UPSC Polity Prelims PYQs —

Chapter-wise Segregation
This document reorganizes the questions from the attached polity
PDF into topic-wise chapters. Classification is based on the wording of
each question from the attached file and is meant as a practical study
aid, so a few questions can reasonably fit more than one chapter. [1]

Chapter list
Chapter Questions
Preamble, Features and Philosophy 9 [1]
Fundamental Rights 0 [1]
Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties 0 [1]
Amendment and Basic Structure 0 [1]
President and Vice President 0 [1]
Prime Minister, Council of Ministers and Cabinet 0 [1]
Parliament 2 [1]
Judiciary 0 [1]
Governor, Chief Minister and State Legislature 0 [1]
Federalism, Centre-State Relations and Emergency 0 [1]
Local Government and Tribal Areas 0 [1]
Elections and Political Parties 0 [1]
Constitutional and Statutory Bodies 0 [1]
Miscellaneous Polity and Governance 0 [1]
Preamble, Features and Philosophy
2023
Q1. In essence, what does Due Process of Law' mean? (a) The
principle of natural justice (b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law (d) Equality before law Correct
answer: c Q2. In India, which one of the following Constitutional
Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the
judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights? (a) 1st
Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment (c) 44th Amendment (d) 86th
Amendment Correct answer: a Q3. Consider the following
organizations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for
Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3.
The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer
Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above
constitutional bodies? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Only three
(d) All four Correct answer: a Q4. Consider the following
statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared
void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in
the performance of duties of his/her office of President before
the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the
President of India can be postponed on the ground that some
Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet
to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India,
the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has
to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are
correct? (a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct
answer: d Q5. With reference to Scheduled Areas in India,
consider the following statements: 1. Within a State, the
notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an
Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit
forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the
cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the
concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the
Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas
in the States. How many of the above statements are correct? (a)
Only one (b) Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct answer: b
Q.6. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The
 Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the
reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution
of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of
efficiency of administration. Statement-II: Article 335 of the
Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of
administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (d)
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct Correct
answer: c Q7. With reference to Home Guards, consider the
following statements : 1. Home Guards are raised under the
Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The
role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the
police in maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent
infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border
Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct? (a) Only one (b)
Only two (c) All three (d) None Correct answer: b Q8. 1.
Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms The Official
Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading of otherwise
interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged
in their du�es The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3. Celebratory
gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others The
Arms (Amendment) Act, [1]

2019
Q1. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the (a) Department
of Science and Technology (b) Ministry of Labour and
Employment (c) NITI Aayog (d) Ministry of Skill Development
and Entrepreneurship Correct answer: c Q2. Consider the
following statements: 1. The 44th Amendment to the
Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of
the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court
of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of
India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: b Q3.
Consider the following statements: 1. The motion to impeach a
Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the
Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968. 2.
The Constitution of India defines and gives details or what
constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges
of the Supreme Court of India. 3. The details of the process of
impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are
given in 4 the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 4. If the motion for the
impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires
the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and
supported by a majority of total membership of that House and
by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House
present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
Correct answer: c Q4. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the
Constitution of India during the prime ministership of (a)
Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri (c) Indira Gandhi (d)
Morarji Desai Correct answer: a Q5. Consider the following
statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification)
Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the
grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. 2. The above-mentioned Act was
amended five times. 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined
in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2
and 3 Correct answer: a Q6. Under which Schedule of the
Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private
parties for mining be declared null and void? (a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule (c) Ninth Schedule (d) Twelfth Schedule Correct
answer: b Q7. Consider the following statements about
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: PVTGs
reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. A stagnant or
declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG
status. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so
far. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of
PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2
and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Correct answer: c
Q8. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or
limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act
as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers
under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (a)
The decisions taken by the. Election Commission of India while
discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise
of its powers by the laws made by Parliament. (c) In the event of
grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can
declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the
Cabinet. (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain
matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature. Correct
answer: b Q9. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a
State in India, consider the following statements: 1. The
Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House
at the commencement of the first session of the year. 2. When a
State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it
follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c)
Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: c Q10. Consider
the following statements: 1. The United Nations Convention
against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the
Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’. 2. The UNCAC is the
ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument. 3. A
highlight of the United Nations Convention against
Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a
specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful
owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. 4. The United
Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its
member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC
and UNTOC. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and
4 Correct answer: c Q11. Which Article of the Constitution of
India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21 (c) Article 25 (d) Article 29 Correct
answer: b Q12. Consider the following statements: As per the
Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment)
Rules, [1]
2022
Q1. Consider the following countries: 1. Armenia 2. Azerbaijan 3.
Croatia 4. Romania 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above are
members of the Organization of Turkic States? (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1
and 3 (c) 2 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5 Correct answer: c Q2. In India,
which one of the following compiles information on industrial
disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories
employing workers? (a) Central Statistics Office (b) Department
for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (c) Labour Bureau
(d) National Technical Information System Manpower Correct
answer: c Q3. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's
Organization (CCO)? 1. CCO is the major source of Coal. Statistics
in Government of India. 2. It monitors progress of development
of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks. 3. It hears any objection to the
Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing
areas. 4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal
to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer
using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1
and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 Correct answer: a Q4. If a particular
area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of
India, which one of the following statements best reflects the
consequence of it? (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of
tribal people to non-tribal people. (b) This would create a local
self-governing body in that area. (c) This would convert that
area into a Union Territory. (d) The State having such areas
would be declared a Special Category State. Correct answer: a
Q5. Consider the following statements: 1. The India Sanitation
Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is
funded by the Government of India and the World Health
Organization. 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an
apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in
Government of India and provides innovative solutions to
address the challenges of Urban India. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: b Q6. With reference to the
"United Nations Credentials Committee", consider the following
statements: 1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council
and works under its supervision. 2. It traditionally meets in
March, June and September every year. 3. It assesses the
credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the
General Assembly for approval. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
Correct answer: a Q7. Which one of the following statements
best describes the 'Polar Code'? (a) It is the international code of
safety for ships operating in polar waters. (b) It is the agreement
of the countries around the North Pole regarding the
demarcation of their territories in the polar region. (c) It is a set
of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists
undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole. (d)
It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of
the Arctic Council. Correct answer: a Q8. With reference to the
United Nations General Assembly, consider the following
statements: 1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer
status to the non-member States. 2. Inter-governmental
organisations can seek observer status in the UN General
Assembly. 3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly
can maintain missions at the UN headquarters. Which of the
statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3
only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: a Q9. With
reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following
statements: 1. The Ten Board is a statutory body. 2. It is a
regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and
Farmers Welfare. 3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in
Bengaluru. 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and
Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1
and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Correct answer: d Q10.
Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of
H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was
passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme
Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal
Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers
to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 3
and 4 only (d) 3 only Correct answer: b Q11. With reference to
India, consider the following statements: 1. Government law
officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but
corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from
recognition as advocates. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay
down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law
colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a)
1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct
answer: b Q12. Consider the following statements: 1. A bill
amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of
the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is
presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the
President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution
Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for
joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: b Q13. Consider the following statements: 1. The
Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz.
Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge,
Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 2. The total number of
ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime
Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of
members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1
nor 2 Correct answer: b Q14. Which of the following is/are the
exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 1. To ratify the declaration of
Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the
Council of Ministers 3. To impeach the President of India Select
the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2
only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only Correct answer: b Q15. With reference
to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements?
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any
political party within six months of being appointed to the
House. 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which
the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c)
Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: b Q16. Consider
the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and
Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government
who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament
of India. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney
General of India submits his resignation when the Government
 which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (c)
Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: d Q17. With reference to the
writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following
statements: 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private
organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2.
Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be
a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a
petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2
only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct
answer: c Q18. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital
Mission, consider the following statements: 1. Private and public
hospitals must adopt it. 2. As it aims to achieve universal, health
coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. 3.
It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: b Q19. With
reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the
following statements: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy
Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2.
There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate
as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the
principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy
Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding
over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his
rulings. 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding
the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved
by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which
of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1,
2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only Correct answer: a [1]

2021
Q1. Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth
violates (a) the Right to Equality (b) the Directive Principles of
State Policy (c) the Right to Freedom (d) the Concept of Welfare
Correct answer: b Q2. What is the position of the Right to
Property in India? (a) Legal right available to citizens only (b)
Legal right available to any person (c) Fundamental Right
available to citizens only (d) Neither Fundamental Right nor
legal right Correct answer: b Q3. What was the exact
constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950? (a) A
Democratic Republic (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic (c) A
Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic (d) A Sovereign Socialist
Secular Democratic Republic Correct answer: b Q4.
Constitutional government means (a) a representative
government of a nation with federal structure (b) a government
whose Head enjoys nominal powers (c) a government whose
Head enjoys real powers (d) a government limited by the terms
of the Constitution Correct answer: d Q5. With reference to
India, the terms ‘HaIbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (a) dance forms of
Northwest India (b) musical instruments (c) pre-historic cave
paintings (d) tribal languages Correct answer: d Q6. Consider the
following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma
Awards: 1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the
Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. 2. Padma Awards,
which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only
once. 3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a
maximum of five in a particular year. Which of the above
statements are not correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1
and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: d Q7. Consider the
following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports
Award which was instituted in the year 2000: 1. American golfer
Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award. 2. The award
was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far. 3. Roger
Federer received this award maximum number of times
compared to others. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: c Q8. Consider the following statements in
respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: 1. The official motto for
this Olympics is ‘A New World’. 2. Sport Climbing, Surfing,
Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this
Olympics. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1
only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct
answer: b Q9. Consider the following statements in respect of the
ICC World Test Championship: 1. The finalists were decided by
the number of matches they won. 2. New Zealand was ranked
ahead of England because it won more matches than England.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2
only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: d Q10.
Consider the following statements: 1. ‘Right to the City’ is an
agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the
commitments made by each country in this regard. 2. ‘Right to
the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim
public spaces and public participation in the city. 3. Right to the
City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or
facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1
and 2 (d) 2 and 3 Correct answer: d Q11. With reference to India,
consider the following statements: 1. Judicial custody means an
accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such
accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. 2. During
judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not
allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the
court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1
only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct
answer: b Q12. With reference to India, consider the following
statements: 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case,
parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a
matter of his/her right. 2. State Governments have their own
Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements
given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2 Correct answer: b Q13. At the national level,
which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective
implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional
Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (a)
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (b)
Ministry of Panchayati Raj (c) Ministry of Rural Development (d)
Ministry of Tribal Affairs Correct answer: d Q14. A legislation
that confers on the executive or administrative authority an
unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of
the application of law violates which one of the following
Articles of the Constitution of India? (a) Article 14 (b) Article 28
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 44 Correct answer: a Q15. Which one of
the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that
indicates that it is federal in character? (a) The independence of
judiciary is safeguarded. (b) The Union Legislature has elected
representatives from constituent units. (c) The Union Cabinet
can have elected representatives from regional parties. (d) The
Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law. Correct
answer: a Q16. Which one of the following best defines the term
‘State’? (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a
definite territory independent of external control and possessing
an organized government (b) A politically organized people of a
definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them,
maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and
safeguard their means of sustenance (c) A number of persons
who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time
with their own culture, tradition and government (d) A society
permanently living in a definite territory with a central
authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and
an independent judiciary Correct answer: a Q17. With reference
to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: 1. Any
retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to
sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India
with the prior permission of the President of India. 2. A High
Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the
Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c Q18. With reference to India, consider the
following statements: 1. There is only one citizenship and one
domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it
under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Correct
answer: a Q19. Which one of the following factors constitutes
the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (a) A
committed judiciary (b) Centralization of powers (c) Elected
government (d) Separation of powers Correct answer: d Q20. We
adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model,
but how does our model differ from that model? 1. As regards
legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in
India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. 2. In
India, matters related to the constitutionality of Amendment of
an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench
 by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1
nor 2 Correct answer: c Q21. With reference to the Union
Government, consider the following statements: 1. N.
Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and
a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of
administrative reform and promoting it. 2. In 1970, the
Department of Personnel was constituted on the
recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission,
1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b)
2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: b Q22.
Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the
Constitution of India? (a) Article 15 (b) Article 19 (c) Article 21 (d)
Article 29 Correct answer: c Q23. Consider the following
statements: 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates
from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three
constituencies. 2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal
contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. 3. As per the
existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election
from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of
bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her winning
in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 Correct
answer: The above question was dropped by the Union Public
Service Commission in the final answer key. [1]

2020
Q1. Consider the following statements: 1. 36% of India’s districts
are classified as ‘overexploited’ or ‘critical’ by the Central
Ground Water Authority (CGWA). 2. CGWA was formed under
the Environment (Protection) Act. 3. India has the largest area
under groundwater irrigation in the world. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Correct answer: b Q2. In which one of
the following groups are all the four countries members of G20?
(a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey (b) Australia,
Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand (c) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia
and Vietnam (d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea
Correct answer: a Q3. Other than the Fundamental Rights,
which of the following parts of the Constitution of India
reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? 1. Preamble 2. Directive
Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties Select the
correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2
only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: d Q4. In India,
Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of
the following type of citizens? 1. Person with an annual income
of less than Rs. 1,00,000 2. Transgender with an annual income
of less than Rs. 2,00,000 3. Member of Other Backward Classes
(OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000 4. All
Senior Citizens Select the correct answer using the code given
below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and
4 only Correct answer: a Q5. A constitutional government by
definition is a (a) government by legislature (b) popular
government (c) multi-party government (d) limited government
Correct answer: d Q6. Along with the Budget, the Finance
Minister also places other documents before the Parliament
which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The
aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by (a)
Long standing parliamentary convention (b) Article 112 and
Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India (c) Article 113 of the
Constitution of India (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility
and Budget Management Act, 2003 Correct answer: d Q7. In
India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
(a) the Preamble of the Constitution (b) a Directive Principle of
State Policy (c) the Seventh Schedule (d) the conventional
practice Correct answer: a Q8. Which one of the following
categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection
against untouchability as a form of discrimination? (a) Right
against Exploitation (b) Right to Freedom (c) Right to
Constitutional Remedies (d) Right to Equality Correct answer: d
Q9. With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament
Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the
following statements are correct? 1. MPLADS funds must be used
to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health,
education, etc. 2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must
benefit SC/ST populations. 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a
yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to
the next year. 4. The district authority must inspect at least 10%
of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct
answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4
only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only Correct answer: d Q10.
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in (a) the matter
of creating new All India Services (b) amending the Constitution
(c) the removal of the government (d) making cut motions
Correct answer: b Q11. Consider the following statements: 1.
Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three
months. 2. State cannot enter into any contract with private
corporations for sharing Aadhaar data. 3. Aadhaar is
mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 4. Aadhaar is
mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated
Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
only Correct answer: b Q12. Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India can summon a session of the
Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The
Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the
Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three
sessions. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the
Parliament is required to meet in a year. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1
and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct answer: c Q13. Consider the
following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India, a
person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State
for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature
of that State. 2. According to the Representation of People Act,
1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to
imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from
contesting an election even after his release from prison. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: d Q14. With
reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the
Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are
correct? 1. They shall be enforceable by courts. 2. They shall not
be enforceable by any court. 3. The principles laid down in this
part are to influence the making of laws by the State. Select the
 correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only Correct answer: d Q15. In the
context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic
appropriate for bureaucracy? (a) An agency for widening the
scope of parliamentary democracy (b) An agency for
strengthening the structure of federalism (c) An agency for
facilitating political stability and economic growth (d) An agency
or the implementation of public policy Correct answer: d Q16.
One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is (a)
the final goal of a stateless society (b) class struggle (c) abolition
of private property (d) economic determinism Correct answer: a
Q17. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of
India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism,
secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The
Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard
the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the
Constitution is based. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: d Q18. Which part of the Constitution of India
declares the ideal of Welfare State? (a) Directive Principles of
State Policy (b) Fundamental Rights (c) Preamble (d) Seventh
Schedule Correct answer: a Q19. A Parliamentary System of
Government is one in which (a) all political parties in the
Parliament are represented in the Government (b) the
Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be
removed by it (c) the Government is elected by the people and
can be removed by them (d) the Government is chosen by the
Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a
fixed term Correct answer: b [1]

2018
Q4. ‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ is a national campaign to a)
rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide
them with suitable sources of livelihood b) release the sex
workers from their practice and provide them with alternative
sources of livelihood c) eradicate the practice of manual
scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers d) release
the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitate them
Correct answer: c Q5. Consider the following pairs: SI. No.
Community Region/Country 1. Kurd : Bangladesh 2. Madhesi :
Nepal 3. Rohingya : Myanmar Which of the above pairs given
is/are correctly matched? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only Correct answer: c Q6. With reference to ‘Organization
for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, consider the
following statements: 1. It is an organization of the European
Union in working relation with NATO and WHO. 2. It monitors
the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.
3. It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against
chemical weapons threats. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and
3 Correct answer: b Q7. With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal
Bima Yojana’, consider the following statements: 1. Under this
scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two
percent for any crop they cultivate for any reason of the year. 2.
This scheme covers post harvest losses arising out of cyclones
and unseasonal rains. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor
2 Correct answer: b Q8. Consider the following statements: 1.
The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of
that State. 2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b)
2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: d Q9.
With reference to ‘Stand Up India Scheme’, which of the
following statements is/are correct? 1. Its purpose is to promote
entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs. 2. It
provides for refinancing through SIDBI. Select the correct
answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1
and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: c Q10. With reference
to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements
is/are correct? 1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only
civil cases and not criminal cases. 2. The Act allows local social
activists as mediators/reconciliators. Select the correct answer
using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d)
Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: b Q11. ‘Doctors Without Borders
(Medecins Sans Frontieres)’, often in the news, is a) a division of
World Health Organization b) a non-governmental international
organization c) an inter-governmental agency sponsored by
European Union d) a specialized agency of the United Nations
 Correct answer: b Q12. What is/are the purpose/purposes of
‘District Mineral Foundations’ in India? 1. Promoting mineral
exploration activities in mineral-rich districts 2. Protecting the
interests of the persons affected by mining operations 3.
Authorizing State Governments to issue licenses for mineral
exploration Select the correct answer using the code given
below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: b Q13. ‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of the
Government of India, aims at a) promoting the Self Help Groups
in rural areas b) providing financial and technical assistance to
young start-up entrepreneurs c) promoting the education and
health of adolescent girls d) providing affordable and quality
education to the citizens for free Correct answer: d Q14. Which
of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’? a)
Iran b) Saudi Arabia c) Oman d) Kuwait Correct answer: a Q15.
‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in
the context of the affairs of a) African Union b) Brazil c)
European Union d) China Correct answer: d Q16. The Parliament
of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State
List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed
by the: a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total
membership b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-
thirds of its total membership c) Rajya Sabha by a simple
majority of its total membership d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of
not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
Correct answer: d Q17. Consider the following statements: 1. The
minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of
Panchayat is 25 years. 2. A Panchayat reconstituted after
premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b)
2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: b [1]

2013
Q1. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by
the Rajya Sabha? (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the
Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the
Rajya Sabha (b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for
reconsideration (d) The President may call a joint sitting for
passing the Bill" Q2. Which one of the following statements is
correct? (a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as
Governor for two or more States at the same time (b) The Judges
of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the
Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are
appointed by the President (c) No procedure has been laid down
in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from
his/her post (d) In the case of a Union Territory having a
legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt.
Governor on the basis of majority support Q3. Consider the
following statements 1. An amendment to the Constitution of
India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok
Sabha only. 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in
the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also
requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b)
2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q4. Consider the
following statements: Attorney General of India can 1. take part
in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha 2. be a member of a
committee of the Lok Sabha 3. speak in the Lok Sabha 4. vote in
the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only Q5.
Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in
the Constitution? 1. National Development Council 2. Planning
Commission 3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using
the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q6. The Parliament can make any law for whole or
any part of India for implementing international treaties (a)
with the consent of all the States (b) with the consent of the
majority of States (c) with the consent of the States concerned (d)
without the consent of any State Q7. The Government enacted
the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996.
Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? (a)
To provide self-governance (b) To recognize traditional rights (c)
To create autonomous regions in tribal areas (d) To free tribal
people from exploitation Q8. Economic Justice' the objectives of
Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in (a) the
Preamble and Fundamental Rights (b) the Preamble and the
Directive Principles of State Policy (c) the Fundamental Rights
and the Directive Principles of State Policy (d) None of the above
Q9. Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary
Committee on Public Accounts 1. consists of not more than 25
Members of the Lok Sabha 2. scrutinizes appropriation finance
accounts of Government 3. of the Auditor examines the report
Comptroller and General of India Which of the statements given
above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (e) 3 only (d) 1, 2
and 3 Q10. In the context of India, which of the following
principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary
government? 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the
Parliament. 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence
in the Parliament. 3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and
2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q11. Consider the
following statements: 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre
shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Union
Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the
President of India. 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to
the President about the proposals for Iegislation. Which of the
Statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 Q12. Consider the following
statements: 1. National Development Council is an organ of the
Planning Commission. 2. The Economic and Social Planning is
kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. 3. The
Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be
assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic
development and social justice. Which of the statements given
above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Q13. Consider the following statements: 1. The
Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not
the members of that House. 2. While the nominated members of
the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the
presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of
the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q14. With reference to National Legal Services Authority,
consider the following statements : 1. Its objective is to provide
free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the
society on the basis of equal opportunity. 2. It issues guidelines
 for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal
programmes and schemes throughout the country. Which of the
statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (C)
Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q15. Who among the following
constitute the National Development Council? 1. The Prime
Minister 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission 3. Ministers of
the Union Cabinet 4. Chief Ministers of the States Select the
correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 [1]

2015
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive
Principles of State Policy: 1. The Principles spell out the socio
economic democracy in the country. 2. The provisions contained
in these Principles are not enforceable by any court. Which of
the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c)
Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: c Q2. Consider
the following statements : 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power
either to reject or to amend a Money Bill. 2. The Rajya Sabha
cannot vote on the Demands for Grants. 3. The Rajya Sabha
cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct ? a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: b Q3. The
Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined a) The
separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature b)
The jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments c) The
powers of the Secretary of State for India and Viceroy d) None of
the above Correct answer: b Q4. When a bill is referred to a joint
sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed
by a) a simple majority of members present and voting b) three-
fourths majority of members present and voting c) two-thirds
majority of the Houses d) absolute majority of the Houses
Correct answer: a Q5. The Government of India has established
NITI Aayog to replace the a) Human Rights Commission b)
Finance Commission c) Law Commission d) Planning
Commission Correct answer: d Q6. Consider the following
statements: 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is
vested in the Prime Minister. 2. The Prime Minister is the ex
officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c)
Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: d Q7. Amnesty
International is a) an agency of the United Nations to help
refugees of civil wars b) a global Human Rights Movement c) a
non-governmental voluntary organization to help very poor
people d) an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical
emergencies in war-ravaged regions. Correct answer: b Q8. India
is a member of which one of the following? 1. Asia-Pacific
economic cooperation. 2. Association of South-East Asian
Nations. 3. East Asia Summit Select the correct answer using the
code given below. a) 1 and 2 only b) 3 only c) 1, 2, and 3 d) India
is a member of none of them Correct answer: b Q9. The
provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the
Constitution of India are made in order to a) protect the interests
of Scheduled Tribes b) determine the boundaries between States
c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of
Panchayats d) protect the interests of all the border States
Correct answer: a Q10. With reference to the Union
Government, consider the following statements: 1. The
Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of the
Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament. 2. No amount
can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without
authorization from the Parliament of India. 3. All the
disbursements made from Public Account also need the
authorization from the Parliament of India. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3
only c) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: c Q11. Who/Which of
the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India? a) The
President of India b) The Prime Minister of India c) The Lok
Sabha Secretariat d) The Supreme Court of India Correct answer:
d Q12. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six
countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/
participants? 1. Bangladesh 2. Cambodia 3. China 4. Myanmar 5.
Thailand Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 5 Correct answer: c
Q13. Consider the following statements: 1. The Legislative
Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the
Legislative Assembly of that particular State. 2. The Governor of
a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that
 particular State. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: d Q14. "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty,
Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the a)
Preamble of the Constitution b) Directive Principles of State
Policy c) Fundamental Rights d) Fundamental Duties Correct
answer: d Q15. The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj
system is to ensure which among the following? 1. People's
participation in development 2. Political accountability 3.
Democratic decentralization 4. Financial mobilization Select the
correct answer using the code given below. a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 2
and 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: c Q16.
Consider the following countries: 1. China 2. France 3. India 4.
Israel 5. Pakistan Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons
States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of
Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-
Proliferation Treaty (NPT)? a) 1 and 2 only b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only c)
2, 4 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct answer: a Q17. The ideal
of 'Welfare State' in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its a)
Preamble b) Directive Principles of State Policy c) Fundamental
Rights d) Seventh Schedule Correct answer: b Q18. There is a
Parliamentary System of Government in India because the a)
Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people b) Parliament can
amend the Constitution c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved d)
Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha Correct
answer: d [1]

2014
Q1. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS,
consider the following statements: 1. The First Summit of BRICS
was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009. 2. South Africa was the last to
join the BRICS grouping. Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor
2 Correct answer: b Q2. Which one of the following is the largest
Committee of the Parliament? a) The Committee on Public
Accounts b) The Committee on Estimates c) The Committee on
Public Undertakings d) The Committee on Petitions Correct
answer: b Q3. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to
as 'Arab Spring' originally started from a) Egypt b) Lebanon c)
Syria d) Tunisia Correct answer: d Q4. Consider the following
countries: 1. Denmark 2. Japan 3. Russian Federation 4. United
Kingdom 5. United States of America Which of the above are the
members of the 'Arctic Council'? a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2, 3 and 4 c) 1, 4
and 5 d) 1, 3 and 5 Correct answer: d Q5. Which one of the
following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains
provisions regarding anti-defection? a) Second Schedule b) Fifth
Schedule c) Eighth Schedule d) Tenth Schedule Correct answer: d
Q6. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international
peace and security is included in the a) Preamble to the
constitution b) Directive Principles of State Policy c)
Fundamental Duties d) Ninth Schedule Correct answer: b Q7.
Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India? 1.
The Finance Commission 2. The National Development Council 3.
The Union Ministry of Rural Development 4. The Union Ministry
of Urban Development 5. The Parliament Select the correct
answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 5 only b) 1, 3 and
4 only c) 2 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct answer: c Q8.
Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the
Cabinet Secretariat? 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet
Meetings 2. Secretariat assistance to Cabinet Committees 3.
Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries Select the
correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3
only c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct answer: Q9. Consider
the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one
which 1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the
interest of State Authority. 2. Places effective restrictions on the
Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: b Q10. Which
of the following are the discretionary powers given to the
Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India
for imposing the President’s rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3.
Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for
consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to
conduct the business of the State Government Select the correct
answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3
only c) 2, 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct answer: b Q11.
Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make
 rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the
Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of
the said business. 2. All executive actions of the Government of
India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime
Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a)
1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct
answer: a Q12. Consider the following statements regarding a
No-Confidence Motion in India: 1. There is no mention of a No-
Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India. 2. A motion of
No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: c Q13. The
power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between
the Centre and the States falls under its a) advisory jurisdiction
b) appellate jurisdiction c) original jurisdiction d) writ
jurisdiction Correct answer: c Q14. The power to increase the
number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in a)
the President of India b) the Parliament c) the Chief Justice of
India d) the Law Commission Correct answer: b [1]

Parliament
2017
Q1. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be
filed by a) anyone residing in India. b) a resident of the
constituency from which the election is to be contested. c) any
citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a
constituency. d) any citizen of India. Correct answer: c Q2. In the
context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’
refers to a) Division of the central legislature into two houses. b)
Introductions of double government i.e., Central and Statement
governments. c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and
another in Delhi. d) Division of the subjects delegated to the
provinces into two categories. Correct answer: d Q3. Consider
the following in reference to Indian Ocean Naval Symposium
(IONS): 1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in [1]
2016
Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A Bill
pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation. 2. A Bill
pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the
Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Select
the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2
only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct answer: b Q2.
Which of the following is/are the indicator/ indicators used by
IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report? 1.
Undernourishment 2. Child stunting 3. Child mortality Select the
correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 and 3
only c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3 only Correct answer: c Q3. Which
one of the following is the purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the
Government? a) Providing technical and financial assistance to
startup entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of
energy b) Providing electricity to every household in the
countries by [1]