (3) Linear
(3) Both upright and inverted (4) Irregular
(4) None of the above
Q.8 Phytoplanktons are important biotic
Q.2 More complex food web shows :
component of -
(1) High diversity in ecosystem
(1) Grassland
(2) High stability in ecosystem
(2) Pond ecosystem
(3) High food variety in ecosystem
(4) All of the above (3) Forest ecosystem
(4) None of these
Q.3 The pyramid of number in a grassland
ecosystem is - Q.9 Which ecological pyramid can never occur in
(1) Linear (2) Upright an inverted form ?
(3) Irregular (4) Inverted (1) Pyramid of number
(2) Pyramid of biomass
Q.4 Which food chain is most common in
(3) Pyramid of energy
terrestrial ecosystem?
(1) DFC (4) Pyramid of species richness
(2) GFC
Q.10 Peacock eats a snake and snake eats insect
(3) Parasitic food chain
while insect eats green plant, then position of
(4) None of these
peacock is -
Q.5 During food chain the maximum energy is (1) Primary producer
stored in - (2) Secondary producer
(1) Producers (2) Decomposers (3) Decomposer
(3) Herbivores (4) Carnivores (4) Top at the apex of food pyramid
Q.6 In a food chain, the total amount of living
Q.11 Driving force of ecosystem is -
material is depicted by -
(1) Producers
(1) Pyramid of biomass
(2) Plants with Carbohydrate
(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Pyramid of number (3) Biomass
(4) Trophic levels (4) Solar energy

Page | 63
 Easy to Learn…. ECOSYSTEM
Q.12 Mr. X is eating curd/yoghurt. For this food Q.17 Below given points are about the shape of
intake in a food chain he should be ecological pyramids.
considered as occupying - (A) Pyramid with broad base
(1) First trophic level (B) Pyramid with narrow base
(2) Second trophic level (C) Bell shaped pyramid
(3) Third tropic level If the standing crop of phytoplanktons
(4) Fourth trophic level supports large standing crop of zooplanktons,
pyramid will be :
Q.13 Total amount of energy trapped by green
plants in food is called - (1) A (2) B

(1) Gross primary production (3) C (4) B and C possible

(2) Net primary production
Q.18 Given below are few events taking place in
(3) Standing crop
the pond eco-system. Arrange these events in
(4) Standing state
the of their occurrence and choose in the
Q.14 Percentage energy transferred to higher correct option –
trophic level in food chain is - i. Decomposition and mineralization of the
(1) 1 % (2) 10 % dead matter to release organic and
(3) 90 % (4) 100 % inorganic nutrients back in the
environment.
Q.15 Which of the following are functional
attributes/features of ecosystem : ii. Heterotrophs consume autotrophs.

(A) Stratification (B) Dominance iii. Conversion of inorganic material to

(C) Energy flow (D) Productivity organic material with the help of solar
(E) Decomposition energy by the autotrophs.
(1) A and B (2) A, B, D and E (1) ii → iii → i (2) i → ii → iii
(3) C, D & E (4) B, C & D (3) iii → ii → i (4) ii → i → iii

Q.19 What is true about humus

Q.16 i. A dark coloured amorphous substance
ii. Highly resistant to microbial action
iii. Undergoes decomposition at an extremely
slow rate.
iv. The humus is further degraded by some
(1) A – grass, B – wolf , C – Lion
microbes and release inorganic nutrients
(2) A – trees, B – Goat, C- Birds
(1) i, iii and v (2) ii, iii and iv
(3) A-Phytoplankton, B- Small fish, C- Birds
(3) i, ii and v (4) All of these
(4) A – wolf , B – Lion , C - Trees
Page | 64
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.20 A pond is a shallow water body, which Q.23 Match the following column-I and Column-II.
components of an ecosystem are well Column-I Column-II
exhibited by a pond i. Producer a. Cow
i. Productivity ii. Secondary Consumer b. Wolf
ii. Decomposition iii. Tertiary Consumer c. Grass
iii. Energy flow iv. Primary Consumer d. Lion
iv. Nutrient cycling (1) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
(1) i, iii and iv (2) ii, iii and iv (2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i, ii and iv (4) All of the above (3) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c
(4) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
Q.21 What is true about decomposition?
i. Largely an oxygen-requiring process Q.24 Match the following column-I and Column-II.
ii. Rate of decomposition is controlled by Column-I Column-II
chemical composition of detritus i. First trophic level a. Herbivore
iii. Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is ii. Third trophic level b. Plants
rich in lignin and chitin iii. Second trophic level c. Carnivore
iv. Decomposition rate is fast, if detritus is iv. Fourth trophic level d. Top Carnivore
rich in nitrogen and water-soluble (1) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
substances like sugars
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
v. Temperature and soil moisture are the
(4) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c
most important climatic factors
(1) i, iii and v (2) ii, iii and iv Direction: (for Q.25-Q-36) In the following
(3) i, ii and v (4) All of these questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed
by a statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct
Q.22 Match the following column-I and Column-II.
choice.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
i. Pyramid of number of a. Upright is the correct explanation of assertion
tree ecosystem (B) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason
ii. Standing crop b. GPP – R is not the correct explanation of assertion
iii. NPP c. Never Upright (C) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
iv. Pyramid of number of d. biomass (D) Assertion is false, but reason is true.
pond ecosystem
Q.25 Assertion: In a terrestrial ecosystem, detritus
(1) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
food chain is a major conduit for energy flow.
(2) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
Reason: Solar energy is a direct source of
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
energy supply in the detritus food chain.
(4) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Page | 65
 Easy to Learn…. ECOSYSTEM
Q.26 Assertion: A sparrow can be a primary Q.31 Assertion: Primary productivity varies in
consumer as well as a secondary consumer. different types of ecosystems.
Reason: A sparrow can eat seeds, fruits, Reason: Primary productivity depends on the
peas, and also eat insects and worms. plant species, environmental factors and
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D availability of nutrients.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.27 Assertion: In most ecosystems, all the
pyramids, of number, of energy and biomass Q.32 Assertion: Raw material for decomposition
are upright. is detritus.
Reason: Producers are more in number and Reason: Mineralisation is the extreme step of
biomass than the herbivores, and herbivores decomposition.
are more in number and biomass than the (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
carnivores.
Q.33 Assertion: During decomposition,
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
fragmentation, leaching and catabolism
Q.28 Assertion: Saprophytes are not given any operate simultaneously on the detritus.
place in ecological pyramid. Reason: Detritus can be directly acted upon
Reason: Saprophytes do not play any by detrivores as well as decomposers and
significant role is ecosystem. percolating water.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.29 Assertion: Ecosystems are not exempt from Q.34 Assertion: In a particular climatic condition,
the second law of thermodynamics. decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich
Reason: Unidirectional flow of energy from in chitin and lignin.
the sun to producer and then to consumers. Reason: Chitin and lignin are large complex
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D polymers.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.30 Assertion: In an ecological pyramid, the base
of each pyramid represents the first trophic Q.35 Assertion: Measurement of standing crop in
level. terms of dry weight is more accurate than
Reason: In an ecological pyramid, any fresh weight.
calculations of energy content, biomass or Reason: Fresh weight can vary depending on
number has to include all organisms at that the physiological and environmental
trophic level. condition.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D

Page | 66
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.36 Assertion: The number of trophic levels in Q.40 Statement-I: The percentage of
the GFC is restricted. photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) in
Reason: Transfer of energy from one trophic the Incident solar radiation is less than 50%
level to the next follows 10% law. Statement-II: Plants capture only 2-10% of
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D PAR.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Direction: (for Q.37-Q-44)
(A) Statement I is correct but statement II is Q.41 Statement-I: Food web is expressed very
Incorrect well by the ecological pyramid
(B) Statement II is correct but statement I is Statement-II: Relationship is expressed in
Incorrect terms of number, biomass or energy in
(C) Both Statements I and II are correct ecological pyramids
(D) Both Statements I and II are incorrect (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.37 Statement I: Ecological pyramid is based Q.42 Statement-I: The number of trophic levels in
upon a simple food chain the grazing food chain is restricted.
Statement-II: Ecological pyramid does not Statement-II: As the transfer of energy
take into account the same species belonging follows 10 per cent law only 10 per cent of
to two or more trophic levels the energy is transferred to each trophic level
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D from the lower trophic level.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.38 Statement-I: The available biomass for the
consumption of heterotrophs can be called Q.43 Statements I : The primary productivity
net primary productivity varies in different types of ecosystems.
Statement-II: Zooplankton are at the second Statements II : Primary productivity is
trophic level in a lake dependent on the plant species inhabiting a
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D particular area.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.39 Statement-I: Vertical distribution of
different species occupying different levels is Q.44 Statement-I: Pyramid of biomass of aquatic
known as Stratification ecosystem is always inverted.
Statement-II: Secondary productivity is Statement-II: Biomass of producers in sea
defined as the rate of formation of new exceeds the biomass of consumers.
organic matter by consumers (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Page | 67
 Easy to Learn…. ECOSYSTEM

NEET–FLASHBACK
Q.1 Which one of the following is not used for Q.4 Which one of the following types of
construction of ecological pyramids? organisms occupy more than one trophic
[AIPMT-2005] level in a pond ecosystem? [AIPMT-2009]
(1) Rate of energy flow (1) Frog
(2) Fresh weight (2) Phytoplankton
(3) Dry weight (3) Fish
(4) Number of individuals (4) Zooplankton

Q.2 Which one of the following ecosystem types Q.5 Study the four statements (A-D) given below
has the highest annual net primary and select the two correct once out of them-
productivity- [AIPMT-2007] (A) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow
(1) Temperate deciduous forest feeding on grain are ecologically
(2) Tropical rain forest similar in being consumers
(3) Tropical deciduous forest (B) Predator star fish helps in maintaining
(4) Temperate evergreen forest species diversity of some invertebrates
(C) Predators ultimately lead to the
Q.3 Consider the following statements
extinction of prey species
concerning food chain - [AIPMT-2008]
(D) Production of chemicals such as
(a) Removal of 80 % tigers from an area
nicotine, strychnine by the plants are
resulted in greatly increased growth of
metabolic disorders
vegetation
The two correct statements are :
(b) Removal of most of the carnivores
[Pre-AIPMT-2010]
resulted in an increased population of
(1) A and D (2) A and B
deers
(3) B and C (4) C and D
(c) The length of food chains is generally
limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy Q.6 The biomass available for consumption by
loss the herbivores and the decomposers is called-
(d) The length of food chains may very from [Pre-AIPMT-2010]
2 to 8 trophic levels (1) Net primary productivity
Which two of the above statements are correct? (2) Secondary productivity
(1) a, c (2) a, b (3) Standing crop
(3) b, c (4) c, d (4) Gross primary productivity

Page | 68
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.7 Which one of the following is one of the Q.11 Which one of the following animals may
characteristics of a biological community? occupy more than one trophic levels in the
[Pre-AIPMT-2010] same ecosystem at the same time ?
(1) Stratification (2) Natality [Mains-AIPMT-2011]
(3) Mortality (4) Sex-ratio (1) Frog (2) Sparrow

Q.8 Which of the following representations (3) Lion (4) Goat

shows the pyramid of numbers in a forest
Q.12 The breakdown of detritus into smaller
ecosystem? [Mains-AIPMT-2010]
particles by earthworm is a process called :
[Mains-AIPMT-2011]
(1)
(1) Catabolism (2) Humification
(3) Fragmentation (4) Mineralisation
(2)

Q.13 In parasitic food chain, the pyramid of

number is [RPMT-2011]
(3) (1) Inverted (2) Upright
(3) Linear (4) Upright and inverted

Q.14 Ten percent law of energy transfer in a food

(4) chain is given by [RPMT-2011]
(1) Schimper (2) Elton
(3) Haeckel (4) Lindemann
Q.9 Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an
area at any time is called :
Q.15 In a food chain the largest population is that
[Pre-AIPMT-2011]
of [RPMT-2011]
(1) Standing state (2) Standing crop
(1) Producers
(3) Detritus (4) Humus
(2) Decomposers
Q.10 Which one of the following statements for (3) Secondary consumers
pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the (4) Primary consumers
remaining three are correct ?
[Pre-AIPMT-2011] Q.16 Which one of the following is not a functional
(1) It is upright in shape unit of an ecosystem :- [AIPMT Pre-2012]
(2) Its base is broad (1) Productivity
(3) It shows energy content of different (2) Stratification
trophic level organisms (3) Energy flow
(4) It is inverted in shape
(4) Decomposition

Page | 69
 Easy to Learn…. ECOSYSTEM
Q.17 The upright pyramid of number is absent in :- Option :
[AIPMT Pre-2012] (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Lake (2) Grassland (1) rat dog tortoise crow
(2) squirrel cat rat pigeon
(3) Pond (4) Forest
(3) deer rabbit frog rat
(4) dog squirrel bat deer
Q.18 Given below is an imaginary pyramid of
numbers. What could be one of the
Q.21 The rate of formation of new organic matter
possibilities about certain organisms at some
by rabbit in a grassland, is called :
of the different levels? [AIPMT Pre-2012]
[AIPMT Mains-2012]
(1) Net primary productivity
(2) Gross primary productivity
(3) Net productivity
(1) Level one PP is “Pipal trees” and the level (4) Secondary productivity
SC is “sheep”
(2) Level PC is “rats” and level SC is “cats” Q.22 Secondary productivity is rate of formation
(3) Level PC is “insects” and level SC is of new organic matter by : [NEET-UG 2013]
“small” insectivorous birds (1) Decomposer (2) Producer
(4) Level PP is “Phytoplanktons” in sea and (3) Parasite (4) Consumer
“Whale” on top level TC.
Q.23 Which one of the following processes during
Q.19 Identify the possible link “A” in the decomposition is correctly described ?
following food chain : [AIPMT Pre-2012] [NEET-UG 2013]
Plant → Insect → Frog → “A” → Eagle (1) Leaching - Water soluble inorganic
(1) Cobra (2) Parrot nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
(3) Rabbit (4) Wolf (2) Fragmentation - Carried out by organisms
such as earthworm
Q.20 Identify the likely organisms (a), (b), (c) and (3) Humification - Leads to the accumulation
(d) in the food web shown below: of a dark coloured substance humus
[AIPMT Mains-2012] which undergoes microbial action at a
lion
very fast rate
hawks
foxes snakes
owls garden (4) Catabolism - Last step in the
lizard (c)
decomposition under fully anaerobic
grass (d)
(a) mice (b) hopper sparrow condition.

Vegetation/seeds

Page | 70
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.24 If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, Q.29 Which of the following statements is not
then how much energy will be available to true? [NEET-UG 2017]
peacock as food in the following chain? (1) A single organism can feed at several
plant → mice → snake → peacock trophic levels
[AIPMT-2014] (2) Detritivores feed at all trophic levels
(1) 0.02 J (2) 0.002 J except the producer level
(3) 0.2 J (4) 0.0002 J (3) Primary consumers are herbivores
(4) Energy pyramids of an ecosystem tend to
Q.25 The mass of living material at a trophic level diminish at higher trophic levels
at a particular time is called :[AIPMT-2015]
Q.30 What type of ecological pyramid would
(1) Standing state
obtained with the following data ?
(2) Net primary productivity
[NEET-2018]
(3) Standing crop Secondary consumer : 120 g
(4) Gross primary productivity Primary consumer : 60 g
Primary producer : 10 g
Q.26 In an ecosystem the rate of production of
(1) Upright pyramid of biomass
organic matter during photosynthesis is
(2) Inverted pyramid of biomass
termed as: [Re-AIPMT 2015]
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers
(1) Gross primary productivity
(4) Pyramid of energy
(2) Secondary productivity
(3) Net productivity Q.31 Which of the following ecological pyramids
(4) Net primary productivity is generally inverted ? [NEET-2019]
(1) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
Q.27 Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters (2) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
are: [Re-AIPMT 2015] (3) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
(1) Detritivores (4) Pyramid of energy
(2) Primary consumers Q.32 Match the trophic levels with their correct
(3) Secondary consumers species examples in grassland ecosystem.
(4) Tertiary consumers [NEET-2020]
Column-I Column-II
Q.28 Presence of plants arranged into well defined a Fourth trophic level (i) Crow
vertical layers depending on their height can b Second trophic level (ii) Vulture
be seen best in: [NEET-UG 2017] c First trophic level (iii) Rabbit
(1) Tropical Rain Forest d Third trophic level (iv) Grass
(2) Grassland (1) a–(iii), b–(ii), c–(i), d–(iv)
(3) Temperate Forest (2) a–(iv), b–(iii), c–(ii), d–(i)
(4) Tropical Savannah (3) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(iv)
(4) a–(ii), b–(iii), c–(iv), d–(i)
Page | 71
 Easy to Learn…. ECOSYSTEM
Q.33 In relation to gross primary productivity and Q.36 Which of the following statement is not
net primary productivity of an ecosystem, correct? [NEET-2021]
which one of the following statements is (1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
correct? [NEET-2020] inverted.

(1) Gross primary productivity is always (2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
upright.
more than net primary productivity.
(3) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(2) Gross primary productivity and net
(4) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
primary productivity are one and same.
ecosystem is upright.
(3) There is no relationship between Gross
primary productivity and net primary Q.37 In The Equation GPP-R = NPP, R represents:
productivity [NEET-2021]
(4) Gross primary productivity is always less (1) Radiant Energy
than net primary productivity. (2) Retardation Factor
(3) Environment Factor
Q.34 Which of the following statements is (4) Respiration Losses
incorrect? [NEET-2020]
Q.38 The amount of nutrients, such as carbon
(1) Energy content gradually increases from
nitrogen phosphorus and calcium present in
first to fourth trophic level
the soil at any given time, is referred as:
(2) Number of individuals decreases from [NEET-2021]
first trophic level to fourth trophic level (1) Climax (2) Climax community
(3) Energy content gradually decreases from (3) Standing state (4) Standing crop
first to fourth trophic level
Q.39 Match the columns I and II, and choose the
(4) Biomass decreases from first to fourth
correct combination from the options given
trophic level
[NEET(UG)-2021(Paper -2)]
Q.35 The rate of decomposition is faster in the Column-I Column-II

ecosystem due to following factors EXCEPT: a. Pond (i) Man made ecosystem

[NEET-2020] b. Estuary (ii) Closed ecosystem

c. Forest (iii) Aquatic ecosystem
(1) Warm and moist environment
d. Crop field (iv) Terrestrial ecosystem
(2) Presence of aerobic soil microbes
(1) a - iii , b - ii c - iv d - i
(3) Detritus richer in lignin and chitin
(2) a - iv b - i , c - ii d - iii
(4) Detritus rich in sugars
(3) a - iii , b - iii c - iv , d - i
(4) a - ii b - iii c - iv d – i
Page | 72
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.40 A plant receives 1000 J of energy from sun. Q.43 Identify the correct set of statements with
The amount of energy will be present at the regard to properties of humus.
second trophic level is [NEET(UG)-2022(OVERSEAS)]
[NEET(UG)-2021(Paper -2)] (a) Highly resistant to microbial action.
(1) 1 J (b) Dark coloured amorphous substance.
(2) 10 J (c) End product of detritus food chain.
(3) 100 J (d) Reservoir of nutrients.
(4) 0.1 J (e) Undergoes decomposition very fast.
Choose the correct answer from the options
Q.41 Given below are two statements given below :
Statement I. Decomposition is a process in (1) (a), (b) and (e) only
which the detritus is degraded into simpler (2) (a) and (b) only
substances by microbes. (3) (a), (b) and (c) only
Statement I. Decomposition is faster if the (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
detritus is rich in lignin and chitin
In the life of the above statements, choose the Q.44 Which of the following are not correct
correct answer form the options given below: regarding decomposition of wastes?
[NEET-2022] [NEET(UG)-2022(OVERSEAS)]
(1) both Statement I and Statement II are (a) Low temperature decomposition.
correct inhibits
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are (b) Warm and moist environment favours
incorrect the process.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (c) The process is anaerobic.
incorrect (d) It is slower if detritus is rich in proteins
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is and carbohydrates.
correct (e) Detritus is degraded into simpler
inorganic substances by fungal and
Q.42 Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller bacterial enzymes.
particles. This process is called: Choose the correct answer from the options
[NEET-2022] given below:
(1) Catabolism (1) (c), (a) and (d) only
(2) Fragmentation (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) Humification (3) (c), (d) and (e) only
(4) Decomposition (4) (b) and (c) only

Page | 73
 Easy to Learn…. ECOSYSTEM
Q.45 Given below are two statements : Q.48 Identify the correct statements:
[NEET(UG)-2022(OVERSEAS)] A. Detrivores perform fragmentation.
Statement-I: Pyramid of energy is always B. The humus is further degraded by some
upright and is the most efficient. microbes during mineralization.
Statement-II: Pyramid of biomass in sea is C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go
generally inverted. down into the soil and get precipitated by
In the light of the above statements, choose a process called leaching.
the most appropriate answer from the options D. The detritus food chain begins with living
given below : organisms.
(1) Statement-l is incorrect but Statement-II E. Earthworms break down detritus into
is correct smaller particles by a process called
(2) Both Statement-l and Statement-II are catabolism.
correct Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) Both Statement-l and Statement-II are given below: [NEET-2023]
incorrect (1) B, C, D only (2) C, D, E only
(4) Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is (3) D, E, A only (4) A, B, C only
incorrect
Q.49 The amount of nutrients such as carbon,

Q.46 The amount of biomass or organic matter nitrogen, potassium and calcium present in

produced per unit area over a time period by the soil at any given time is referred to as :

plants during photosynthesis is called: [NEET(UG)-2023(MANIPUR)]

[Re-NEET (UG) - 2022] (1) Standing state (2) Standing crop

(1) Secondary production (3) Humus (4) Detritus

(2) Primary production

Q.50 In an ecosystem if the Net Primary
(3) Gross primary production
Productivity (NPP) of first trophic level is
(4) Net primary production
100x(kcal m–2)yr–1, what would be the GPP
(Gross Primary Productivity) of the third
Q.47 In the equation GPP – R = NPP
trophic level of the same ecosystem?
GPP is Gross Primary Productivity NPP is
[NEET-2024]
Net Primary Productivity R here is x
(1) (kcal m −2 )yr −1
________. [NEET-2023] 10
(1) Respiratory quotient (2) x (kcal m −2 )yr −1
(2) Respiratory loss (3) 10x (kcal m −2 )yr −1
(3) Reproductive allocation
100x
(4) (kcal m −2 )yr −1
(4) Photosynthetically active radiation 3x
Page | 74
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.51 Which one of the following is not a limitation (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
of ecological pyramids? [Re-NEET 2024] incorrect
(1) Saprophytes are not given any place in (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
ecological pyramids correct
(2) It assumes a simple food chain, that (3) Both statement I and statement II are
almost never exists in nature
correct
(3) It accommodates a food web
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
(4) It does not take into account the same
incorrect
species belonging to two or more trophic
levels Q.55 Who is known as the father of Ecology in

Q.52 Consider the pyramid of energy of an India? [NEET-2025]

ecosystem given below: [Re-NEET 2024] (1) Ram Udar (2) Birbal Sahni
(3) S.R. Kashyap (4) Ramdeo Misra

Q.56 Given below are two statements:

[NEET-2025]
Statement I: The primary source of energy
If T4 is equivalent to 1000 J, what is the value in an ecosystem is solar energy.
at T1? Statement II : The rate of production of
10000 10000 organic matter during photosynthesis in an
(1) J (2)  4J
10 10
ecosystem is called net primary productivity
(3) 10,000 J (4) 10, 00, 000 J
(NPP).
Q.53 Which of the following is the unit of In the light of the above statements, choose
productivity of an Ecosystem?[NEET-2025] the most appropriate answer from the options
(1) Kcal m–3 (2) (Kcal m–2) yr–1 given below:
(3) gm–2 (4) Kcal m–2 (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
Q.54 Given below are two statements:[NEET-2025] incorrect
Statement I: In ecosystem, there is (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
unidirectional flow of energy of sun from correct
producers to consumers. (3) Both statement I and statement II are
Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted correct
from 2nd law of thermodynamics.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
In the light of the above statements, choose
incorrect
the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:

Page | 75
 Easy to Learn…. ECOSYSTEM

ANSWER KEY
PRACTICE SECTION-01
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Ans: 2 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 2

PRACTICE SECTION-02
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Ans: 1 2 1 3 3 1 2 1 3

TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 2 3 4 4 3 4 1 3 4 3 1 2 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 1 4 3 1 1 4 1 1 2 1 3 3 4 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 2 4 4 1 2 1 3 2 3 1 3 4 1 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. 2 1 1 3 1 2 3

RANKER'S STUFF
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 4 2 1 1 1 1 2 3 4 4 3 1 2 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 2 3 1 1 3 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44
Ans. 1 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 1

NEET-FLASHBACK
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 2 3 3 2 1 1 2 2 4 2 3 1 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 4 3 1 3 4 4 2 1 3 1 1 1 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 4 1 1 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 2 4 2 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56
Ans. 2 2 4 1 3 3 4 2 1 4 1

Page | 76
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

Chapter

Biodiversity & Conservation 03

CONTENT 1. BIODIVERSITY

• It is combined diversity at all the levels of biological

• Biodiversity
• How Many Species are there organization. The biodiversity can be studied at three levels.
on earth and how many in
India (A) Genetic Diversity
• Pattern of Biodiversity (B) Species Diversity
• Importance Of Species
Diversity To The Ecosystem (C) Ecological Diversity
• Loss of Biodiversity
• Biodiversity Conservation

(A) Genetic Diversity:

• A species shows high diversity at gene level over its distributional range. For eg. Medicinal plant
Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in Himalayan range show diversity in synthesis of chemical
reserpine in concentration and potential.
• India has 50,000 genetically different strains of rice and 1000 varieties of mangoes.
• Rice is genetically most diverse crop. cropland is least genetic diverse ecosystem.

(B) Species Diversity:

• Diversity at species level.
• Eg.: Western Ghat have greater species diversity of amphibians than Eastern Ghat

(C) Ecological Diversity:

• Diversity at ecosystem and community level.
eg. India have diverse kind (greater diversity) of ecosystem like desert, rain forests, mangroves,
coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries and alpine meadows then the Norway.

• Biodiversity and its conservation are now vital environmental issues of international concern as
more and more people around the world begin to realise the critical importance of biodiversity for
our survival and well- being on this planet.

Page | 77
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

DETECTIVE MIND
• Red Data Book: This book contains a record of animals and plants which are known be
in danger.
This Book is maintained by the IUCN (International Union of Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources).

Practice Section-01
Q.1 Species diversity in an ecosystem mainly depends on -
(1) Light intensity (2) Temperature (3) Rain fall (4) Soil type

Q.2 A more conservative and scientifically sound estimate made by Robert May places the global
species diversity at about
(1) 17 million (2) 7 million (3) 17 billion (4) 7 billion

Q.3 The method by which endangered plant species are conserved in a botanical garden or in some
controlled circumstances -
(1) Afforestation (2) In situ conservation
(3) Ex situ conservation (4) None of the above

Q.4 The aim of plant conservation is -

(1) To conserve the necessary ecological activities and life supporting systems
(2) To conserve species diversity and range of genetic material
(3) To conserve useful wild varieties
(4) All of the above

Q.5 The term biodiversdity was popularized by sociobiologist

(1) David Tilmann (2) Charles Darwin (3) Ramdev Mishra (4) Edward Wilson

Q.6 Among animals the most species rich taxonomic group is

(1) Mollusca (2) Crustaceans (3) Insects (4) Fishes

Q.7 Which among the following is known as a Biodiversity hotspot in India?

(1) Aravali hills (2) Ganga plains (3) Eastern Ghats (4) Western Ghats

Q.8 Which one of the following is related to ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?
(1) Wildlife safari parks (2) Biodiversity hotspot
(3) Amazon rainforest (4) Himalayan region

Page | 87
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION

TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS

BIODIVERSITY (1) A-fungi, B-angiosperm, C-algae, D-
Q.1 Approximately 1.5 million species have ferns, E-mosses, F-lichens
been identified. Which group contains the (2) A-fungi, B-angiosperm, C-mosses, D-
most species world wide ferns, E-algae, F-lichens
(1) Fungi (2) Vascular plant (3) A-fungi, B-angiosperm, C-mosses, D-
(3) Insects (4) Mammals lichens, E-algae, F-ferns
(4) A-angiosperm, B-fungi, C-mosses, D-
Q.2 Which of the following group of animals is
ferns, E-algae, F-lichens
the most vulnerable to extinction
(1) Amphibia (2) Aves Q.6 Genetic diversity is the measure of
(3) Insect (4) Mammals (1) Varieties of the species and their relative
abundance present within a region
Q.3 Which equation is correct for species area
(2) Variation in the genetic information
relationship
contained in the organisms
(1) S = CAZ
(3) Diversity of the species at community
(2) A = SCZ
and ecosystem levels
(3) log S = log C + Z log A
(4) All of the above
(4) 1 & 3 Both
Q.7 Which one is not an example of recent
Q.4 Species area relationship equation was given
extinctions?
by
(1) Quagga (Africa)
(1) Mayer (2) Ehrlich
(2) Thylacine (Australlia)
(3) Humboldt (4) Wilson
(3) Red pands
Q.5 Observe the given diagram and identify the
(4) Subspecies (Bali, Javan, Caspian) of tiger
correct labelling
Q.8 Total biodiversity present in India is about
C D
.....% of total world biodiversity
(1) 8.1% (2) 6.1% (3) 2% (4) 16%
A B
Q.9 Which among the following have highest
species diversity of birds?
(1) Colombia (2) New York
E F
(3) Green land (4) India

Page | 88
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.10 Which of the following are cause of Q.15 Which among the following statements is
biodiversity loss true?
(1) Habitat loss (1) Indigenous Catfishes cause serious
(2) Over exploitation threat to African Catfish introduced in
(3) Alien species invasion India.
(4) All of these (2) Lantana is popularly known as carrot
grass.
Q.11 Which of the following became extinct due (3) The current species extinction rate is
to over exploitation nearly double the pre-human times.
(1) Passenger pigeon (4) Presently 12% of birds, 23% of
(2) Steller's Sea cow mammals, 32% of all amphibian species
(3) Cichlid fish face threat of extinction.
(4) 1 & 2 Both
Q.16 Nile perch introduced into lake Victoria in
Q.12 Out of more than 1.5 million known species east Africa led eventually to
insects are _______of the total animals (1) Stability of ecosystem
(1) 70% (2) 25% (2) The extinction of more than 200 species
(3) 50% (4) 75% of cichlid fish in the lake
(3) Both 1 and 2
Q.13 Which among the following option is (4) None of these
incorrect regarding total number of species
Q.17 The different species of a medicinal plant
on earth?
are found in different parts of Himalayan
(1) Total species of ants on earth is nearly
region which bear different concentration of
20000 a chemical ……a…..due to ……b……This
(2) Total species of beetles is nearly 30000 plant is ….c…
(3) Total species of fishes is nearly 28000 (1) a = Morphine b = species richness c =
(4) Total species of orchids is nearly 20000 Papaver somniferum
(2) a = Quinine b = genetic diversity c =
Q.14 How many plant species have been recorded Cinchona officinails
in India? (3) a = Reserpine b = genetic diversity c =
(1) 20000 (2) 350000 Rauwolfia vomitaria
(4) a = Stramonium b = genetic diversity c
(3) 35000 (4) 45000
= Atropa beladona

Page | 89
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Q.18 Incorrect about patterns of biodiversity is: Q.22
(1) Biodiversity increases when we move
from poles to equators
(2) Biodiversity is more rich in trophic in
comparison to temperate areas
(3) Amazonian rain forest is having richest
biodiversity on earth
(4) Biodiversity increases with increase in Select the wrong statement about this graph
altitude (1) The value of 'z' is 0.6 – 1.2 for large
continent / geographical area
Q.19 Graph between species richness and area is (2) It shows species area relationship
drawn. Result is: (3) The curve 'a' is Rectangular hyperbola
(1) Parabola where the slope of 'z' is much steeper
(2) Rectangular hyperbola (4) The value of 'z' is 0.1-0.2 for
(3) Sigmoid biodiversity rich zone

(4) Straight line Q.23 Red Data Book is maintained by

(1) MAB
Q.20 According to IUCN, number of described (2) The Bombay Natural History Society
species on earth are: (3) INBGR
(1) 10 lakh (2) 1.5 million (4) IUCN
(3) 7 million (4) 20-50 million
Q.24 What could be the possible reason for

Q.21 The temperate zone has less biological increased animal diversity than plant

diversity than tropics due to diversity during the course of evolution?

(1) Undisturbed Environment for millions (1) Animals are mobile

of years (2) Animals possess nervous system

(2) Environment is less seasonal, relatively (3) Animals can quickly respond to the

more constant and predictable. changed stimuli

(3) Availability of solar energy is more. (4) More than one reason as metioned above

(4) Frequent glaciations in the past.

Page | 90
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.25 Arrange in increasing order the number of Q.28 According to Robert May's global estimate
species of reptiles, fishes, mammals and only far. of the total species have been
amphibians. recorded so
(1) Fishes < Reptiles < Amphibians < (1) 22% (2) 58%
Mammals (3) 33% (4) 50%

(2) Amphibians < Reptiles < Fishes < Q.29 Why the diversity of prokaryotes is not sure?
Mammals (1) These are microscopic
(3) Mammals < Amphibians < Fishes < (2) Many of these cannot be cultured in lab
Reptiles (3) The conventional taxonomic methods
(4) Mammals < Amphibians < Reptiles < cannot be applied for identification and
Fishes description of prokaryotes
(4) All are correct
Q.26 Identify X w.r.t. biodiversity among
Q.30 Which of the following is wrong?
vertebrates?
(1) Fishes are more diverse than birds
Mammals
(2) Birds are less diverse than reptiles
(3) Amphibians are less diverse than birds
(4) Mammals are less diverse than fishes
Amphibians

(1) Insects (2) Reptiles Q.31 The three levels of biodiversity in the
(3) Birds (4) Fishes increasing hierarchial order is :
(1) Genetic diversity → Species diversity →
Q.27 Identify W, X, Y and Z w.r.t. biodiversity Ecological diversity
among invertebrates: (2) Ecological diversity → Species diversity
Z
→ Genetic diversity
Y
X (3) Genetic diversity → Ecological diversity
W → Species diversity
(4) Species diversity → Genetic diversity →
(W) (X) (Y) (Z) Ecological diversity
(1) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other
invertebrates
Q.32 Which of the following term includes all of
(2) Molluscs Insects Other Crustaceans the others?
invertebrates (1) Species diversity
(3) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other (2) Biodiversity
invertebrates (3) Genetic diversity
(4) Insects Other Crustaceans Molluscs (4) Ecosystem diversity
invertebrates

Page | 91
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Q.33 The approximate number of species of Q.38 In general, loss of biodiversity in a region
mammals and Lamphibians in Amazonian may lead to :
rain forest is respectively. (1) Decline in plant production
(1) 427,427 (2) 427,300 (2) Lower resistance to environmental
(3) 378,400 (4) 300,300 perturbations such as drought
(3) Increased variability in certain
Q.34 The global species diversity of insects is ecosystem processes such as plant
about ________ of all animals. productivity, water use, pest and disease
(1) 30% (2) 70% (3) 40% (4) 45% cycle
(4) More than one option is correct
Q.35 For a species-area relationship graph, for
Q.39 Match the columns :
which of the values of Z, the slope of line is
Column-I Column-II
most steep ?
A. Parthenium (i) Accidental entry from
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.1 (3) 1.2 (4) 0.9
(carrot grass) tropical America into
Q.36 In the 'Rivet-popper' hypothesis, Ehrlich India
compared ecosystem with airplane. B. Lantana (ii) Introduced by
Accordingly identify (A) and (B) which Europeans in India

were compared to rivets and rivets on wings C. Eichhornia (iii) African catfish introduced
illegally in India
respectively.
D. Clarias (iv) Came alongwith
Airplane Ecosystem
gariepinus imported wheat in India
Rivets A
(1) A = (i) , B = (iii), C = (iv) D = (ii)
Rivets on wings B
(2) A = (ii) , B = (iv) , C = (iii), D = (i)
(1) A = Keystone speceis; B = Species (3) A = (iv) , B = (i) , C = (ii) , D = (iii)
(2) A = Predators; B = Prey (4) A = (iv) , B = (i) , C = (iii), D = (ii)
(3) A = Species; B = Keystone species BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
(4) A = Prey; B = Predators Q.40 How many wildlife sanctuaries are there in
India (up to 2005)
Q.37 Which of the following has undergone
(1) 14 (2) 90
recent extinctions?
(3) 448 (4) zero
(1) Dodo (Mauritius), Quagga (Africa)
Q.41 Which one of the following is not used for
(2) Thylacine (Australia), Stellar's sea cow
ex-situ plant conservation?
(Russia)
(1) Field gene banks
(3) Three subspecies of Tiger (Bali, Javan
(2) Seed banks
and Caspian) (3) Shifting cultivation
(4) All of the above (4) Botanical garden

Page | 92
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.42 When we conserve and protect the whole Q.49 Wild populations of plants and animals and
ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is traditional life styles of tribals are protected in
protected. This approach is called (1) Biosphere Reserve
(1) Ex- situ conservation (2) Sanctuary
(2) In- situ conservation (3) National Park
(3) Shifting cultivation (4) None of these
(4) contoor farming
Q.50 Which is not a criteria used for determining
Q.43 Total number of Biodiversity Hot spot in
hot spots
India are
(1) Number of endemic species
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (2) Degree of habitat destruction
Q.44 Total number of Biodiversity Hot spots in (3) Having traditional strategy for protection
world are of biodiversity
(1) 25 (2) 9 (3) 34 (4) 32 (4) High diversity
Q.45 Which of the following is a method of in- Q.51 How many species became extinct in last
situ conservation 500 years
(1) National Park (1) 338 (2) 359 (3) 784 (4) 2000
(2) Cryopreservation Q.52 Red data book is famous for -
(3) Botanical Garden (1) Extinct plants and animals
(4) All of these (2) Extinct plants only
Q.46 Which of the following are parts of (3) Endangered plants and animals
Biosphere reserves (4) Extinct animals only
(1) Transition zone (2) Buffer zone Q.53 Which of the following species is in
(3) Core Zone (4) All of the above endangered state -
Q.47 Which of the following convention is related (1) Indian bustard & rhinoceros
to conservation of biodiversity (2) Asiatic wild ass
(1) Rio de Janeiro Convention (3) Black buck
(2) Montreal protocol (4) All the above
(3) Kyoto protocol Q.54 In which summit, 190 countries were agreed
(4) All for significant reduction in the current rate
Q.48 Which of the following hot spots are present of biodiversity loss at global, regional and
local levels by 2010.
in India
(1) Western Ghat & SRI Lanka (1) Earth Summit Rio de Janeiro, 1992
(2) Indo-Burma (2) Beijing protocol, 1999
(3) World Summit Johanneshburg, 2002
(3) Himalaya
(4) All of the above (4) Kyoto protocol, 1997

Page | 93
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Q.55 Wild life sanctuaries are example of Q.62 Khasi and jantia hills in meghalaya, aravali
(1) In-situ conservation hills of Rajasthan, western ghat regions of
(2) Ex-situ conservation karnataka and maharashtra and the sarguja,
(3) Cryopreservation chanda & baster areas of Madhya pradesh
(4) Green Houses represent
Q.56 The zone of biosphere reserve where no (1) National Parks
human activity is permitted is known as (2) Biosphere reserves
(1) Buffer zone (3) Wild life sanctuaries
(2) Core zone (4) Sacred grooves
(3) Manipulation zone
Q.63 Ex situ conservation is carried out in:
(4) Transition zone
(1) Sanctuary
Q.57 Which of the following is narrow utility of
(2) National park
biodiversity
(3) biosphere reserve
(1) Fiber production (2) Taxol production
(4) Cryopreservation
(3) O2 production (4) 1 & 2 Both
Q.58 Who proposed hot spot concept for region of Q.64 Which of the following is not a Hot spot in
high ecological diversity India.
(1) IUCN (2) Mayer (1) Western ghat (2) Himalaya
(3) Odum (4) Cormandii (3) Indo-Berma (4) Eastern ghat
Q.59 When a host fish species becomes extinct, Q.65 Collection of forest products, harvesting of
its unique assemblage of parasites?
timber, tilling of land and private ownership
(1) Switch to new host
are allowed in:
(2) Switch their niche
(1) Sanctuaries
(3) becomes extinct also
(2) National parks
(4) evolve into predators
(3) Core and buffer zone of biosphere
Q.60 Which is known as 'lungs of the planet'?
reserve
(1) Amazon rain forests
(4) All of these
(2) Temperate forests
(3) Sahara desert Q.66 The historic convention on Biological
(4) Savannah grasslands Diversity held in Rio De Janeiro in 1992 is
Q.61 Why Amazon rain forests are being cut at a
known as:
high rate?
(1) CITES convention
(1) For cultivation of soyabean
(2) The Earth Summit
(2) For conversion grasslands for raising
beef cattle (3) G-16 summit
(3) For construction of multistoreyes (4) MAB programme
(4) Both (1) and (2)

Page | 94
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

RANKER'S STUFF
Q.1 If a certain plant species is not found in its Q.6 Best method to preserve the wild relatives of
wild localities even after repeated search, plants -
then it would be listed in which category in (1) By growing them in natural habitats
the "Red Data Book" - (2) Gene library
(1) Extinct (2) Endangered (3) By storing seeds
(3) Vulnerable (4) Rare (4) Cryopreservation

Q.2 Number of wild life is continuously Q.7 What shall be the effect of destruction of wild
decreasing. What is the main reason of this - life ?
(1) Predation (1) Wild gene of disease resistance will not
(2) Cutting down of forest be available
(3) Destruction of habitat (2) Soil erosion
(4) Hunting (3) Floods
(4) Green-house effect
Q.3 Which one of the following pairs of
geographical areas show maximum Q.8 In your opinion, which is the most effective
biodiversity in our country - way to conserve the plant diversity of an area-
(1) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch (1) By creating biosphere reserve
(2) Eastern Ghats and West Bengal (2) By creating botanical garden
(3) Himalaya and Western Ghats (3) By developing seed bank
(4) Kerala and Punjab (4) By tissue culture method

Q.4 One of the ex situ conservation methods for Q.9 Which is not true about Amazonian rain
endangered species is - forest
(1) Wildlife Sanctuaries i. Is home to more than 378 species of
(2) Biosphere Reserves reptiles
(3) Cryopreservation ii. Is home to more than 1,25,000 species of
(4) National Parks invertebrates
iii. Is home to at least 40,000 species of plants
Q.5 Main reason of disturbance of biological
iv. Is located in North America
diversity -
v. Has lesser biodiversity as compared to
(1) Green-house effect
Greenland
(2) Hunting
(1) i, ii and iii (2) ii, iii and iv
(3) Soil erosion
(3) iii, iv and i (4) iv and v
(4) Destruction of natural habitats
Page | 95
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Q.10 Which is incorrect about 'Hotspots'? Q.13 Match the column-I and column-II.
(1) They have high level of species richness
Column-I Column-II
and high degree of endemism.
a. Food i. Narrowly utilitarian
(2) The number of hot spots is 34 at global
b. Lubricants ii. Broadly utilitarian
level.
(3) Indian sub-continent has 3 hot spots – c. Pollination

Indo – Berma, Himalaya, Western ghat d. Oxygen

and Shri-lanka (1) a-i, b-i, c-ii, d-ii
(4) They cover more than 2 percent of earth's
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-i, d-ii
land area.
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-i, d-ii
Q.11 Match the following column-I and column-II. (4) a-ii, b-i, c-i, d-ii
Column-I Column-II
Q.14 In the following pie chart of global
a. Jaintia hills i Maharashtra
vertebrates diversity. What do A, B and C
b. Aravalli ii. Madhya Pradesh
represent respectively?
c. Western Ghat iii. Meghalaya
d. Khasi iv. Karnataka
e. Sarguja v. Rajasthan

(1) a-iii, b-v, c-i, iv, d-iii, e-ii

(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-v
(3) a-v, b-iii, c-i, iv, d-ii, e-iv (1) Birds, Fishes, Amphibian
(4) a-iv, b-v, c-i, iv, d-ii, e-ii (2) Mammals, Reptiles, Birds
Q.12 Match the following columns regarding the (3) Fishes, Birds, Amphibians
extinction (4) Amphibians, Fishes, Reptiles
Column-I Column-II
Q.15 Given below are some utilitarian services of
a. Habitat loss i. Clarias gariepinus
biodiversity for the benefits in a box.
b. Over exploitation ii. Plant-pollinator
Timber, Pollinators, Reserpine, Quinine,
c. Alien species invasions iii. Soyabeans
Perfumes, Gaseous Composition,
cultivation
Watching spring flower in full bloom
d. Co-extinctions iv. Steller's sea cow
How many of them are broadly utilitarian
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
services of biodiversity?
(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(1) Two (2) Five
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) Three (4) Four
(4) a-iv, b-v, c-i, d-ii

Page | 96
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.16 Match the following columns I & II: Direction: In the following questions, a statement
Column-I Column-II of assertion is followed by a statement of Reason.
(a) dodo (i) Africa Mark the correct choice.

(b) quagga (ii) Mauritius (A) Both assertion and reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(c) Thylacine (iii) Russia
(B) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason
(d) Steller's sea cow (iv) Australia
is not the correct explanation of assertion
(1) a (ii) b (i) c (iii) d (iv)
(C) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(2) a (ii) b (i) c (iv) d (iii)
(D) Assertion is false, but reason is true.
(3) a (i) b (ii) c (iv) d (iii)
Q.19 Assertion: Conservation via hot spot
(4) a (i) b (ii) c (iii) d (iv)
conservation is far more efficient.
Reason: Protection of comparatively smaller
Q.17 How many of the following are broadly
areas can reduce the on going mass
utilitarian arguments for conserving
extinctions by almost 30 percent.
biodiversity? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(a) Oxygen
Q.20 Assertion: Species with low genetic variability
(b) Fibres
are usually at a great risk of extinction.
(c) Pollination
Reason: Low genetic variability increases
(d) Flood and erosion control vulnerability to disease, env. changes and
(1) One (2) Three predators.
(3) Four (4) Two (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.18 Identify A and B in the following Q.21 Assertion: IUCN prepare and maintain the
representation of global biodiversity showing red data book since 1963.
proportionate number of species of major Reason: It is a catalogue which provide an
taxa of invertebrates. awareness about the degree of threat to
diversity.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.22 Assertion: Tropical latitudes have greater

biological diversity
(1) A – Molluscs B – Crustaceans
Reason: Tropical latitudes in the past were
(2) A - Molluscs B – Other animal groups
unaffected for millions of years, allowing
(3) A – Crustaceans B – other animal groups species to thrive.
(4) A – Molluscs Insects (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Page | 97
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Q.23 Assertion : Biologists are not sure about how Q.28 Assertion: Habitat loss and fragmentation
many prokaryotic species there might be represents the most important cause driving
Reason : Taxonomic methods are not animals and plants to extinction.
suitable for identifying microbial species. Reason: Amazon rain forest is commonly
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D called 'lungs of planet.

Q.24 Assertion: Keystone species are not relevant (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

to biodiversity conservation.
Q.29 Assertion: India has more than 50,000
Reason: Keystone species have a significant
genetically different strains of rice.
impact on community Structure and
Reason: Western Ghats have a lesser
characterstics.
amphibian diversity than Eastern Ghats.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.25 Assertion : Equador has up to 10 times as
many species of vascular plants as a forest of Q.30 Assertion: Indian ecosystem diversity is

the Midwest of the USA. greater than Norway.

Reason : In general, species diversity Reason: India has alpine meadows along the
decreases as we move away from the equator Himalays.
towards the poles (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.31 Assertion: According to IUCN (2004), the
Q.26 Assertion: A stable community should not total number of plant and animal species
show too much variation in productivity from
described so far is slightly more than 1.5
year to year.
million.
Reason: A stable ecosystem is resistant to
Reason: According to Robert May, the
occasional disturbances.
global species diversity is about 7 million.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.27 Assertion: The 'Rivet-popper hypothesis was
Q.32 Assertion: Among animals, insects are the
given by Paul Ehrlich.
Reason: This hypothesis relates to most species-rich taxonomic group.

explanation of importance of all types of Reason: Among plants, angiosperms are

species in an ecosystem. most diverse.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Page | 98
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.33 Assertion: The number of fungi species in Q.38 Assertion: About 25,000 species of plants
the world is more than the combined total contribute to the traditional medicines used
species of fishes, amphibians, reptiles and
by native peoples around the world.
mammals.
Reason: More than 25% of the drugs
Reason: Fungi diversity is more than
mammalian diversity. currently sold worldwide are derived from
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D plants.

Q.34 Assertion: There is no known estimate of (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

prokaryotic biodiversity.
Q.39 Assertion: India has a very rich bioprospect.
Reason: Conventional taxonomic methods
Reason: India houses over 45,000 species of
are not suitable for identifying microbial
species. plants.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.35 Assertion: Applying Robert may's estimate Q.40 Assertion: In-situ conservation relates to the
of biological diversity, 22% of the total conservation of the whole ecosystem where
species have been recorded so far.
the biodiversity at all levels is protected.
Reason: As per above estimate, about 45,000
Reason: In-situ conservation includes
species of plants and twice as many of
animals are yet to be discovered and biosphere reserves, national parks and
described in India. wildlife safari parks.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Q.36 Assertion: The tropical Amazonian rain Q.41 Assertion: Ex-situ conservation is desirable
forest has the greatest diversity on earth.
for plants and animals facing a very high risk
Reason: In tropical Amazonian rain forest,
of extinction in wild in the near future.
mammalian diversity is almost same as
amphibian diversity. Reason: Ex-situ conservation is off-site
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D conservation.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
Q.37 Assertion: There is more solar energy
available in the tropics which contributes to Q.42 Assertion: Biodiversity hot spots have a very
higher productivity.
high endemism.
Reason: Higher productivity in tropics might
Reason: Biodiversity hotspots are regions of
have contributed directly to greater
biodiversity in tropics during evolution. accelerated habitat loss also.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

Page | 99
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Q.43 Assertion: The global biodiversity hotspots Q.46 Statement-I: Conservation in the natural
together cover less than 2% of the earth's land habitat is called in situ conservation
area. Statement-II: Botanical garden is an
Reason: Strict protection of these hotspots example o in situ conservation
could reduce the ongoing mass exction by (1) Both statement I and II are correct
almost 13%. (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
Q.44 Statement-I : Amphibians appear to be more
correct
vulnerable to extinction.
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
Statement-II : All mass extinctions were due
to human activities.
(1) Both statement I and II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

Q.45 Statement-I : The value of Z lies in the range

of 0.1 to 0.2, regardless of the tanxonomic
group or the region (whether it is the plants in
Britain, birds in California or molluscs in
New York state.)
Statement-II : Among very large areas like
the entire continents the slope of the line to
be much steeper
(1) Both statement I and II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

Page | 100
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….

NEET–FLASHBACK
Q.1 Which one of the following have the highest Q.5 Biodiversity of a geographical region
number of species in nature? represents : [AIPMT Mains- 2011]
[AIPMT Pre- 2011] (1) Species endemic to the region
(1) Angiosperms (2) Fungi (2) Endangered species found in the region
(3) Insects (4) Birds (3) The diversity in the organisms living in
the region
Q.2 A collection of plants and seeds having
(4) Genetic diversity present in the
diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is
dominant species of the region.
called : [AIPMT Pre- 2011]
(1) Genome Q.6 Which one of the following areas in India, is
(2) Herbarium a hot spot of biodiversity?
(3) Germplasm [AIPMT Pre-2012]
(4) Gene library (1) Sunderbans (2) Western Ghats
(3) Eastern Ghats (4) Gangetic plain
Q.3 Which one of the following expanded forms
of the following acronyms is correct ? Q.7 The highest number of species in the world
[AIPMT Pre- 2011] is represented by :- [AIPMT Pre-2012]
(1) IUCN = International Union for (1) Algae (2) Lichens
Conservation of Nature and Natural (3) Fungi (4) Mosses
Resources
Q.8 Select the correct statement about
(2) IPCC = International Panel for Climate
biodiversity: [AIPMT Mains-2012]
Change
(1) Western Ghats have a very high degree
(3) UNEP = United Nations Environmental
of spices richness and endemism.
policy
(2) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad
(4) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency
pursued by the developed countries.

Q.4 Which one of the following shows (3) The desert areas of Rajasthan and

maximum genetic diversity in India? Gujarat have a very high level of desert

[AIPMT Mains- 2011] animal species as well as numerous rare

(1) Mango (2) Groundnut animals.

(3) Rice (4) Maize (4) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no
adverse effect on biodiversity
Page | 101
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Q.9 Sacred groves are specially useful in : Q.14 Given below is the representation of the
[AIPMT Mains-2012] extent of global diversity of invertebrates.
(1) Year round flow of water in rivers What groups the four portions (A-D)
represent respectively:
(2) Conserving rare and threatened spices
D
C
(3) Generating environmental awareness B A
(4) Preventing soil erosion

Q.10 Which one of the following is not used for Options :

A B C D
ex situ plant conservation?
(1) Insects Crustaceans Other animal Molluscs
[NEET-UG 2013]
groups
(1) Botanical Gardens (2) Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other
(2) Field gene banks animal
groups
(3) Seed banks
(3) Molluscs Other animal Crustaceans Insects
(4) Shifting cultivation
groups

Q.11 An example of ex situ conservation is : (4) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other

animal
[AIPMT-2014] groups
(1) National park
Q.15 Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened
(2) Seed Bank
species in viable and fertile condition can be
(3) Wildlife Sanctuary referred to as: [AIPMT-2015]
(4) Sacred Grove (1) Advanced ex-situ conservation of
biodiversity
Q.12 A species facing extremely high risk of
(2) In situ conservation by sacred groves
extinction in the immediate future is called : (3) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
[AIPMT-2014] (4) In situ conservation of biodiversity
(1) Vulnerable Q.16 In which of the following both pairs have
(2) Endemic correct combination:- [AIPMT-2015]
(3) Critically Endangered (1) In situ conservation: Cryopreservation
(4) Extinct Ex situ conservation: Wildlife Sanctuary
(2) In situ conservation : Seed Bank
Q.13 The organization which publishes the Red Ex situ conservation : National Park
List of species is : [AIPMT-2014] (3) In situ conservation : Tissue culture
(1) ICFRE (2) IUCN Ex situ conservation : Sacred groves
(4) In situ conservation : National Park
(3) UNEP (4) WWF
Ex situ conservation : Botanical Garden
Page | 102
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.17 The species confined to a particular region Q.22 Red list contains data or information on :
and not found elsewhere is termed as: [NEET-II 2016]
[Re-AIPMT 2015] (1) Threatened species
(1) Rare (2) Keystone (2) Marine vertebrates only
(3) Alien (4) Endemic (3) All economically important plants
(4) Plants whose products are in international
Q.18 Which of the following is not concerned
trade
with loss of biodiversity ? [AIPMT-2015]
Q.23 The region of Biosphere Reserve which is
(1) Alien species invasion
legally protected and where no human
(2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
activity is allowed is known as:
(3) De forestation
[NEET-2017]
(4) Ex-situ conservation
(1) Core zone (2) Buffer zone
Q.19 Which of the following is the most important (3) Transition zone (4) Restoration zone
cause of animals and plants being driven to Q.24 Which one of the following is related to Ex-
extinction? [NEET-2016] situ conservation of threatened animals and
(1) Over-exploitation plants? [NEET-2017]
(2) Alien species invasion (1) Wildlife Safari parks
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation (2) Biodiversity hot spots
(4) Co-extinctions (3) Amazon rainforest
(4) Himalayan region
Q.20 Which of the following is a characteristic
feature of cropland ecosystem? Q.25 Alexandar Von Humboldt described for the
[NEET-I 2016] first time: [NEET-2017]
(1) Absence of soil organisms (1) Ecological Biodiversity
(2) Least genetic diversity (2) Laws of limiting factor
(3) Absence of weeds (3) Species area relationships
(4) Ecological succession (4) Population Growth equation

Q.26 All of the following are included in 'Ex-situ

Q.21 How many hot spots of biodiversity in the conservation' except : [NEET-2018]
world have been identified till date by (1) Seed banks
Norman Myers? [NEET-II 2016] (2) Wildlife safari parks
(1) 34 (2) 43 (3) Botanical gardens
(3) 17 (4) 25 (4) Scared groves

Page | 103
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Q.27 Pollen grains can be stored for several years Q.31 Decline in the population of indian native
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of : fishes due to introduction of Clarias gariepinus
[NEET-2018] in river Yamuna can be categoriesd as :-
(1) – 160°C (2) – 120°C [NEET(UG)-2019 (Odisha)]
(3) – 196°C (4) – 80°C (1) Co-extinction
(2) Habitat fragmentation
Q.28 Which one of the following is not a method
(3) Over exploitation
of in situ conservation of biodiversity?
(4) Alien species invasion
[NEET-2019]
(1) Botanical Garden Q.32 Western Ghats have a large number of plant

(2) Sacred Grove and animal species that are not found

(3) Biosphere Reserve anywhere else. Which of the following terms

will you use to notify such species?
(4) Wildlife’ Sanctuary
[NEET(UG)-2019 (Odisha)]
Q.29 Which of the following is the most important (1) Endemic (2) Vulnerable
cause for animals and plants being driven to (3) Threatened (4) Keystone
extinction ? [NEET-2019]
Q.33 Exploration of molecular, genetic and
(1) Economic exploitation
species level diversity for novel products of
(2) Alien species invasion
economic importance is known as:
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
[NEET(UG)-2019 (Odisha)]
(4) Drought and floods
(1) Biopiracy (2) Bioenergetics
Q.30 The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in (3) Bioremediation (4) Bioprospecting
1992 was called: [NEET-2019] Q.34 Which of the following regions of the globe
(1) To assess threat posed to native species exhibits highest species diversity?
by invasive weed species. [NEET-2020]
(2) For immediate steps to discontinue use (1) Madagascar
of CFCs that were damaging the ozone (2) Himalayas
layer. (3) Amazon forests
(3) To reduce CO2 emissions and global (4) Western Ghats of India
warming.
Q.35 According to Robert May, the global species
(4) For conservation of biodiversity and
diversity is about: [NEET-2020]
sustainable utilization of its benefits.
(1) 20 million (2) 50 million
(3) 7 million (4) 1.5 million
Page | 104
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.36 In the following in each set a conservation Q.39 The following graph shows
approach and an example of method of [NEET(UG)-2021 (Paper-2)]
conservation are given [NEET-2020]
A. In situ conservation - Biosphere Reserve
B. Ex situ conservation - Sacred groves
C. In situ conservation - Seed bank
D. Ex situ conservation - Cryopreservation
Select the option with correct match of (1) Plant-animal relationship
approach and method: (2) Algae-fungi relationship
(1) A and D (3) Species-volume relationship
(2) B and D (4) Species-area relationship
(3) A and B
(4) A and C Q.40 Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to
[NEET(UG)-2021 (Paper-2)]
Q.37 According to Alexander von Humboldt: (1) Decline in plant production
[NEET-2020] (2) Lowered resistance to drought
(1) Species richness increases with (3) Increased variability in disease cycles
increasing area, but only up to limit (4) All of the above
(2) There is no relationship between species
richness and area explored Q.41 Habitat loss and fragmentation, over
(3) Species richness goes on increasing with exploitation, alien species invasion and co-
increasing area of exploration extinction are causes for: [NEET-2022]
(4) Species richness decreases with (1) Population explosion
increasing area of exploration (2) Competition
(3) Biodiversity loss
Q.38 Find the wrongly matched pair. (4) Natality
[NEET(UG)-2021 (Paper-2)]
Q.42 Which of the following is not a method of ex
(1) Clarias gariepinus - African catfish
situ conservation? [NEET-2022]
(2) Himalaya - Hotspot
(1) In vitro fertilization
(3) Aravalli hills - Sacred groves
(2) National Parks
(4) Earth Summit - South Africa
(3) Micropropagation
(4) Cryopreservation
Page | 105
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Q.43 Which of the following is not a method of ex Q.47 Endemism refers to :
situ conservation? [NEET-2022] [NEET(UG)-2022 (OVERSEAS)]
(1) Cryopreservation (1) Species evenness
(2) in vitro fertilization (2) Species confined to that region
(3) National parks (3) Species diversity
(4) Micropropagation (4) Species richness

Q.48 Give the correct descending order of

Q.44 In-situ conservation refers to :
organisms with reference to their estimated
[NEET-2022]
number found in Amazon forest.
(1) Conserve only extinct species
[RE-NEET(UG)-2022]
(2) Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
(a) Plants (b) Invertebrates
(3) Conserve only high risk species
(c) Fishes (d) Mammals
(4) Conserve only endangered species
(e) Birds
Q.45 Which of the following come under the "Evil Choose the correct answer from the options
Quartet"? [NEET(UG)-2022 (OVERSEAS)] given below :
(a) Habitat loss and fragmentation (1) (a) > (b) > (e) > (d) > (c)
(b) Over-exploitation (2) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b) > (e)
(c) Alien species invasion (3) (b)> (a) > (e) > (d) > (c)
(d) Mortality (4) (b) > (a) > (c) > (e) > (d)
(e) Competition
Q.49 The World Summit on sustainable
Choose the correct answer from the options
development held in 2002 in Johannesburg,
given below :
South Africa pledged for:
(1) (b), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
[RE-NEET(UG)-2022]
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d)
(1) A significant reduction in the current
Q.46 Species Area relationship is described by the rate of biodiversity loss.
following equation. (2) Declaration of more biodiversity
log S=log C+Z log A hotspots.
where Z is: (3) Increase in agricultural production
[NEET(UG)-2022 (OVERSEAS)] (4) Collection and preservation of seeds of
(1) Species richness (2) Slope of the line different genetic strains of commercially
(3) Y-intercept (4) Area important plants.

Page | 106
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.50 Match List-I with List-II : Q.53 The historic Convention on Biological
[RE-NEET(UG)-2022] Diversity, ‘The Earth Summit’ was held in
List-I List-II Rio de Janeiro in the year [NEET-2023]

(a) Sacred groves (i) Alien species (1) 1992 (2) 1986 (3) 2002 (4) 1985

(b) Zoological (ii) Release of large Q.54 Among 'The Evil Quartet', which one is
park quantity of oxygen considered the most important cuase driving
(c) Nile perch (iii) Ex-situ conservation extinction of species? [NEET-2023]
(d) Amazon forest (iv) Khasi Hills in (1) Over exploitation for economic gain
Meghalaya (2) Alien species invasions

Choose the correct answer from the options (3) Co-extinctions

(4) Habitat loss and fragmentations
given below :
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) Q.55 The species of plants that plays a vital role in
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii) controlling the relative abundance of other
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) species in a community is called ________.
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) [NEET(UG)-2023 (MANIPUR)]
(1) alien species (2) endemic species
Q.51 Frugivorous birds are found in large numbers
(3) exotic species (4) keystone species
in tropical forests mainly because of :
[RE-NEET(UG)-2022] Q.56 Which of the following is/are cause(s) of
biodiversity losses ?
(1) Lack of niche specialisation
[NEET(UG)-2023 (MANIPUR)]
(2) Higher annual rainfall
(1) Over-exploitation, habitat loss and
(3) Availability of fruits throughout the year
fragmentation.
(4) Temperature conducive for their breeding
(2) Climate change only

Q.52 Western Ghats have a large number of plants (3) Over-Exploitation only
(4) Habitat loss and fragmentation only
and animal species that are not found any
where else. Which of the following term is Q.57 In 'rivet popper hypothesis', Paul Ehrlich
used to notify such species? compared the rivets in an airplane to :
[RE-NEET(UG)-2022] [NEET(UG)-2023 (MANIPUR)]
(1) Threatened species (1) species within a genus
(2) Keystone species (2) genetic diversity

(3) Endemic species (3) ecosystem

(4) genera within a family
(4) Vulnerable species

Page | 107
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Q.58 These are regarded as major causes of Choose the correct answer from the options
biodiversity loss: [NEET-2024] given below:
A. Over exploitation (1) A, B and D only
B. Co-extinction
(2) A, C, D and E only
C. Mutation
(3) A and B only
D. Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) A, B and E only
E. Migration
Choose the correct option: Q.61 Match List I with List II: [NEET-2024]
(1) A, B and D only List-I List-II
(2) A, C and D only (A) Robert May (I) Species-Area
(3) A, B, C and D only relationship
(4) A, B and E only (B) Alexander von (II) Long term ecosystem
Humboldt experiment using
Q.59 List of endangered species was released by-
out door plots
[NEET-2024]
(1) IUCN (2) GEAC (C) Paul Ehrlich (III) Global species

(3) WWF (4) FOAM diversity at about 7

million
Q.60 Tropical regions show greatest level of (D) David Tilman (IV) Rivet popper
species richness because [NEET-2024] Choose the correct answer from the options
A. Tropical latitudes have remained given below:
relatively undisturbed for millions of (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

years, hence more time was available for (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
species diversification.
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
B. Tropical environments are more
Q.62 The regions with high level of species
seasonal.
richness, high degree of endemism and a loss
C. More solar energy is available in tropics.
of 70% of the species and habitat are
D. Constant environments promote niche
identified as : [Re-NEET-2024]
specialization. (1) Natural Reserves
E. Tropical environments are constant and (2) Sacred Groves
predictable. (3) Biodiversity Hotspots
(4) Biogeographical Regions
Page | 108
BIOLOGY Easy to Learn….
Q.63 Which one of the following is not included Q.66 Which one of the following is an example of
under in-situ conservation? ex-situ conservation? [NEET-2025]
[Re-NEET-2024] (1) Zoos and botanical gardens
(1) Wild-life sanctuary
(2) Protected areas
(2) Botanical garden
(3) National Park
(3) Biosphere reserve
(4) Wildlife Sanctuary
(4) National park
Q.67 Match List I with List II: [NEET-2025]
Q.64 Cryopreservation technique is used for :
List-I List-II
[Re-NEET-2024]
(1) Protection of environment. (A) The Evil Quartet (I) Cryopreservation

(2) Protection of biodiversity hotspots. (B) Ex situ (II) Alien species

(3) Preservation of gametes in viable and conservation invasion

fertile condition for a long period. (C) Lantana camara (III) Causes of

(4) In-situ conservation. biodiversity losses

(D) Dodo (IV) Extinction
Q.65 Match List I with List II: [Re-NEET-2024]
Choose the option with all correct matches.
List-I List-II
(A) Biodiversity (I) Khasi and (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
hotspot Jantia hills in (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Meghalaya (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(B) Sacred groves (II) World Summit (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
on sustainable
(C) Johannesburg, (III) Parthenium
South Africa
(D) Alien species (IV) Western Ghats
invasion
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Page | 109
 Easy to Learn…. BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION

ANSWER KEY

PRACTICE SECTION-01
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans: 3 2 3 4 4 3 4 1

TOPIC WISE QUESTIONS

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 4 3 2 2 3 1 1 4 4 1 2 4 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 4 2 2 4 4 4 4 4 4 3 1 4 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 2 1 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 3 3 1
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 1 4 1 3 3 3 4 3 1 2 4 2 3 1
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66
Ans. 4 4 4 4 1 2

RANKER'S STUFF
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 3 3 4 1 1 1 4 4 1 1 1 3 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 4 1 2 2 2 3 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 2 1 3 2 2 3 2 1
Que. 46
Ans. 2

NEET-FLASHBACK
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 1 3 3 2 3 1 2 4 2 3 2 4 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 4 4 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 4 3 1 3 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 1 4 3 3 1 1 4 4 4 3 2 3 2 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 1 4 4 1 1 1 1 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67
Ans. 3 3 2 3 1 1 4
Page | 110