MOMENTUM

Subject : PHYSICS IJSO STAGE-I & II

CONTENTS
S. NO. TOPICS PAGE NO.

1. Mathematical Tools & Vector 03 - 07

2. Unit & Dimensions 08 - 09

3. Kinematics 10 - 18
(Rectilinear Motion, Projectile motion, Relative motion)

4. Force and Newtons laws of motion (NLM) 19 - 28

5. Work, Power & Energy 29 - 35

6. Gravitation 36 - 41

7. Circular Motion 42 - 44

8. Fluid 45 - 52

9. Wave Sound & SHM 53 - 59

10. Electricity 60 - 72

11. Magnetic Effect of Current & EMI 73 - 81

12. Light 82 - 93

13. Heat 94- 99

14. Centre of Mass, Ragid Body Dynamics & Impact or Collision 100 - 101

15. Answer key 102 - 107

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 MOMENTUM

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 MOMENTUM
1. MATHEMATICAL TOOLS & VECTOR

1. sin 300º is equal to x 1

(C) (D) x
(A) 1/2 (B) –1/2 x 1

3 3 
(C)  (D) 8. If f(x) = tanx , then the value of f   :
2 2 4
(A) 3 (B) 2
2. Value of tan 225º is : (C) 1 (D) none of these
1
(A) 3 (B) dy
3 9. y = x3 + 2x2 + 7x + 8 then will be -
(C) 1 (D) –1 dx
(A) 3x2 + 2x + 15 (B) 3x2 + 4x + 7
3. Value of sin15º. cos15º is : (C) x3 + 2x2 + 15 (D) x3 + 4x + 7
(A) 1 (B) 1/2
10. Differentiation of 2x2 + 3x w.r.t. x is :
3 (A) 4x + 3 (B) 4x
(C) 1/4 (D)
2 (C) 3 (D) 4x + 1

4. Value of sin (37°) cos (53°) is - 11. Equation of straight line is 2x + 3y = 5. Slope of
the straight line is :
9 12
(A) (B) (A) 3/2 (B) 2/3
25 25
(C) –2/3 (D) –3/2
16 3
(C) (D)
25 5 dy
12. If y = x 1 nx then will be
dx
1 (A) l nx + x (B) 1 + l n x
5. If sin   , then cos  will be -
3 (C) l nx (D) 1
8 4
(A)  (B)  nx dy
9 3 13. If y  then will be :
x dx
2 2 3
(C)  (D)  1  nx 1  nx
3 4 (A) (B)
x x2
6. Which of the following has value zero ? 1  nx nx  1
(C) (D)
(A) Sin 0° (B) tan 0° x2 x2
(C) cos 0° (D) cot 0°
14. Differentiation of sin(x2 + 3) w.r.t. x is -
x 1 (A) cos (x2 + 3) (B) 2x cos(x2 + 3)
7. If f (x)  , , then the value of f(f(f(x))) is : 2 2
(C) (x + 3) cos(x + 3) (D) 2x cos(2x + 3)
x 1
x 1
(A) (B) 1
x 1

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 MOMENTUM
dy 22. A particle moves along a straight line such that
15. If y = tan x . cos2x then will be - its displacement at any time t is given by :
dx
s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4 metresThe velocity when
(A) 1 + 2sin2x (B) 1 – 2sin2x
the acceleration is zero is :
(C) 1 (D) 2 sin2x
(A) 3 ms–1 (B) – 12 ms–1
(C) 42 ms–1 (D) – 9 ms–1
3
d2y
16. If y = x then is -
dx 2 3

(A) 6x2 (B) 6x

23.  x dx is equal to :
(C) 3x2 (D) 3x x4
(A) 3x2 (B) C
4
17. If Q = 4v3 + 3v2 , then the value of ‘v’ such that,
there exist maxima of ‘Q’ - x4
(C) (D) 4x3
4
1
(A) 0 (B) 
2
1
24.  2sin(x)dx is equal to :
(C) (D) none (A) –2cos x + C (B) 2 cosx + C
2
(C) –2 cos x (D) 2 cosx

d2y
18. If y = sinx, then 2 will be : 25. If x = (6y + 4) (3y2 + 4y + 3) then  xdy will be
dx
(A) cos x (B) sin x :
(C) – sin x (D) sin x + C 1
(A) 2
3y  4y  3
19. Maximum value of f(x) = sin x + cos x is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (3y 2  4y  3) 2
(B) C
1 2
(C) (D) 2 (C) (3y2 + 4y + 3)
2
(6y  4)
(D)
20. The displacement of a body at any time t after (3y 2  4y  3)
starting is given by s = 15t – 0.4t2. The elocity
of the body will be 7 ms–1 after time : COMPREHENSION (26 to 28) :
(A) 20 s (B) 15 s If charge flown through a cross section of wire
(C) 10 s (D) 5 s in one direction during 0 to t is given by q = 3 sin
(3t) then
21. A particle is moving in a straight line. Its 26. Find out the amount of charge flowing through
displacement at time t is given by s (in m) = –
4t2 + 2t, then its velocity and acceleration at time 
the wire till t =   seconds.
1 6
t second are (A) 3 coulombs (B) 6 coulombs
2
(C) 1 coulomb (D) Zero coulomb
(A) –{ 2 m/s, –{ 8 m/s2 (B) 2 m/s, 6 m/s2
(C) –{ 2 m/s , 8 m/s2 (D) 2 m/s, 8 m/s2

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 MOMENTUM

27. Find out the current flowing through the wire at (B) C should be along ˆj
 
t= second. (C) C should be along k̂
9 
(A) 4.5 Amp (B) 4.5 3 Amp (D) C should be in the plane of î and ˆj
(C) 3 /2 Amp (D) 9 Amp.
   
33. Consider the two vectors a and b If a  b ,

28. Find out the area under i – t curve from t = to then the magnitude of their sum :
9
 
 (A) is equal to a  b
t= seconds :
6  
(B) Must be equal to a  b
2  3  2 + 3   
(A) 3  2  (B) 3  2  (C) cannot be less than a  b
   
 
2 3  2 3  (D) cannot be greater than a  b
(C)  2  (D)  2 
     
34. If two non-parallel vectors a and b are equal
 
29. The area of region between y = sinx and x–axis 
in magnitude , then the vectors a  b and 
   
in the interval  0,  , will be :
 2  
a  b will be:
(A) 1 (B) 0 (A) parallel to each other
(C) 2 (D) 2 (B) perpendicular to each other
(C) anti-parallel to each other
/ 2 (D) inclined at an angle less than 90º
2
30. The value of  sin xdx will be :  
(A) 1
0

(B) 0
35. 
The condition under which the vector a  b is 

  parallel to b is :
(C) (D)   
4 2 (A) a || b (B) a  b
   
31. A vector may change if : (C) a  b (D) a  b
(A) Frame of reference is translated
(B) Frame of reference is rotated 36. Which of the following relations are wrong ?
(C) Vector is translated parallel to itself   
(A) A  B  C (B) A  B  C
(D) Vector is rotated     
(C) A  B  C (D) A  B  C
  
32. The vector sum of three vectors A, B and C is
37. The rectangular components of force of 5 dyne
zero . If î and ˆj are unit vectors in the directions are :
  (A) 1 and 2 dyne (B) 2 and 3 dyne
of A and B respectively , then :
 (C) 3 and 4 dyne (D) 2.5 and 2.5 dyne
(A) C should be along î

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 MOMENTUM  
38. To get a resultant displacement of 10m, two (C) Lies in a plane containing A  B
displacement vectors, one of magnitude 6 m and  
(D) Lies in a plane containing A  B
another of 8 m, should be combined :
(A) Parallel (B) Anti-parallel
(C) At an angle 60° 45. Two forces of 4 dyne and 3 dyne act upon a
(D) Perpendicular to each body. The resultant force on the body can only
be :
   (A) More than 3 dyne
39. If the magnitudes of vectors A, B and C are (B) More than 4 dyne
   (C) Between 3 and 4 dyne
12, 5 and 13 units respectively and A  B  C
  (D) Between 1 and 7 dyne
the angle between vectors A and B is :
(A) 0 (B)     
(C) /2 (D) /4 46.   
The angle between A  B and B  A is : 
(A) Zero (B) 
40. The resultant of two equal forces is double of (C) 4 (D) /2
either of the forces. The angle between them is:
(A) 120° (B) 90° 47. Five equal forces of 10 N each are applied at
(C) 60° (D) 0° one point and all are lying in one plane. If the
angles between them are equal, the resultant of
41. The resultant of two forces acting at an angle of these forces will be :
150° is 10 kg wt, and is perpendicular to the (A) Zero (B) 10 N
smaller force.
The smaller force is : (C) 20 N (D) 10 2 N
(A) 10 3 kg wt (B) 20 3 kg wt
(C) 20 kg wt (D) (20 / 3 )kg wt 48. An aeroplane is moving in a circular path with a
speed 250 km/hr; what is the change in velocity
  in half revolution ?
42. Two vectors A and B are such that (A) 500 km/hr (B) 250 km/hr
   
A  B  A  B . The angle between the (C) 125 km/hr (D) Zero
 
vectors A and B is : 49. A truck travelling due north at 50 km/hr turns
(A) 0 (B) /3 west and travels at the same speed. What is the
(C) /2 (D)  change in velocity?
(A) 50 km/hr north-west
43. Minimum number of unequal coplanar forces (B) 50 2 km/hr north-west
whose vector sum can be equal to zero is : (C) 50 km/hr south-east
(A) Two (B) Three (D) 50 2 km/hr south-west
(C) Four (D) Any
50. I started walking down a road to day-break
  facing the sun. After walking for some time, I
44. Two vectors A and B lie in a plane, a third
 turned to my left, then I turned to the right once
vector C lies outside this plane, then the sum of
again. In which direction was I going then ?
  
these vectors A  B  C (A) East (B) North -west
(A) Can be zero (C) North-east (D) South
(B) Can never be zero

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 MOMENTUM
51. A person moves 30 m north, then 20 m east, 58. A particle is displaced from position (2iˆ  ˆj  k)
ˆ
then 30 2 m south-west His displacement from
another position (3iˆ  2ˆj  2k)
ˆ under the action
the original position is :
(A) 14 m south-west (B) 28 m south of the force of (2iˆ  2ˆj  k)
ˆ . The work done
(C) 10 m west (D) 15 m east by the force in an arbitrary unit is :
(A) 8 (B) 10
52. The resultant of two forces, one double the other (C) 12 (D) 16
in magnitude, is perpendicular to the smaller of
the two forces. The angle between the two forces 
is : 59. A force F  aiˆ  bjˆ  ckˆ is acting upon a body
(A) 120º (B) 60º of mass ‘m’ If the body starts from rest and was
(C) 90º (D) 150º at the origin initially, find its new co-ordinates
after time t :

53. If the vectors A  3i  2ˆj  xkˆ and at 2 bt 2 ct 2 at 2 2bt 2 ct 2
(A) , , (B) , ,
 2m 2m 2m 2m m 2m
B  2i  4ˆj  kˆ are perpendicular to each other,,
then the value of x is : at 2 bt 2 ct 2
(C) , , (D) None of these
(A) 2 (B) 3 m m 2m
(C) -2 (D) -3

 
54. If A  2i  3jˆ  kˆ and B  3i  ˆj  2kˆ , then the
cosine of the angle  between the two vectors is : 1.C A force is inclined at 60° to the horizontal. If its
rectangular component in the horizontal
11 5
(A) (B) direction is 50 N, then magnitude of the vertical
14 14
component of force is approximately
1 1 (A) 25 N (B) 84 N
(C) (D) (C) 87 N (D) 90 N
14 7

  2.D A force of 5 N acts on a particle along a

55. A force F  6 i  8ˆj  10kˆ newton produces an
direction making an angle of 60° with vertical.
acceleration of 1 m/s2 in a body. The mass of Its vertical component is
body would be : (A) 10N (B) 3N
(A) 200 kg (B) 20 kg (C) 4N (D) 2.5 N
(C) 10 2 kg (D) 6 2 kg
3.B The magnitude of the x-component of vector
  
56. ˆ ˆ
The angle that the vector A  2i  3j makes with A is 3 and the magnitude of vector A is 5.
y-axis is : What is the magnitude of the y-component of
(A) tan–1(3/2) (B) tan–1 (2/3) 
vector A ?
(C) sin–1 (2/3) (D) cos–1(3/2) (A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 8
57.  
A vector perpendicular to 4iˆ  3jˆ is :

(A) 4iˆ  3jˆ (B) 7kˆ

(C) 6iˆ (D) 3iˆ  4ˆj
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 MOMENTUM
4.D The maximum and minimum magnitude of the 12 7
1
resultant of two given vectors are 17 units and 7 (C) cos (D) cos 1
13 13
unit respectively. If these two vectors are at right
angles to each other, the magnitude of their  
resultant is 11.B The resultant of P and Q is perpendicular to
(A) 14 (B) 16   
P . What is the angle between P and Q
(C) 18 (D) 13
(A) cos–1(P/Q) (B) cos–1(–P/Q)
–1
5.C Forces F1 and F2 act on a point mass in two (C) sin (P/Q) (D) sin(-P/Q)
mutually perpendicular directions. The resultant
force on the point mass will be 12.D Two forces 3 N and 2 N act at an angle  such
(A) F1 + F2 (B) F1 – F2 that the resultant is R. The first force is now in-
creased to 6 N and the resultant become 2R.
(C) F12  F22 (D) F12  F22 The value of  is
(A) 30° (B) 60°
6.C Two equal forces (P each) act at a point inclined (C) 90° (D) 120°
to each other at an angle of 120°. The magni-
tude of their resultant is 13.C The sum of the magnitudes of two forces acting
(A) P/2 (B) P/4 at point is 18 and the magnitude of their result-
(C) P (D) 2P ant is 12. If the resultant is at 90° with the force
of smaller magnitude, what are the magnitudes
7.D A particle is simultaneously acted by two forces of forces?
equal to 4 N and 3 N. The net force on the (A) 12, 5 (B) 14, 4
particle is (C) 5, 13 (D) 10, 8
(A) 7N (B) 5N 14.D Three forces P, Q and R are acting on a particle
(C) IN in the plane, the angle between P and Q and that
(D) Between 1 N and 7N between Q and R are 150° and 120° respec-
tively. Then for equilibrium, forces P, Q and R
8.D Which pair of the following forces will never give are in the ratio
resultant force of 2 N? (A) 1: 2: 3 (B) 1: 2: 3
(A) 2 N and 2 N (B) 1 N and 1 N
(C) 1 N and 3 N (D) 1 N and 4 N (C) 3 : 2 : 1 (D) 3 :1:2

      
9.D If |A + B| =|A - B| , then the angle between A 15.B P  Q is a unit vector along x-axis. If
  
and B will be P  ˆi  ˆj  k,
ˆ then what is Q ?
(A) 30° (B) 45° (A) ˆi  ˆj  kˆ (B) ˆj  kˆ
(C) 60° (D) 90°
(C) ˆi  ˆj  kˆ (D) ˆj  kˆ
10.C If vectors P, Q and R have magnitude 5, 12 and
  
13 units and P+Q=R, , the angle between Q 16.C The unit vector along ˆi  ˆj is
and R is
(A) k̂ (B) ˆi  ˆj
1 5 5
(A) cos (B) cos 1 ˆi  ˆj
12 13 iˆ  ˆj
(C) (D)
2 2

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 MOMENTUM
17.B If a unit vecto r is represented by
(A) 4iˆ  6ˆj (B) 4iˆ  6ˆj
0.5iˆ  0.8jˆ  ck,
ˆ then the value of ‘c’ is
(C) 4iˆ  6ˆj (D) 4iˆ  6ˆj
(A) 1 (B) 0.11
(C) (D) 0.39  
0.01 24.D If A  3iˆ  4ˆj and B  7 ˆj  24ˆj , the vector

  having the same magnitude as B and parallel to
18.B If A  4iˆ  3jˆ and B  6iˆ  8ˆj then magnitude 
  A is
and direction of A  B from +x axis will be (A) 5iˆ  20ˆj (B) 15iˆ  10ˆj
(A) 5, tan–1(3/4) (B) 5 5 , tan–1(1/2)
(C) 20iˆ  15ˆj (D) 15iˆ  20ˆj
(C) 10, tan–1(5) (D) 25, tan–1(3/4)

19.D A truck travelling due north at 20 m/s turns west 25.A The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the
 
and travels at the same speed. The change in its vector A  4iˆ  3jˆ  6kˆ and B  ˆi  3jˆ  8kˆ
velocity be is
(A) 40 m/s N-W (B) 20 2 m/s N-W 1 ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ
(A) ˆ
(3i  6 j  2k) (B) ˆ
(3i  6 j  2k)
(C) 40 m/s S-W (D) 20 2 m/s S-W 7 7
1 ˆ ˆ ˆ (D) 1 (3iˆ  6ˆj  2k)
ˆ
20.A Determine a vector which when added to the (C) (3i  6 j  2k)
 49 49
resultant of A  2iˆ  5ˆ  kˆ and 26.B Unit vector parallel to the resultant of vector
  
B  3iˆ  4ˆj  kˆ gives unit vector along negative A  4iˆ  3jˆ and B  8iˆ  8jˆ will be
y-direction.
24iˆ  5jˆ 12iˆ  5ˆj
(A) 5iˆ  2ˆj  2kˆ (B) 5iˆ  ˆj  kˆ (A) (B)
13 13
(C) 5iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ (D) 5iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ
6iˆ  5ˆj
(C) (D) None of these
13
21.C If a particle moves from point P (2, 3, 5) to point
Q(3, 4, 5). Its displacement vector be
27.D The angle between two vectors given by
(A) ˆi  ˆj  10kˆ (B) ˆi  ˆj  5kˆ
6iˆ  6ˆj  3kˆ and 7iˆ  4ˆj  4kˆ is
(C) ˆi  ˆj (D) 2iˆ  4ˆj  6kˆ
1  1  1  5 
(A) cos   (B) cos  
    3  3
22.B A  2iˆ  ˆj, B  3jˆ  kˆ and C  6iˆ  2kˆ . Value
    2   5
of A  2B  3C would be (C) sin 1  (D) sin 1  

(A) 20iˆ  5ˆj  4kˆ (B) 20iˆ  5jˆ  4kˆ  3  3 

(C) 4iˆ  5jˆ  20kˆ (D) 5iˆ  4ˆj  10kˆ

28.A The angle between two vectors 2iˆ +3jˆ + kˆ
23.D A body is at rest under the action of three forces, and 2iˆ  2ˆj  4kˆ is
 
two of which are F  4i, ˆ F  6j,ˆ the third force (A) obtuse (B) right angle
1 2
(C) acute (D) can't say
is

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 MOMENTUM
29.B The angle between t he t wo vecto rs 36.A At what angle must the two forces (x + y) and
  (x – y) act so that the resultant may be
A  3iˆ  4ˆj  5kˆ and B  3iˆ  4ˆj  5kˆ is
(A) 60° (B) Zero (x 2  y 2 )
(C) (D) None of these
 x 2  y2 
1
(A) cos   2 2 
30.C If a vector 2iˆ +3jˆ + 8kˆ is perpendicular to the  2(x  y ) 

vector 4ˆj  4iˆ  k.

ˆ Then the value of  is  2(x 2  y 2 ) 
(B) cos1   2 
1  x  y2 
(A) –1 (B)
2
 x 2  y2 
1
1 (C) cos  x 2  y 2 
(C)  (D) 1  
2
1  x 2  y2 
(D) cos 
 2 2 
31.C The angle which a vector ˆi  ˆj  2kˆ makes  x y 
with X, Y and Z axes respectively are
(A) 60°, 60°, 60° (B) 45°, 45°, 45°
37.A The component of vector A  2iˆ  3jˆ along the
(C) 60°, 60°, 45° (D) 45°, 45°, 60°
vector ˆi  ˆj is
32.B If two vectors 2iˆ  3jˆ  kˆ and 4iˆ  6ˆj  kˆ are 5
parallel to each other then value of  will be (A) (B) 10 2
2
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4 (C) 5 2 (D) 5

     
33.A If P.Q  PQ, then angle between P and Q is 38.B If A  2iˆ  3jˆ  kˆ and B   iˆ  3jˆ  4kˆ then
(A) 0° (B) 30°  
projection of A on B will be
(C) 45° (D) 60°
3 3
 (A) (B)
13 26
34.A The vecto r P  aiˆ  ajˆ  3kˆ and
 3 3
Q  aiˆ  2ˆj  kˆ are perpendicular to each other.. (C) (D)
The positive value of a is 26 13
(A) 3 (B) 4

(C) 9 (D) 13 39.A The projection of the vector A  ˆi  2ˆj  kˆ on

 the vector B  4iˆ  4ˆj  7kˆ is
35.C Consider a vector F  4iˆ  3jˆ . Another vector
 19 38
that is perpendicular to F is (A) (B)
9 9
(A) 4iˆ  3jˆ (B) 6iˆ
8 4
(C) 7kˆ (D) 3iˆ  4ˆj (C) (D)
9 9

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 MOMENTUM  
40.D The area of the parallelogram represented by 46.B If A  3iˆ  ˆj  2kˆ and B  2iˆ  2ˆj  4kˆ , then
 
the vectors A  2iˆ  3jˆ and B  iˆ  4ˆj is  
value of | A  B | will be
(A) 14 units (B) 7.5 units
(C) 10 units (D) 5 units (A) 8 2 (B) 8 3

 (C) 8 5 (D) 5 8
41.B The torque of the force F  (2iˆ  3jˆ  4k) ˆ N
  
acting at the point r  (3iˆ  2ˆj  3k)
ˆ m about 47.B The angle between the vectors A and B is .
  
the origin be The value of the triple product A.(B  A) is
(A) 6iˆ  6ˆj  12kˆ (B) 17iˆ  6ˆj  13kˆ (A) A2B (B) Zero
(C) A2B sin  (D) A2B cos 
(C) 6iˆ  6ˆj  12kˆ (D) 17iˆ  6ˆj  13kˆ
48.C What is the unit vector perpendicular to the fol-
   
42.B The angle between vectors (A  B) and (B  A) lowing vector 2iˆ  2ˆj  kˆ and 6iˆ  3jˆ  2kˆ ?
is
ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ
(A) Zero (B) 
(A) (B)
(C) /4 (D) /2 5 17 5 17

  ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ

43.B What is the angle between (P  Q) and (C) (D)
  5 17 5 17
(P  Q) ?
 49.A Three forces acting on a body are shown in the
(A) 0 (B) figure. To have the resultant force only along the
2
y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum ad-
 ditional force needed is:
(C) (D) 
4

44.C What is the unit vector perpendicular to the

following vectors 2iˆ  2ˆj  kˆ and 6iˆ  3jˆ  2kˆ ?
ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ
(A) (B)
5 17 5 17
ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ ˆi  10ˆj  18kˆ
(C) (D) (A) 0.5 N (B) 1.5 N
5 17 5 17
3
  (C) N (D) 3 N
45.A If A = 5 units, B = 6 units and | A  B |  15 4

units, then what is the angle between A and

B?
(A) 30° (B) 60°
(C) 90° (D) 120°

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  
MOMENTUM
50.C Six vectors a through f have the magnitudes and
directions indicated in the figure. Which of the
following statements is true?

   
(A) b  c  f (B) d  c  f
   
(C) d  e  f (D) b  e  f

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 MOMENTUM
2. UNIT & DIMENSIONS
8. The physical quantity which has dimensional
Energy
1. If the units M and L are increased three times, formula as that of is-
mass × length
then the units of energy will be increased by -
(A) 3 times (B) 6 times (A) Force (B) Power
(C) 27 times (D) 81 times (C) Pressure (D) Acceleration

2. The SI unit of length is the meter. Suppose we 9. The dimensions of PV are equivalent to those
adopt a new unit of length which equals to x of-
meters. The area 1m2 expressed in terms of the (A) Work (B) force
new unit has a magnitude - (C) pressure (D) volume
(A) x (B) x2
10. The dimensions of mc2 are -
1 1 (A) MLT–1 (B) ML2T–1
(C) (D) 2
x x (C) ML2T–2 (D) ML2T2

3. Luminous flux is expressed in - 11. If force F = at + bt2 where t denotes time, the
(A) Lux (B) Weber dimensions of a and b shall be -
(C) Candela (D) Lumen (A) MLT–3, ML2T4 (B) MLT–3, MLT–4
(C) MLT–1, MLT0 (D) MLT–4, MLT1
4. The ratio of S.I. to C.G.S units for Stefan’s
constant is - 12. A and B are two physical quantities having
1 1 different dimensions. Then which of the following
(A) (B) operation is dimensionally correct -
100 1000
(C) 100 (D) 1000 A
(A) A + B (B) log
B
5. If the units of ML are doubled then the unit of
A
kinetic energy will become - (C) (D) eA/B
(A) 8 times (B) 16 times B
(C) 4 times (D) 2 times 13. For 10(at + 3) , the dimension of a is -
(A) M0L0T0 (B) M0L0T1
6. Dimensions of Torque are- (C) M0L0T–1 (D) none of these
(A) M1L2T–2 (B) M2L2T2
–1
(C) M LT –1
(D) M–2L–2T–2 14. The velocity of a freely falling body changes as
gphq, where g is acceleration due to gravity and
7. Which of the following is dimensionless - h is the height. The value of p and q are-
(A) universal gravitational constant 1 1 1
(B) relative permittivity (A) 1, (B) ,
2 2 2
(C) relative velocity 0 0 –1
(C) M L T (D) 1, 1
(D) density

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 MOMENTUM
15. For a cubical block, error in measurement of
sides is  1% and error in measurement of mass
is  2%, then maximum possible error in density
is - 1.D Planck's constant has the dimensions (unit) of
(A) 1% (B) 5% (A) Energy (B) Linear momentum
(C) 3% (D) 7% (C) Work (D) Angular momentum

2.C The unit of Stefan's constant  is

L2 (A) Wm–2K–1 (B) Wm2K–4
16. To estimate ‘g’ (from g = 4 2 ), error in
T (C) Wm–2K–4 (D) Wm–2K4
measurement of L is  2% and error in
measurement of T is  3%. The error in 3.D The dimensions of emf in MKS is
estimated ‘g’ will be - (A) ML–1T–2Q–2 (B) ML2T–2Q–2
(A)  8% (B)  6% –2 –1
(C) MLT Q (D) ML2T–2Q–1
(C)  3% (D)  5%
4.B Candela is the unit of
17. An experiment measures quantities x, y, z and (A) Electric intensity (B) Luminous intensity
xy 2 (C) Sound intensity (D) None of these
then t is calculated from the data as t = . If
z3 5.D The dimensional formula of relative density is
percentage errors in x, y and z are respectively (A) ML–3 (B) LT–1
1%, 3%, 2%, then percentage error in t is : (C) MLT–2 (D) Dimensionless
(A) 10 % (B) 4 %
(C) 7 % (D) 13 % 6.A The dimensional formula for Young's modulus is
(A) ML–1T–2 (B) M0LT–2
18. The mass of a ball is 1.76 kg. The mass of 25 (C) MLT –2
(D) ML2T–2
such balls is
(A) 0.44 × 103 kg (B) 44.0 kg 7.C The unit of permittivity of free space, 0, is:
(C) 44 kg (D) 44.00 kg (A) coulomb/newton-metre
(B) newton-metre2/coulomb2
19. Two resistors R1 (24 ± 0.5)  and R2 (8 ± 0.3) (C) coulomb2/newton-metre2
 are joined in series. The equivalent resistance (D) coulomb2 /(newton-metre)2
is
(A)32 ± 0.33  (B) 32 ± 0.8  8.A The dimensions of universal gravitational con-
(C) 32 ± 0.2  (D) 32 ± 0.5  stant are:
(A) [M–1L3T–2] (B) [ML2T–1]
20. The respective number of significant figures for (C) [M–2L3T–2] (D) [M–2L2T–1]
the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3
are 9.A The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by
(A) 5, 1, 2 (B) 5, 1, 5
(C) 5, 5, 2 (D) 4, 4, 2 b
v  at  , where a, b and c are constants.
t c
The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively:
(A) [LT–2], [L] and [T] (B) [L2], [T] and [LT2]
(C) [LT2], [LT] and [L] (D) [L], [LT] and [T2]

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 MOMENTUM
10.D Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, 17.C If energy (E), velocity (v) and time (T) are cho-
in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of sen as the fundamental quantities, the dimensional
time T and of current I, would be: formula of surface tension will be
(A) [ML2T–3I–1] (B) [ML2T–3] (A) [EV–2T–1] (B) [EV–1T–2]
(C) [ML2T–1I–1] (D) [ML2T–3I–2] (C) [EV–2T–2] (D) [E–2V–1T–3]

11.B If the error in the measurement of radius of a 18.B Which of the following pairs does not have simi-
sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination lar dimensions?
of volume of the sphere will be (A) Stress and pressure
(A) 4% (B) 6% (B) Tension and surface tension
(C) 8% (D) 2% (C) Planck's constant and angular momentum
(D) Angle and strain
1
12.B The dimension of 0 E 2 , where 0 is permit- 19.D The length and breadth of a metal sheet are 3.124
2
m and 3.002 m respectively, the area of this sheet
tivity of free space and E is electric field, is
up to four correct significant figure is
(A) [ML2T–3] (B) [ML–1T–2]
2 –1
(A) 9.3782 m2 (B) 9.37 m2
(C) [ML T ] (D) [MLT–1]
(C) 9.378248 m2 (D) 9.378 m2
13.B The dimensions of –1/2 are
20.B The dimension of torque is
(A) [L–1T] (B) [LT–1]
(A) [ML3T–3) (B) [ML2T–2]
(C) [L–1/2T1/2] (D) [L1/2T–1/2] –1 –1
(C) [ML T ] (D) [MT–2]
14.B The density of material in CGS system of units
21.B Velocity of light is equal to
is 4 g/cm3 In a system of units in which unit of
lengths is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the 0 1
value of density of material will be (A) (B)
0  0 0
(A) 0.4 (B) 40
(C) 400 (D) 0.04 0
(C)  (D) 0 0
0
15.A In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d
are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%,
22.C Using mass (M), length (L), time (T) and cur-
3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calcu-
rent (A) as fundamental quantities, the dimen-
lated as follows:
sion of permeability is
a 3b 2 (A) [M–1LT–2A] (B) [ML–2T–2A–1]
P= % error in P is
cd (C) [MLT–2A–2] (D) [MLT–1A–1]
(A) 14% (B) 10%
(C) 7% (D) 4% 23.B Using mass (M), length (L), time (T) and cur-
rent (A) as fundamental quantities, the dimen-
16.D If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken sional formula of permittivity is
as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass (A) [ML–2T2A] (B) [M–1L–3T4A2]
–2
are (C) [MLT A] (D) [ML2T–1A–1]
(A) [FVT–1) (B) (FVT–2]
(C) [FV–1T–1] (D) [FV–1T]

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 MOMENTUM
24.A “Parsec" is the unit of 31.C If x = at + bt2, where x is the distance travelled
(A) distance (B) time by the body in kilometres while t is the time in
(C) frequency second, then the unit of b is
(D) angular acceleration (A) km/s (B) km-s
2
(C) km/s (D) km-s2
25.B Dimensions of electrical resistance are
(A) [ML2T–3A–1] (B) [ML2T–3A–2] 32.D In S = a + bt + ct2, S is measured in metres and
(C) [ML3T–3A–2] (D) [ML3T3A2] t in seconds. The unit of c is
(A) ms2 (B) m
–1
26.B The magnetic moment has dimensions of (C) ms (D) ms–2
(A) [LA] (B) [L2A]
–1
(C) [LT A] (D) [L2T–1A] a
33.B In the equation  P  2  (V  b)  constant,
 V 
27.B The speed (v) of ripples on the surface of water
depends on surface tension (), density () and the unit of a is
wavelength (). The square of speed (v) is pro- (A) dyne × cm5 (B) dyne × cm4
3
portional to (C) dyne × cm (D) dyne × cm2

  34.B A force F is given by F = at + bt2, where t is

(A) (B)
  time. What are the dimensions of a and b?
 (A) MLT3 and ML2T–4 (B) MLT–3 and MLT–4
(C) (D)  (C) MLT–1 and MLT0 (D) MLT–4 and MLT1

35.A The velocity of a body is given by the equation
28.D Pressure gardient has the same dimension as that
of b
v  ct 2  dt 3
(A) Velocity gradient (B) Potential gradient t
(C) Energy gradient (D) None of these The dimensional formula of b is
(A) [M0LT0] (B) [ML0T0]
29.D A wire has a mass 0.3  0.003 g, radius 0.5  (C) [M0L0T] (D) [MLT–1]
0.005 mm and length 6  0.06 cm. The maxi-
mum percentage error in the measurement of it 36.A Fo rce F and densit y d are related as
density is 
(A) 1 (B) 2 F then the dimensions of  and  are
 d
(C) 3 (D) 4
(A) M3/2L–1/2T–2, M1/2L–3/2 respectively
30.B A physical quantity X is given by the relation (B) M–3/2L1/2T2, M1/2L3/2 respectively
(C) M3/2L–1/2T2, M1/2L3/2 respectively
2k 3l2 (D) M3/2L1/2T2, M1/2L3/2 respectively
X . The percentage error in the mea-
m n
surements of k, l, m and n are 1%, 2%, 3% and 37.B What is the number of significant figures in 0.310
4% respectively. The value of X is uncertain by × 103?
(A) 10% (B) 12% (A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 8% (D) None of these (C) 4 (D) 6

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 MOMENTUM
38.B The sum of the numbers 436.32, 227.2 and 40.B Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere
0.301 in appropriate significant figures is is 1%. The error in the calculated value of its
(A) 663.821 (B) 664 volume is
(C) 663.8 (D) 663.82 (A) 1% (B) 3%
(C) 5% (D) 7%
39.B The radius of a sphere is (5.3  0.1) cm. The
percentage error in its volume is
0.1 0.1
(A)  100 (B) 3   100
5.3 5.3
0.1 100 0.1
(C) (D) 3   100
3.53 5.3

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 MOMENTUM
3. KINEMATICS (RECTILINEAR MOTION, PROJECTILE MOTION,
RELATIVE MOTION)
1. The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a (D) Forward with non-uniform velocity
straight line is shown in figure. The displacement
and distance travelled by the body in 6 seconds 4. Area of acceleration time graph gives :
are respectively : (A) Rate of change of velocity with the time
(B) Rate of change of acceleration with time
(C) Change in velocity
(D) Change in acceleration

5. Which of the acceleration - time graph is not

possible?

(A) 8 m, 16 m (B) 16 m, 8 m
(C) 16 m, 16 m (D) 8 m, 8 m
(A) (B)
2. For the velocity time graph shown in figure,what
fraction is the distance covered by the body in
the last two seconds of the total distance covered
in all the seven seconds ?

(C) (D)

6. Which of the followin= =g is correct for uniformly

accelerated motion ?

(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4

(C) 1/3 (D) 2/3
(A) (B)
3. In figure BC represents a body moving :

(C) (D) All are correct

(A) Backward with uniform velocity

(B) Forward with uniform velocity
(C) Backward with non-uniform velocity

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 MOMENTUM
7. Velocity - time graph shows that the body has 11. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a
constant velocity for part : velocity of 30 m/s. If the acceleration due to
gravity is 10 m/s2, what will be the distance
travelled by it in the last second of motion before
again come to his hand :
(A) 5 m (B) 10 m
(C) 25 m (D) 30 m

12. Two bodies are thrown vertically upward, with

the same initial velocity of 98 m/s but 4 sec apart.
(A) AB (B) BC How long after the first one is thrown when they
(C) CD (D) Both (A) and (C) meet ?
8. In the above question acceleration is non-zero (A) 10 sec (B) 11 sec
for which part of the graph : (C) 12 sec (D) 13 sec
(A) AB (B) BC
(C) CD (D) Both (A) and (C) 13. Juggler keeps on moving four balls in the air
continuously such that each ball attains 20 m
9. Which of the figure corresponds to a cast when height. When the first ball leaves his hand, the
body travels for a certain time with uniform position of the other balls ( in metre height) will
acceleration and then with a uniform velocity for be
the rest of the time ? (A) 10, 20, 10 (B) 15, 20, 15
(C) 5, 51, 20 (D) 5, 10, 20

14. A ball is thrown upward and reaches a height of

64 feet, its initial velocity should be (g = 32 ft/
(A) (B) sec2)
(A) 64 ft/sec (B) 72 ft/sec
(C) 32 ft/sec (D) 4096 ft/sec

15. A body starting from rest and has uniform

acceleration 8 m/sec2. The distance travelled by
it in 5th second will be
(C) (D) B (A) 36 m (B) 40 m
(C) 100 m (D) 200 m

10. Between two stations a train accelerates 16. A body starts from rest, the ratio of distances
uniformly at first, then moves with constant speed travelled by the body during 3rd and 4th seconds
and finally retards uniformly to come to rest. If is
the ratios of time taken are 1 : 8 : 1 and the (A) 7/5 (B) 5/7
greatest speed is 60 km/hour. Then the average (C) 7/3 (D) 3/7
speed over the whole journey 17. A runner completes one round of a circular path
(A) 45 km/hr (B) 54 km/hr of radius r in 40 seconds. His displacement after
(C) 35 km/hr (D) 53 km/hr 2 minutes 20 seconds will be
(A) zero (B) 2pr
(C) 2r (D) 7pr

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 MOMENTUM
18. A body covered a distance of L m along a curved 23. A ball of mass M is thrown vertically upwards.
path of a quarter circle. The ratio of distance to Another ball of mass 2M is thrown at angle to
displacement is vertical. Both of them stay in air for the same
period of time. The height attained by the two
 2 2
(A) (B) are in the ratio :
2 2  (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : cos 
2
(C) (D)
2  24. An object is thrown along a direction inclined at
an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The horizontal
19. A particle moves with constant acceleration for range of the particle :
6 seconds after starting from rest. The distance (A) Is equal to vertical height
travelled during the consecutive 2 seconds (B) Is equal to twice the vertical height.
interval are in the ratio (C) Is equal to thrice the vertical height
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 3 (D) Is equal to four times the vertical height.
(C) 1 : 3 : 5 (D) 1 : 5 : 9
25. At what angle to the horizontal should an object
20. A ball is thrown upwards and returns to the be projected so that the maximum height
ground describing a parabolic path. Which of reached is equal to the horizontal range ?
the following quantities remains constant? (A) tan  = 2 (B) tan  = 4
(A) Kinetic energy of the ball (C) tan  = 2/3 (D) tan  = 3
(B) The speed of the ball
(C) The vertical component of velocity 26. Two projectiles, one fired from the surface of
(D) The horizontal component of velocity the earth with speed 5 m/s and the other fired
21. If a body A of mass M is thrown with velocity v from the surface of a planet with initial speed 3
at an angle 30° to the horizontal and another m/s, trace identical trajectories. Neglecting
body B of same mass is thrown at an angle of friction effect the value of acceleration due to
60° to the horizontal, the ratio of range of A and gravity on the planet is:
B will be: (A) 5.9 m/s2 (B) 3.5 m/s2
(A) 1: 3 (B) 3 : 1 (C) 16.3 m/s2 (D) 8.5 m/s2
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 1
27. A cricket ball is hit for a six leaving the bat at an
22. It was calculated that a shell when fired from a angle of 45° to the horizontal with kinetic energy
gun with a certain velocity and at an angle of K. At the top of its trajectory kinetic energy of
elevation 5/36 radians should strike a given the ball is:
target. In actual practice it was found that a hill (A) Zero (B) K
just intervened in the trajectory. At what angle (C) K/2 (D) K / 2
of elevation should the gun be fired to hit the
target ? 28. An object is projected so that it just clears two
5 7 wall of height 7.5 m and with separation 50m
(A) radian (B) radian from each other. If the time passing between the
36 36
walls is 2.5 s, the range of the projectile will be
11 13 (g= 10 m/s2)
(C) radian (D)
36 36 (A) 35 m (B) 70 m
(C) 140 m (D) 57.5 m

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 MOMENTUM
29. A particle is projected from point A with velocity
(C) u tan  (D) u 2 tan 
u at an angle a with horizontal. In its parabolic
path, at point P the particle is moving at right
angles to its initial direction of projection. Its 34. The height y and the distance x along the
velocity at P is: horizontal plane, of a projectile on a certain planet
(A) u tan  (B) u cot  [with surrounding atmosphere] are given by y
(C) u cos  (D) u cosec  =[5t –8t2] metre and x =12t metre where t is the
time in second.
30. A particle is thrown with the speed u at an angle The velocity with which the projectile is
a with the horizontal. When the particle makes projected, is :
an angle b with the horizontal, its speed will be: (A) 5 m/s (B) 12m/s
(A) u cos  (B) u cos  sec  (C) 13 m/s
(C) u cos  cos  (D) u sec  cos  (D) not obtainable from the data

31. A body is projected vertically up from the 35. A particle is projected from the ground with a
ground. Taking ari resistance into account, if t1 velocity of 25m/s. After 2 second, it just clears
is the time taken in going up while t2 in coming a wall 5m height.
down to starting point, then: Then the angle of projection of particle is [g =10
(A) t1 > t2 (B) t1 = t2 m/s2]:
(C) t1 < t2 (D) t1 can be greater or (A) 30º (B) 45º
smaller depending upon the initial velocity of the (C) 60º (D) 75º
body
36. A cricket ball is hit at angle 60º with the horizontal
32. you throw a ball with a launch velocity of with kinetic energy k. What will be the kinetic
 energy at the highest point of its trajectory ?
 
v  3iˆ  4ˆj m/s towards a wall, where it hits
k
at height h1. Suppose that the launch velocity is (A) zero (B)
4

 
v  5iˆ  4ˆj m/s. If h2 is corresponding
(C)
k
(D)
3k
height(h > h1 & h2), then 2 4

37. What determines the nature of the path followed

by the particle ?
(A) speed (B) velocity
(C) acceleration
(D) initial velocity and acceleration

(A) h2 = h1 (B) h2 < h1 38. The horizontal and vertical components of the
(C) h2 > h1 (D) unanswerable velocity of a projectile are 10 m/s and 20 m/s,
respectively . The horizontal range of the
33. A boy throws a ball with a velocity u at an angle projectile will be :
 with the horizontal. At the same instant he starts [g =10m/s2]
running with uniform velocity to catch the ball (A) 5m (B) 10m
before it hits the ground. To achieve this he (C) 20m (D) 40m
should run with a velocity of:
(A) u cos  (B) u sin 

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 MOMENTUM
39. A large number of bullets are fired in all directions 45. A stone is just released from the window of a
with same speed u. What is the maximum area train moving along a horizontal straight track.
on the ground on which these bullets will spread? The stone will hit the ground following :
(A) Straight path (B) Circular path
u2 u4
(A)  (B)  (C) Parabolic path (D) Hyperbolic path
g g2
46. A bullet is dropped from the same height when
u42 u22
(C)  (D)  another bullet is fired horizontally. They will hit
g2 g2 the ground :
(A) One after the other
40. A projectile fired with initial velocity u at some (B) Simultaneously
angle  has a range R. If the initial velocity be (C) Depends on the observer
doubled at the same angle of projection, then (D) None of the above
the range will be :
(A) 2R (B) R/2 47. A ball is rolled off the edge of a horizontal table
(C) R (D) 4R at a speed of 4 m/s. It hits the ground after 0.4
second.
41. In the motion of a projectile freely under gravity, Which statement given below is true ?
its : (A) It hits the ground at a horizontal distance
(A) Total energy is conserved 1.6 m from the edge of the table
(B) Momentum is conserved (B) The speed with which it hits the ground is
(C) Energy and momentum both are conserved 4.0 m/ second
(D) None is conserved (C) Height of the table is 0.8 m
(D) It hits the ground at an angle of 60º to the
42. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile , the horizontal
directions of its velocity and acceleration are :
(A) Perpendicular to each other 48. A body is thrown horizontally from the top of a
(B) Parallel to each other tower of height 5m. It touches the ground at a
(C) Inclined to each other at an angle of 45º distance of 10 m from the foot of the tower. The
(D) Antiparallel to each other initial velocity of the body is : (g =10ms–2)
(A) 2.5 ms–1 (B) 5 ms–1
43. Galileo writes that for angles of projection of a (C) 10 ms–1 (D) 20ms–1
projectile at angles (45 + ) and (45 – ), their
horizontal ranges described by the projectile are 49. A motorcycle is moving with a velocity 80 km/
in the ratio of : (if  45) hr ahead of a car moving with a velocity of 65
(A) 2 :1 (B) 1 : 2 km/hr in the same direction. What is the relative
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 3 velocity of the motorcycle with respect to the
car-
44. A projectile thrown with a speed  at an angle  (A) 15 km/hr (B) 20 km/hr
has a range R on the surface of earth . For same (C) 25 km/hr (D) 145 km/hr
 and , its range on the surface of moon will be
50. 50 m long trains are crossing each other in
:
opposite direction with velocity of 10 m/s and
(A) R/6 (B) 6R
15 m/s. respectively Then time-taken by trains
(C) R/36 (D) 36R
to cross each other will be-
(A) 2 sec. (B) 4 sec.
(C) 6 sec. (D) 8 sec.
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 MOMENTUM
51. Theif’s car is moving with a speed of 10 m/s. A (A) 10 km/hr (B) 20 km/hr
police van chasing this car with a speed of 5 m/ (C) 30 km/hr (D) 40 km/hr
s fires a bullet at the theif’s car with muzzle
velocity 72 km/h. Find the speed with which the 57. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of
bullet will hit the car- 5 m./min. A man on the south bank of the river,
(A) 10 m/s (B) 20 m/s capable of swimming at 10 m./min. in still water,
(C) 15 m/s (D) 25 m/s wants to swim across the river in shortest time.
He should swim in a direction-
52. A person standing on the floor of an elevator (A) Due north
drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor of the (B) 30ºº east of north
elevator in a time t1 if the elevator is stationary (C) 30º west of north
and in time t2 if it is moving with constant velocity. (D) 60º east of north
Then-
(A) t1 = t2 (B) t1 < t2 58. It is raining vertically downwards with a velocity
(C) t1 > t2 (D) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2 of 3 km h–1 . A man walks in the rain with a
velocity of 4 kmh–1. The rain drops will fall on
53. The motion of a projectile as seen from other the man with a relative velocity of ;
projectile is- (A) 1 kmh–1 (B) 3 kmh–1
(A) Accelerated motion (C) 4 kmh–1 (D) 5 kmh–1
(B) Uniform motion
(C) Motion with uniform distance 59. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity of
(D) None of these 10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road
the raindrops appear to be coming with a velocity
54. A body is thrown up in a lift with a velocity U of 20 m/s. The velocity of cyclist is :
relative to the lift and the time of flight is found to (A) 10 m/s (B) 10 3 m/s
be ‘t’. (C) 20 m/s (D) 20 3 m/s
The acceleration with which the lift is moving up
will be- 60.A man holding a flag is running in North-East
U  gt U  gt direction with speed 10 m/s. Wind is blowing in
(A) (B) east direction with speed 5 2 m/s. Find the
t t
direction in which flag will flutter.
2U  gt 2U  gt (A) South (B) North
(C) (D)
t t (C) East (D) West
EXERCISE-2
55. The speed of a boat is 5 km/hr in still water. If it
crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest
possible path in 15 min., then velocity of the river 1. A bouncing tennis ball rebounds each time to a
is- height one half that of the previous one. If it is
(A) 4 km/hr (B) 3 km/hr dropped from a height of 3 m, the total distance
(C) 2 km/hr (D) 1 km/hr traveled by the ball before coming to rest will be
(A) 9m (B) 12 m
56. A boat P is moving at 40 km/hr and another (C) 20m (D) 30m
boat Q is moving at 20 km/hr. Which one of the
following is not a possible value for their relative
velocity-

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2.
MOMENTUM
A particle moves along a straight line with
constant acceleration a. Let u be the speed at t
= 0. The average speed for first t second is :
(A) u/2 (B) u + at
(A) (B)
(C) u + at/2 (D) (u + at)2

3. A body is moving with constant acceleration from

A to B in a straight line. C is the mid-point of
AB. If u and v are the speeds at A and B
respectively. The speed at C is :
(C) (D)
uv uv
(A) (B)
2 2

u 2  v2 v2  u 2
(C) (D) 8. A body is released from rest from the top of a
2 2
tower of height 3H. The ratio of times it takes to
fall through equal height H is :
4. During a cycle race, two boys happen to cross (A) 1 : ( 2 –1) : ( 3 – 2 )
a point X simultaneously with speeds 16m/s and (B) 1 : ( 2 –1) : ( 3 + 2 )
12 m/s respectively. In order to win the race, (C) 1 : 1 : 1
they increase their speeds at the rates 1 m/s2 (D) 9 : 4 : 1
and 2m/s2 respectively. Unfortunately both reach
the final point Y at the same instant of time. If the 9. Acceleration (a) – time (t) graph for a particle
time required to cover the distance XY is t, then starting rest at t = 0 is as given below. The particle
(A) XY = 120 m (B) XY = 160 m has maximum speed at :
(C) t = 4s (D) t = 8s

5. Let R and H be the horizontal range and the

maximum height reached in case of a projectile
If a constant horizontal acceleration of g /4 is
imparted to the projectile due to wind then its
range and the maximum height will be :
(A) (R+ 2H), 2H (B) (R+ H/2), H (A) 1s (B) 2s
(C) (R+H), H (D)(R+ 2H), H (C) 3s (D) 4s

6. A man throws a ball making an angle of 60º with 10. Velocity-time graph for the motion of a particle
the horizontal . He runs on a level ground and is as shown below, Maximum value of
catches the ball. If he had thrown the ball with acceleration is during the interval :
speed v, then his speed must be (A) BC (B) CD
(A) v (B) v/2 (C) DE (D) EF
(C) 2v (D) v
7. A car starts from point A. travels on a straight 11. According to the quantum theory, a photon of
road and stops at its destination B. The distance electromagnetic radiation of frequency v has
- time graph of this journey has nature. energy E = hv where h is known as planck’s
constant. According to the theory of relativity, a
particle of mass m has equivalent energy E =
mc2, where c is speed of light. Thus a photon

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 MOMENTUM
can be treated as a particle having effective mass 14. A body moves along a straight line. The graphs
hv drawn below show variation of three quantities
m= . If a flash of light is sent horizontally in Q1. Q2 and Q3 of this body with time. These
c2
quantities can be respectively.
earth’s gravitational field, then photons while
traveling a horizontal distance d would fall
through a distance given by :
gd 2 h
(A) (B)
2c 2 mc
mcd 2
(C) (D) zero
h

12. An observer in a car P moving towards north

with speed v observes that another car Q is
moving towards east with the same speed v. The
true velocity of Q is :
(A) v towards east
(B) 2 v towards north-east
(C) v towards south-east
(D) v 2 towards south-west (A) displacement, velocity, acceleration
(B) displacement, acceleration, velocity
13. A body describes uniform. accelerated motion (C) velocity, acceleration, displacement
along a straight line. Which of the following (D) acceleration, velocity, displacement
displacement time graphs shown represent the
motion correctly ? 15. A body traveling along a straight line with a
uniform acceleration has velocities 5m/s at a point
A and 15 m/s at a point B respectively. If M is
the midpoint of AB, then:
(I) (II) (A) the ratio of times taken by the body to cover
 5  1
distance MB and AM is  2 
 
(B) the velocity at M is 5 5 m/s

(III) (IV)
(C) average velocity over AM is
5  5 1 m/s
2
(D) the product of the acceleration and the
(A) (I) only
distance AB is 100 m2/s2
(B) (I) and (IV) only
16. An arrow shot vertically upwards loses its initial
(C) (I), (III) and (IV) only
speed by 60% in 3 seconds. The maximum
(D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV) all
height reached by the arrow is (g = 9.8 ms–2 )
(A) 122.5 m (B) 44.1 m
(C) 100 m (D) 45 m

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 MOMENTUM
17. A ball is dropped from a height of 7.2 m. It 21. A ball is thrown up vertically in still air with a
bounces back to 3.2 m after striking the floor. velocity of 20ms–1. It comes back to ground.
the ball remains in contact with the floor for 20 The velocity - Time graph is (g = 10ms–2).
ms. Given that g = 10 ms–2, the average
acceleration of the ball during the contact is :
(A) 100 ms–2 (B) 200 ms–2
–2
(C) 600 ms (D) 1000 ms–2 (A) (B)

18. A vibrator is generating a wave on the surface

of water. An object x is floating on the surface.
Which of the following graphs, of the floating
object is/are correct ?
(C) (D)

22. A 100 m sprinter increases her speed from rest

uniformly at the rate of 1 m/s2 upto 40 m and
covers the remaining distance with uniform
speed.
The sprinter covers the first half of the run in t1 s
and the second half in t2 s. Then :
(A) t1 > t2 (B) t1 < t2
(C) t1 = t2
(D) information given is incomplete
(A) i, ii and iv (B) only ii
(C) only iii (D) ii and iii 23. A ball is projected at an angle of 45° with
horizontal. In the absence of air resistance, the
19. A juggler tosses a ball up in the air with initial ball follows
speed u. At the instant it reaches its maximum (A) Elliptical orbit (B) sinusoidal path
height H, he tosses up a second ball with the (C) parabolic path (D) linear path
same initial speed. The two balls will collide at a
height. 24. Diagram shows trajectory of a cricket ball. The
H H set of arrows which show the direction of the
(A) (B) acceleration of ball at points P and Q respectively
4 2
is :
3H 3
(C) (D) H
4 4

20. A ball is released from rest above a horizontal

surface. The graph shows the variation with time
of its velocity (not to scale). The scale on this
graph is changed at every impact. A, B, C, D
(A) (B)
and E represent areas. Which of the following
are correct ?
(A) A = B & B = C (B) A = C & C = E (C) (D)
(C) B = C & D = E (D) all of the above

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 MOMENTUM
25. A particle starting from rest is moving with
uniform acceleration in a straight line. The
percentage increase of the displacement of the
particle in 9th second compared to that in the
immediate previous second is about :
(A) 8.3% (B) 20.6%
(C) 13.3% (D) 24.5%

26. Consider the following two statemens.

Statement-1 : The direction of acceleration of a
particle must be always same as that of velocity.
Statement-2 : Acceleration is the rate of change
of velocity.
Choose the correct option
(A) Statement-1 is correct while statement -2 is
wrong
(B) Statement-1 and 2 are correct.
(C) Statement-1 and 2 are wrong .
(D) Statement-1 is wrong while statement (2) is
correct.

27. A particle moves along the x-axis according to

the equation x = 6t2 where x is displacement in
meters and t is time in seconds. Therefore :
(A) the acceleration of the particle is 6 ms–2
(B) the particle follows a parabolic path
(C) each second the velocity of the particle
changes by 9.8 ms–1
(D) the velocity of the particle is 6 ms–1 at t =
0.5 s
28. A stone is thrown horizontally and follows the
XYZ path as shown in the adjacent figure. The
direction of the acceleration of the stone at point
Y is :

(A)  (B) 
(C) (D)

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 MOMENTUM
4. FORCE AND NEWTONS LAWS OF MOTION (NLM)

4. A dish of mass 10 g is kept horizontally in air by

firing bullets of mass 5 g each at the rate of 100
1. Two blocks are in contact on a frictionless table. per second. If the bullets rebound with the same
One has mass m and the other 2m.A force F is speed, what is the velocity with which the bullets
applied on 2m as shown in the figure. Now the are fired :
same force F is applied from the right on m. In (A) 0.49 m/s (B) 0.098 m/s
the two cases respectively, the ratio of force of (C) 1.47 m/s (D) 1.96 m/s
contact between the two blocks will be :
5. A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a
frictionless plank. If struck by a jet releasing
water at a rate of 1 kg/s and at a speed of 5 m/
s. The initial acceleration of the block will be :
(A) 2.5 m/s2 (B) 5.0 m/s2
(A) Same (B) 1 : 2
(C) 10 m /s2 (D) none of the above
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
2. Two forces of 6N and 3N are acting on the two
6. A constant force F is applied in horizontal
blocks of 2kg and 1kg kept on frictionless floor.
direction as shown. Contact force between M
What is the force exerted on 2kg block by 1kg
and m is N and between m and M’ is N’ then
block ?:

(A) N= N’ (B) N > N’

(C) N’> N
(A)1N (B) 2N (D) cannot be determined
(C) 4N (D) 5N
7. STATEMENT-1 : Block A is moving on
3. There are two forces on the 2.0 kg box in the horizontal surface towards right under action of
overhead view of figure but only one is shown. force. All surface are smooth. At the instant
The second force is nearly : shown the force exerted by block A on block B
is equal to net force on block B.

STATEMENT-2 : From Newtons’s third law,

the force exerted by block A on B is equal in
magnitude to force exerted block B on A
(A) –20 ˆj N (B) – 20 î + 20 ˆj N (A) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
(C) –32 î – 12 3 ˆj N (D) –21 î – 16 ˆj N statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-
1.
(B) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
statement-1.
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 MOMENTUM
(C) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is false
(D) statement-1 is False, Statement 2 is True

8. Which figure represents the correct F.B.D. of

rod of mass m as shown in figure :

g 8g
(A) downward,
4 7
g g
(B) upward,
4 7
(A) (B) g 6
(C) downward, g
7 7
g
(D) upward, g
2
(C) (D) None of these
12. A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another
body of mass 12 kg. The combination is being
9. N bullets each of mass m are fired with a velocity pulled by a string with an acceleration of 2.2 m
v m/ s at the rate of n bullets per sec., upon a s–2. The tension T1 and T2 will be respectively
wall. If the bullets are completely stopped by :(Use g =9.8 m/s2)
the wall, the reaction offered by the wall to the
bullets is :
(A) N m v / n (B) n m v
(C) n N v / m (D) n v m / N

10. A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid

support at A as shown in figure. Another rope is (A) 200 N, 80 N (B) 220 N, 90 N
tied at the end B, and it is pulled horizontally (C) 240 N, 96 N (D) 260 N, 96 N
with a force F. If the rope AB makes an angle 
with the vertical in equilibrium,then the tension 13. Two masses M1 and M2 are attached to the ends
in the string AB is : of a light string which passes over a massless
pulley attached to the top of a double inclined
smooth plane of angles of inclination  and . If
M2 > M1 then the acceleration of block M2
down the inclined will be :

(A) F sin  (B) F /sin 

(C) F cos  (D) F / cos 

11. In the system shown in the figure, the acceleration

of the 1kg mass and the tension in the string M 2 (sin) M1g(sin  )
connecting between A and B is : (A) M (sinb) g (B) M  M
2 1 2

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 MOMENTUM
 M 2 sin  M1sin 
(C)   (D) Zero
 M1  M 2 

14. Three masses of 1 kg, 6 kg and 3 kg are

connected to each other by threads and are
placed on table as shown in figure. What is the
acceleration with which the system is moving ? (A) 500 N (B) 250 N
Take g = 10 m s–2: (C) 25 N (D) 50 N

17. Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled

along a smooth horizontal surface. The mssses
of the blocks and tension in one cord are given.
The pulling force F is :

(A) Zero (B) 1 ms–2

(C) 2 m s–2 (D) 3 m s–2
(A) 50 N (B) 100 N
(C) 125 N (D) 200 N
15. The pulley arrangements shown in figure are
identical the mass of the rope being negligible.
18. A10 kg monkey climbs up a massless rope that
In case I, the mass m is lifted by attaching a
runs over a frictionless tree limb and back down
mass 2m to the other end of the rope. In case II,
to a 15 kg package on the ground. The
the mass m is lifted by pulling the other end of
magnitude of the least acceleration the monkey
the rope with a constant downward force F= 2
must have if it is to lift the package off the ground
mg, where g is acceleration due to gravity. The
is :
acceleration of mass in case I is :

(A) 4.9 m/s2 (B) 5.5 m/s2

(A) Zero (C) 9.8 m/s2 (D) none of these
(B) More than that in case II
(C) Less than that in case II 19. Two blocks, each of mass M, are connected by
(D) Equal to that in case II a massless string, which passes over a smooth

massless pulley. Forces F act on the blocks as
16. A 50 kg person stands on a 25 kg platform. He shown. The tension in the string is :
pulls massless rope which is attached to the
platform via the frictionless, massless pulleys as
shown in the figure. The platform moves upwards
at a steady velocity if the force with which the
person pulls the rope is :

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 MOMENTUM The minimum tension required to completely
straighten the rope is :
15
(A) 15 kg (B) kg
2
(C) 5 kg
(D) Infinitely large (or not possible)
(A) Mg (B) 2 Mg 23. In the figure, the blocks A, B and C of mass
(C) Mg + F (D) none of these each have acceleration a1 , a2 and a3 respectively.
F1 and F2 are external forces of magnitudes 2
20. Two blocks of mass m each is connected with mg and mg respectively then which of the
the string which passes over fixed pulley, as following relations is correct :
shown in figure. The force exerted by the string
on the pulley P is :

(A) a1 = a2 = a3 (B) a1 > a2 > a3

(C) a1 = a2 , a2 > a3 (D) a1 > a2 , a2= a3

(A) mg (B) 2 mg 24. In the given figure. What is the reading of the
(C) 2 mg (D) 4 mg spring balance:

21. One end of a massless rope, which passes over

a massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a
hook C while the other end is free. Maximum
tension that rope can bear is 360 N, with what
minimum safe acceleration (in m/s2) can a
monkey of 60 kg move down on the rope :
(A) 10 N (B) 20 N
(C) 5 N (D) Zero

25. Two bodies of masses M1 and M2 are connected

to each other through a light spring as shown in
figure. If we push mass M1 with force F and
cause acceleration a1 in mass M1 what will be
(A) 16 (B) 6 the acceleration in M2 ?
(C) 4 (D) 8

22. Two persons are holding a rope of negligible

weight tightly at its ends so that it is horizontal. A (A) F/M2 (B) F/(M1 + M2)
15 kg weight is attached to the rope at the mid (C) a1 (D) (F–M1a1)/M2
point which now no longer remains horizontal.

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26.
MOMENTUM
A spring balance is attached to 2 kg trolley and
is used to pull the trolly along a flat surface as
shown in the fig. The reading on the spring
balance remains at 10 kg during the motion. The
acceleration of the trolly is (Use g= 9.8 m–2) :
(A) 6.0 N (B) 6.4 N
(C) 9.0 N (D) zero

31. A block is placed at an inclined plane making

(A) 4.9 ms–2 (B) 9.8 ms–2
angle of 60° with horizontal. The coefficient of
(C) 49 ms–2 (D) 98 ms–2
friction between block and plane is 0.25. If g =
10 m/s2 then the acceleration of block will be-
27. A body of mass 32 kg is suspended by a spring
(A) 8.66 m/s2 (B) 5 m/s2
balance from the roof of a vertically operating
(C) 7.41 m/s2 (D) 2.5 m/s2
lift and going downward from rest. At the instants
the lift has covered 20 m and 50 m, the spring
Minimum force required to pull the lower block
balance showed 30 kg & 36 kg respectively. 32.
is (take g = 10 m/s2) :
The velocity of the lift is :
(A) Decreasing at 20 m & increasing at 50 m
(B) Increasing at 20 m & decreasing at 50 m
(C) Continuously decreasing at a constant rate
throughout the journey
(D) Continuously increasing at constant rate
throughout the journey

28. A ship of mass 3 × 107 kg initially at rest is pulled (A) 1 N (B) 5 N

by a force of 5 × 104 N through a distance of (C) 7 N (D) 10 N
3m. Assume that the resistance due to water is
negligible, the speed of the ship is : 33. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a rough
(A) 1.5 m/s (B) 60 m/s horizontal road with momentum P. If the
(C) 0.1 m/s (D) 5 m/s coefficient of friction between the tyres and the
road be , then the stopping distance is :
29. When a horse pulls a cart, the force needed to
move the horse in forward direction is the force
P P2
(A) (B)
exerted by : 2mg 2mg
(A) The cart on the horse
P P2
(B) The ground on the horse (C) (D)
(C) The ground on the cart 2m 2 g 2m 2g
(D) The horse on the ground
34. A block of mass 20 kg is acted upon by a force
30. A 2.5 kg block is initially at rest on a horizontal F = 30 N at an angle 53° with the horizontal in
surface. A 6.0 N horizontal force and a vertical downward direction as shown. The coefficient
 of friction between the block and the horizontal
force P are applied to the block as shown in
figure. The coefficient of static friction for the surface is 0.2. The friction force acting on the
block and surface is 0.4. The magnitude of block by the ground is (g = 10 m/s2)
friction force when P = 9N : (g = 10 m/s2)

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 MOMENTUM
(A) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
statement- 2 is correct explanation for statement
1.
(B) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is true,
(A) 40.0 N (B) 30.0 N statement- 2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(C) 18.0 N (D) 44.8 N statement-1.
(C) statement-1 is true, Statement 2 is false
35. A bock of mass 5 kg is held against wall by (D) statement-1 is False, Statement 2 is True
applying a horizontal force of 100N. If the
coefficient of friction between the block and the 39. An object will continue accelerating until :
wall is 0.5, the frictional force acting on the block (A) Resultant force on it begins to decreases
is : (g =9.8 m/s2) (B) Its velocity changes direction
(C) The resultant force on it is zero
(D) The resultant force is at right angles to its
direction of motion

40. In which of the following cases the net force is

not zero ?
(A) A kite skillfully held stationary in the sky
(A)100 N (B) 50 N (B) A ball freely falling from a height
(C) 49 N (D) 24.9 N (C) An aeroplane rising upward at an angle of
45° with the horizontal with a constant speed
36. The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary (D) A cork floating on the surface of water.
lift and when it is moving downward with uniform 41. Figure shows the displacement of a particle going
acceleration ‘a’ 3:2. The value of ‘a’ is : (g = along the X-axis as a function of time. The force
acceleration, due to gravity) acting on the particle is zero in the region.
(A) (3/2)g (B) g
(C) (2/3) g (D) g/3

37. A person standing on the floor of an elevator

drops a coin. The coin reaches the floor of the
elevator in time t1 when elevator is stationary
(A) AB (B) BC
and in time t2 if it is moving uniformly. Then
(C) CD (D) DE
(A) t1 = t2 (B) t1 > t2
42. A 2 kg toy car can move along x axis. Graph
(C) t1 < t2
shows force Fx, acting on the car which begins
(D) t1 < t2 or t1 > t2 depending
to rest at time t = 0. The velocity of the car at t =
10 s is :
38. STATEMENT-1 : A man standing in a lift which
is moving upward, will feel his weight to be
greater than when the lift was at rest.
STATEMENT-2 : If the acceleration of the lift
is ‘a’ upward then the man of mass m shall feel
his weight to be equal to normal reaction (N)
exerted by the lift given N = m(g+a) (where g is
(A) î m/s (B) – 1.5 î m/s
acceleration due to gravity
(C) 6.5 î m/s (D) 13 î m/s
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 MOMENTUM
43. Figure shows the displacement of a particle going 47. Three forces act on a particle that moves with
along the x-axis as a function of time : unchanging velocity v  (3iˆ  4ˆj) m/s. Two of

the forces are F1  (3iˆ  2jˆ  4k) ˆ N and

F2  (5iˆ  8jˆ  3k)
ˆ N. The third force is :

(A) (2iˆ  10ˆj  7k)N

ˆ

(B) (2iˆ  10ˆj  k)N

ˆ
(A) The force acting on the particle is zero in the
region AB (C) (7iˆ  2kˆ  10ˆj)N
(B) The force acting on the particle is zero in the (D) none of these
region BC
(C) The force acting on the particle is zero in the 48. An 80 kg person is parachuting and experiencing
region CD a downward acceleration of 2.5 m/s2 . The mass
(D) The force is zero no where of the parachute is 5.0 kg. The upward force on
the open parachute from the air is : (g = 9.8 m/
44. A force of magnitude F1 acts on a particle so as s2)
to accelerate if from rest to velocity v. The force (A) 620.50 N (B) 740 N
F1 is then replaced by another force of magnitude (C) 800 N (D) 920 N
F2 which decelerates it to rest.
(A) F1 must be the equal to F2 49. A block of mass m is pulled on the smooth
(B) F1 may be equal to F2 horizontal surface with the help of two ropes,
(C) F1 must be unequal to F2 each of mass m, connected to the opposite faces
(D) None of these of the block. The forces on the ropes are F and
2F. The pulling force on the block is :
45. In a imaginary atmosphere, the air exerts a small (A) F (B) 2F
force F on any particle in the direction of the (C) F/3 (D) 3F/2
particle’s motion. A particle of mass m projected 50. A body of mass 5 kg starts from the origin with
upward takes a time t1 in reaching the maximum
height and t2 in the return journey to the original an initial velocity u  30iˆ  40ˆj ms–1 . If a
point. Then 
constant force F  (iˆ  5ˆj) N acts on the body,,
(A) t1 < t2 (B) t1 > t2
the time in which the y-component of the velocity
(C) t1 = t2
becomes zero is :
(D) The relation between t1 and t2 depends on
(A) 5 s (B) 20 s
the mass of the particle
(C) 40 s (D) 80 s
46. A single force F of constant magnitude begins to
act on a stone that is moving along x axis. The
stone continues to move along that axis. Which
of the following represents the stone’s position?
(A) x = 5t – 3 (B) x = 5t2 + 8t – 3
(C) x = –5t + 5t – 3 (D) x = 5t3 + 4t2 – 3
2

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 MOMENTUM
the same uniform speed. Then,

1. A weight is supported by two strings 1.3 and (A) F1 = F2

2.0 m long fastened to two points on a horizontal (B) F1 < F2
beam 2.0 m apart. The depth of this weight (C) F1 > F2
below the beam is : (D) F1 = 2F2 if sin = Mg/4F2
(A) 1.0 m (B) 1.23 m
(C) 0.77 m (D) 0.89 m 7. A light string goes over a frictionless pulley. At
2. A heavy roller is being pulled along a rough road its one end hangs a mass of 2 kg and at the
as shown in the figure. The frictional force at the other end hangs a mass of 6 kg. Both the masses
point of contact is : are supported by hands to keep them at rest.
When the masses are released, they being to
move and the string gets taut. (Take g = 10 ms–
2) The tension in the string during the motion of
(A) parallel to F (B) opposite to F the masses is :
(C) perpendicular to F (D) zero (A) 60 N (B) 30 N
(C) 20 N (D) 40 N
3. A fully loaded elevator has a mass of 6000 kg.
The tension in the cable as the elevator is 8. When a motor car of mass 1500 kg is pushed
accelerated downward with an acceleration of on a road by two persons, it moves with a small
2ms–2 is (Take g = I0 ms–2) uniform velocity. On the other hand if this car is
(A) 7·2 × 104 N (B) 4.8 × 104 N pushed on the same road by three persons, it
4
(C) 6 × 10 N (D) 1.2 × 104 N moves with an acceleration of 0.2 m/s2. Assume
that each person is producing the same muscular
4. A body of mass 10 g moves with constant speed force. Then, the force of friction between the
2 m/s along a regular hexagon. The magnitude tyres of the car and the surface of the road is :
of change in momentum when the body crosses (A) 300 N (B) 600 N
a corner is : (C) 900 N (D) 100 N
(A) 0.04 kg-m/s (B) zero
(C) 0.02 kg-m /s (D) 0.4 kg-m/s 9. A block of mass M is at rest on a plane surface
5. Four blocks are kept in a row on a smooth inclined at an angle  to the horizontal The
horizontal table with their centres of mass magnitude of force exerted by the plane on the
collinear as shown in the figure. An external force block is :
of 60 N is applied from left on the 7 kg block to (A) Mg cos (B) Mg sin 
push all of them along the table. The forces (C) Mg tan (D) Mg
exerted by them are :
10. A block of mass M rests on a rough horizontal
table. A steadily increasing horizontal force is
7 kg 5 kg
applied such that the block starts to slide on the
(A) 32 N by P on Q (B) 28 N by Q on P table without toppling. The force is continued
(C) 12 N by Q on R (D) 4 N by S on R even after sliding has started. Assume the
coefficients of static and kinetic friction between
6. In the two cases shown below, the coefficient of the table and the block to be equal. The correct
kinetic friction between the block and the surface representation of the variation of the frictional
is the same, and both the blocks are moving with forces, ƒ, exerted by the table on the block with

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 MOMENTUM
time t is given by : 15. What is the reading of the spring balance shown
in the figure below?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
(A) 0 (B) 2N
(C) 4N (D) 6N
11. A soldier with a machine gun, falling from an
airplane gets detached from his parachute. He 16. A truck and a car moving with the same kinetic
is able to resist the downward acceleration if he energy are brought to rest by application of
shoots 40 bullets a second at the speed of 500 brakes which provide equal total retarding force
m/s. If the mass of a bullet is 49 gm, what is the for both. The truck has 8 tyres, and weighs 4
mass of the man with the gun ? Ignore resistance times more than the car which has 4 tyres. What
due to air and assume the acceleration due to can you say about the distance in which the two
gravity g = 9.8 m/s2 . vehicles stop?
(A) 50 kg (B) 75 kg (A) The car will stop at a shorter distance.
(C) 100 kg (D) 125 kg (B) The truck will stop at a shorter distance.
(C) They will stop at the same distance.
12. A certain force applied to a body A gives it an (D) Not enough information is given.
acceleration of 10 ms–2 . The same force applied
to body B gives it an acceleration of 15 ms–2 . If 17. A person is riding a bicycle in vertical portion
the two bodies are joined together and same accelerating forward without slipping on a
force is applied to the combination, the straight horizontal road. What is / are the direction
acceleration will be : (s) of the total force exerted by the road on front
(A) 6 ms–2 (B) 25 ms–2 (P) and the rear (Q) wheel ?
(C) 12.5 ms–2 (D) 9 ms–2

13. Which of the following does NOT involve

friction ?
(A) Writing on a paper using a pencil
(B) Turning a car to the left on a horizontal road.
(C) A car at rest parked on a sloping ground (A) (B)
(D) Motion of a satellite around the earth.

14. When a car turns on a curved road, you are

(C) (D)
pushed against one of the doors of the car
because of :
(A) inertia (B) the centripetal force
(C) the centrifugal force(D) the frictionaI force

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18.
MOMENTUM
A rectangular parallelepiped with sides a, b and 22. The “reaction” force does not cancel the “action”
c in the ration 3 : 2 : 1 is kept on a uniformly force because
rough horizontal surface as shown in thefigures (A) the action force is greater than the reaction
below. The value of limiting friction is force
(B) the reaction force exists only after the action
force is removed
(C) the reaction force is greater than the action
force
(D) they act on different bodies
23. A wooden block (W) is suspended by using a
cord from a heavy steel ball (B). The entire
system is dropped from a height. Neglecting air
resistance, the tension in the cord is
(A) Zero
(B) The differences in the masses of B and W
(C) The differences in the weights of B and W
(A) Same in all cases (B) Minimum in (ii) (D) The weight of B
(C) Minimum in (iii) (D) Minimum (i)
24. A circus performer of weight W is standing on a
19. If two bodies of different masses, initially at rest, wire as shown in the adjacent figure. The tension
are acted upon by the same force for the same in the wire is
time, then both bodies acquire the same
(A) Velocity (B) acceleration
(C) momentum (D) kinetic energy

20. It is more difficult to walk on a sandy road than

on a concrete road. The most appropriate reason (A) Approximately
for this is (B) Approximately
(A) the sand is grainy but concrete is solid (C) Much more than
(B) the friction between sand and feet is less (D) Much less than
than that between concrete and feet
(C) the friction between sand and feet is more
than that between concrete and feet
(D) sand is soft and concrete is hard

21. A body is in equilibrium under the combined

action of several forces then :
(A) all the forces must be applied at the same
point
(B) all the forces form pairs of equal and opposite
forces
(C) the sum of the torques about any point must
always be equal to zero
(D) the lines of action of all the forces must pass
through the centre of gravity of the body.

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 MOMENTUM
5. WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

1. Work done upon a body is : (A) FS (B) FS Cos 

(A) a vector quantity (C) FS Sin  (D) zero
(B) a scalar quantity
(C) (A) and (B) both are correct 8. In tug of war work done by winning team is :
(D) none of these (A) zero (B) positive
2. Work done : (C) negative (D) none of these
(A) is always positive (B) is always negative 9. In tug of war work done by loosing team is :
(C) can be positive, negative or zero (A) zero (B) positive
(D) none of these (C) negative (D) none of these

3. No work is done when : 10. Work done by the force of gravity, when a body
(A) a nail is plugged in a wooden board is lifted to height h above the ground is :
(B) a box is pushed along a horizontal floor (A) zero (B) positive
(C) there is no component of force parallel to (C) negative (D) none of these
the direction of motion
(D) there is no component of force perpendicular 11. When work is done on a body :
to the direction of motion (A) it gains energy (B) it looses energy
(C) its energy remains constant
4. A body at rest can have : (D) none of these
(A) speed (B) velocity 12. Choose correct relation :
(C) momentum (D) energy (A) 1 J = 105 erg (B) 1 J = 107 erg
3
(C) 1 J = 10 erg (D) none of these
5. On the basis of physics work means :
(A) effort (B) interview 13. Which one is not the unit of energy ?
(C) achievement (D) get-together (A) kilocalorie (B) kWh
(C) erg (D) watt
6. Work is done on a body when :
(A) force acts on the body but the body is not 14. The work done in holding 15 kg suitcase while
displaced waiting for a bus for 15 minutes is :
(B) force does not act on the body but it is (A) 225 J (B) 13500 J
displaced (C) 1500 J (D) zero
(C) force acts on the body in a direction
perpendicular to the direction of the displacement 15. When a ball is thrown upward, its total energy :
of the body (A) increases (B) decreases
(D) force acts on the body and the body is either (C) remains same (D) none of these
displaced in the direction of force or opposite
to the direction of force 16. If a stone of mass ‘m’ falls a vertical distance ‘d’
the decrease in gravitational potential energy is :
7. Force F acts on a body such that force F makes Mg Mg 2
an angle  with the horizontal direction and the (A) (B)
d d
body is also displaced through a distance S in
the horizontal direction, then the work done by Mg
(C) mgd (D)
the force is : d2

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 MOMENTUM
17. An object of mass 10 kg falls from height 10 m. 24. An object of mass 1 kg has a P.E. of 1 J relative
Kinetic energy gained by the body will be to the ground when it is at a height of :(g = 9.8
approximately equal to : m/s2)
(A) 1000 J (B) 500 J (A) 0.10 m (B) 10 m
(C) 100 J (D) None of these (C) 9.8 m (D) 32 m

18. A spring is stretched. The potential energy in 25. To lift a 5 kg mass to a certain height, amount of
stretching the spring : energy spent is 245 J. The mass was raised to a
(A) remains the same (B) increases height of :
(C) decreases (D) becomes zero (A) 15 m (B) 10 m
19. The potential energy of a boy is maximum when (C) 7.5 m (D) 5 m
he is :
(A) standing 26. A moving body need not have :
(B) sleeping on the ground (A) Potential energy (B) Kinetic energy
(C) sitting on the ground (C) Momentum (D) Velocity
(D) sitting on chair
27. Potential energy of your body is minimum when:
20. The potential energy of a freely falling object (A) You are standing
decreases continuously. What happens to the (B) You lie down on floor
loss of potential energy ? (C) You are sitting on chair
(A) It is continuously converted into sound (D) Sitting on the ground
energy
(B) It is continuously converted into kinetic 28. A spring is compressed. The potential energy of
energy spring will :
(C) It is continuously destroyed (A) Remain unchanged (B) Increase
(D) None of these (C) Decrease (D) Become zero

21. A device which converts mechanical energy into 29. A man is climbing a staircase. The energy he
electrical energy is known as : uses does not depends upon :
(A) electric motor (B) lever (A) The height of the staircase
(C) generator (D) microphone (B) The weight of his body
(C) The time taken to reach the top
22. The value of g on moon is 1/6th of the value of g (D) The mass of his body
on the earth. A man can jump 1.5 m high on the
earth. On moon he can jump up to a height of : 30. When a ball is thrown upwards, its total energy:
(A) 9 m (B) 7.5 m (A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) 6 m (D) 4.5 m (C) Remains same (D) None of these

23. A raised hammer possess : 31. Work energy theorem states that change in K.E.
(A) kinetic energy only of an object is equal to :
(B) gravitational potential energy (A) Work done by all forces acting on it.
(C) electrical energy (B) Work done by conservative forces acting
(D) sound energy on it
(C) Work done by non-conservative forces
acting on it
(D) None of these

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 MOMENTUM
32. Types of mechanical energy are : (A) 50 J (B) 15 J
(A) kinetic energy only (C) 25 J (D) 20 J
(B) potential energy only
(C) kinetic energy and potential energy both 41. A simple pendulum hanging freely and at rest is
(D) neither kinetic energy nor potential energy vertical because in the position.
(A) K.E. is zero (B) K.E. is minimum
33. The kinetic energy of an object is K. If its velocity (C) P.E. is zero (D) P.E. is minimum
is doubled than its kinetic energy will be :
(A) K (B) 2K 42. If K.E. of a given particle is doubled, its
K momentum will be :
(C) (D) 4K (A) double (B) tripled
2
(C) 2 times (D) remains unchanged
34. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 4 kg possess equal
43. If the velocity of a car is tripled its K.E. will be :
momentum. The ratio of their K.E. :
(A) doubled (B) tripled
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 1 : 4
(C) 9 times (D) increase 15 times
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
44. Chlorophyll in the plants convert the light energy
35. 1 kg mass has K.E. of 1 J when its speed is :
into :
(A) 0.45 ms–1 (B) 1 ms–1
–1
(A) heat energy (B) chemical energy
(C) 1.4 ms (D) 4.4 ms–1
(C) mechanical energy (D) electrical energy
36. When you compress a spring you do work on
45. Kilowatt is the unit of :
it. The elastic potential energy of the spring :
(A) energy (B) power
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) force (D) momentum
(C) disappears (D) remains constant
46. Work is product of time and :
37. The K.E. of a body of mass 1 kg and momentum
(A) energy (B) power
2N -s is :
(C) force (D) distance
(A) 1 J (B) 2J
(C) 0.5 J (D) 4J
47. A young son work quickly for two hours and
prepares 16 items in a day. His old father works
38. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal
slowly for eight hours and prepare 24 items a
momentum. Their kinetic energies are in the ratio
day :
of :
(A) son has more power
(A) m1 : m 2 (B) m1 : m2 (B) son has more energy
(C) m2 : m1 (D) m1 (C) both have equal power
(D) both have equal energy
39. Two bodies of masses 1 m and 4 m have the
same K.E. What is the ratio for their momenta : 48. One horse power is :
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (A) 746 W (B) 550 W
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1 (C) 980 W (D) 32 W

40. Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 3kg have same 49. Power of a moving body is stored in the form of:
momentum. K.E. of 3kg mass is 10 J. Then K.E. (A) work and distance (B) force and distance
of 2 kg mass is : (C) force and velocity (D) force and time

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 MOMENTUM
50. A weight lifter lifts 240 kg from the ground to a 58. Which of the following relation is/are correct for
height of 2.5 m in 3 second his average power is: electric power :
(A) 1960 W (B) 19.6 W
V2
(C) 1.96 W (D) 196 W (A) P = VI (B) P =
R
51. Which of the following is not the unit of power ? (C) P = I2R (D) All of these
(A) J/s (B) Watt
(C) kJ/h (D) kWh 59. A motor boat is having a steady speed to 20 m/
52. A body of mass 0.1 kg is dropped from a height s. If the water resistance to the motor boat is
of 10 m at a place where g = 10 ms–2. Its K.E. 600 N, then the power is :
just before it strikes the ground is : (A) 12 kW (B) 120 W
(A) 1 J (B) 1.04 J (C) 9.8 kW (D) 1200 W
(C) 3.5 J (D) 10 J
60. The power of a pump which can pump 100 kg
53. A body of mass 10 kg is dropped from a point of water in 10s to a height of 100 m is -
where it possess on energy of 100 J. Then the (A) 9.8 kW (B) 120 kW
K.E. when it reaches ground would be : (C) 1.2 kW (D) 1200 kW
(A) 1000 J (B) 100 J
(C) 10 J (D) None of these 61. The power of a pump which can pump 200 kg/
s of water to a height of 200 m in 10 s is (g = 10
54. An object of mass ‘m’ is moving with a constant m/s2)
velocity v. How much work should be done on (A) 40 kW (B) 80 kW
the object in order to bring the object to rest : (C) 400 kW (D) 960 kW
(A) mv (B) mgv
62. 1 kWh equals to :
1 (A) 3.6 × 104 J (B) 3.6 × 105 J
(C) mv2 (D) mv2
2 (C) 3.6 × 106 J (D) 3.6 × 107 J

55. If a force F is applied on a body and it moves 63. 1 kW is equal to :

with a velocity V, the power will be : (A) 1000 watts (B) 10–3 mega watts
(A) F × V (B) F/V (C) A and B both (D) neither A nor B
2
(C) F/V (D) F × V2
64. Two masses of 1 gm and of 4 gm are moving
56. The power of a pump which takes 10s to lift with equal linear momenta, the ratio of their
100 kg of water tank situated at a height of 20 kinetic energies is :
m is : (A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
(A) 2 × 104 N (B) 2 × 103 W (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 16
2
(C) 2 × 10 W (D) None of these
65. If the linear momentum of a body is increased
57. Kilowatt-hour is : by 50 %, then K.E. of that body will increase
(A) Commercial unit of electric energy by :
(B) Board of trade unit (A) 50% (B) 100%
(C) Equivalent to kilovolt ampere-hour (C)125% (D) 25%
(D) All of these

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 MOMENTUM
66. Two bodies of masses MA and MB have equal (A) 4.17% (B) 41.7%
kinetic energy. The ratio of their momentum is : (C) 141.7% (D) none of these
(A) MB : MA (B) MA : MB
74. A man weighing 600 N carries a load of 150 N
(C) MA : MB (D) M2A : M2B
up the stairs 6m high in 15 seconds. His power
will be :
67. An engine draws water from a depth of 10 m (A) 290 W (B) 350 W
with constant speed 2 m/s at the rate of 10 kg (C) 300 W (D) 200 W
per 10 second the power of the engine is (in
watt.) : (Take : g = 9.8 m/s2)
(A) 102 (B) 98
(C) 100 (D) 200

68. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a momentum

of 10 kg m/s. A force of 0.2 N acts on it in the
direction of motion of the body for 10 sec. The
increase in its kinetic energy is :
(A) 2.8 J (B) 3.2 J
(C) 3.8 J (D) 4.4 J

69. Force F applied on a body moves it through a

distance S along F. Energy spent is :
(A) F × S (B) F / S
(C) FS2 (D) F / S2

70. The K.E. of a body becomes 4 times its initial

value. The new linear momentum will be :
(A) same as initial value
(B) four times the initial value
(C) twice the initial value
(D) eight times the initial value

71. A body of mass 2 kg is thrown upward with

initial velocity 20 m/s. After 2s its kinetic energy
will be : (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 400 J (B) 200 J
(C) 100 J (D) zero

72. In the above question the potential energy of the

body (after 2 sec) will be :
(A) 400 J (B) 200 J
(C) 100 J (D) zero

73. If the kinetic energy of a body is increased by

100%, then the change in momentum of the body
is :

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 MOMENTUM
1. Body A moves along a circle of radius RA in a
(iii) (iv)
horizontal plane whereas B moves along a circle
of radius RB in a vertical plane such that RA >
RB. If the work done by gravity on the two bodies (A) I (B) II
be WA and WB respectively, then : (C) III (D) IV
(A) WA > WB (B) WA =WB = 0
(C) WA = 0 but WB  0 7. A boy throws a ball vertically upwards, then
(D) nothing can be said as the data are insufficient work is done by
(A) the boy throughout the motion of the ball.
2. If the linear momentum of a body is doubled, its (B) the boy only during upward motion of the
kinetic energy gets : ball.
(A) halved (B) doubled (C) the boy only at the moment he throws the
(C) four times (D) unaffected ball.
(D) the gravitational force during downward
3. The ratio of minimum kinetic energies of two motion of the ball.
projectiles of the same mass is 2 : 1. The ratio of
maximum heights attained by them is 3 : 1. Then, 8. A solid square plate is spun around different axes
the ratio of their ranges is with the same angular speed. In which of the
(A) 1/6 (B) 6 following choice of axis of rotation will the kinetic
energy of the plate be the largest ?
(C)  2 / 3 (D) 3 / 2 (A) through the central normal to the plate.
(B) along one of the diameter of the plate.
4. A mass of 1 mg is equivalent to energy of : (C) along one of the edges of the plate.
(A) 9 × 1010 J (B) 9 × 106 J (D) through one corner normal to the plate.
(C) 3 × 106 J (D) 3 × 1010 J
9. A loaded bus (mass m2) and an unloaded bus
5. A certain force acting on a body of mass 2 kg (mass m1) are both moving with the same kinetic
increases its velocity from 6 m/s to 15 m/s in 2 energy. Brakes are applied to both the buses so
s. The work done by the force during this interval as to exert equal retarding force. If s1 and s2 are
is : the distances covered by the two buses
(A) 27 J (B) 3 J s1
(C) 94.5 J (D) 189 J respectively, before coming to rest, then s is :
2

6. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a certain m1

(A) 1 : 1 (B) m
initial velocity. Assume that there is no resistance 2
due to air. Among the graphs below, the graph
that is not an appropriate representation of the m1 m12
(C) (D)
motion of the ball is: m2 m22

10. A boy throws a stone (mass 100g) vertically

(i) (ii) upwards. It reaches a height of 10 m and then
falls to the ground. The work done by the boy is
(g = 10 ms–2)

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 MOMENTUM
(A) 10 J. (B) 20 J. 16. Two toy cars (a and b) fixed with spring at front,
(C) zero. (D) –10 J. collide as shown in the figure below. ‘a’ has a
mass of 200 g and is initially moving to the right.
11. A 750 W motor drives a pump which lifts 300 Car ‘b’ has a mass of 300 g and is initially at
litres of water per minute to a height of 6 meters. rest. When the separation between the cars is
The efficiency of the motor is nearly (take minimum,
acceleration due to gravity to be 10 m/s2)
(A) 30% (B) 40%
(C) 50% (D) 20%
(A) car b is at rest
12. An object of mass 1 kg is made to slide down a (B) car a has come to rest
smooth inclined plane of length 20m. If the kinetic (C) both cars have the same kinetic energy
energy possessed by the body at the bottom of (K.E.)
the plane is 100 J, then the inclination of the plane (D) the K.E of the system is at a minimum
with the horizontal is (take g = 10 ms–2)
(A) 45º (B) 37º 17. If a force acting is conservative only when :
(C) 60º (D) 30º (A) work done by this force is zero when the
particle moves once around any closed path
13. A block of mass 2 Kg placed on a floor (B) it obeys Newton’s third law
experiences an external force in horizontal (C) its work is the change in the K.E of the
direction of 20N, frictional force of 6N and particle
normal force of 20N. The body travels a (D) it is not a frictional force
distance of 10m under the combined effect of
all these force. If Initially body is at rest then
what is the kinetic energy of the body at the end
of 4m :
(A) 140J (B) 260J
(C) 60J (D) 56 J

14. A body of mass 2 kg moving in the positive X-

direction with a speed 4ms–1 collides head on
with an another body of mass 3kg moving in the
negative X-direction with a speed of 1ms–1.
During collision a loud sound is heard and they
both start moving together . The sound energy
cannot be greater than :
(A) 12J (B) 14J
(C) 15J (D) 17.5J

15. If two bodies of different masses, initially at rest,

are acted upon by the same force for the same
time, then both bodies acquire the same :
(A) Velocity (B) acceleration
(C) momentum (D) kinetic energy

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 MOMENTUM
6. GRAVITATION
8. The value of G in year 1900 was 6.673 × 10–11
Nm2 kg–2.
The value of G in the year 2007 will be :
1. When an apple falls from a tree :
(A) 6.673 × 10–9 Nm2 kg–2
(A) only earth attracts the apple
(B) 6.673 × 10-10 Nm2 kg2
(B) only apple attracts the earth
(C) 6.673 × 10-2 Nm2 kg–2
(C) both the earth and the apple attract each
(D) 6.673 × 10-11 Nm2 kg–2
other
(D) none attracts each other
9. Value of G on surface of earth is 6.673 × 10–11
Nm2 kg–2, then value of G on surface of Jupiter
2. Force of attraction between two bodies does
is :
not depend upon :
(A) 12 × 6.673 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2
(A) the shape of bodies
(B) the distance between their centres 6.673
(B)  1011 Nm2 kg–2
(C) the magnitude of their masses 12
(D) the gravitational constant (C) 6.673 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2
6.673
3. When the medium between two bodies changes, (D) × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2
force of gravitation between them : 6
(A) will increase (B) will decrease 10. The earth attracts the moon with a gravitational
(C) will change according to the environment force of 1020 N. Then the moon attracts the earth
(D) remains same with a gravitational force of :
(A) 10–20 N (B) 102 N
4. S.I. unit of G is : (C) 1020 N (D) 1010 N
(A) Nm2 kg–2 (B) Nm kg–2 11. The orbits of planets around the sun are :
(C) N kg2 M–2 (D) Nkg m–2 (A) circular (B) parabolic
(C) elliptical (D) straight
5. The value of universal gravitational constant :
(A) changes with change of place 12. Law of gravitation is applicable for :
(B) does not change from place to place (A) heavy bodies only
(C) becomes more at night (B) medium sized bodies only
(D) becomes more during the day (C) small sized bodies only
(D) bodies of any size
6. The value of G in S.I. unit is :
(A) 6.67 × 10–9 (B) 6.67 × 10–10 13. The universal law of gravitation was proposed
(C) 6.67 × 10–11 (D) 6.67 × 10–12 by :
(A) Copernicus (B) Newton
7. The gravitational force between two bodies (C) Galileo (D) Archimedes
varies with distance r as :
14. Choose the correct statement :
1 1 (A) All bodies repel each other in the universe.
(A) (B) 2
r r (B) Our earth does not behave like a magnet.
(C) r (D) r2 (C) Acceleration due to gravity is 8.9 ms–2.
(D) All bodies fall at the same rate in vacuum.

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 MOMENTUM
15. Gravitational force is a : (A) 10-20 N (B) 102 N
(A) Short range force (C) 1020 N (D) 1010 N
(B) Long range force
(C) Medium range force 22. The value of acceleration due to gravity (g) on
(D) Does not depend on distance between the earth’s surface is :
two bodies (A) 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2
16. If initially the distance between two bodies is r (B) 8.9 m/sec2
and their masses be M1 and M2 then the force (C) 9.8 m/sec2
of gravitation be F. If this distance is increased (D) none of these
to two times then the force would become :
F F 23. The acceleration due to gravity :
(A) (B) (A) has the same value everywhere in space
2 4
(C) 2 F (D) 4 F (B) has the same value everywhere on the earth
(C) varies with the latitude on the earth
17. If two bodies of mass M1 and M2 are placed a (D) is greater on moon because it has smaller
distance r apart they have a force of gravitation diameter
F between them. If both of the masses are
reduced to half then force of gravitation would 24. When a body is dropped form same height on
be : surface of the earth and the moon the ratio of
time to reach the ground will be :
F (A) 1 : 6 (B) 6 : 1
(A) (B) 2 F
2 (C) 6 : 1 (D) 1 : 6
F
(C) (D) F 25. If planet existed whose mass and radius were
4
both half of the earth, the acceleration due to
18. Force between two masses of 1 kg each, are gravity at the surface would be :
separated by a distance 1 metre will be : (A) 19.6 m/sec2 (B) 9.8 m/s2
(A) 6.6 7× 10–11 N (B) 9.8 N (C) 4.9 ms–2 (D) 2.45 m/s2
–8
(C) 6.6 7× 10 N (D) 6.6 7× 10–12 N
19. The mass of the moon is about 1.2% of the mass 26. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. The
of the earth. Compared to the gravitational force acceleration due to gravity :
the earth exerts on the moon and, the gravitational (A) is in the direction opposite to the direction
force, the moon exerts on earth : of its motion
(A) is the same (B) is smaller (B) is in the same direction as the direction of its
(C) is greater (D) varies with its phase motion
(C) increases as it comes down
20. Two objects are placed at some distance, if their (D) become zero at the highest point.
masses becomes two times and distance
between them becomes half then value of new 27. The acceleration due to gravity on the moon’s
gravitational force will be : surface is :
(A) 4 times (B) 8 times (A) approximately equal to that near the earth’s
(C) 16 times (D) 32 times surface
(B) approximately six times that near the earth’s
21. The earth attracts the moon with a gravitational surface
force of 1020 N. Then the moon attracts the (C) approximately one-sixth of that near the
earth with a gravitational force of : earth’s surface
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 MOMENTUM
(D) slightly greater than that near the earth’s 35. The value of ‘g’ will be maximum at :
surface (A) the equator
(B) the top of Mount Everest
28. The force acting on a ball due to earth has a (C) the pole of the earth
magnitude Fb and that acting on the earth due to (D) the kutub Minar
the ball has a magnitude Fe Then :
(A) Fb = Fe (B) Fb > Fe 36. The value of ‘g’ is zero :
(C) Fb < Fe (D) Fe = 0 (A) at the top of atmosphere
(B) at 20 km below the surface of the earth
29. The force of gravitation between two bodies (C) at 20 km above the surface of the earth
does not depend on : (D) at the centre of the earth
(A) their separation
(B) the product of their masses 37. The value of g :
(C) the sum of their masses (A) decreases with height from earth’s surface
(D) the gravitational constant (B) increases with height from earth’s surface
(C) remains unchanged with increase of height
30. The ratio of the value of g on the surface of moon from earth’s surface
to that on the earth’s surface is : (D) none of these
(A) 6 (B) 6
38. As we go from equator to poles, the value of g :
1 1 (A) remains the same
(C) (D)
6 6 (B) increases
(C) decreases
31. Order of magnitude of G in S.I. unit is : (D) decreases up to a latitude of 45º
(A) 10-11 (B) 1011
(C) 10-7 (D) 107 39. If the change in the value of ‘g’ at a height h
above the surface of the earth is the same as at a
32. The S.I. unit of g is : depth d below it. When both d and h are much
(A) m2/s (B) m/s2 smaller than the radius of earth, then :
(C) s/m2 (D) m/s (A) d = h (B) d = 2h
(C) d = h/2 (D) d = h2
33. If the distance between two masses be doubled
then the force between them will become : 40. The value of g on moon is 1 / 6 th of the value of
g on earth . A man can jump 1.5 m high on the
1 earth. He can jump on the moon up to a height
(A) times (B) 4 times
4 of :
1 (A) 9 m (B) 7.5 m
(C) times (D) 2 times (C) 6 m (D) 4.5 m
2

34. The type of force which exists between charged 41. If the radius of earth is decreased by 1 % , its
bodies is mass remaining the same. The acceleration due
(A) only gravitational to gravity on the surface of earth will :
(B) neither gravitational nor electrical (A) increase by 1% (B) increase by 2%
(C) only electrical (C) decrease by 1% (D) decrease by 2%
(D) both electrical and gravitational

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 MOMENTUM
42. The weight of a body is 120 N on the earth. If it 49. The mass of body is measured to be 12 kg on
is taken to the moon, its weight and mass will be the earth. Its mass on moon will be :
about (Take ge = 10 m/s2) : (A) 12 kg (B) 6 kg
(A) 120 N, 120 kg (B) 60 N, 12 kg (C) 2 kg (D) 72 kg
(C) 20 N, 12 kg (D) 720 N, 120 kg
50. A heavy stone falls :
43. The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2 : (A) faster than a light stone
(A) Much above the earth’s surface (B) slower than a light stone
(B) Near the earth’s surface (C) with same acceleration as light stone
(C) Deep inside the earth (D) none of these
(D) At the centre of the earth
51. A stone is dropped from the roof of a building
44. A particle is taken to a height R above the earth’s takes 4s to reach the ground. The height of the
surface, where R is the radius of the earth. The building is :
acceleration due to gravity there is : (A) 19.6 m (B) 39.2 m
(A) 2.45 m/s2 (B) 4.9 m/s2 (C) 156.8 m (D) 78.4 m
2
(C) 9.8 m/s (D) 19.6 m/s2
52. A ball is thrown up and attains a maximum height
45. When a body is thrown up, the force of gravity of 19.6 m. Its initial speed was :
is : (A) 9.8 ms–1 (B) 44.3 ms–1
(A) in upward direction (C) 19.6 ms–1 (D) 98 ms–1
(B) in downward direction
(C) zero 53. The value of g at pole is :
(D) in horizontal direction (A) greater than the value at the equator
(B) less than the value at the equator
46. Mass of an object is : (C) equal to the value at the equator
(A) amount of matter present in the object (D) none of these
(B) same as weight of an object
(C) measure of gravitational pull 54. Two bodies A and B of mass 500 g and 200 g
(D) none of these respectively are dropped near the earth’s
surface. Let the acceleration of A and B be aA
47. The weight of an object is : and aB respectively, then :
(A) the quantity of matter it contains (A) aA = aB (B) aA > aB
(B) refers to its inertia (C) aA < aB (D) aA  aB
(C) same as its mass but is expressed in different
units 55. A body is thrown up with a velocity of 20 m/s.
(D) the force with which it is attracted towards The maximum height attained by it is
the earth approximately :
(A) 80 m (B) 60 m
48. Weight of an object depends on : (C) 40 m (D) 20 m
(A) temperature of the place
(B) atmosphere of the place 56. The weight of a body is 120 N on the earth. If it
(C) mass of an object is taken to the moon, its weight will be about :
(D) none of these (A) 120 N (B) 60 N
(C) 20 N (D) 720 N

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 MOMENTUM
57. Two iron and wooden balls identical in size are 63. Escape velocity from a planet of mass M and
released from the same height in vacuum. The radius R will be :
time taken by them to reach the ground are :
(A) not equal (B) exactly equal 2GM 2GM
(A) (B) 2
(C) regularly equal (D) zero R R

58. The escape velocity for a body projected 2GM R

(C) (D) 2
vertically upwards from the surface of the earth G GM
is 11.2 km s–1 . If the body is projected in a
direction making an angle of 45º with the vertical, 64. There is no atmosphere on the moon because :
the escape velocity will be: (A) It is closer to the earth
(A) 11.2 km s–1 (B) 11.2 × 2 km s–1 (B) It revolving around the earth
(C) 11.2 × 2 km s–1 (D) 11.2 / 2 kms–1 (C) It gets light from the sun
(D) here the escape velocity is less than their
59. If both the mass and the radius of the earth rms velocity of gas.
decreases by 1%, then :
(A) the escape velocity would increase by 1% 65. The time period of a satellite revolving in a circular
(B) the acceleration due to gravity would orbit of radius r is T. Time period of another
increase by 1% satellite revolving in the circular orbit of radius
(C) the escape velocity would decrease by 1% 4r will be :
(D) the acceleration due to gravity would T
decrease 1% (A) 4T (B)
4
60. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface T
(C) 8T (D)
of the moon is one sixth that on the surface of 8
earth and the diameter of the moon is one fourth
of that of earth. The ratio of escape velocity on 66. The time period of geostationary satellite is :
moon and earth will be : (A) zero (B) 24 h
1 2 (C) 12 h (D) 48 h
(A) (B)
24 16
67. The time period of a seconds pendulum inside a
2 satellite will be :
(C) (D) 24 (A) zero (B) 1 s
3
(C) 2 s (D) infinite
61. If a satellite is revolving near the earth’s surface,
then its orbital velocity does not depends upon : 68. Motion of artificial satellite around the earth is
(A) The mass of the satellite powered by :
(B) The radius of the earth (A) liquid fuel (B) solar energy
(C) The radius of the orbit (C) atomic energy (D) none of these
(D) The mass of the earth
69. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit
62. Escape velocity of a particle depends on its mass around the earth has a total (Kinetic + Potential)
m as : energy E0. Its potential energy is :
(A) m2 (B) m (A) – E0 (B) 2E0
(C) mº (D) m–1 (C) 1.5 E0 (D) E0

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 MOMENTUM
70. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit around (A) 1 (B) 2
a planet is independent of : (C) 4 (D) 8
(A) The mass of the planet
(B) The radius of the planet 6. Which of the following statements corresponds
(C) The mass of the satellite to Kepler’s laws of planetary motion ?
(D) All above (A) A planet moves around the sun in a circular
orbit.
(B) A planet moves around the sun in an elliptical
orbit with the sun at the geometrical centre.
(C) A planet moves around the sun in an elliptical
1. As one goes from the surface of the earth to its
orbit with the sun at the focus.
centre, the acceleration due to gravity
(D) A planet moves around the sun in an elliptical
(A) increases
orbit with uniform speed.
(B) decreases and becomes zero at the centre
(C) remains constant
7. The figure below shows elliptical orbit of a planet
(D) first increases and then decreases
P moving round the sun at focus F. Then :
2. The escape speed of a body from the earth
regarded as a uniform (non-rotating) sphere
depends on :
(A) the mass of the body.
(B) the direction of projection.
(C) the location of the projection on the earth’s (A) the planet moves with uniform speed.
surface. (B) the speed of the planet at B equal to its speed
(D) the height of location from the earth’s surface at D.
from where the body is launched. (C) the planet moves with highest speed at A.
(D) speed of the planet is smallest at C.
3. In raising an Earth satellite to a farther orbit,
which of the following quantities increases ? 8. A planet of mass m is moving around a star of
(A) centripetal force (B) gravitational force mass M and radius R in a circular orbit of radius
(C) orbital speed (D) none of the above r. The star abruptly shrinks to half its radius
without any loss of mass. What change will be
4. Newton deduced the inverse square law of there in the orbit of the planet ?
gravitation (A) The planet will escape from the star.
(A) by observing motion of an apple falling from (B) The radius of the orbit will increase.
a tree. (C) The radius of the orbit will decrease.
(B) by using kepler’s laws of planetary motion. (D) The radius of the orbit will not change.
(C) by studying motion of different objects in
the laboratory. 9. Three particles each of mass m are placed at
(D) by using data obtained from Cavendish the vertices of a triangle of side r. The force
experiment. experienced by each mass is :
Gm 2 Gm 2
5. Consider two spherical planets of same average (A) 3( ) (B) 2( )
r2 r2
density. Planet 2 is 8 times as massive as planet
1. The ratio of the accelertion due to gravity of Gm 2 Gm 2
(C) (D) 2
the second planet to that of the first is. r2 r2

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 MOMENTUM
10. The percentage change in acceleration due to
gravity at an altitude equal to radius of earth
compared to that on the surface of earth is given
by :
(A) 25% increase (B) 35% decrease
(C) 75% decrease (D) 25% decrease

11. A satellite is launched in a circular orbit of radius

R. Another satellite is also launched in an orbit
of radius 1.1R. The period of the second satellite
is larger than the first by approximately…..
(A) 7.5% (B) 1.5%
(C) 15% (D) 10%

12. Clock A based on oscillations of spring and clock

B is based on pendulum motion. Both the clocks
keep the same time on earth. If they are taken
to a planet having half the density of earth and
twice the radius
(A) then A runs faster than B
(B) B runs faster than A
(C) both will run at equal faster rate than earth
(D) both will run at same rate as earth

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 MOMENTUM
7. CIRCULAR MOTION

th
1
8. A car travels   of a circle with radius r. The
1. 1C is equal to : 4
(A) 57.3º (B) 573º ratio of the distance to its displacement is :
(C) 180º (D) 360º  
(A) 1: (B) :1
2 2 2 2
2. An athlete complete one round of a circular track
of diameter 200 m in 40 s. What will be the (C) 2 2 :  (D) 2 2 :1
displacement at the end of 2 minutes 40 s. ?
(A) 2200 m (B) 220 m 9. A boy is running along a circular track of radius
(C) 22 m (D) Zero 7 m. He completes one circle in 10 second. The
average velocity of the boy is :
3. What will be the distance in the above question? (A) 4.4 ms–1 (B) 0.7 ms–1
(A) 2512 m (B) 2500 m (C) Zero (D) 70 ms–1
(C) 2200 m (D) Zero
10. Unit of angular velocity is :
4. The distance travelled by a body is directly (A) rad (B) m/s
2
proportional to the time, then the body is said to (C) rad/s (D) rad/s
have :
(A) Zero speed (B) Zero velocity 11. Two bodies in circular paths of radii 1 : 2 take
(C) Constant speed (D) None of these same time to complete their circles. The ratio of
their linear speeds is :
5. An athlete runs along a circular track of diameter (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
28 m. The displacement of the athlete after he (C) 1 : 3 (D) 3 : 1
completes one circle is :
(A) 28 m (B) 88 m 12. In a circular path of radius 1m, a mass of 2kg
(C) 44 m (D) Zero moves with a constant speed of 10 ms–1. The
angular speed in radian/sec. is :
6. Uniform circular motion is an example of : (A) 5 (B) 10
(A) Constant acceleration (C) 15 (D) 20
(B) Variable acceleration
(C) A and B both 13. The relation among v,  and r is :
(D) None of these v 
(A)   (B) v 
r r
7. Rate of change of angular velocity refer to :
(A) angular speed r
(C)   (D) None of these
(B) angular displacement v
(C) angular acceleration 14. A body moving along circular path may have :
(D) None of these (A) a constant speed
(B) a constant velocity
(C) no tangential velocity
(D) no radial acceleration

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15.
MOMENTUM
Find the ratio of the distance covered to the 21. A motor car is travelling at 20 m/s on a circular
displacement covered by a body along a road of radius 100m. It is increasing its speed at
semicircle of radius r : the rate of 3 m/s2. Acceleration of motor car is :
 (A) 3 m/sec2 (B) 5 m/sec2
(A) 2 (B) (C) 8 m/sec2 (D) None of these
2
(C)  (D) None of these
22. A particle initially at rest starts moving from point
A on the surface of a fixed smooth hemisphere
16. A body is moving on a circular path of radius 10
of radius r as shown. The particle looses its
cm, it covers an angle of 60º. Its displacement is :
contact with hemisphere at point B. C is centre
(A) 10 cm (B) 15 cm
of the hemisphere.
(C) 5 cm (D) 20 cm
The equation relating  and  is :
(A) 3 sin  = 2 cos 
17. The motion of a point on the rim of a wheel
(B) 2 sin = 3 cos 
rotating about an axis fixed in a wall is :
(C) 3 sin  = 2 cos 
(A) Circular (B) Linear
(D) 2 sin  = 3 cos 
(C) Linear and circular (D) Vibratory
EXERCISE-2
23. Starting from rest, a particle moves along a circle
18. Examples of uniform circular motion are :
(A) motion of moon around the earth of radius 2 m with an angular acceleration of
(B) motion of satellite around a planet ( / 4) rad s –2. During the time the particle
(C) a runner running on a circular track with covers a quarter of the circle, the magnitude of
constant speed average velocity is :
(D) all of them (A) 1.50 m/s (B) 2,00 m/s
(C) 1..00 m/s (D) 1.25 m/s
19. When a body moves along a semicircle, total
angle subtended by it at centre of circle is : 24. The rear wheels of a car are turning at an angler
 speed of 60 rad/s. The brakes are applied for
(A) (B) 2 5s, causing a uniform angular retardation of 8
2
rads–2. The number of revolutions turned by the
(C)  (D) none of these rear wheels during the braking period is about :
(A) 48 (B) 96
20. The figure shows the velocity and acceleration (C) 32 (D) 12
of a point like body at the initial moment of its
motion. The acceleration vector of the body 25. Different locations of a cyclist on an off-road
remains constant. The minimum radius of track are as shown in the figure below. At which
curvature of trajectory of the body is:
of these locations would he feel heaviest ?

(A) 2 metre (B) 4 metre

(C) 8 metre (D) 16 metre
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D

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 MOMENTUM
26. A circular metal washer is uniformly heated. 3.C Water in a bucket is whirled in a vertical circle
Select the correct statement. with a string attached to it. The water does not
(A) Both its external and internal diameters fall down even when the bucket is inverted at
increase. the top of its path. We conclude that in this po-
(B) Its external diameter increases and internal sition
diameter decreases.
mv 2
(C) Its external diameter is unchanged and (A) mg =
internal diameter decreases. r
(D) Its external diameter increases and internal mv 2
diameter is unchanged (B) mg is greater than
r
27. Particles P and Q are undergoing uniform mv 2
(C) mg is not greater than
horizontal circular motions along concentric r
circles of different radii in clockwise sense. P (D) none of these
completes each round in 2 minutes while Q does 4.C A stone of mass m tied to a string of length l is
it in 5 minutes. Time required by Q to make one rotated in a circle with the other end of the string
revolution around P is : as the centre. The speed of the stone is v. If the
(A) 3 minutes string breaks, the stone will move
(B) 10 minutes (A) towards the centre
(C) 10/3 minutes (B) away from the centre
(D) This is not possible as Q is moving slower (C) along a tangent
than P. (D) will stop

5.A A motorcycle is going on an overbridge of ra-

dius R. The driver maintains a constant speed.
As the motorcycle is ascending on the
overbridge, the normal force on it
1.C An unbanked curve has a radius of 60 m. The (A) Increases (B) Decreases
maximum speed at which a car can make a turn (C) Remains the same (D) Fluctuates
if the coefficient of static friction is 0.75, is
(A) 2.1 m/s (B) 14 m/s 6.C Three identical cars A, B and C are moving at
(C) 21 m/s (D) 7 m/s the same speed on three bridges. The car A goes
on a plane bridge, B on a bridge convex up-
2.A A person wants to drive on the vertical surface ward and C goes on a bridge concave upward.
of a large cylindrical wooden 'well' commonly Let FA, FB and FC be the normal forces exerted
known as 'death well' in a circus. The radius of by the cars on the bridges when they are at the
the well is 2 meter, and the coefficient of friction middle of bridges.
between the tyres of the motorcycle and the wall (A) FA is maximum of the three forces.
of the well is 0.2, the minimum speed the mo- (B) FB is maximum of the three forces.
torcyclist must have in order to prevent slipping (C) FC is maximum of the three forces.
should be (D) FA= FB = FC
(A) 10 m/s (B) 15 m/s 7.A A train A runs from east to west and another
(C) 20 m/s. (D) 25 m/s train B of the same mass runs from west to east
at the same speed along the equator. A presses
the track with a force F1 and B presses the track
with a force F2
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 MOMENTUM
(A) F1 >F2 (B) F1 < F2 13.D A stone tied to a string is rotated with a uniform
(C) F1 = F2 speed in a vertical plane. If mass of the stone is
(D) The information is insufficient to find the re- m, length of the string is r and linear speed of the
lation between F1 and F2 stone is v, then tension in the string when the
stone is at its lowest point is
8.B A car turns a corner on a slippery road at a con- (A) mg (B) mv2/r
2
stant speed of 12 m/s. If the coefficient of fric- (C) (mv /r) – mg (D) (mv2/r) + mg
tion is 0.4, the minimum radius of the arc in
metres in which the car turns is 14.D Three identical particles are joined together by
(A) 72 (B) 36 a thread as shown in figure. All the three
(C) 18 (D) 9 particles are moving in a horizontal plane. If the
velocity of the outermost particle is v0, then the
9.A A small object placed on a rotating horizontal ratio of tensions in the three sections of the
turn table just slips when it is placed at a dis- string is
tance 4 cm from the axis of rotation. If the angu-
lar velocity of the turn-table is doubled, the ob-
ject slips when its distance from the axis of rota-
(A) 3 : 5 : 7 (B) 3 : 4 : 5
tion is
(C) 7 : 11 : 6 (D) 3 : 5 : 6
(A) 1 cm (B) 2 cm
(C) 4 cm (D) 8 cm
15.A A block of mass M is situated on a smooth hori-
zontal frictionless table. A thread tied to the block
10.B An automobile of mass m is crossing over a con-
passes through a hole in the table and carries a
vex upwards over bridge with a speed v. If the
mass m at its other end. If the length of the thread
radius of the bridge is r, the thrust on the bridge
above the table is  , what should be the value
at the highest point will be
of m so that it may remain suspended at a con-
mv 2 mv 2 stant height and the block M moves in a circular
(A) mg + (B) mg –
r r path
with an angular velocity  on the table?
mv 2
(C) mg (D)
r
11.A A curved road of 50 m in radius is banked to
correct angle for a given speed. If the speed is
to be doubled keeping the same banking angle,
the radius of curvature of the road should be
changed to
(A) 200 m (B) 100 m m2 m2
(C) 50 m (D) none of these (A) (B)
g 3g

12.D A stone of mass m is tied to a string and is moved m2 2m2

in a vertical circle of radius r making n revolu- (C) (D)
5g g
tions per minute. The total tension in the string
when the stone is at its lowest point is 16.C A string of length  = 1 m is fixed at one end
(A) mg (B) m(g + nr2) and carries a mass of 100 gm at other end the
 2 n 2 r  string makes 5 /  revolutions per second
(C) m (g + nr) m
(D)  g  
 900 
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 MOMENTUM
about a vertical axis passing through its second
end. What is the angle of inclination of the string
with the vertical?
(A) 30º (B) 45º
(C) 60º (D) 75º
21.D A particle of mass m is attached to a massless
17.C A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light inextensible string of length l and is oscillating in a vertical
string of length L = 10 m is whirling in a circular plane with the other end of the string fixed to a
path of radius L in vertical plane. If the ratio of rigid support. The tension in the string at a cer-
the maximum tension in the string to the mini- tain instant is T = k mg.
mum tension is 4 and if g is taken to be 10 ms–2, (A) k can never be greater than 1
the speed of the stone at the highest point of the (B) k can never be less than 1
circle is (C) k can never be equal to 1
(A) 10 ms–1 (B) 5 2 ms–1 (D) k can never be greater than 3
(C) 10 3 ms–1 (D) None of these
22.B A pendulum of length l=1 m is released from 0
= 60°. The rate of change of speed of the bob
18.C A 8 kg stone tied at the end of the string 1 metre
at = 30° is (g = 10 m/s2)
long is whirled in a vertical circle. At the instant
when the string makes an angle with the verti-
cal, the speed of the stone is 4 ms–1 and the
tension in the thread is 104 N. Then is
(A) 0º (B) 30º
(C) 60º (D) None of these

19.C A truck is carry a box of mass m = 50 kg on its

flat horizontal rough surface with coefficient of (A) 5 3 m/s2 (B) 5 m/s2
friction µ = 0.3. It is crossing a circular track of (C) 10 m/s2 (D) 2.5 m/s2
radius 27 m. What is the maximum speed of the 23.B Two particles tied to different strings are whirled
truck so that the box does not slide from the in a horizontal circle as shown in figure. The ra-
truck while moving on the circular path? tio of lengths of the string so that they complete
their circular path with equal time period is:

(A) 18 km/hr (B) 36 km/hr

(C) 32.4 km/hr (D) None of these
3 2
20.C Indicate the direction of frictional force on a car (A) (B)
2 3
which is moving along the curved path with non
(C) 1 (D) None of these
zero tangential acceleration ; in anti-clock di-
rection:
24.B A smooth wire is bent into a vertical circle of
radius a. A bead P can slide smoothly on the
wire. The circle is rotated about vertical diam-
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 MOMENTUM
eter AB as axis with a speed as shown in 27.C A small sized mass m is attached by a massless
figure. the bead P is at rest w.r.t. the circular ring string (of length L) to the top of a fixed friction-
in the position shown. Then 2 is equal to: less solid cone whose axis is vertical. The half
angle at the vertex of the cone is . If the mass
m moves around in a horizontal circle at speed
v, what is the maximum value of v for which mass
stays in contact with the cone? (g is acceleration
due to gravity.)

2g 2g
(A) (B)
a a 3

g 3 2a (A) gL cos  (B) gL sin 

(C) (D)
a g 3
(C) gL sin  tan  (D) gL tan 
25.C A particle is attached to an end of rigid rod. The
other end of the rod is hinged and the rod ro- 28.D A circular road of radius R is banked for a speed
tates always remaining horizontal. Its angular v = 40 km/hr. A car of mass m attempts to go on
speed is increasing at constant rate. The mass the circular road, the friction coefficient between
of the particle is ‘m’. The force exerted by the the tyre and road is negligible:
 (A) the car cannot make a turn without skidding
rod on the particle is F , then:
(B) if the car runs at a speed less than 40 km/hr,
(A) F  mg (B) F is constant
 it will slip up the slope
(C) The angle between F and horizontal plane (C) if the car runs at the correct speed of 40
decreases km/hr, the force by the road on the car is equal

(D) The angle between F and the rod decreases to mv2/r
(D) if the car runs at the correct speed of 40
26.A A bus is moving with a constant acceleration a = km/hr, the force by the road on the car is greater
3g/4 towards right. In the bus, a ball is tied with than mg as well as greater than mv2/r
a rope and is rotated in vertical circle as shown.
The tension in the rope will be minimum, when 29.D A particle describes a horizontal circle in a coni-
the rope makes an angle = ________ cal funnel whose inner surface is smooth with
speed of 0.5 m/s. What is the height of the plane
of circle from vertex of the funnel?
(A) 0.25 cm (B) 2 cm
(C) 4 cm (D) 2.5 cm

30.D One end of string of length l is connected to a

particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is
(A) 53º (B) 37° connected to a small peg on a smooth horizon-
(C) 180 – 53° (D) 180+ 37° tal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed
‘v’ the net force on the particle (directed
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 MOMENTUM
towards centre) will be (T represents the ten-
sion in the string):
mv 2 mv 2
(A) T  (B) T 
 
(C) Zero (D) T

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 MOMENTUM
8. FLUID

8. The pressure exerted by a liquid at depth h is

1. Pressure varies with force as : given by:
(A) F (B) F h
1 (A) (B) hdg
dg
(C) F2 (D)
F2
h
(C) (D) hg
2. Pressure exerted by a sharp needle on a surface d
is : 9. The S.I. unit of thrust :
(A) more than the pressure exerted by blunt (A) N (B) dyne
needle (C) Nm2 (D) Nm–2
(B) less than the pressure exerted by a blunt
needle 10. Pressure cannot be measured in :
(C) equal to the pressure exerted by a blunt (A) Nm-2 (B) bar
needle (C) Pa (D) [Link].
(D) none of these
11. A piece of wood is held under water. The
3. If a force of 10N acts on two surfaces (area in upthrust on it is :
the ratio 1 : 2), then the ratio of thrusts will be : (A) equal to the weight of the wood
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (B) less than the weight of the wood
(C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 1 (C) more than the weight of wood
(D) zero
4. The height of mercury which exerts the same
pressure as 20 cm of water column, is equal to : 12. Archimedes principle states that when a body is
(A) 1.47 cm (B) 14.8 cm totally or partially immersed in a fluid the upthrust
(C) 148 cm (D) None of these is equal to :
(A) the weight of the fluid displaced.
5. Pressure varies with area (A) as : (B) the weight of the body.
(C) volume of the fluid displaced.
1
(A) A (B) (D) volume of the body.
A
1 13. S.I. unit of density is :
(C) A2 (D) (A) kgm-2 (B) kgm-3
A2
6. A force of 50 N is applied on a nail of area (C) m2kg-1 (D) N kg-1
0.001 [Link]. Then the thrust is :
(A) 50 N (B) 100 N 14. Unit of relative density is :
(C) 0.05 N (D) 10 N (A) kgm-3 (B) gcm-3
-1
(C) g litre (D) it does not have a
7. The S.I. unit of pressure is : unit
(A) atmosphere (B) dyne/cm2 15. Relative density of a solid is 0.6. It floats in water
(C) pascal (D) mm of Hg with :
(A) whole of its volume inside water

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 MOMENTUM
(B) 60% volume inside water
(C) 60% volume outside water
(D) 40% volume inside water.
16. Buoyant force acting on a body due to different
fluids is :
(A) same (B) different
(C) zero (D) none of these (A) 105 N/m (B) 2 × 105 N/m
(C) Zero (D) Infinity
17. The relative density of silver is 10.5, if the density
of water is 1000 kgm-3, then density of silver 22. Figure here shown the vertical cross-section of
will be : a vessel filled with a liquid of density r. The
(A) 10.5 kgm-3 (B) 1050 kgm-3 normal thrust per unit area on the walls of the
-3
(C) 105 kgm (D) 10500 kgm-3 vessel at point. P, as shown, will be

1
18. A body floats with rd of its volume outside
3
3
water and th of its volume outside liquid, then
4
the density of liquid is :
(A) h r g (B) Hr g
3 8 (C) (H – h) rg (D) (H – h)r g cos 
(A) g/cm3 (B) g/cm3
8 3
9 4 23. In a hydraulic lift, used at a service station the
(C) g/cm3 (D) g/cm3 radius of the large and small piston are in the
4 9
ratio of 20 : 1. What weight placed on the small
piston will be sufficient to lift a car of mass 1500
19. A boat full of iron nail is floating on water in a
kg ?
lake. When the iron nails are removed, the water
(A) 3.75 kg (B) 37.5 kg
level :
(C) 7.5 kg (D) 75 kg.
(A) rises (B) remains same
(C) falls (D) nothing can be said
24. Two vessels A and B of different shapes have
the same base area and are filled with water up
20. A cylinder of wood floats vertically in water with
to the same height h (see figure). The force
onefourth of its length out of water. The density
exerted by water on the base is FA for vessel A
of wood is :
and FB for vessel B. The respective weights of
(A) 0.25 g/cm3 (B) 0.5 g/cm3
the water filled in vessels are WA and WB. Then
(C) 0.75 g/cm3 (D) 1 g/cm3

21. A siphon in use is demonstrated in the following

figure. The density of the liquid flowing in siphon
is 1.5 gm/cc. The pressure difference between
the point P and S will be :
(A) FA > FB ; WA > WB
(B) FA = FB ; WA > WB
(C) FA = FB ; WA < WB
(D) FA > FB ; WA = WB
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25.
MOMENTUM
Bernoulli’s principle is based on the law of (D) May have any value
conservation of : 33. The Reynolds number of a flow is the ratio of
(A) mass (B) momentum (A) Gravity to viscous force
(C) energy (D) none of these (B) Gravity force to pressure force
(C) Inertia forces to viscous force
26. Action of paint-gun is based on: (D) Viscous forces to pressure forces
(A) Bernoulli’s principle
(B) Boyle’s law 34. Two water pipes of diameters 2 cm and 4 cm
(C) Faraday’s law are connected with the main supply line. The
(D) Archimedes’s principle velocity of flow of water in the pipe of 2 cm
diameter is
27. Bernoulli’s equation is applicable to points: (A) 4 time that in the other pipe
(A) in a steadily flowing liquid 1
(B) in a stream line (B) times that in the other pipe
4
(C) in a straight line perpendicular to a stream
(C) 2 times that in the other pipe
line
(D) for ideal liquid stream line flow on a stream 1
(D) times that in the other pipe
line 2

28. Bernoulli’s equation is based upon: 35. Water is moving with a speed of 5.18 ms–1
(A) isochoric process (B) isobaric process through a pipe with a cross-sectional area of
(C) isothermal process (D) adiabatic process 4.20 cm2. The water level gradually descends
9.66 m as the pipe increase in area to 7.60 cm
29. The horizontal flow of fluid depends upon 2 , The speed of flow at the lower level i s
(A) pressure difference (B) amount of fluid (A) 3.0 ms–1 (B) 5.7 ms–1
(C) density of fluid (D) all the above (C) 3.82 ms–1 (D) 2.86 ms–1

30. In steady horizontal flow: 36. A tank is filled with water up to height H. Water
(A) the pressure is greatest where the speed is is allowed to come out of a hole P in one of the
least walls at a depth D below the surface of water.
(B) the pressure is independent of speed Express the horizontal distance x in terms of H
(C) the pressure is least where the speed is least and D :
(D) (a) and (c) are correct

31. In a laminar flow the velocity of the liquid in

contact with the walls of the tube is
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) In between zero and maximum D(H  D)
(A) x  D(H  D) (B) x 
(D) Equal to critical velocity 2
(C) x  2 D(H  D) (D) x  4 D(H  D)
32. In a turbulent flow, the velocity of the liquid
molecules in contact with the walls of the tube
is – 37. A fixed cylindrical vessel is filled with water up
(A) Zero to height H. A hole is bored in the wall at a depth
(B) Maximum h from the free surface of water. For maximum
(C) Equal to critical velocity horizontal range h is equal to :
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 MOMENTUM
(A) H (B) 3H/4
(C) H/2 (D) H/4

38. An incompressible liquid flows through a

horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then the
velocity ‘ v ‘ of the fluid is :

(A) h1/2 (B) h

(C) h3/2 (D) h2

41. Water flows through a frictionless duct with a

crosssection varying as shown in fig. Pressure p
(A) 3.0 m/s (B) 1.5 m/s at points along the axis is represented by
(C) 1.0 m/s (D) 2.25 m/s

39. For a fluid which is flowing steadily, the level in

the vertical tubes is best represented by

(A) (B)
(A)

(C) (D)
(B)

42. A liquid flowing with speed v through a horizontal

pipe of cross sectional area A enters into another
pipe of double the area of cross section. Now,
(C) the speed of the liquid is :
(A) v (B) 2 v
(C) v/2 (D) v/4

(D) 43. A rubber balloon of negligible mass is filled with

500 g of water. Its weight in water will be :
(A) 250 g (B) 500 g
(C) zero (D) 100 g
40. There are two identical small holes on the
opposite sides of a tank containing a liquid. The 44. There is a steady water flow in a horizontal tube
tank is open at the top. The difference in height in which one part has cross sectional area A1
between the two holes is h. As the liquid comes and the other part has cross sectional area A2.
out of the two holes, the tank will experience a Assume that water is incompressible.
net horizontal force proportional to: If A1/A2 = 16, the ratio of the speed u1 in part 1
and the speed u2 in part 2, i.e. u1/u2 is :

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 MOMENTUM
1 will read 3 kg.
(A) (B) 4
16
48. We sit in the room with windows open. Then :
1 (A) Air pressure on the floor of the room equals
(C) (D) 1
4 the atmospheric pressure but the air pressure
on the ceiling is negligible
45. An iceberg is floating in ocean. What fraction of (B) Air pressure is nearly the same on the floor,
its volume is above the water ? the walls and ceiling
(Given : density of ice = 900 kg/m3 and density (C) Air pressure on the floor equals the weight
of ocean water = 1030 kg / m3) of the air column inside the room (from floor to
(A) 90 / 103 (B) 13 / 103 ceiling) per unit area
(C) 10 / 103 (D) 1 / 103 (D) Air pressure on the walls is zero since the
weight of air acts downward
46. A block of wood is floating on oil with half of its
volume submerged. If the density of oil 840 kg 49. The pressure at the bottom of the four vessels
m–3, the relative density of wood (relative to filled with water to the same level is P1, P2, P3
water) is : and P4 respectively. Then which of the following
(A) 0.84 (B) 0.42 conclusion is correct.
(C) 0.21 (D) 1.00 (A) P1 > P2 > P3 > P4 (B) P1 < P2 < P3 <P4
(C) P1 = P4 = P2 > P3 (D) P1 = P2 = P3 = P4
47. A spring balance A reads 2 kg with a block of
mass m suspended from it. Another balance B 50. A solid cube and a solid sphere both made of
reads 3 kg when a beaker with a liquid is put on same material are completely submerged in water
its pan. The two balances are now so arranged but to different depths. The sphere and the cube
that the hanging mass m is fully immersed inside have same surface area. The buoyant force is :
the liquid in the beaker as shown in the figure. In (A) greater for the cube than the sphere
this situation. (B) greater for the sphere than the cube
(C) same for the sphere and the cube
(D) greater for the object that is submerged
deeper

51. A liquid (A) of density 1.6gcm–3 and liquid (B)

of unknown density is poured into a U-tube as
shown in the figure. The liquids are immiscible.
If height of A is hA = 26.6cm and height of B is
hB = 50cm the density of B is :

(A) the balance A will read 2 kg and B will read

5 kg.
(B) the balance A will read 2 kg and B will read
3 kg.
(C) the balance A will read less than 2 kg and B
will (A) 0.85 g cm–3 (B) 3.01 g cm–3
read between 3 kg and 5 kg. (C) 0.33 g cm–3 (D) 1.18 g cm–3
(D) the balance A will read less than 2 kg and B

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 MOMENTUM
52. Three identical vessels carrying equal amount of 57. Object A is completely immmersed in water.
water are placed in three lifts. Lift A is True weight of object A is WA. Weight of water
accelerating upwards, lift B is accelerating with beaker is WB. Let B be the buoyant force.
downwards while lift C is moving up with W1 and W2 are scale readings of spring balance
constant velocity. The pressure at a depth h from and weighing scale respectively.
free surface in the three vessel is measured as
pA, pB and pC then which of the following is true:
(A) pA = pC > pB (B) pA > pC > pB
(C) pA = pC = pB (D) pA > pC = pB

53. An inflated balloon with a heavy rock tied to it

submerges in water. As the ballon sinks deeper
and deeper, the buoyant force acting it :
(A) increases
(B) remains nearly unchaged (A) W1 = WA (B) W1 = WA + B
(C) decreases (C) W2 = WB (D) W2 = WB + B
(D) Initially increases and then decreases
58. U-tube contains some amount of mercury.
54. A cube of side 4 cm made of wood is floating in Immiscible liquid X is poured in left immiscible
water of density 1.00gcc–1. When a small steel liquid Y is poured in the right arm. length of liquid
ball is embedded in the cube it just immerses in X is 8 cm, length Y is 10 cm and upper levels of
water. If density of wood is 0.76gcc–1, then mass X and Yare equal. If density of Y is 3.36 g·cm–3
of the steel ball is and 13.6 g·cm-3 then density of X is
(A) 12.65g (B) 3.84g
(C) 15.36g (D) 22.98g

55. Weights of a metal ball recorded in air, in water

and in a liquid are 56N, 49N and 42N
respectively. Specific gravity (or relative density)
(A) 0.8 g-cm–3 (B) 1.2 g·cm–3
of the solid and that of the liquid is respectively:
(C) 1.4 g·cm–3 (D) 1.6 g. cm–3
(A) 8 & 6 (B) 8 & 2
(C) 8 & 1.4 (D) 7 & 0.6

56. A piece of ice, with a stone (denser than water)

embedded inside, is kept in a vessel containing 1.A In a hydraulic lift at a service station, the radii of
water. Size and mass of the stone is such that the large and small pistons are in the ratio of 20
the stone - ice combination is floating on water. : 1. What weight placed on the small piston will
When the ice melts, what will happen to the level be sufficient to lift a car of mass 1200 kg?
of water in the beaker ? (A) 3 kgf (B) 30 kgf
(A) Water level will rise. (C) 300 kgf (D) 3000 kgf
(B) Water level will fall
(C) Water level will remain unchanged. 2.A The diameter of the piston of a hydraulic auto-
(D) Final level of water will depend upon actual mobile is D metre. What pressure, in atmosphere
density of the stone. is required to lift a car of mass m kg?

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 MOMENTUM
4mg 2mg
(A) (B)
D 2  105 D 2
mg 5 4mg
(C) (D) 10 
D 2 D 2

3.B A U tube contains water and methylated spirit

separated by mercury. The mercury columns in
the two arms are at the same level with 10 cm of (A) 3.6 N (B) 7.2 N
water in one arm and 12.5 cm of spirit in the (C) 9.0 N (D) 14.4 N
other as shown in figure. The relative density of
the spirit is 7.C A tank 5 m high is half filled with water and then
is filled to the top with oil of density 0.85 g/cm3.
The pressure at the bottom of the tank, due to
these liquids is
(A) 1.85 g/cm2 (B) 89.25 g/cm2
(C) 462.5 g/cm2 (D) 500 g/cm2

8.A A closed rectangular vessel completely filled with

a liquid of density moves with an acceleration
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.8 a = g. The value of the pressure difference at
(C) 1.0 (D) 1.25 point A and B i.e., (P1 – P2) is:

4.D Three vessels A, B and C of different shapes

contain a water upto the same height as shown
in the figure. PA, PB and PC be the pressure ex-
erted by the water at the bottom of the vesseles
A, B and C respectively. Then
(A) g(b – h) (B) gh/2
g(b  h)
(C) gh (D)
2

(A) PA > PB > PC (B) PA > PC > PA 9.B The minimum horizontal acceleration of the con-
(C) PC > PB > PA (D) PA = PB = PC tainer so that the pressure at the point A of the
container becomes atmospheric is (The tank is
5.B If pressure at half the depth of a lake is equal to of sufficient height)
2/3 pressure at the bottom of the lake what is
the depth of the lake?
(A) 10 m (B) 20 m
(C) 60 m (D) 30 m

6.B A uniformly tapering vessel is filled with a liquid

of density 900 kg/m3. The force that acts on the
base of the vessel due to the liquid is (g = 10
ms–2)

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 MOMENTUM change will occur in the level of water?
3 4
(A) g (B) g (A) No change (B) It will rise
2 3
(C) it will fall
4 3 (D) It may rise or fall depending on the density
(C) g (D) g
2 4 of block

10.B The acceleration a of the vertical U-tube is 15.D If a block of iron (density 5 g cm–3 ) is size 5 cm
× 5 cm × 5 cm was weighed while completely
submerged in water, what would be the appar-
ent weight?
(a) 5 ×5 × 5 × 5 gf (b) 4 × 4 × 4 × 5 gf
(c) 3 × 5 × 5 × 5 gf (d) 4 × 5 × 5 × 5 gf

16.C A piece of solid weighs 120 g in air, 80 g in

(A) g (B) g/2 water and 60 g in a liquid, then the relative den-
(C) g (D) zero sity of the solid, and that of liquid are
4
11.C A U-tube containing a liquid is accelerated hori- (A)  (B) 2,
3
zontally with a constant acceleration a. If the
separation between the two vertical limbs is  , 3
(C) 3, (D) 4, 3
then the difference in the heights of the liquid in 2
the two arms is:
(A) zero (B)  17.C A metal block having an internal cavity weight
110 g in air and 80 g in water. If the density of
a g
(C) (D) metal is 5.5 g/cc, then the volume of cavity is:
g a (a) 30 cc (b) 20 cc
(c) 10 cc (d) 5 cc
12.B A piece of ice is floating in a beaker containing
water. When ice melts, the temperature falls from 18.A A hollow sphere of volume V is floating on wa-
20ºC to 4ºC and the level of water. ter surface with half immersed in it. What should
(A) remains unchanged (B) falls be the minimum volume of water poured inside
(C) rises (D) changes erratically the sphere so that the sphere now sinks into the
water?
13.A A boy is carrying a bucket of water in one hand (a) V/2 (b) V/3
and a piece of plastic in the other. After trans- (C) V/4 (d) V
ferring the plastic piece to the bucket (in which
it floats the boy will carry: 19.B A ball whose density is 0.4 x 100 kg/m3 falls
(A) same load as before into water from a height of 9 cm. To what depth
(B) more load as before does the ball sink?
(C) less load as before (a) 9 cm (b) 6 cm
(D) either less or more load, depending on the (c) 4.5 cm (d) 2.25 cm
density of plastic
20.A A cubical block is floating in a liquid with half of
14.A A rectangular block is 5 cm × 5 cm × 10 cm in its volume immersed in the liquid. When the
size. The block floating in water with 5 cm side whole system accelerates upwards with accel-
vertical. If it floats with 10 cm side vertical, what eration of g/3, the fraction of volume immersed
in the liquid will be.
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 MOMENTUM on the raft to make it just sink?
(a) 120 kg (b) 200 kg
(c) 40 kg (d) 80 kg

26.B The volume of the hollow portion of a sphere is

1 3 3
(a) (b) of the external volume of the sphere. If it
2 8 4
2 2 3
(c) (d) floats in a liquid of relative density
, half of its
3 3 2
external volume immersed, the relative density
21.C Two solids A and B float in water. It is observed of the material of the solid is:
that A floats with half of its volume immersed (a) 2 (b) 3
and B floats with 2/3 of its volume immersed. (c) 2.4 (d) 1.8
The ratio of densities of A and B is
(a) 4:3 (b) 2:3 27.D A 0.5 kg block of brass (density; 8 × 103 kg
(c) 3:4 (d) 1:3 m–3) is suspended from a string. What is the ten-
sion in the string if the block is completely im-
22.C The fraction of a floating object of volume V0 mersed in water? (g=10 m s–2)?
and density d0 above the surface of a liquid of 0.5
density d will be (A) 5 N (B) N
8  103
d0 dd 0
(a) (b) d  d 5  5
d 0 (C) N (D) 5   N
8  8
d  d0 dd 0
(c) (d) d  d
d 0 28.B A steel block having an internal cavity weighs
234 g in air and 197 g in water. If the density of
23.C Density of ice is p and that of water is . What steel is 7.8 g cm–3 then the volume of the cavity
will be the decrease in volume when a mass M is
of ice melts? (A) 5 cm3 (B) 7 cm3
(C) 9 cm3 (D) 11 cm3
M 
(a) (b)
 M 29.A A body weights 150 kg in air, 120 g in water
and 130 g in a liquid. The density of liquid in g
1 1  1 1 1 
(c) M    (d)  cm–3 is
  M    
2 4
(A) (B)
24.B Two solids A and B float in water. It is observed 3 5
that A floats with half of its volume immersed 13 15
and B floats with 2/3 of its volume immersed. (C) (D)
15 13
The ratio of densities of A and B is 30.A An ideal fluid flows through a pipe of circular
(a) 4 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 cross-section made of two sections with diam-
(C) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 3 eters 2.5 cm and 3.75 cm. The ratio of the ve-
locities in the two pipes is
25.D A raft of wood (density 600 kg/m3) of mass 120 (A) 9 : 4 (B) 3 : 2
kg floats in water. How much weight can be put
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 MOMENTUM
(C) (D) cm3/s
3: 2 2: 3

31.B The pressure energy per unit volume of a liquid

is
P
(A) (B) P


(C) P ×  (D) (A) v1 = 6 cm/s and v2 = 22.2 cm/s
P
(B) v1 = 4 cm/s and v2 = 12.2 cm/s
32.A What is the pressure energy of a liquid of mass
(C) v1 = 3 cm/s and v2 = 12.2 cm/s
m and density 
(D) None of these
Pm P
(A) (B) 36.A A closed rectangular tank is completely filled with
 
water and is accelerated horizontally with an
m acceleration a towards right. Pressure is (i) maxi-
(C) (D) pm
 mum at, and (ii) minimum at

33.A Water is flowing in streamline motion in the tube

shown in Figure. Pressure is

(A) more at A than that at B (A) (i) B (ii) D (B) (i) C (ii) D
(B) equal at A than at B (C) (i) B (ii) C (D) (i) B (ii) A
(C) lesser at A then that at B 37.A Figure shows two holes in a wide tank contain-
(D) normal at A and B ing a liquid common. The water streams coming
out of these holes strike the ground at the same
34.A An incompressible liquid travels as shown in Fig- point. The height of liquid column in the tank is
ure. The speed of the fluid in the lower branch
will be

(A) 10 cm (B) 8 cm
(C) 9.8 cm (D) 980 cm
(A) 1 m s–1 (B) 1.5 m s–1
(C) 2.25 m s–1 (D) 3 m s–1 38.C A wide cylindrical tank with a small opening in
the bottom has a water column of height h1 and
35.A A broad pipe having a radius 10 cm branches above the water column, there is a layer of kero-
into two pipes of radii, 5 cm and 3 cm. If the sene oil of thickness h2. The velocity of efflux
velocity of flowing water in the pipe of radius 3 through the opening is
cm be 5 cm/s, determine the velocities of water (A) 2gh1 (B) 2gh 2
in the remaining two pipes. Given that the rate
of discharge through the main branch, is 600  (C) 2g(h 2  h 2 ) (D) Date is not sufficient

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 MOMENTUM
42.D A wooden block, with a coin placed on its top,
39.C A tank has a hole at its bottom. The time needed floats in water as shown in fig, the distance l and
to empty the tank from level h1 to h2 will be pro- h are shown there. After some time the coin falls
portional to into the water. Then
(A) h1 – h2 (B) h1 + h2
(C) h1  h 2 (D) h1  h 2

40.A A boat having a length of 3 m and breadth 2 m

is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm
when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is
(density of water = 1000 kg/m3)
(A) 60 kg (B) 62 kg (A) l decreases and h increases
(C) 12 kg (D) 128 kg (B) l increases and h decreases
(C) Both l and h increases
41.B A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One (D) Both l and h decreases
is a square hole of side L at a depth y from the
top and the other is a circular hole of radius R at 43.A Water is filled in a cylindrical container to a height
a dept 4y from the top. When the tank is com- of 3m. The ratio of the cross-sectional area of
pletely filled with water the quantities of water the orifice and the beaker is 0.1. The square of
flowing out per second from both the holes are the speed of the liquid coming out from the ori-
the same, then R is equal to fice is (g = 10 m/s2)

L
(A) 2L (B)
2
L
(C) L (D)
2

(A) 50 m2/s2 (B) 50.5 m2/s2

(C) 51 m2/s2 (D) 52 m2/s2

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 MOMENTUM
9. S.H.M , WAVE MOTION AND SOUND
5. For a simple pendulum the graph between L and
T will be :
1. A simple pendulum is made of a body which is a (A) a hyperbola (B) a parabola
hollow sphere containing mercury suspended by (C) a curved line (D) a straight line
means of a wire. If a little mercury is drained off,
the period of pendulum will : 6. Two identical springs of constant k are connected
(A) remain unchanged (B) increase in series and parallel as shown in figure. A mass
(C) decrease (D) become erratic M is suspended with them. The ratio of their
frequencies of vertical oscillations will be :
2. Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended together
by a massless spring of constant k. When the
masses are in equilibrium, m1 is removed without
disturbing the system, the amplitude of vibration
is :
(A) m1g/k
(B) m2g/k (A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(m1  m 2 )g (C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1
(C)
k
7. What will be the force constant of the spring
(m 2  m1 )g system shown in the figure ?
(D)
k
k1
(A)  k2
3. The velocity-time graph of a harmonic oscillator 2
is shown in the following figure. 1
 1 1
(B)   
 2k1 k 2 
1 1
(C) 2k  k
1 2
The frequency of oscillation is :
(A) 25 Hz (B) 50 Hz 1

(C) 12.25 Hz (D) 33.3 Hz 2 1

(D)   
 k1 k 2 
4. Two springs of spring constant k1 and k2 are
joined in series. The effective spring constant of 8. A sound wave travels from east to west, in which
the combination is given by : direction do the particles of air move :
(k1  k 2 ) (A) East-west (B) North-south
(A) k1k 2 (B) (C) Up and down (D) None of these
2
k 1k 2
(C) k1  k 2 (D) k  k 9. In which medium sound travels faster :
1 2 (A) Solid (B) Liquid
(C) Gas (D) None of these

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 MOMENTUM
10. What is the name of short duration wave :
(A) Pulse (B) Frequency 20. The speed of sound is maximum in :
(C) Time period (D) Velocity (A) Air (B) Hydrogen
(C) Water (D) Iron
11. What is the velocity of sound in water at room 21. When sound waves travelling in air enter into
temperature : the medium of water, the quantity which remains
(A) 1500 m/s (B) 330 m/s unchanged is :
(C) 1500 km/s (D) 330 km/s (A) Wavelength (B) Velocity
(C) Frequency (D) None
12. The unit of quantity on which pitch of the sound
depends is : 22. The density of medium through which longitudinal
(A) Hertz (B) metre waves propagates is minimum in a region which
(C) metre/second (D) second is called :
(A) Crest (B) Compression
13. The unit of quantity on which loudness of sound (C) Trough (D) Rarefaction
depends is :
(A) metre (B) Hertz 23. Mechanical waves can travel :
(C) metre/second (D) second (A) In vacuum as well as in a medium
(B) In vacuum but not in a medium
14. Nature of sound wave is : (C) In a medium but not in vacuum
(A) transverse (B) longitudinal (D) Neither in a medium nor in vacuum
(C) electromagnetic (D) seismve
24. For the echo of the last syllable of the speech to
15. Pitch of high frequency sound is : be heard the least distance of the reflector must
(A) high (B) low be (approximately) :
(C) zero (D) infinite (A) 17 metre (B) 58 metre
(C)110 metre (D) 340 metre
16. Voice of a friend is recognised by its :
(A) pitch (B) quality 25. During summer, an echo is heard :
(C) intensity (D) velocity (A) Sooner than during winter
(B) Later than during winter
17. Sound waves in air are : (C) After same time as in winter
(A) Longitudinal waves (D) Rarely
(B) Radio waves
(C) Transverse waves 26. The velocity of sound in air at 30oC is
(D) Electromagnetic waves approximately :
(A) 332 ms–1 (B) 350 ms–1
18. Sound waves can not pass through : (C) 530 ms–1 (D) 332 kms–1
(A) A solid liquid mixture
(B) A liquid gas mixture 27. With the rise of temperature, the velocity of
(C) An ideal gas sound:
(D) A perfect vacuum (A) Decreases
(B) Increases
19. A periodic wave is characterized by : (C) Remains the same
(A) Phase only (B) Wavelength only (D) Is independent of temperature
(C) Frequency only (D) All the above

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 MOMENTUM
28. Infrasonic frequency range is 37. Sound waves of wavelength  travels from a
(A) Below 20 Hz (B) 20 Hz to 20 kHz medium in which their speed is V into a medium
(C) Above 20 kHz (D) No limit in which their speed is 4 V. The wavelength of
the sound in the second medium is :
29. Ultrasonic frequency range is : (A)  (B) 2 
(A) Below 20 Hz (B) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
(C) Above 20 kHz (D) No limit (C) 3  (D) 4 

30. The speed of sound in air at constant 38. The period of a periodic wave is 0.02 s. At a
temperature: particular position, there is a crest at t = 0. A
(A) Decreases with increase of pressure trough appears at this position at t = :
(B) Increase with increase of pressure (A) 0.005 s (B) 0.01 s
(C) Remains the same with the increase in (C) 0.015 s (D) 0.02 s
pressure
(D) None of these 39. The equipment (device) used for locating the
position and distance of an object inside sea,
31. The frequency of sound waves in water is : using ultrasound
(A) Same as that of frequency of source is called :
(B) Less than frequency of source (A) Pukar (B) Upkar
(C) More than frequency of source (C) Radar (D) Sonar
(D) None
40. Human ear can hear :
32. The sound propagates in a gaseous medium (A) audible sound (B) infra sound
by : (C) ultra sound (D) all the above
(A) Transverse waves (B) Longitudinal waves
(C) Both A and B (D) Neither A nor B 41. A sonar echo takes 4.4s to return from a
submarine. If the speed of sound in water is 1500
33. Pitch of A is more than that of B, frequency of : ms–1, then the distance of submarine from the
(A) A = B (B) A > B sonar is :
(C) A < B (D) None of these (A) 1500 m (B) 3000 m
(C) 3300 m (D) 3600 m
34. Sound takes sometime to travel from one place
to another. It will be maximum : 42. The eardrum is a :
(A) At night (B) During winter (A) bone (B) coiled tube
(C) During summer (D) Nothing can be said (C) stretched membrane
(D) fluid
35. Velocity of sound is maximum in :
(A) Iron (B) Mercury 43. The part of the ear, that is filled with a liquid is
(C) Water (D) Air the :
(A) cochlea (B) ear canal
36. The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. (C) anVil (D) hammer
How many times does it vibrate in a minute :
(A) 100 (B) 1000 44. A fishing boat using sonar detects a shoal of fish
(C) 600 (D) 6000 190 m below it. How much time elapsed
between sending the ultra sonic signal which
detected the fish and receiving the signal’s echo
? (speed of sound in sea water is 1519 ms–1 ) :
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 MOMENTUM
(A) 0.25 s (B) 0.50 s (A) 17 m (B) 172 m
(C) 0.75 s (D) 1.0 s (C) 17 cm (D) 34.4 m

45. In a Stethoscope, sound of heartbeats travel to 54. In the inner ear the fluid which converts pressure
the stethoscope tube : variations into electrical signals is known as :
(A) By bending along the tube (A) Hammer (B) Anvil
(B) In a straight line (C) Stirrup (D) Cochlea
(C) By undergoing multiple reflections
(D) As a sonic boom 55. Which is true for a wave ? (here n = frequency,
T = time period)
46. Ultrasonic waves are used in : n
(A) SONAR (B) Emulsification (A) nT = 1 (B) 2
T
(C) Sonography (D) All of these
(C) n = T (D) none of these
47. The speed of an object moving faster than the 56. Which is not true for a wave ?
speed of sound in air is known as :
(A) Wave velocity v = n  .
(A) Infrasonic (B) Ultrasonic
(C) Supersonic (D) None of these (B) Energy is transferred during wave motion.
(C) All waves can pass through vacuum.
48. Waves produced by Supersonic jet planes (D) Unit of wave velocity is m/s.
are:
57. In the region of compression in longitudinal wave,
(A) Shock waves (B) Infrasonic waves
the density of the medium :
(C) Seismic waves (D) None of these
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains same (D) None of these
49. Sonar is based on the principle of :
(A) Echo (B) Reverberation
58. The linear distance between the compression and
(C) Resonance
the adjacent rarefaction is 0.8 m. The wavelength
(D) Any one of the above
of the longitudinal wave is :
(A) 0.8 m (B) 1.6 m
50. Human ears can sense sound waves travelling in
(C) 0.4 m (D) 3.2 m
air having wavelength of :
(A) 10–3 m (B) 10–2 m 59. Which of the following does not require medium
(C) 1 m (D) 102 m to propagate ?
(A) Radio-waves (B) Water-waves
51. Ultrasonic waves are produced by : (C) Sound-waves (D) Waves in string
(A) Piezo electric effect (B) Peltier effect
(C) Doppler effect (D) Coulomb’s law 60. A sound wave is travelling from east to west.
In which direction do the molecules in the air
52. Galton’s whistle is based on : vibrate?
(A) Ultrasonic waves (B) Infrasonic waves (A) West – east (B) North – south
(C) Audible sound waves (C) Up – down (D) None of these
(D) All of these
61. The distance between two consecutive
53. The minimum distance between the source of compressions is 1.4 m. The wavelength of the
sound and the obstacle for an echo to take place wave is :
is (speed of sound is 340 m/s) : (A) 2.8 m (B) 1.4 m
(C) 0.7 m (D) 4.2 m
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62.
MOMENTUM
A broadcasting station transmits waves of (A) 10 s (B) 11.47 s
frequency 71×104 Hz with a speed of 3 × 108 (C) 1.10 s (D) 20 s
m/s. The wavelength of the wave is :
(A) 418.8m (B) 324.6 m 70. Time period of a sound wave having the
(C) 208.4 m (D) 422.5 m wavelength 0.2 m and frequency 10 Hz will be :
(A) 2 s (B) 0.2 s
63. The moon is at a distance of 4×108 m from the (C) 0.1 s (D) 0.02 s
earth. A radar signal is transmitted from the earth
will reach the moon in about : 71. In the following table, match the column B
(A) 2.6 s (B) 1.3 s according to column A :
(C) 5.2 s (D) 6.5 s Column–(A) Column–(B)
(i) Pitch (a) waveform
64. In wave motion the particles of the medium : (ii) Quality (b) frequency
(A) remain fixed (iii) Loudness (c) amplitude
(B) vibrate to and fro about their mean position (A) (i)- (b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c)
(C) move along the wave (B) (i)- (a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c)
(D) change their positions permanently (C) (i)- (c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a)
(D) (i)- (b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a)
65. Waves on water surface are :
(A) longitudinal 72. Decibel is :
(B) transverse (A) a sound apparatus
(C) combination of longitudinal and transverse (B) a sound tone
(D) none of these (C) the unit of intensity of sound
(D) the wavelength of noise
66. Waves inside a gas are :
(A) longitudinal 73. Energy is not carried by :
(B) transverse (A)Transverse progressive waves
(C) partly longitudinal, partly transverse (B)Longitudinal progressive waves
(D) none of these (C)Stationary waves
(D)Electromagnetic waves
67. A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz sitting
at a distance of 450 m from the source of the 74. Speed of sound in air is 350 ms–1, fundamental
sound. What is the time interval between the frequency of an open organ pipe of 50 cm length
successive compression from the source ? will be :
(A) 5 ms (B) 1 ms (A) 175 Hz (B) 350 Hz
(C) 2 ms (D) 2 s (C) 700 Hz (D) 500 Hz

75. An open pipe of length 33 cm resonates with

68. When a wave travels from one medium to
frequency of 1000 Hz. If the speed of sound is
another, which quantity does not change ?
330 ms–1, then this frequency is :
(A) Frequency (B) Wavelength
(A) The fundamental frequency of the pipe
(C) Velocity (D) None of these
(B) The first harmonic of the pipe
(C) The second harmonic of the pipe
69. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 500
(D) The forth harmonic of the pipe
m high into a pond of water at the base of the
tower. When is the splash heard at the top ?
(Given g = 10 ms–2 and speed of sound =
340 ms–1) :
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 MOMENTUM
76. The fundamental frequency of a open organ pipe 81. The depth of ocean at any place can be measured
is 300 Hz. The first overtone of this pipe is the (estimated) with the help of :
same as the first overtone of a closed organ pipe. (A) X rays (B) ultrasonic waves
If the speed of sound be 330 ms–1, then the (C) radio waves (D) ultraviolet rays
length of the closed organ pipe is :
(A) 10 cm (B) 41 cm 82. Sound waves produced by a source are
(C) 82 cm (D) 164 cm propagating in a medium. The quantity/quantities
that change from point to point is / are :
77. As an empty vessel is filled with water, its (A) pressure (B) density
fundamental frequency : (C) temperature (D) elasticity
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains the same (D) none of these 83. Consider the following sounds : G - conversation
between two girls, P-sound produced by a
78. The natural voices of men, women and children peacock and M- sound produced by a moving
are different and can be distinguished. A student motorcycle. These sounds in the increasing order
makes three hypotheses of frequency are :
I. The amplitude of sounds emitted by them are (A) G, P, M (B) P, M, G
different. (C) P, G, M (D) M, G, P
II. The vocal cords are of different sizes.
III. The vocal cords vibrate with different 84. Which of the following can be used to detect a
frequencies. flaw inside a metal block ?
The correct option is (A) ultraviolet rays (B) X-rays
(A) I only (B) II only (C) infrasonic waves (D) ultrasonic waves
(C) III only (D) I and III only
85. Which of the following statements is/are true in
79. On a hot, dry summer day a boy is standing case of waves ?
between plane parallel vertical cliffs separated (A) Transverse vibrations are set on the string
by 75 m. He is 30 m away from one of the cliffs. of a guitar.
Consider speed of sound in air on that hot day (B) As compared to light, a sound wave
to be 360m/s. The boy claps loudly and hears produced on the moon will take a time about
its successive echoes. The time in seconds at 106 times longer to reach the earth.
which he hears the first four echoes are (C) A sound note of wavelength 1 cm in air
respectively : cannot be heard by a man.
1 1 5 5 1 1 7 2 (D) Sound travels faster in water than in air.
(A) , , , (B) , , ,
6 4 12 12 6 4 12 3
86. Beats are heard due to interference of two sound
1 1 5 5 1 1 1 5 waves. The intensity of sound changes from
(C) , , , (D) , , ,
4 3 12 12 6 4 3 12 maximum to minimum in 100 ms. Therefore, the
difference in frequencies of the two waves is :
80. When a stone is dropped in a pool of water, (A) 10 Hz (B) 5 Hz
circular ripples are produced. These are : (C) 2.5 Hz (D) 20 Hz
(A) surface waves (B) transverse waves
(C) elastic waves (D) all the above

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87.
MOMENTUM
A ripple is created in water. The amplitude at a frequency and frequency does not change when
distance of 5 cm from the point where the sound is travels in different medium.
ripple was created is 4 cm. lgnoring damping, Choose the correct option
what will be the amplitude at the distance of 10 (A) Statement-1 is correct while statement -2 is
cm. wrong
(A) 16 cm (B) 8 cm (B) Statement-1 is wrong while statement (2) is
correct.
(C) 4 cm (D) 2 cm (C) Statement-1 and 2 are correct.
(D) Statement-1 and 2 are wrong
88. Sound waves traveling in air enters water at an
angle i with the normal. It gets refracted at angle 92. A wave is sent along a string by oscillating at
r with one end. if the tension in the string is increased
(A) i > r (B) r > i then speed of the wave and wavelength of the
(C) i = r wave.
(D) Sound waves do not get refracted (A) speed increases, wavelength decreases
(B) both increase
89. Consider the following two statements about light (C) both decreases
& sound. Choose the most appropriate option: (D) wavelength increases, speed decreases
(i) When light and sound travel air to water, light
may bend towards normal while sound may bend
away from normal.
(ii) Sound is longitudinal wave while light is
transverse wave. 1.A A particle executes S.H.M between x = –A to x
(A) Statement (i) is correct while statement (ii) = + A . The time taken for it in going from 0 to
is incorrect A/2 is T1 and from A/2 to A is T/2. Then
(B) Statement (i) and statement (ii) are both (A) T1 < T2 (B) T1 > T2
correct and statement (ii) is not the reason for (C) T1 = T2 (D) T1 < 2T2
statement (i)
(C) Statement (i) and statement (ii) are incorrect 2.B A particle is performing simple harmonic motion
(D) Statement (i) and statement (ii) are correct along x-axis with amplitude 4 cm and time pe-
and Statement (ii) is the correct reason for riod 1.2 sec. The minimum time taken by the
statement (i) particle to move from x = 2 cm to x = +4 cm
and back again is given by
90. On a rainy wet day, a thunder is heard 6 second (A) 0.6 sec (B) 0.4 sec
after lightening. If speed of sound is 350 ms–1 (C) 0.3 sec (D) 0.2 sec
the altitude of the clouds is :
(A) 1.8 km (B) 1.9 km 3.C A particle executing S.H.M of amplitude 4 cm
(C) 2.1 km (D) 2.5 km and T = 4 sec. The time taken by it to move
from positive extreme position to half the ampli-
91. Consider the following two statments. tude is
Statements 1 is an assertion of a concept while (A) 1 sec (B) 1/3 sec
Statement-2 is the reason.
(C) 2/3 sec (D) 3 / 2 sec
Statement-1 : When red light travels from air to
water, for observer in water it appears to be still
red.
Statement-2 : Colour of light is associated with

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 MOMENTUM
4.C A particle is moving in a circle with uniform 9.C What will be time period of the displaced body
speed. Its motion is of mass m?
(A) not periodic
(B) periodic and simple harmonic m
(A) 2
(C) periodic but not simple harmonic 2k
(D) none of the above
3m
(B) 2
5.C A body executes simple harmonic motion. The 2k
potential energy (PE), kinetic energy (KE) and
3m
total energy (TE) are measured as a function of (C) 2
displacement x. What of the following statement 2k
is true?
3m
(A) TE is zero when x = 0 (D) 
(B) PE is maximum when x = 0 k
(C) KE is maximum when x = 0 10.D Two identical particles each of mass m are
(D) KE is maximum when x is maximum interconnected by a light spring of stiffness k,
the time period for small oscillation is equal to
6.D The potential energy of particle executing SHM
changes from maximum to minimum in 5 s. Then
the time period of SHM is:
m  m
(A) 5 s (B) 10 s (A) 2 (B)
(C) 15 s (D) 20 s k 2 k
7.D If a spring balance having frequency f is taken
m 2m
on moon (having g' = g/6) it will have a frequency (C)  (D) 
of: 2k k

f
(A) 6 f (B) 11.D In figure S1 and S2 are identical springs. The
3 oscillation frequency of the mass m is f. If one
f spring is removed, the frequency will become
(C) (D) f
6

8.B What will be the force constant of the spring (A) f (B) 2f
system shown in the figure?
(C) f 2 (D) f / 2
1 1
(A)  k  k  12.B Three mass 700 g, 500 g, and 400 g are sus-
 1 2
pended at the end of a spring a shown and are
1
 1 1 in equilibrium. When the 700 g mass is removed,
(B)    the system oscillates with a period of 3 seconds,
 2k1 k 2 
when the 500 gm mass is also removed, it will
1 oscillate with a period of
1 1
(C)    (A) 1 s
 k1 k 2  (B) 2 s
(C) 3 s
 1 1
(D)  2k  k  12
 1 2 (D) s
5
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 MOMENTUM
13.B A body at the end of a spring executes S.H.M. is attached to the spring then the maximum am-
with a period t1, while the corresponding period plitude of motion so that both the block will re-
for another springs is t2. If the period of oscilla- main in contact is
tion with the two spring in series is T, then mg
(A) T = t1 + t2 (B) T = t12 + t 22 (A)
2k
1 1 1 1 1 1 mg
(C) T  t  t (D) T 2  t 2  t 2 (B)
1 2 1 2 k
14.B Two identical springs are attached to a small 2mg
block P. The other ends of the springs are fixed (C)
k
at A and B. When P is in equilibrium the exten-
sion of top spring is 20 cm and extension of 3mg
(D)
bottom spring is 10 cm. The period of small ver- 2k
tical oscillations of P about its equilibrium posi- 17.B In the figure all springs are identical having spring
tion is (use g = 9.8 m/s2) constant k and mass m each. The block also
2 has mass m. The frequency of oscillation of the
(A) sec block is
7

(B) sec
7
2
(C) sec
5
(D) none of these

15.D Figure shows a system consisting of a massless

pulley, a spring of force constant k and a block
of mass m. If the block is slightly displaced
vertically down from its equilibrium position and 1 3k 1 3k
then released, the period of its vertical (A) (B)
2 m 2 2m
oscillation is
3k
m (C) 2 (D) none of these
(A) 2 2m
K
18.C A system is shown in the figure. The time period
m for small oscillations of the two blocks will be
(B) 
4K

m
(C) 
K
3m 3m
(A) 2 (B) 2
m k 2k
(D) 4
K
3m 3m
(C) 2 (D) 2
4k 8k
16.C A block of mass m is at rest on an another block
of same mass as shown in figure. Lower block

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 MOMENTUM
19.B A simple pendulum is madder of body which is 24.A A simple pendulum 50 cm long is suspended
hollow sphere containing mercury suspended by from the roof of a cart accelerating in the hori-
means of a wire. If a little mercury is drained off, zontal direction with constant acceleration
the period of pendulum will:
3 g m/s2. The period of small oscillations of
(A) remain unchanged (B) increase
the pendulum about its equilibrium position is (g
(C) decrease (D) become erratic
= 2 m/s2):
20.B A pendulum has time period T in air. When it is
made to oscillate in water, it acquired a time
period T' = 2T . The density of the pendulum
bob is equal to (density of water = 1)
(A) 1.0 sec (B) 1.25 sec
(A) 2 (B) 2
(C) 1.53 sec (D) 1.68 sec
(C) 2 2 (D) None of these
25.C A mass m is suspended separately by two dif-
21.A The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum ferent springs of spring constant K1 and K2 gives
of lenght l suspended from the roof of the ve- the time period t1 and t2 respectively. If the same
hicle which moves down without friction on an mass m is connected by both springs as shown
inclined plane of inclination , is given by in the figure, then time period t is given by the
relation
  (A) t = t1 + t2
(A) 2 (B) 
g cos  g cos 
t1.t 2
(B) t =
1  1  t1  t 2
(C) (D) (C) t = t12 + t22
2 g cos   2g cos 
(D) t = t1–2 + t2–2
22.D The metallic bob of a simple pendulum has the
relative density . The time period of this pen- 26.D The frequency of oscillation of the springs shown
dulum is T. If the metallic bob is immersed in in the figure will be
water, then the new time period is given by 1 K
(A)
 1  2 m
(A) T (B) T
  1
1 (K1  K 2 )m
 1  (B) 2 K1K 2
(C) T (D) T
  1
K
23.A A brass cube of side a and density is floating (C) 2
in mercury of density  . If the cube is displaced m
a bit vertically, it executes S.H.M. Its time pe- 1 K1K 2
riod will be (D) 2 m(K  K )
1 2
a a
(A) 2 (B) 2
g g 27.C Two springs of force constants K and 2K are
connected to a mass as shown below. The fre-
g g quency of oscillation of the mass is
(C) 2 (D) 2
a a

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 MOMENTUM
30.B If the frequency of a wave is increased by 25%,
then the change in its wavelength will be:
(medium not changed)
(A) 20% increase (B) 20% decrease
(C) 25% increase (D) 25% decrease
 1  K  1   2K 
(A)     (B)     31.C A string of 7 m length has a mass of 0.035 kg. If
 2   m   2   m  tension in the string is 60.5 N, then speed of a
wave on the string is
 1   3K   1  m (A) 77 m/s (B) 102 m/s
(C)     (D)    
 2   m   2   K  (C) 110 m/s (D) 165 m/s
28.A Two springs are connected to a block of mass
M placed on a frictionless surface as shown 32.A A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe
below. If both the springs have a spring con- are tuned to the same fundamental frequency.
stant k, the frequency of oscillation of block is What is the ratio of lengths?
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1
(C) 2:3 (D) 4:3

33.C The fundamental frequency of a closed pipe is

1
220 Hz. If of the pipe is filled with water, the
1 K 1 k 4
(A) (B)
2 2m 2 M frequency of the first overtone of the pipe now
is
1 2k 1 M (A) 220 Hz (B) 440 Hz
(C) (D)
2 M 2 k (C) 880 Hz (D) 1760 Hz

29.C A block of mass M kept on smooth horizontal 34.B An open organ pipe of length L resonates at fun-
surface are connected by four massless springs damental frequency with closed organ pipe. Find
whose force constants are 2k, 2k, k and 2k re- the length of closed organ pipe.
spectively as shown in the figure. If the mass M (A) 2L (B) L/2
is displaced in the horizontal direction, then the (C) L 2 (D) L 3 / 2
frequency of the system is
35.A If the fundamental frequency of a pipe closed at
one end is 512 Hz. The fundamental frequency
of a pipe of the same dimensions but open at
both ends will be:
(A) 1024 Hz (B) 512 Hz
1 k 1 k (C) 256 Hz (D) 128 Hz
(A) (B)
2 4M 2 7M
36.B An open organ pipe has fundamental frequency
1 4k 1 7k 300 Hz, The first overtone of the open organ
(C) (D) pipe is the same as the first overtone of a closed
2 M 2 M
organ pipe. The length of the closed organ pipe
is: (vsound = 330 m/s)
(A) 10 cm (B) 41 cm

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 MOMENTUM
(C) 82 cm (D) 164 cm 43.C A table is revolving on its axis at 5 revolutions
per second. A sound source of frequency 1000
37.C The velocity of sound in a gas at temperature Hz is fixed on the table at 70 cm from the axis.
27°C is V then in the same gas its velocity will The minimum frequency heard by a listener
be 2V at temperature: standing at a distance from the table will be
(A) 54°C (B) 327°C (speed of sound = 352 m/s)
(C) 927°C (D) 108°C (A) 1000 Hz (B) 1066 Hz
(C) 941 Hz (D) 352 Hz
38.C A sound wave of frequency 500 Hz covers a
distance of 1000 m in 5 second between the 44.B A source of sound S of frequency 500 Hz situ-
points X and Y. Then the number of waves be- ated between a stationary observer and a wall
tween X and Y is: W, moves towards the wall with a speed of 2
(A) 500 (B) 1000 m/s. If the velocity of sound is 332 m/s, then the
(C) 2500 (D) 5000 number of beats per second heard by the ob-
server is (approximately)
39.A Under similar conditions of temperature and (A) 8 (B) 6
pressure, in which of the following gases the ve- (C) 4 (D) 2
locity of sound will be largest? 45.C An observer standing at station observes fre-
(A ) H 2 (B) N2 quency 219 Hz when a train approaches and
(C) He (D) CO2 184 Hz when train goes away from him. If ve-
locity of sound in air is 340 m/s, then velocity of
40.A The frequency of a man’s voice is 300 Hz and train and actual frequency of whistle will be
its wavelength is 1 meter. If the wavelength of a (A) 15.5 ms–1, 200 Hz (B) 19.5 ms–1, 205 Hz
child's voice is 1.5 m, then the frequency of the (C) 29.5 ms–1, 200 Hz (D) 32.5 ms–1, 205 Hz
child's voice is:
(A) 200 Hz (B) 150 Hz 46.B A small source of sound moves on a circle as
(C) 400 Hz (D) 350 Hz. shown in the figure and an observer is standing
on O. Let n1, n2 and n3 be the frequencies heard
41.B Two passenger trains moving with a speed of when the source is at A, B and C respectively.
108 km/ hour cross each other. One of them Then
blows a whistle whose frequency is 750 Hz. If (A) n1 > n2 > n3
sound speed is 330 m/s, then passengers sitting (B) n2 > n3 > n1
in the other train, after trains cross each other (C) n1 = n2 > n3
will hear sound whose frequency will be (D) n2 > n1 > n3
(A) 900 Hz (B) 625 Hz
(C) 750 Hz (D) 800 Hz 47.B A police car moving at 22 m/s, chases a motor-
cyclist. The police man sounds his horn at 176
42.A A source of sound is moving with constant ve- Hz, while both of them move towards a station-
locity of 20 m/s emitting a note of frequency ary siren of frequency 165 Hz. Calculate the
1000 Hz. The ratio of frequencies observed by speed of the motorcycle, if it is given that he
a stationary observer while the source is ap- does not observes any beats
proaching him and after it crosses him will be
(A) 9: 8 (B) 8:9
(C) 1:1 (D) 9: 10

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 MOMENTUM
(A) 33 m/s (B) 22 m/s
(C) Zero (D) 11 m/s

48.C Two sources S1 and S2 of same frequency f emits

sound. The sources are moving as shown with
speed u each. A stationary observer hears that
sound. The beat frequency is (v = velocity of
sound)
2u 2f
(A)
v2  u 2
2v 2f
(B)
v2  u 2
2uv f
(C)
v2  u 2
2u
(D) f
v
49.D A whistle emitting a sound of frequency 440 Hz
is tied to a string of 1.5 m length and rotated
with an angular velocity of 20 rad/sec in the hori-
zontal plane. Then the range of frequencies heard
by an observer stationed at a large distance from
the whistle will (v = 330 m/s):

(A) 400.0 Hz to 484.0 Hz

(B) 403.3 Hz to 480.0 Hz
(C) 400.0 Hz to 480.0 Hz
(D) 403.3 Hz to 484.0 Hz

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 MOMENTUM
10. ELECTRICITY
7. If Q = 2 coloumb and force on it is F = 100
newton, then the value of field intensity will be:
1. Conductivity of superconductor is : (A) 100 N/C (B) 50 N/C
(A) infinite (B) very large (C) 200 N/C (D) 10 N/C
(C) very small (D) zero
8. In the electric field of charge Q, another charge
is carried from A to B. A to C, A to D and A to
2. Two charges of +1 C & + 5 C are placed 4
E, then work done will be -
cm apart, the ratio of the force exerted by both
charges on each other will be -
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 5
(C) 5 : 1 (D) 25 : 1

3. A body has 80 microcoulomb of charge.

Number of additional electrons on it will be :
(A) 8 x 10–5 (B) 80 x 1015
(C) 5 x 1014 (D) 1.28 x 10–17 (A) minimum along path AB.
(B) minimum along path AD.
4. Which of the following relation is wrong ? (C) minimum along path AE.
(A) Q = It (D) zero along all the paths.
1Coulomb
(B) 1 ampere = 1Second 9. There are three resistance 5 , 6 and 8
(C) V = Wq connected in parallel to a battery of 15 V and of
negligible resistance. The potential drop across
W
(D) V = 6 resistance is :
q
(A) 10 V (B) 15 V
(C) 20 V (D) 8 V
5. Two particles having charges q1 and q2 when
kept at a certain distance, exert force F on each 10. In the given circuit, the equivalent resistance
other. If distance is reduced to half, force between points A and B will be.
between them becomes :
F
(A) (B) 2F
2
F
(C) 4F (D)
4
4
6. Coulomb of charge contains..........electrons:
25
(A) 1015 (B) 1018 8
(A) R (B) 4R
(C) 1020 (D) none of these 3
(C) 6R (D) 10R

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 MOMENTUM
11. Resistance of a conductor of length 75 cm is (A) 0.8 (B) 1
3.25  What will be the length of a similar (C) 0.4 (D) 2
conductor whose resistance is 13.25  ?
(A) 305.76 cm (B) 503.76 cm 17. Two resistors are joined in series, then their
(C) 200 cm (D) 610 cm equivalent resistance is 90  . When the same
resistors are joined in parallel, the equivalent
12. A piece of wire of resistance 4  nis bent through resistance is 20  . The resistances of the two
1800 at its mid point and the two halves are resistors will be :
twisted together, then resistance is : (A) 70 , 20  (B) 80 , 10 
(A) 1 (B) 2 
(C) 60 , 30  (D) 50 , 40 
(C) 5  (D) 8 
18. In the ladder network shown, current through
13. In how many parts (equal) a wire of 100  be the resistor 3 is 0.25 A. The input voltage
cut so that a resistance of 1  is obtained by ‘V’ is equal to
connecting them in parallel ?
(A) 10 (B) 5
(C) 100 (D) 50

14. If a wire of resistance 1  is stretched to double

its length, then the resistance will become :
(A) 10 V (B) 20 V
1
(A)  (B) 2  15
2 (C) 5 V (D) V
2
1
(C)  (D) 4 
4 19. The reading of voltmeter is

15. Two copper wires, one of length 1 m and the

other of length 9 m, are found to have the same
resistance. Their diameters are in the ratio :
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 9
(C) 9 : 1 (D) 1 : 3

16. Reading of ammeter in ampere for the following (A) 50V (B) 60 V
circuit is : (C) 40V (D) 80 V

20. The reading of ammeter in amper is :

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 MOMENTUM
(A) 0.4 (B) 1 26. A cell of emf E is connected across a resistance
(C) 0.6 (D) 1.2 R. The potential difference between the terminals
of the cell is found to be V. The internal resistance
21. Three identical bulbs are connected in parallel of the cell is given as :
with a battery. The current drawn from the EV
battery is 6 A. If one of the bulbs gets fused, (A) R(E – V) (B)
R
what will be the total current drawn from the
battery ? (E  V) (E  V)
(C) E (D) R
(A) 6A (B) 2A R V
(C) 4A (D) 8A
27. 24 cells, each having the same e.m.f. and 2 ohm
22. A uniform wire of resistance R is uniformly internal resistance, are used to draw maximum
compressed along its length, until its radius current through an external resistance of 3 ohm.
becomes n times the original radius. Now, the The cells should be connected
resistance of the wire becomes : (A) in series (B) in parallel
(A) R/n (B) R/n4 (C) in 4 rows, each row having 6 cells
2
(C) R/n (D) n R (D) in 6 rows, each row having 4 cells

23. The resistance of a wire of cross-section ‘a’ and 28. The cells are joined in parallel to get the maximum
length ‘  ’ is R ohm. The resistance of another current when
wire of the same material and of the same length (A) external resistance is very large as compared
but crosssection ‘4a’ will be to the total internal resistance
R (B) internal resistance is very large as compared
(A) 4R (B) to the external resistance
4
(C) internal resistance and external resistance
R are equal
(C) (D) 16 R
16 (D) emf of each cell is very large

24. In the following circuit the value of total resistance 29. In secondary cells :
between X and Y in ohm is : (A) Chemical changes can be reversed by
heating electrodes
(B) Chemical changes can be reversed by
passing electric current
(C) Current is produced by photo chemical
reactions
(A) (1 + 3 )r (B) ( 3 – 1)r (D) None of these
(C)  (D) 50 r
30. Three types of electric cells which provide current
25. The net resistance between points P and Q in are :
the circuit shown in fig. is (A) Button cell, solar cell & secondary cell
(B) Solar cell, electrolytic cell, electro chemical
cell
(C) (A) and (B) both are correct
(A) R/2 (B) 2R/5 (D) Neither (A) nor (B) is correct
(C) 3R/5 (D) R/3

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31.
MOMENTUM
In which of the following cells, the potential (A) 1.2  (B) 1.4 
difference between the terminals of a cell (C) 0.12  (D) 0.14 
exceeds its emf.
38. You are given two fuse wires A and B with
current rating 2.5 A and 6 A respectively. Which
of the two wires would you select for use with a
1100 W, 220 V room heater ?
(A) A (B) B
(C) A and B (D) none of these
(A) a (B) b
(C) c (D) d 39. An electric current of 2.0 A passes through a
wire of resistance 25  . How much heat (in
32. An electric iron of heating element of resistance joule) will be developed in 1 minute ?
88  is used at 220 volt for 2 hours. The electric
(A) 6 (B) 6000
energy spent, in unit, will be : (C) 50 (D) 10
(A) 0.8 (B) 1.1
(C) 2.2 (D) 8.8 40. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter
by connecting
33. Two identical heater wires are first connected in (A) A high resistance in series with the
series and then in parallel with a source of galvanometer
electricity. The ratio of heat produced in the two (B) A high resistance in parallel with the
cases is : galvanometer
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) a low resistance in series with the
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4 galvanometer
(D) a low resistance in parallel with the
34. You are given three bulbs 25 W, 40 W and 60 galvanometer
W . Which of them has the lowest resistance?
(A) 25 watt bulb (B) 40 watt bulb 41. A battery of 10 V and negligible internal
(C) 60 watt bulb (D) insufficient data resistance is connected across the diagonally
opposite corner of a cubical network consisting
35. If R1 and R2 are the filament resistances of a of 12 resistors each of resistance 1 . The total
200 W bulb and a 100 W bulb respectively current in the circuit external to the network is :
designed to operate on the same voltage, then :
(A) R1 = 2 R2 (B) R2 = 2 R1
(C) R2 = 4 R1 (D) R1 = 4 R2

36. If two bulbs, whose resistance are in the ratio of

1 : 2, are connected in series. The power
dissipated in them has the ratio of :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (A) 0.83 A (B) 12 A
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 4 (C) 1 A (D) 4 A

37. When a voltage of 20 volt is applied between 42. A current i reaching at a point in a circuit gets
the two ends of a coil, 800 cal/s heat is produced. branched and flows through two resistors R1 and
The value of resistance of the coil is :(1 calorie = R2. Then, the current through R1 varies as:
4.2 joule) : (A) R1 (B) R2
(C) (R1+ R2) (D) 1/ (R1 + R2)
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 MOMENTUM
43. In the circuit shown below, is normal to the electric line of force at every
instant.

46. There are four resistors of 12 ohm each. Which

of the following values is/are possible by their
combinations (series and / or parallel) ?
(A) 9 ohm (B) 16 ohm
(C) 12 ohm (D) 30 ohm

47. We are given n resistors, each of resistance R.

(A) current flowing in the circuit is 200 mA The ratio of the maximum to minimum resistance
(B) power supplied by the battery is 2 watt that can be obtained by combining them is :
(C) current from X to Y is zero (A) nn (B) n
(D) potential difference across 10  is equal to (C) n2 (D) logn
zero
48. Wires A and B are made from the same material.
44. The circuit shown has 3 identical light bulbs A, Wire A has length 12m and weight 50 g, while
B, C and 2 identical batteries E1, E2 . When the wire B is 18 m long and weighs 40 g. Then the
switch is open, A and B glow with equal ratio (RA / RB) of their resistances will be :
brightness. When the switch is closed: (A) 16 / 45 (B) 4 / 5
(C) 8 / 15 (D) 4 / 9

49. A wire of resistance 10.0 ohm is stretched so as

to increase its length by 20%. Its resistance then
would be :
(A) 10.0 ohm (B) 12.0 ohm
(C) 14.4 ohm (D) 10.2 ohm
(A) A and B will maintain their brightness and C
will be dimmer than A and B. 50. 5 charges each of magnitude 10–5 C and mass 1
(B) A and B will become dimmer and C will be kg are placed (fixed) symmetrically about a
brighter than A and B. movable central charges of magnitude 5 ×
(C) A and B will maintain their brightness and C 10–5C and mass 0.5 kg as shown. The charges
will not glow. at P1 is removed. The acceleration of the central
(D) A, B and C will be equally bright. charge is :

45. A negatively charged particle initially at rest is

placed in an electric field that varies from point
to point. There are no other fields. Then :
(A) the particle moves along the electric line of
force passing through it. [Given OP1 = OP2 = OP3 = OP4 = OP5 1 m
(B) the particle moves opposite to the electric
line of force passing through it. 1
; 4 = 9 × 109 in SI units]
(C) the direction of acceleration of the particle 0
is tangential to the electric line of force at every (A) 9 m s–2 upwards
instant. (B) 9 m s–2 downwards
(D) the direction of acceleration of the particle

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 –2
MOMENTUM
(C) 4.5 m s upwards 54. In case of the circuit shown below, which of the
(D) 4.5 m s–2 downwards following statements is/are true ?

51. Two charges +q and –q are placed at a distance

b apart as shown in the figure below.
(A) R1, R2 and R3 are in series.
(B) R2 and R3 are in series.
(C) R2 and R3 are in parallel.
(D) The equivalent resistance of the circuit is
R 2R 3
R1 
R2  R3
55. Two bulbs, one of 200W and the other of 100W,
are connected in series with a 100 V battery
which has no internal resistance. Then,
The electric field at a point P on the perpendicular
bisector as shown as :

(A) along vector A

(B) along vector B
 (A) the current passing through the 200W bulb
(C) along vector C is more than that through the 100W bulb.
(D) Zero (B) the power dissipation in the 200W bulb is
more than that In the 100 W bulb.
52. In case of the circuit arrangement shown below, (C) the voltage drop across the 200W bulb is
the equivalent resistance between A and B is : more than that across the 100W bulb.
(D) the power dissipation In the 100W bulb is
more than that in the 200W bulb.

56. 12 positive charges of magnitude q are placed

on a circle of radius R in a manner that they are
equally spaced. A charge +Q is placed at the
centre. If one of the charges q is removed, then
(A) 10  (B) 2.5  the force on Q is :
40 (A) zero
(C)  (D) None of the above
3 qQ
(B) 4 R 2 away from the position of the
0
53. In the circuit shown below, all the resistances removed charge.
are equal, each equal to R. The equivalent
resistance between points A and C is : 11qQ
(C) away from the position of the
40 R 2
removed charge.
qQ
(D) 4 R 2 towards the position of the
0
(A) R (B) 4R
removed charge.
(C) R /2 (D) none of the above
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57.
MOMENTUM
A cell, an ammeter and a voltmeter are all
connected in series. The ammeter reads a current
I and the voltmeter a potential difference V. If a
torch bulb is connected across the voltmeter,
then.
(A) both I and V will increase
(B) both I and V will decrease
(C) I will increase but V will decrease (A) 1A. (B) 2A.
(D) I will decrease but V will increase (C) 4A. (D) zero.

58. An electric heater consists of a nichrome coil 62. In the following circuit, each resistor has a
and runs under 220 V, consuming 1 kW power. resistance of 15  and the battery has an e.m.f.
Part of its coil burned out and it was reconnected of 12 V with negligible internal resistance.
after cutting off the burnt portion. The power it
will consume now is :
(A) more than 1 kW
(B) less than 1 kW, but not zero
(C) 1 kW
(D) 0 kW

59. In a neon discharge tube 2.8 × 1018 Ne+ ions When a resistor of resistance R is connected
move to the right per second while 1.2 ×1018 between D & F, no current flows through the
electrons move to the left per second. Therefore galvanometer (not shown in the figure) connected
, the current in the discharge tube is : between C & F. Calculate the value of R.
(A) 0.64 A towards right (A) 10  (B) 15 
(B) 0.256 A towards right
(C) 5  (D) 30 
(C) 0.64 A towards left
(D) 0.256 A towards left
63. When all the resistances in the circuit are 1
each, then the equivalent resistance across points
60. Two charges +Q and -2Q are located at points
A & B will be :
A and B on a horizontal line as shown below :

The electric field is zero at a point which is located

at a finite distance :
(A) On the perpendicular bisector of AB
(B) left of A on the line
(C) between A and B on the line
(D) right of B on the line

61. In the circuit arrangement shown, if the point A (A) 5/6  (B) 1/2 
and B are joined by a wire the current in this (C) 2/3  (D) 1/3 
wire will be :
64. A cylindrical copper rod has length L and
resistance R. If it is melted and formed into
another rod of length 2L. the resistance will be :

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 MOMENTUM
(A) R (B) 2R 68. In the process of electrostatic induction.
(C) 4R (D) 8R (A) a conductor is rubbed with an insulator.
(B) a charge is produced by friction.
65. In the following circuit, the 1 resistor dissipates (C) negative and positive charges are separated.
power P. If the resistor is replaced by 9. the (D) electrons are ‘sprayed’ on the object.
power dissipated in it is :
(A) P (B) 3P 69. An ideal cell of emf 10V is connected across
(C) 9P (D) P/3 the network of resistors as shown in the figure.
The value of the resistance R for which the power
66. A student connects two lamps in the circuit dissipated by the parallel combination is same
shown. The emf of the two batteries is different. as that in 10 resistance is.

(A) 20  (B) 30 
(C) 22.22  (D) 11.11 
Which of the following statements are correct?
i. When keys1, 2, 3 and 4 are closed, bulbs A 70. Which of the following statements is true about
and B will both glow the flow of electrons in an electric circuit ?
ii. When key 2 and 4 are closed bulb A will (A) Electrons always flow from lower to higher
glow potential
iii. When 1 and 4 are closed, bulb A will glow (B) Electrons always flow from higher to lower
iv. When 2, 3 and 4 are closed, both A and B potential
will glow (C) Electrons flow from lower to higher potential
(A) only ii (B) only iv except through power sources
(C) i, ii and iv (D) ii and iii (D) Electrons flow from higher to lower potential,
except through power sources
67. Figure below shows a portion of an electric circuit
with the currents in ampere and their directions. 71. A girl brings a positively charged rod near a thin
The magnitude and direction of the current in neutral stream of water from a tap. She observes
the portion PQ is : that the water stream bends towards her. Instead,
if she were to bring a negatively charged rod
near to the stream, it will :
(A) bend in the same direction
(B) bend in the opposite direction
(C) not bend at all
(D) bend in the opposite direction above and
below the rod
(A) 0A (B) 3A from P to Q
(C) 4A from Q to P (D) 6A from Q to P 72. In the circuit shown, n identical resistors R are
connected in parallel (n > 1) and the combination
in series to another resistor R0. In the adjoining
circuit n resistors of resistance R are all

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 MOMENTUM
connected in series along with R0 . 76. Consider the circuit shown in the figure below :
All the resistors are identical. The ratio I/I’ is

The batteries in both circuits are identical and

net power dissipated in the n resistors in both
circuit is same. The ratio R0/R is : (A) 8 (B) 6
(A) 1 (B) n (C) 5 (D) 4
(C) n2 (D) 1/n
77. A current of 0.1 A flows through a 25  resistor
73. Two bulbs of specifications 50W, 220 V and a represented by the circuit diagram. The current
100W, 200V are connected first (i)n in parallel in the 80  resistor is :
and then (ii) In series across 220 V power
[Link] the correct statement :
(A) (i) 50 W will glow brighter and in
(ii) 100 W will glow brighter
(B) In (i) 50 W will glow brighter and (ii) both
will glow equally brighter. (A) 0.1 A (B) 0.2 A
(C) In (i) 100 W will glow brighter and (ii) 50 (C) 0.3 A (D) 0.4 A
W will glow brighter
(D) In both cases the 50 W bulb will glow 78. If the current through a resistor in a circuit
brighter. increases by 3%, the power dissipated by the
resistor :
74. There three bodies A, B and C. Body A when (A) increases approximately by 3%
brought closer to B, [Link] body B is (B) increases approximately by 6%
brought closer to C they repel. We can then (C) increases approximately by 9%
conclude: (D) decreases approximately by 3%
(A) Body A and B should have opposite charges
while body C should have the same charge as 79. An electron with an initial speed of 4.0 × 106
B. ms–1 is brought to rest by an electric field. The
(B) Body B and C should have same kind of mass and charge of an electron are 9 × 10–31 kg
charge while body A may have opposite charge. and 1.6 × 10–19C, respectively. Identify the
(C) Body A and B should have same charge correct statement
while body C may have opposite charge. (A) The electron moves from a region of lower
(D) Body C is neutral while Body A and B should potential to higher potential through a potential
have opposite charge. difference of 11.4 µV.
(B) The electron moves from a region of higher
75. In nuclear reactor, the electrons and protons are potential to lower potential through a potential
moving in opposite direction across a small hole difference of 11.4 µV.
in 2 second. If number of electron and protons (C) The electron moves from a region of lower
are 2×1016 each, the current through the hole is potential to higher potential through a potential
given by : difference of 45 V.
(A) 1.6 mA (B) 0 mA (D) The electron moves from a region of higher
(C) 6.4 mA (D) 3.2 mA potential to lower potential through a potential
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 MOMENTUM
difference of 45 V (B) B2B3 brightest in case (i) and B1 becomes
brighter in (ii)
80. Three different circuits (I, II and III) are (C) B1 brightest in (i) and in (ii) B2 and B3 become
constructed using identical batteries and resistors brighter and B2 dimmer compared to case (i)
of R and 2R ohm. What can be said about current (D) B1 brighter in (i) and B2 becomes brighter in
I in arm AB of each circuit ? comparison to B3 in (ii)

84. Three identical resistors each of resistance R are

connected in the following four configurations.
Rank the arrangment in the order of their
equivalent resistors from highest to lowest.
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(A) i, ii, iii & iv (B) iv, iii, ii & i
(C) ii, iv, iii, & i (D) i, iiii, iv & ii
(A) II > III > IIII (B) II < III < IIII
(C) III < II < IIII (D) II = III = IIII 85. A positively charged lnsulator is brought in
contact with an uncharged conductor then :
81. In the following circuit the ammeter is ideal and (A) conductor acquires positive charge due to
reads zero. Value of resistance R is : conduction
(B) conductor acquires positive charge due to
induction
(C) conductor acquires negative charge due to
induction
(D) conductor cannot acquire any charge
(A) 500  (B) 100 
(C) 25000  (D) 0.5  86. Two possitively charged spheres of masses m1,
and m2, are suspended from a common point at
82. Bulbs of rating 60W, 220V and 250W, 220V are the ceiling by identical insulating massless strings
connected in series and their combination is of length l. Charges on the two spheres are q1
connected to 440 V supply. Which bulb will fuse ? and q2, respectively. At equilibrium both strings
(A) 60W (B) 250 W make the same angle  with the vertical. Then :
(C) Both (D) Neither. (A) q1m1 = q2m2 (B) m1 = m2
(C) m1 = m2sin  (D) q2m1 = q1m2.
83. In the circuit B1, B2 and B3 represent identical
bulbs. Consider the case : 87. Two equal charges of magnitude Q each are
(i) With resistance R4 placed at a distance d apart. Their electrostatic
(ii) without the resistance R4 energy is E. A third charge -Q/2 is brough
(R4 comparable with resistance of bulb) midway betway these two [Link]
electrostatic energy of the system is now
(A) –2E (B) –E
(C) 0 (D) E

(A) B1, B2 and B3 glow with equal brightness in

both cases

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 MOMENTUM The circuit shown in adjacent figure consists of
88. Consider the circuit shown below where all 92.
resistors are of 1k  an external resistance of 10.0 connected
across two batteries of emfs 6.0V and 9.0V with
internal resistance of 1.0 each. Find the power
dissipated by the 10.0 resistor.

If a current of magnitude 1 mA flows through

the resistor marked X, what is the potential
difference measured between point P and Q?
(A) 21V (B) 68V
(C) 55V (D) 34V
(A) 6.5W (B) 5.1W
89. The current I in the branch shown in the adjacent (C) 3.5W (D) 5.5W
figure is :
93. Three filament bulbs made from a metal of low
thermal coefficient of resistivity are arranged as
shown in the figure. The wattage of each bulb is
the power output if it is connected independently
across 240V. The bulb that glows brightest and
(A) 3.0A (B) 2.5A least bright are respectively :
(C) 4.0A (D) 4.5A

90. A closed circuit shown in the adjacent figure

includes a resistor of resistance 20.0 and
battery of emf 3.0V and internal resistance of (A) P,Q (B) Q,R
1. The internal resistance of the battery can (C) Q,P (D) R,P
be considered in series with it. The voltage drop
across the resistor of resistance 20 is : 94. A conductor of length L has a varying cross
section with area 2A at P and A at Q as shown
in the adjacent figure. If it carries a steady current
I, then

(A) 2.857 V (B) 3.000 V

(C) 2.500 V (D)1.567 V

91. A circuit which is used for charging a battery is

shown in the adjacent figure. The battery ‘B’
has emf 6V and internal resistance of 2. The (A) Net charge per unit volume near P is more
charging battery ‘A’has an emf of 9V and internal than net charge per unit volume near Q
resistance of 1. The voltage across the points (B) Net charge per unit volume near Q is less
Pand Q: than net charge per unit volume.
(C) Current per unit area near P is more than
current per unit area near Q.
(D) Current per unit ara near P is less than current
per unit area near Q.
(A) 8V (B) 7V
(C) 4V (D) 4.2V
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 MOMENTUM
95. The effective resistance between A and D in the (A) (3/5)  (B) (3/7) 
cirucit shown in the adjacent figure is (C) (19/7)  (D) 2/5 

1.C A certain piece of copper is to be shaped into

wire Out of the given options of its length and
diameter which combination will give minimum
resistance?
(a). L, D . (b) 2 L, D.
(c) L/2, 2 D (d) 2 L, D/2
(A) 5  (B) 10 
(C) 15  (D) 20  2.B A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.1%
longer Assuming that there is no change in the
96. Three bulbs B1, B2 and B3 having rated power volume of wire, the percentage change in resis-
100 W, 60 W and 60 W at 250 V are connected tance is approximately.
in a circuit as shown in the adjacent figure. If (a) 0.1% (b) 0.2%
W1, W2 and W3 are the output powers of the (c) 0.4% (d) 0.8%
bulbs B1 , B2 and B3 respectively, then
3.D A wire of resistance R is stretched till its radius
is half of the original value. If the volume of wire
does not change on stretching, then the resis-
tance of the stretched wire is
(a) 2R (b) 4 R
(c) 8 R (d) 16 R

4.A A material B has twice the specific resistance of

(A) W1 > W2 = W3 (B) W1 > W2 > W3 material A. A circular wire made of B has twice
(C) W1 < W2 = W3 (D) W1 < W2 < W3 the diameter of wire made of A. Then for the
two wires to have the same resistance, the ratio
97. Rod AB of radius 2r is joined with rod BC of lB/lA of their respective lengths must be
radius r. They are of same material and are of (a) 2/1 (6) 1
same length. The combination carries a current (c) 1/2 (d) 1/4
I. Choose the correct statement
5.D The resistance of a conductor is 5 ohm at 50°C
ar 6 at 100°C. What is its resistance at 0°C?
(a) 1 ohm (b) 2 ohm
(A) VAB = 4VBC (c) 3 ohm (d) 4 ohm
(B) Current per unit area in AB and BCare equal
(C) Resistance of AB is greater than that of BC 6A In the circuit shown in figure, what is the
(D) VBC = 4VAB potential difference across A and B?

98. Seven 1 resistances are connected as shown

in the figure. Resistance of the conducting wires
is negligible. Effective resistance between A and
B is :

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(a) 60 V (b) 45 V (a) R (b) SR
(c) 30 V (d) 20 V (c) 3 R (d) 6R

7.A The potential difference between points A and 11.C A 3 volt battery with negligible internal
B the given network is resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in
figure. The current I in the circuit will be

(a) 3.0 V (b) 3.6 V

(c) 6.0 V (d) 7.2 V
(a) (1/3) amp (b) 1 amp
8.A Find the resistance of the circuit between the (c) 1.5 amp (d) 2 amp
points A and B
12.D A cell supplies a current of 1 A through a
resistance of 5  and a current of 0.6 A through
a resistance of 10 . What is the internal
resistance of the cell?
(a) R/3 (b) 2 R/3
(a) 1.0  (b) 1.5 
(c) 3 R/2 (d) 3R
(c) 2.0  (d) 2:5 
9.C In the circuit shown in figure, the current drawn
13.C The resistance of flash light is 1.5 . It uses 3
from the battery is 4 A. If 10  resistor is
cells each of 1.5 V and internal resistance 0.25
replaced by 20  resistor, the current drawn
. What is the net potential difference across
from the circuit will be
the lamp?
(a) 1.5 V (b) 2.25 V
(c) 3.V (d) 4.5 V

14.D Six equal resistance, each 4  , make the arms

of the given figure. The effective resistance be-
tween any two corners is

(a) 1A (b) 2 A
(c) 4 A (d) 8 A

10.A Each resistance in the network is R. The

equivalent resistance between points P and Q is (a) 10  (b) (2/3) 
(c) 4  (d) 2 

15.D The potential difference between A and B in the

circuit shown is

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(a) 10 V (b) 5 V
(c) 15 V (d) zero
(a) 300  (b) 400 
(c) 700  (d) 1200 
16.D In the circuit shown, the ammeter and voltmeter
are ideal measuring devices. What is the read-
20.B The current passing through ideal ammeter in
ing of the voltmeter?
the circuit shown in figure.

(a) 6 V (b) 3 V
(c) 1.5 V (d) zero

17.B In the figure shown, the internal resistance of the

battery is zero. What is the reading of the (a) 1.25 A (b) 1 A
ammeter? (c) 0.5 A (d) 0.75 A

21.C What is resistance between P and Q in the fol-

lowing circuit. Each resistance is 12 .

(a) 2.5 A (b) 2 A

(c) 1.6 A (d) 0.5 A

18.B The voltmeter V having 80 resistance will read

(a) 24  (b) 16 
(c) 8  (d) 4 

22.A Across which resistors is the voltage drop mini-

mum?

(a) 0.80 volt (b) 1.33 volt

(c) 1.60 volt (d) 2.00 volt

[Link] the circuit shown in figure, the voltmeter reads

30 V. What is the resistance of the voltmeter?
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 MOMENTUM
(a) 2  and 3  (b) 2  (a) R (b) R/4
(c) 6  and 9  (d) 9  (c) 4 R (d) 2 R/3

23.C What is the potential difference between P and 27.C The total resistance acting between A and B
Q in the circuit shown in figure. equals

(a) 15 V (b) 10 V
(c) 5 V (d) 2.5 V

24.C In the circuit shown in figure, what is the current

in the 2 resistor? 5 R
(a) R (b)
2 2
2R
(c) (d) none of the above
5

28.A The given network is part of a larger circuit.

The points A, B and C are at the same potential.
(a) 2 A (b) 4 A The p.d. between A and D is 40 V. The p.d.
(c) 6 A (d) 8 A between A and O is

25.D In the given circuit, the resistance of the voltme-

ter is 800 . Its reading is

(a) 10 V (b) 15 V
(a) 40 V (b) 60 V (c) 30 V (d) 20 V
(c) 50 V (d) 48 V
29.A The resistance of the series combination of two
26.A The equivalent resistance between points A and resistances is S. When they are joined in paral-
B is lel, the total resistance P. If S = n P, then the
minimum possible value of n is
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1

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30.B An electric current is passed through a circuit 34.A As the switch S is closed in the circuit shown in
containing two wires of the same material con- figure, current that will pass through it is
nected in parallel. If the lengths and radii of the
wires are in the ratios of 4/3 and 2/3, then the
ratio of currents passing through the wire will be
(a) 3 (b) 1/3
(c) 8/9 (d) 2

31.C In the circuit shown in figure, the potential dif-

ference across E1 and E2 will be
(a) 4.5 A (b) 6.0 A
(c) 3.0 A (d) zero

35.C In figure, the current in 3 resistance is

(a) 4.25 V, 4.25 V (b) 3.75 V, 3.75 V

(c) 4.25 V, 7.5 V (d) 3.75 V, 7.5 V
1
32.D In figure, galvanometer G shows zero (a) 1 A (b) A
7
deflection. If the batteries A and B have
5 15
negligible internal resistance, the value of the (c) A (d) A
resistor R will be 7 7
36.C In the given circuit, it is observed that current I
is independent of the value of resistance R6.
Then, the resistance values must satisfy

(a) 500  (b) 1000 

(c) 200  (d) 100 

33.B Current passing through 1 resistor is zero.

Then the emf E is
(a) R1 R2 R5 = R3 R4 R6
1 1 1 1
(b) R  R  R  R  R  R
5 6 1 2 3 4

(c) R1 R4 = R2 R4
(d) R1 R3 = R2 R4
(a) 8 V (b) 6 V
(c) 4 V (d) 12 V 37.C The total current supplied to the circuit by the
battery in figure is

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(a) 36  (b) 30 
(c) 60  (d) 45 

41.B The given network in figure is part of a larger

circuit. The current through resistors are shown.
The potential difference VP – VQ is
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A
(c) 4 A (d) 6 A

38.B In figure, the equivalent resistance between A

and B is

(a) – 2 V (b) 19 V
(c) 22 V (d) – 19 V

42.A Final the current through 2 resistor.

(a) (17/24)  (b) (4/3) 

(c) 29  (d) (24/17) 

39.D Seven identical cells each of emf E and internal

resistance r are connected as shown. The (a) 0 (b) 1 amp
potential difference between A and B is (c) 2 amp (d) 4 amp

43.D In figure, the ammeter reading will be

independent of R2 when

(a) R1 + R2 = r (b) R1 = 2 r
(a) 7 E (b) E
(c) r = R1 – R2 (d) r = 0
(c) 6 E (d) zero
44.B In the given circuit, the ammeter A, assumed to
40.D The effective resistance between A and B in the
have negligible resistance, reads 0.1 A. The value
network shown is
of R is

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 MOMENTUM
(a) 6  (b) 8 
(c) 16  (d) 20 

45.A In the circuit shown in figure, the equivalent

resistance between A and B is

(a) 2. 5 A (b) 5 A
(c) 7.5 A (d) 1 A
(a) 8  (b) 12 
(c) 24  (d) 32 
49.D What will be the wattage of a 100 W, 220 V
lamp when used on 110 V power supply?
46.A Equivalent resistance between A and B is
(a) 100 W (b) 75 W
(c) 50 W (d) 25 W

50.A When a 100 W, 240 V bulb is operated at 200

volt, the current in it is
(a) 0.35 A (b) 0.42 A
3 5 (c) 0.50 A (d) 0.58 A
(a) R (b) R
4 3
51.B A uniform metallic wire has a constant voltage
7
(c) R (d) R across it. The heat developed is doubled if
5 (a) both length and radius of the wire are halved
(b) both are doubled
47.C In figure, the current passing through 3  (c) only radius is doubled
resistor is (d) only length is doubled

52.A A heater coil is cut into two parts of equal length

and only one of the them is used in the heater.
The ratio of the heat produced by this half coil
to that by the original coil is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
14
(a) A (b) 3 A
3
53.D A 2 ohm and a (2/3) ohm resistor are connected
12 in parallel across a 3 volt battery. Then energy
(c) 2 A (d) A
5 given out per minute is
(a) 540 J (b) 1620 J
48.B The current drawn by the battery in the situation (c) 2160 J (d) 1080 J
shown in figure is
54.D Two similar head light lamps are connected in
parallel to each other. Together, they consume
48 W from a 6 V battery. What is the resistance
of each filament?

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(a) 6  (b) 4  60.B Figure shows a part of a circuit in which
(c) 3  (d) 1.5  VA – VB = 16 V. The current passing through 2
 resistance will be
55.B Two bulbs of wattage 25 and 100 respectively
each rated at 220 volt, are connected in series
with the supply of 440 volt. Which bulb is likely
to fuse?
(a) 100 watt bulb (b) 25 watt bulb
(c) none of them (d) both of them (a) 2.5 A (b) 3.5 A
(c) 4 A (d) zero
56.D Two resistance R1 and R2 when connected in
61.A The equivalent resistance between A and B in
series consume power equal to 25 W. When
the network shown in figure is
connected in parallel, they consume 100 W.
What is the ratio of the power of each?
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/3
(c) 1/2 (d) 1

57.B In the following circuit, if the heat evolved in the

10 ohm resistor is 10 cal/s, the heat evolved in
the 4 ohm resistor is approximately
(a) 6  (b) 7.8 
(c) 12  (d) 24 

6.2A In the circuit shown in figure, the voltage drop

across the 15 ohm resistor is 30 volts having the
polarity as indicated. Then the value of R must
be
(a) 4 cal/s (b) 5 cal/s
(c) 10 cal/s (d) 20 cal/s

58.C A piece of fuse wire melts when the current

through it is 5 A. When carrying this current, it
dissipates 2.5 J of energy per second. What is
the resistance of the fuse wire?
(a) 0.5 ohm (b) 10 ohm
(c) 0.1 ohm (d) 2 ohm (a) 17.5 ohm (b) 5.7 ohm
(c) 33.4 ohm (d) 27.5 ohm
59.A The emf of the battery shown in figure is
63.A The potential difference between A and B in the
following situation is

(a) 12 V (b) 16 V
(c) 18 V (d) 15 V

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(a) 12 V (b) 7 V 67.C Calculate the net resistance between A and B
(c) 20 V (d) 14 V

64.B In figure, the equivalent resistance between

points A and B is .

(a) 3 R/A (b) 5 R/6

(c) 4 R/7 (d) R

68.D Twelve wires, each of resistance R, are

connected to form a cube as shown in figure.
The effective resistance between A and B is
(a) 32.5  (b) 22.5 
(c) 2.5  (d) 42.5 

65.C The equivalent resistance between A and B in

the circuit shown in figure will be

(a) R/6 (b) R/3

(c) 4 R/3 (d) 5 R/6

69.A The resistance between the terminal point P and

Q of the given infinitely long circuit will be (in )

(a) R (b) 7 R
(c) 7/5 R (d) 5/7 R

66.D Seven resistors, each of 1  , are connected as

shown in figure. The effective resistance between
A and B is (a) 1 + 3 (b) 4 – 3
(c) 2 2 (d) 4 – 2

70.A You are given a circuit made up of infinite num-

bers of repeated sections with resistances R1
and R2 as shown in figure. Find the total resis-
4 3 tance between the points A and B
(a) Ω (b) Ω
3 2
8
(c) 7  (d) 
7

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R1  4R 2 
(a) 2 1  1  R 
 1 

R2
(b)  4R 1R 2
2
R 1 4R 2
(c) 2  R
1

(d) 4 R 1  R 2

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11. MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT AND E.M.I.

1. In a plane perpendicular to the magnetic meridian (C) only the relative strength of the magnetic field
the dip needle will remain : (D) both the direction and the relative strength
(A) vertical (B) horizontal of the magnetic field
(C) at an angle of 45º from horizontal 8. The S.I. unit of magnetic field intensity is :
(D) at an angle of 60º from vertical (A) Weber (B) Tesla
(C) Oersted (D) Gauss
2. The vertical component of the earth’s magnetic
field is : 9. C.G.S. unit of magnetic field intensity is :
(A) zero at the magnetic pole (A) Tesla (B) Gauss
(B) zero at the geographic pole (C) Weber (D) none of these
(C) same everywhere
(D) zero at the magnetic equator 10. When a bar magnet is broken into two pieces :
(A) we will have a single pole on each piece
3. A magnet is placed in earth’s magnetic field with (B) each piece will have two unlike poles
north pole of the magnet pointing north. At the (C) each piece will have two like poles
neutral point : (D) none of these
(A) the earth’s magnetic field is zero
(B) the magnet’s magnetic field is zero 11. A magnetic field of flux density 1.0 Wb m–2 acts
(C) the magnetic fields of the magnet and the normal to a 80 turn coil of 0.01 m2 area. The
earth are equal and in the same direction e.m.f. induced in it, if this coil is removed from
(D) the magnetic fields of the magnet and the the field in 0.1 second is :
earth are equal and opposite (A) 8V (B) 4V
(C) 10 V (D) 6V
4. The angle of dip at equator is :
(A) 0º (B) 45º 12. What will be the magnitude of e.m.f. induced in
(C) 60º (D) 90º a 200 turns coil with cross section area 0.16 m2
? The magnetic field through the coil changes
5. Which of the following shows that the earth from 0.10 Wb m–2 to 0.30 Wb m–2, at a uniform
behaves as a magnet ? rate over a period of 0.05 s :
(A) Repulsion between like poles. (A) 128V (B) 130V
(B) Attraction between unlike poles. (C) 118 V (D) 132V
(C) Existence of null points in the magnetic field
of a bar magnet. 13. A wire 88 cm long bent into a circular loop is
(D) Non-existence of monopoles. placed perpendicular to the magnetic field of flux
density 2.5 Wb m–2. Within 0.5 s, the loop is
6. Magnetic field is a : changed into a square and flux density is
(A) vector quantity (B) scalar quantity increased to 3.0 Wb m–2. The value of e.m.f.
(C) scalar as well as vector quantity induced is :
(D) neither vector nor scalar (A) 0.018V (B) 0.016V
(C) 0.020V (D) 0.012V
7. Magnetic lines of force determines :
(A) the shape of the magnetic field
(B) only the direction of the magnetic field
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14. A magnetic field of flux density 10 T acts normal I
to a coil of 50 turns having 100 cm2 area. The (C) Newton/ampere-metre
r
e.m.f. induced if the coil is removed from
magnetic field in 0.1 second is : I
(D) gauss
(A) 50 V (B) 60 V r
(C) 80 V (D) 40V 20. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain
length and then from the same length a coil of
15. A bar magnet has been cut equally lengthwise two turns is made. If the same current is passed
and width wise to give four equal pieces. The in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic
pole strength of each piece as compared to the induction at their centres will be :
pole strength of original bar magnet is : (A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 4
1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 2
(A) same (B)
8
21. A wire loop PQRS formed by joining two semi-
1 1 circular wires of radii R1 and R2 carries a current
(C) (D)
4 2 I as shown in the following diagram. The
magnetic induction at the centre O is :
16. A free charged particle moves through a magnetic
field. The particle may undergo a change in :
(A) speed (B) energy
(C) direction of motion (D) none of these


17. If strength of magnetic field B  2iˆ  ˆj  kˆ and 0 I 0I
 (A) 4R (B) 4R
area vector is A  3iˆ  ˆj then find the magnetic 1 2

flux link with area vector : 0  1 1  0  1 1 

(A) 4 weber (B) 6 weber (C) 4 I   (D) 4 I  
(C) 7weber (D) 5 weber  R1 R 2   R1 R 2 

18. A transmission line carries a current of 100 A. in 22. A wire loop formed by joining two semi-circular
east to west direction. Find magnitude of the wires of radii R1 and R2 carries a current as
magnetic field due to current at a distance 1m shown in the adjoining diagram. The magnetic
below the wire : induction at the centre O is :
(A) 2 × 10–5 T (B) 2 × 10+5 T
(C) 105 T (D) 10–5 T
O
19. A wire carries a current I amperes shown in
figure. The semicircle has a radius r. The
magnetic filed at the centre C will be :
0 I 0 I
(A) 4R (B) 4R
1 2

(A) zero 0 I  1 1  0 I  1 1 
(C) 4  R  R  (D) 4  R  R 
I  1 2   1 2 
(B)  107 Newton/ampere-metre
r
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23. An infinite wire bent in the form of L carries 27. A charge q is moving with a velocity (v) parallel
current I. What is the magnetic field at the point to a magnetic field (B) . Force on the charge
O? due to magnetic field is :
(A) qvB (B) qB/v
(C) zero (D) Bv/q

28. An electron has a circular path of radius 0.01 m

in a perpendicular magnetic induction 10–3 T.
The speed of the electron is nearly :
(A) 1.76 × 104 m/s (B) 1.76 × 106 m/s
(C) 3.52 × 106 m/s (D) 7.04 × 106 m/s
0 I
(A) zero (B) 
4 d 29. Which of the following determines the direction
of magnetic field due to a current carrying
0 I  0 2I conductor ?
(C)  (D) 
4 2d 4 d (A) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.
(B) Fleming’s left-hand rule.
24. In the given figure, what is the magnetic field at (C) Lenz’s law.
the point ‘O’ ? (D) Maxwell’s cork screw rule.

30. According to Faraday’s law, the total charge

induced in a conductor that is moved in a
magnetic field depends upon :
(A) initial magnetic flux
(B) final magnetic flux
(C) rate of change of magnetic flux
(D) change in magnetic flux
0 I 0 I 0I
(A)  (B) 31. Deflection in the galvanometer :
4r 2r 4r
 0I  0I 0I 0I
(C)  (D) 
4r 4 r 4r 4r

25. A proton is moving with velocity 104 m/s parallel

to the magnetic field of intensity 5 tesla. The force (A) towards right (B) left
on the proton is - (C) no defection (D) none of these
(A) 8 × 10–15 N (B) 104 N
(C) 1.6 × 10–19 N (D) zero 32. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction
is :
26. A wire carrying a current of 5 A is placed (A) the process of charging a sphere
perpendicular to a magnetic induction of 2T. The (B) the process of producing magnetic field in a
force on each centimeter of the wire is : coil
(A) 0.1 N (B) 10 N (C) the process of producing induced current in
(C) 100 N (D) 1 N a coil whenever there is a relative motion
between the coil and the magnet
(D) the process of producing cooling effect

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MOMENTUM
Who discovered the relationship between (D) to obtain suitable AC voltage
electricity and magnetism :
(A) Faraday (B) Newton 40. What is increased in a step down transformer ?
(C) Maxwell (D) Oersted (A) Voltage (B) Current
(C) Wattage (D) None of these
34. Induced electromotive force in a coil does not
depend on : 41. A transformer steps up an AC supply from 220
(A) number of turns in the coil V to 2200 V. If the secondary coil of the
(B) intensity of the magnetic field transformer has 2000 turns, the number of turns
(C) relative speed between coil and the magnet in its primary coil will be :
(D) resistance of the coil (A) 200 (B) 100
(C) 50 (D) 20
35. A magnet is dropped freely towards a loop of
copper wire as shown in figure. The acceleration 42. A step down transformer reduces 220V to 11V.
of magnet will be : The primary coil draws 5 A current and
secondary coil supplies 90A. Efficiency of the
transformer will be:
(A) 4.4% (B) 20%
(C) 33% (D) 90%

(A) equal to g (B) greater than g 43. Out of the following the best material for the
(C) less than g (D) zero core of a transformer is :
(A) aluminium (B) copper
36. Current is induced in a coil by electromagnetic (C) stainless steel (D) soft iron
induction when :
(A) Only the coil moves in a magnetic field. 44. Voltage induced in the secondary coil of a
(B) Only the magnet moves towards the coil. transformer is mainly due to :
(C) Coil and the magnet move with respect to (A) the iron core of the transformer
each other. (B) the vibrations of the primary coil
(D) None of the above. (C) a varying induced electric field
(D) a varying induced magnetic field
37. By inserting an iron core in a coil carrying current,
the strength of its magnetic field will : 45. The principle of transformer is :
(A) increase (B) decrease (A) mutual induction
(C) remain Same (D) become Zero (B) self - induction
(C) electromagnetic induction
38. A transformer is a device which gives : (D) none of these
(A) DC voltage (B) AC voltage
(C) both AC and DC voltage 46. In transformer the loss of energy due to eddy
(D) none of these currents can be reduced by :
(A) taking thick wire of copper
39. A transformer is used : (B) taking thin wire of copper
(A) to transform electric energy into mechanical (C) laminating the core
energy (D) taking the core of soft iron
(B) to obtain suitable DC voltage
(C) to transform AC into DC
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47. In a DC generator, the induced e.m.f. in the 54. A transformer is used to light a 120 W, 24 V
armature is : lamp from 240 V a.c. mains. The current in the
(A) DC (B) AC main cable is 0.6 A. The efficiency of the
(C) fluctuating DC (D) both AC and DC transformer is :
(A) 48% (B) 63.8%
48. The effect of using split rings in a simple DC (C) 83.3% (D) 90%
motor is that :
(A) the direction of rotation of the coil is reversed 55. In a transformer the output current and voltage
(B) the current in the coil always flows in the are 4 A and 20 V respectively. If the ratio of
same direction number of turns in the primary and secondary
(C) the direction of the current flowing in the coil is 2 : 1 respectively, what is the input current
coil is reversed and voltage ?
(D) None of these (A) 2 A and 40 V (B) 1 A and 20 V
(C) 4 A and 10 V (D) 8 A and 40 V
49. A step-up transformer of turns ratio 2 : 1 has 50
Hz AC voltage applied to primary. The frequency 56. The device which is used for converting
of AC output voltage across secondary is : mechanical energy into electrical energy is called:
(A) zero (B) 25 Hz (A) electric motor (B) dynamo
(C) 50 Hz (D) 100 Hz (C) transformer (D) battery

50. Mutual induction is the principle of : 57. In a DC generator, the induced e.m.f. in the
(A) converter (B) inverter armature is :
(C) transformer (D) rectifier (A) DC (B) AC
(C) fluctuating DC (D) both AC and DC
51. In a transformer, the number of turns of primary
coil and secondary coil are 5 and 4 respectively. 58. The device which is used for converting electrical
If 220 V is applied on the primary coil, then the energy into mechanical energy is called :
ratio of primary current to the secondary current (A) electric motor (B) dynamo
is : (C) transformer (D) battery
(A) 4 : 5 (B) 5 : 4
(C) 5 : 9 (D) 9 : 5 59. The effect of using split rings in a simple DC
motor is that :
52. An ideal transformer has 500 and 5000 turns in (A) the direction of rotation of the coil is reversed
primary and secondary winding respectively. If (B) the current in the coil always flows in the
the primary coil is connected to a 6 V battery same direction
then the secondary voltage is : (C) the direction of the current flowing in the
(A) 60 V (B) zero coil is reversed
(C) 0.6 V (D) 6.0 V (D) None of these

53. In a primary coil 5 A current is flowing on 220 60. In an electric generator, split rings are used for :
volts. If the secondary coil produces 2200V (A) converting DC to AC
voltage. Then the ratio of number of turns in (B) converting AC to DC
secondary coil and primary coil will be : (C) reducing power consumption
(A) 1 : 10 (B) 10 : 1 (D) to split the current
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 11 : 1 EXERCISE-2

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 MOMENTUM
61. A long copper wire is wound in the form of a A and B will shift towards the solenoid.
coil of radius r. A current of 2 A is passed
through this coil and the magnetic induction at 65. Which of t he follo wing statements is
the centre of this coil is noted. The same wire is INCORRECT ?
now folded end to end and coil of the same (A) Electric current is a scalar quantity
radius r is prepared and the same current is (B) Electric lines of force are closed curves.
passed through it. The magnetic induction at the (C) Magnetic lines of induction are closed
centre: curves.
(A) will be doubled (B) will be halved (D) changing magnetic field induces an electric
(C) will remain same. (D) will drop to zero current in a coil

62. Two charges of same magnitude move in two 66. An electron moving to the east in a horizontal
circles of radii R1 = R and R2 = 2R in a region of plane is deflected towards south by a magnetic
constant uniform magnetic field B0. [Link] direction of this magnetic field is :
The work W1 and W2 done by the magnetic (A) towards north (B) towards west
field in the Two cases, respectively are such that: (C) downwards (D) upwards
(A) W1 = W2 = 0 (B) W1 > W2
(C) W1 = W2 = 0 (D)W1 < W2 67. A direct current (DC) motor is connected to a
battery by means of two leads. The motor moves
63. Two infinitely long wires P and Q separated by for slightly less than half the cycle and comes to
a distance of 10 cm in air, carry currents I and halt. Which of the following components is
2I in opposite directions as shown in the figure. missing ?
The resultant magnetic field due to currents in (A) one of the brushes (B) commutator
these wires will be zero at : (C) slip ring
(D) one of the two magnets

68. A bar magnet is placed on a table. There are n

number of field lines connecting North pole to
(A) point A. (B) point B. South pole of the magnet. Another identical
(C) point C. magnet is placed on the first magnet with North
(D) none of the points A, B, C. pole on North pole and south pole on south pole.
The number of field lines are now
64. When an electric current I is passed through a (A) n (B) n2
solenoid in the figure shown below, magnetic field (C) n/2 (D) 2n
at points A and B is equal and opposite to that
of the earth. The, 69. A conducting wire shown in the figure carries
current I. Segments AB, BC and CD are of same
length. The direction of the magnetic field at point
P is given by :

(A) Straight line AB is along north-south

(B) Straight line AB is along east-west
(C) if current I is increased, the positions of points
A and B will shift away from the solenoid.
(D) If current I is increased, the position of points (A) into the plane of the paper
(B) out of the plance of the paper
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(C) towards right 74. The figure shows a bar magnet and a metallic
(D) towards left coil. Consider four situations .
(I) Moving the magnet away from the coil.
70. A transistor based radio receiver set (effective (II) Moving the coil towards the magnet.
resistance of the order of 18 ohms) operates on (III) Rotating the coil about the vertical diameter.
a 9V dc battery. If this replaced by a dc power (IV) Rotating the coil about its axis.
supply with rating 9V, 500A then :
(A) receiver will work normally
(B) receiver will give distorted output An emf in the coil will be generated for the
(C) receiver will get burnt following situations.
(D) power supply will get over heated (A) (I) and (II) only
(B) (I), (II) and (IV) only
71. A circular loop of wire is in the same plane as an (C) (I), (II), and (III) only
infinitely long wire carrying a constant current i. (D) (I), (II), (III), and (IV)
Four possible motions of the loop are marked
by N,E,W and S as shown : 75. An electron enters a chamber in which a uniform
magnetic field is present as shown :

An electric field of appropriate magnitude is also

A clockwise current is induced in the loop when applied so that the electron travels undeviated
loop is pulled towards : without any change in its speed through the
(A) N (B) E chamber. We are ignoring gravity. Then, the
(C) W (D) S direction of the electric field i s
(A) opposite to the direction of the magnetic
72. The AC produced in India changes its direction field
in every : (B) opposite to the direction of the electron’s
1 motion
(A) second (B) 100 second (C) normal to the plane of the paper and coming
100
out of the plane of the paper
(C) 50 second (D) None of these
(D) normal to the plane of the paper and into
the plane of the paper
73. Essential requirement for the operation of a step
down transformer is :
76. The magnetic force on a moving charged particle
(A) Laminated iron core
can change the particle’s :
(B) Electrical connection between primary and
(A) speed only
secondary coils
(B) Both speed and direction
(C) Magnetic interaction between primary and
(C) direction only
secondary coils
(D) neither of speed nor direction
(D) Non magnetic core.

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77. Two infinite wires carrying identical current are 79. In the figure shown, the current carrying loop is
placed at position A and C normal to plane of fixed, where as current carrying straight
the paper as shown in the adjacent figure. The conductor is free to’ move. Then straight wire
resultant magnetic field (B) at a point P on the will (ignore gravity)
perpendicular bisector is :

(A) remain stationary

(B) move towards the loop
(C) move away from the loop
(D) rotate about the axis perpendicular to plane
of paper

(A) Along line parallel to AC and pointing

towards right
(B) Along line joining PC and pointing towards C
(C) Along line joining PA and pointing towards A
(D) Along perpendicular bisector pointing
towards line AC

78. A bar magnet falls with its north pole pointing

down through the axis of a copper ring. When
viewed from above, the current in the ring will
be :
(A) Clockwise while the magnet is above the
plane of the ring and counter clockwise while
below the plane of the ring
(B) Counter clockwise throughout
(C) Counter clockwise while the magnet is above
the plane of the ring, and clockwise while below
the plane of the ring
(D) Clockwise throughout.

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12. LIGHT

(C) should be half of our height

(D) depends upon our distance from mirror
1. Two mirrors are inclined at an angle 60°, an
object is placed asymmetrically between them. 7. An object A is placed at a distance d in front of
Then number of images formed will be : a plane mirror. If one stands directly behind the
(A) 6 (B) 5 object at distance S from the mirror, then the
(C) 7 (D) 9 distance of the image of A from the individual
is :
2. Find number of images formed according to given (A) 2S (B) 2d
case – (C) S +d (D) S + 2d

8. The linear magnification for a mirror is the ratio

of the size of the image to the size of the object,
and is denoted by m. Then m is equal to (symbols
have their usual meanings) :
uf uf
(A) (B)
u f uf
(i) (ii)
(A) 8, 9 (B) 9, 8 f
(C) (D) none of these
(C) 9, 9 (D) 8, 8 u f

3. Plane mirror are arranged parallel to each other 9. The angle beyond which when a ray is incident,
to get : it is completely reflected back is called :
(A) A single image (A) angle of deviation
(B) Two images (B) critical angle
(C) A large number of reflected images (C) incident angle
(D) No image (D) angle of inversion

4. To get 9 multiple images the angle between the 10. Which of the following conditions are necessary
plane mirrors should be : for total internal reflection to take place at the
(A) 60º (B) 36º boundary of two optical media ?
(C) 50º (D) 90º 1. Light is passing from optically denser medium
to optically rarer medium.
5. If the angle of incidence is 50º, then calculate 2. Light is passing from optically rarer medium
the angle between the incident ray and the to optically denser medium.
reflected ray : 3. Angle of incidence is greater than the critical
(A) 50º (B) 260º angle.
(C) 100º (D) 80º 4. Angle of incidence is less than the critical angle.
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only
6. If we want to see our full image then the minimum (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1 and 4 only
size of the plane mirror :
(A) should be twice of our height
(B) should be of our height

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11. For total internal reflection, rays of light must go 15. When a ray of light strikes a plane mirror at an
from : angle of 150 with the mirror, what will be the
(A) Rarer to denser medium angle through which the ray gets deviated?
(B) Rarer to rarer medium
(C) Denser to rarer medium
(D) Denser to denser medium

12. In a room lighted by an electric bulb, it is found (A) 150 (B) 300
that the shadow of the ceiling fan hung in the (C) 750 (D) none of these
centre is falling on a wall opposite to the door.
What can you say about the position of the 16. Two parallel plane mirrors A and B are placed
bulb ? at a separation 10 cm as shown in figure. A ray
(A) On the wall having the door incident on the corner of mirror B at an angle of
(B) On the wall facing the door incidence 45º. Find the number of times this rays
(C) On the wall on your right as you enter the is reflected from mirror A :
room
(D) On the wall on your left as you enter the
room

13. Which of the following correctly represents

graphical relation between angle of incidence (i)
and angle of reflection (r) ?

(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 7
(A) (B)
17. A light ray falls on a mirror and deviates by 60º,
then the angle of reflection will be :
(A) 30º (B) 60º
(C) 90º (D)180º

18. Two plane mirrors are at right angles to each

(C) (D) other. A man stands between them and combs
his hair with his right hand. In how many of the
images will he be seen using his right hand :
14. A convex mirror of focal length f (in air) is (A) Zero (B) 1
4 (C) 2 (D) 3
immersed in a liquid (  ) . The focal length
3
19. The focal length of eye lens and object lens of a
of the mirror in liquid will be :
telescope is 4 mm and 4 cm respectively. If final
3 4 image of an far object is at  . Then the
(A)   f (B)   f magnifying power and length of the tube are :
4 3
(A) 10, 4.4 cm (B) 4, 44 cm
7 (C) 44, 10 cm (D) 10, 44 cm
(C) f (D)   f
3

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20.
MOMENTUM
A compound microscope has an objective of of lens.
focal length 1 cm and an eyepiece of 4 cm. If (B) There will be no effect.
the tube length is 20 cm. Then the magnification (C) The full image will be formed but it will be
of the compound microscope is : (final image is less bright.
at D ) (D) The central portion of the image will be
(A) 145 (B) 14.5 absent.
(C) 1.45 (D) None of these
27. Two identical plano-convex lenses can be
21. The magnification of a magnifying lens of focal combined in three ways, as shown. The ratio of
length 5 cm is : (final image is at  ) the focal lengths of these combinations will be :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5

22. The wave length of light diminishes  times

(  = 1.33 for water) in a medium. A diver from
inside water looks at an object whose natural
colour is green. He sees the object as :
(A) red (B) blue (A) 2 : 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 1 : 1
(C) green (D) yellow (C) 1 : 2 : 2 (D) 2 : 1 : 1

23. A thin lens is made with a material having 28. If red and violet colour are passing through same
refractive index  = 1.5. Both the sides are glass sheet simultaneously then relation between
convex. It is dipped in water (  = 1.33), it will their velocity will be :
behave like : (A) vr = vv (B) vr < vv
(A) a convergent lens (B) a divergent lens (C) vr > vv (D) none of these
(C) a rectangular slab (D) a prism
29. When light is incident on the interface of glass
24. The radius of curvature of the convex surface of and air as shown in the figure. If green light is
a planoconvex lens is 10 cm. What is the focal just totally internally reflected then the emerging
length of the plano-convex lens ? ray in air contains :
(Here  = 1.5)
(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm
(C) 15 cm (D) 5 cm

25. Two thin lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 25

cm are placed in contact. The effective power
of the combination is :
1
(A) diopters (B) 45 diopters
9
(C) 6 diopters (D) 9 diopters (A) Yellow, orange, red
(B) Violet, indigo, blue
26. How will the image formed by a convex lens be (C) All colours
affected if the central portion of lens is wrapped (D) All colours except green
in black paper ?
(A) No image is formed by the remaining portion

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30. If the central portion of a convex lens is wrapped 34. A ray of light falls on a prism having one silvered
in black paper as shown in the figure: surface, at an incident angle of 45º as shown in
figure. After refraction and reflection it retraces
the path, then the refractive index of prism
material is (prism angle is 30º) :

(A) No image will be formed by the remaining

portion of the lens.
(B) The full image will be formed but it will be
less bright.
(C) The central portion of the image will be (A) (B) 2
2
missing.
(D)There will be two images each produced by 1 1
one of the exposed portions of the lens. (C) (D)
2 2

31. A convex lens is used to form an image of an 35. Find the value of  r for the case shown in figure :
object on a screen. If the upper half of the lens
is blackened so that it becomes opaque. Then:
(A) Only half of the image will be visible
(B) the image position shifts towards the lens
(C) the image position shifts away from the lens
(D) the brightness of the image reduces

32. The middle colour in sunlight spectrum is :

(A) yellow (B) green
(C) blue (D) orange
(A) sin–1(0.5) (B) 75º – sin–1(0.5)
33. In which of the following cases will there be no
(C) 90º (D) 60º
dispersion when sunlight passes :
36. In which of the following the final image is
erect ?
(A) Compound microscope
(A) (B)
(B) Astronomical telescope
(C) Simple microscope
(D) All of the above

37. Two lenses of focal lengths + 100 cm and + 5

cm are used to prepare an astronomical
(C) (D) telescope. The minimum tube length will be :
(final image is at  )
(A) 95 cm (B) 100 cm
(C) 105 cm (D) 500 cm

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38.
MOMENTUM
How should people wearing spectacles work (A) f0  fe (B) f0  fe
with a microscope ?
(A) They should keep on wearing their f0 fe
spectacles. (C) f (D) f
e 0
(B) They should never use the microscope.
(C) They should take off their spectacles. 45. Motion pictures or cinematography make use
(D) They may either put on their spectacles or of :
they may take off their spectacles. (A) Least distance of distinct vision
(B) Persistence of vision
39. In optical instruments, the lenses are used to form (C) Power of accommodation
images by : (D) None of these
(A) reflection (B) refraction
(C) dispersion (D) scattering 46. A student sees the top edge and the bottom
centre C of a pool simultaneously from an angle
40. If the focal length of a magnifying glass is 2.5
 above the horizontal as shown in the figure.
cm, it can magnify an object :
The refractive index of water which fills up to
(A) 15 times (B) 11 times
the top edge of the pool is 4/3. If h/x = 7/4 then
(C) 2.5 times (D) none of these
cos  is :
41. The magnifying power of an astronomical
telescope is 8, then the ratio of the focal length
of the objective to the focal length of the eyepiece
is : (final image is at  )
1
(A) 8 (B)
8
(C) 0.45 (D) none of these

42. The sum of the focal lengths of the objective

and an eyepiece, in case of an astronomical
telescope is equal to : (final image is at  )
(A) the length of the telescope
(B) half the length of the telescope 2 8
(A) (B)
(C) double the length of the telescope 7 3 45
(D) none of these
8 8
(C) (D)
43. Which of the following cannot be seen by a 3 53 21
microscope ?
(A) small nearly objects 47. Light enters an isosceles right triangular prism at
(B) bacteria normal incidence through face AB and
(C) stars undergoes total internal reflection at face BC as
(D) cells and virus shown below :

44. In case of an astronomical telescope, the

distance between the objective lens and the
eyepiece is equal to : (final image is at  )

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 MOMENTUM
51. Consider a ray light passing through a rectangular
glass slab. Let the emergent ray shift laterally by
a distance [Link] shift x depends on :
(A) angle of incidence
(B) refractive index of the material of the slab
(C) width of the slab
(D) all the above

52. Critical angle for glass is  and that for water is

 . The critical angle  at the water glass
interface is such that:
The minimum value of the refractive index of the (A)   (1  2 ) / 2 (B) 1    2
prism is close to : (C)   2 (D)   1
(A) 1.10 (B) 1.55
(C) 1.42 (D) 1.72CISE-2
53. A ray of light passing through an equilateral
triangular prism gets deviated at least by 30º.
48. A boy runs towards a convex mirror with a speed
Then, the refractive index of the material of the
v. His image is seen to move towards the mirror
prism must be :
at a speed v’. Then,
(A) v < v’ (B) v > v’
(C) v = v’ (A)  2 (B)  2
(D) nothing can be said as data are insufficient (C)  3 (D)  3
49. An object is placed in front of a concave mirror
focal length f. An erect image is formed with a 54. A prism made up of flint glass is such that the
magnification of 2. To obtain real image with the incident ray does not emerge from the second
same magnification, the object has to be moved surface. Critical angle for flint glass is 36º. Then,
through a distance of : refracting angle A must be :
(A) f/2 (B) f (A) 37º (B) 54º
(C) 3f /2 (D) 2f/3 (C) 71º (D) 73º

50. A convex lens of focal length f is cut into two 55. A girl standing in front of a vertical plane mirror,
halves as shown. Light rays parallel to the is able to see herself only upto her knees. She
principal axis are incident on one half of the lens can see the lower part of her legs, if :
(say L 1). This will form an image at :
(A) she moves towards the mirror
(B) she moves away from the mirror
(C) she bends down
(D) she stands on a stool

56. An image of the same size as that of the object

cannot be produced by
(A) a plane mirror (B) a concave mirror
(A) f (B) f/2
(C) a convex mirror (D) a convex lens
(C) 2f (D) f/4

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 MOMENTUM
57. A ray of light is incident at an angle  on the
boundary separating two transparent media. It
is transmitted. When angle  is increased very
slightly (by negligible amount), the ray suffers a
total internal reflection. The difference between
the angles of deviation in two cases is :
(A) 2  (B) 90º – 
(C) 180º –  (D) 180º – 2 
(A) a convex mirror at A
58. The figure shows positions of object O and its (B) a concave mirror at C
diminished image I. This is possible if : (C) a concave mirror at A
(D) a concave lens at B

62. Image of an object in a concave mirror is

observed on a screen first by keeping the object
at position A and then at another position B. The
magnifications mA and mB in the two cases were
(A) a convex mirror is placed to the right of I determined. If mA mB = 1, then :
(B) a concave mirror is placed between O and I (A) both the position A and B are beyond the
(C) a concave lens is placed to the right of I centre of curvature C.
(D) a concave lens is placed between O and I (B) both the position A and B are between C
and F.
59. Planets do not twinkle as stars, because : (C) one of the position A and B is between pole
P and focus F of the mirror.
(A) planets are much closer to earth than stars (D) one of the positions A and B is between F
(B) planets are smaller in size than stars and C while the other is beyond C.
(C) a planet is not surrounded by gaseous
atmosphere 63. Which of the following phenomena can be
(D) a star is not surrounded by gaseous demonstrated by light. But not with sound waves
atmosphere in an air column ?
(A) Reflection (B) Diffraction
60. A light source is placed 100 cm away from a (C) Refraction (D) Polarization
screen. A converging lens placed at a certain
position between the source and the screen 64. An object is placed 0.40 m from one of the two
focuses the image of the source on the screen. lenses L1 and L2 of focal lengths 0.20 m and
The lens is moved a distance of 40 cm and it is 0.10 m respectively as depicted in the figure.
found that it again focuses the image of the source The separation between the lenses is 0.30 m.
on the screen. The focal length of the lens is :
(A) 21 cm (B) 30 cm
(C) 40 cm (D) 67 cm

61. In the figure shown below. A, B, C are points

on the principal axis of a spherical mirror/lens.
Which of the following arrangements will
produce image I I1 of the object OO1 ? The final image formed by this two lens system
is at

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 MOMENTUM
(A) 0.13 m to the right of the second lens.
(B) 0.05 m to the right of the second lens.
(C) 0.13 m to the left of the second lens (A)
(D) Infinity

65. In the figure below a ray of light travelling in a

medium of refractive index  passes through
two different connected rectangular blocks of
refractive indices 1 and  2 ( 2  1 ) . (B)

(C)

The angle of incidence 1 is increased slightly..

(D)
Then angle 2
(A) increases.
(B) decreases.
(C) remains the same 69. Which of the following statements is/are true in
(D) increases or decreases depending on the case of rainbow ?
(A) In the morning a rainbow can be seen in the
value of (1 /  2 ) .
east.
(B) In the morning a rainbow can be seen in the
66. A rainbow has circular shape because : west.
(C) In the evening a rainbow can be seen in the
(A) the earth is spherical. east.
(B) rain drops are spherical (D) In the evening a rainbow can be seen in the
(C) the sun is spherical west.
(D) none of these
70. The figure shows a ray of light incident on a
67. Dispersion of white light into its constituent convex lens, parallel to its principal axis.
colours occurs during Obviously the emergent ray passess through the
(A) reflection at a plane mirror principal focus F. Which of the following
(B) reflection at a concave mirror. statements is correct ?
(C) internal reflection inside a spherical drop of
water
(D) refraction at the boundary of a transparent
medium.

68. Which of the following figures correctly

represents primary and secondary rainbows ?

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 MOMENTUM
(A) The ray bends downwards only once inside
the lens.
(B) The ray bends downwards at each surface.
(C) The ray bends downwards at the first surface
and upwards at the second surface. (A) (B)
(D) The ray bends upwards at the first surface
and downwards at the second surface.

71. White light is split into a spectrum by a prism

and it is seen on a screen. If we put another
identical inverted prism behind it in contact, what
will be seen on the screen ?
(A) Violet will appear where red was (C) (D)
(B) The spectrum will remain the same
(C) There will be no spectrum, but only the
original light with no deviation.
(D) There will be no spectrum, but the original
light will be laterally displaced. 75. How much water should be filled in a container
21 cm in height, so that it appears half filled when
72. A ray of light is incident on a hollow glass prism viewed from the top of the container ?
as shown. Then the ray will undergo : 4
[refractive index of water = ]
3
(A) 8 cm. (B) 10.5 cm.
(C) 12 cm. (D) 14 cm.

76. In the figure below, PQRS denotes the path

followed by a ray of light as it travels three media
(A) deviation and dispersion both in succession. The absolute refractive indices of
(B) deviation but no dispersion the media are 1 ,  2 and 3 respectively. (The
(C) dispersion but no deviation
line segment RS’ in the figure is parallel to PQ).
(D) neither deviation nor dispersion
Then :
73. An object is place at a distance x1 from the focus
of a concave mirror. Its real image is formed at
a distance x2 from the focus. Hence, the focal
length of the mirror is :
x1 x 2
(A) x  x (B) x1 x 2
1 2

x1  x 2
(C) (D) | x1  x 2 |
2

74. Which of the following does NOT represent (A) 1   2  3 (B) 1   2 3

correct refraction ?
(C) 1  3   2 (D) 1  3   2

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77.
MOMENTUM
A ray of white light is incident on a spherical
water drop whose center is C as shown below.
When observed from the opposite side, the
emergent light:

(A) 90º (B) 180º

(C) 120º (D) 45º

80. The refractive index of a prism measured using

three lines of a mercury vapour lamp. If 1 ,  2
and 3 are the measured refractive indices for
(A) will be white and will emerge without
these green, blue and yellow lines respectively,
deviating
then :
(B) will be internally reflected
(C) will split into different colors such that the (A)  2  3  1 (B) 2  1  3
angles of deviation will be different for different (C) 3  2  1 (D) 1   2  3
colors
(D) will split into different colors such that the
81. In a car a rear view mirror having a radius of
angles of deviation will be same for all colors
curvature 1.50 m forms a virtual image of a bus
located 10.0 m from the mirror. The factor by
78. A convex lens of focal length 15 cm is placed
which the mirror magnifies the size of the bus is
infront of a plane mirror at a distance 25 cm
close to :
from the mirror. Where on the optical axis and
(A) 0.06 (B) 0.07
from the centre of the lens should a small object
(C) 0.08 (D) 0.09
be placed such that the final image coincides with
the object :
82. An optical system whose cross-section is shown
(A) 15 cm and on the opposite side of the mirror
below is constructed from two different glass
(B) 15 cm and between the mirror and the lens
isosceles wedges (each with a 30°-75°-
(C) 7.5 cm and on the opposite side of the mirror
75°cross section). The refractive indices of the
(D) 7.5 cm and between the mirror and the lens
two glasses are 1  3 and  2  2
79. One side of a glass slab is silvered as shown in respectively. A light beam is incident at an angle
the figure. A ray of light is incident on the other of 60°on face AB. The angle of emergence from
side at anlge of incidence i=45º . Refractive index the face CD is :
of glass is given as 1.5. The deviation of the ray
of light from its initial path when it comes out of
the slab is
2
(Given sin 1  28o )
3

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 (A) 0°
MOMENTUM
(B) 45° (D) ƒÝ < 2
(C) 15° (D) 30°
87. A concave spherical mirror has a focal length of
83. A ray of light is incident on system of mirror as 12 cm. if an object is placed 6 cm in front of
shown in the adjacent figure. What is the total it,the position of the image is :
deflection (d) of the ray when it emerges out (A) 4 cm behind the mirror
after two reflections ? (B) 4cm in front of the mirror
(C) 12 cm behind the mirror
(D) 12 cm in front of the mirror

88. The diagram shows total internal reflection.

Which of the following statement is not true ?

(A) 220° (B) 180°

(C) 120° (D) 140°

84. The angle of a prism is 60°. When light is incident

at an angle of 60° on the prism, the angle of
emergence is 40°. The angle of incidence i for
which the light ray will deviate the least is such (A) Angle AON is the incident angle
that : (B) AON  BON
(A) i < 40° (B) 40° < i < 50° (C) AON is the critical angle
(C) 50° < i < 60° (D) i > 60° (D) the speed of light in medium 2 is greater
than that in medium 1
85. A convex lens made of material of refractive index
1.6 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 89. Light travels from medium X to medium Y as
2.0. The two surfaces of the convex lens have shown in the adjacent figure.
the same radius of curvature 0.2 m. The lens
will behave as a :
(A) Divergent lens of focal length 0.4m
(B) Divergent lens of focal length 0.5 m.
(C) Convergent lens of focal length 0.4 m.
(D) Convergent lens of focal length 0.5 m

86. A ray of light incident paralled to the base PQ of

(A) both the speed and frequency decrease
an isosceles right-angled triangular prism PQR
(B) speed increases and frequency decreases
suffers two successive total internal reflections
(C) the speed decreases and wavelength
at the faces PQ and QR before emerging
decrease
reversed in direction as shown :
(D) the speed decreases and wavelength
If the refractive index of the material of the prism
increases
is  , then :
(A) > 5 90. A beam of yellow light travelling in vacuum
(B) 3 < ƒÝ < 5
(  = 600 nm) enters an ordinary tranparent glass
(C) 2 < ƒÝ < 5
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 MOMENTUM
(  = 1.5). Read the following statements. 94. In the following diagrams O is point object and
(i) Its wavelength becomes equal to that of red I is its image formed by a concave mirror.
colour in vacuum. Indentify the diagram in which position of image
(ii) Its wavelength becomes equal to that of green I is nearly correct.
colour in vacuum.
(ii) Energy of the photons corresponding to
refracted light is the same as that corresponding (A) (B)
to the incident light
(iv) Energy of the photons decreases.
(A) Only iii is correct
(B) Only ii & iii are correct
(C) Only i & iii are correct (C) (D)
(D) Only i & iv are correct

91. An equiconvex lens of focal length f is cut into

95. Following diagram show refraction of parallel
two equal halves which are pasted as shown in
beam of light through a spherical surface. Identify
the figure, the focal length of the new system will
the correct ray diagram :
be :

(A)

(A) f (B) (0.5)f

(C) 2f (D) Infinity
(B)
92. Focal length of a concave mirror is f. In terms of
f, the separation between an object and its
doubly magnified real image by this mirror is :
(A) 9f/2 (B) 5f/2
(C) 4f (D) 3f/2
(C)
93. Two plane mirror are kept with their reflecting
surface inclined at 100º. A mosquito flying
between the combination of these mirror finds
multiple images of itself. At a particular moment
the mosquito is very close to one of the mirrors.
How many images will be formed and how many
images can the mosquito see ?
(A) 2, 1 (B) 4, 2 (D)
(C) 3, 1 (D) 3, 2

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 MOMENTUM
96. In the diagram M1 and M2 are two plane mirrors 100. In a laboratory, a plane mirror and a student
at right angles to each other. O is a luminous move with velocities as shown in the figure. X
point object. Consider two images formed due and Y components of the velocity (in m/s) of the
to first reflection at M1 and M2. The area of the image (of the student), as seen by the student,
triangle formed by the object and two images are respectively :
is :

(A) 4 cm2 (B) 2 cm2

(C) 8 cm2 (D) 16 cm2

97. A fisher man of height h is standing on the bank (A) – 2.5(2+ 3 ), Zero (B) – 5, (5 3 - 2.5)
of a lake. A fish in the water perceives his height
(C) – 5(2+ 3 ), Zero (D)– 5(1+ 3 ), Zero
as h’. Then :
(a) h’ > h (b) h’ < h
(c) h’ = h
(d) h’ > h or h’ < h depending on position of fish

98. A point object O is kept at origin. When

[Link] mirror M1 placed at x = 6 cm, image
is formed at infinity. When M1 is replaced by
another concave mirror M2 at same position,
image is formed at x = 30 cm, then ratio of the
focal length of M1 to that of M2 is :
3 4
(A) (B)
4 3
1
(C) 5 (D)
5

99. A convex mirror of focal length f produces an

1
image of size equal to the size of the object.
n
Then the object distance is :
f
(a) nf (b)
n
(c) (n+1)f (d) (n-1)f

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 MOMENTUM
13. HEAT
1. When an object is heated, the molecules that 8. A manufacture marks the thermometer wrongly.
make up the object : At 0ºC it reads –10ºC, at 100ºC it reads 85ºC.
(A) begin to move faster Then the reading at 50ºC will be :
(B) lose energy (A) 40ºC (B) 32.5ºC
(C) become heavier (C) 37.5ºC (D) 42.5ºC
(D) becomes lighter
9. We feel most comfortable at relative humidity :
2. The most commonly used thermometric liquid is : (A) < 50% (B) 50%
(A) water (B) alcohol (C) > 50% (D) 100%
(C) mercury (D) None of these
10. 2000 J of energy is needed to heat 1 kg of
3. Absolute zero corresponds to : paraffin through 1ºC. How much energy is
(A) – 273 K (B) –273º C needed to heat 10 kg of paraffin through 2ºC ?
(C) 273º F (D) None of these (A) 4000 J (B) 10,000 J
(C) 20,000 J (D) 40,000 J
4. Iron glows in red colour when it is heated to
very high temperature because : 11. Ratio of thermal capacity of the body and its
(A) heat we supply consumes red colour at high water equivalent is :
temperature (A) equal to one (B) less than one
(B) mechanical energy is being converted into (C) more than one (D) none of these
heat energy
(C) all metals glow in red colour when heated 12. 1 kg of substance is supplied 630 kJ of energy.
(D) heat energy is being converted into light Specific heat of substance is 4200 J/kg ºC.
energy Calculate the rise in temperature of 1 kg
substance:
5. When in thermal contact, the quantity of heat (A) 40º C (B) 60ºC
lost by the hotter body is __________ the (C) 80ºC (D) 150ºC
amount of heat gained by the colder body.
(neglect loss of heat due to convection & 13. 1 kg of water at 20ºC is, mixed with 800 g of
radiation) water at 0ºC. Assuming that no heat is lost to
(A) equal to (B) greater than the surroundings, calculate the final temperature
(C) less than (D) cannot say of the mixture :
(A) 24.44º C (B) 46.67ºC
6. A temperature difference of 30ºC in the (C) 44.44ºC (D) 54.44ºC
Fahrenheit scale is :
(A) 54ºF (B) 27ºF 14. How much heat would be required to convert
(C) 86ºF (D) –54ºF 14 kg of ice at 0ºC into water of 0ºC ?
(A) 4704 J (B) 4704 kJ
7. The first thermometer was developed by : (C) 336 J (D) 336 kJ
(A) Joule (B) Fahrenheit
(C) Galileo (D) Watt 15. Calculate the quantity of heat required to convert
10 kg of ice at 0ºC to water at 50ºC. Specific
heat of water is 4200 J/kg ºC.

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 (A) 4506 kJ
MOMENTUM
(B) 3360 kJ 22.  is coefficient of real expansion of a liquid, a is
(C) 5460 J (D) 5460 kJ coefficient of apparent expansion of a liquid and
g is coefficient of cubical expansion of the
16. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J/kg container then the correct relation is :
ºC. Calculate the heat capacity of 10 kg of water (A) r = a × g (B) r = a ÷ g
per ºC: (C) r = a – g (D) r = a + g
(A) 42 J (B) 420 J
(C) 42 kJ (D) 420 kJ 23. Per ºC is unit of:
(A)  (B) 
17. Bunty mixed 440 gm of ice at 0ºC with 540 gm (C)  (D) all of these
of water at 80ºC. Then what would remain after
sometime : 24. Clock’s pendulum is made of invar because :
(A) only ice (B) only water (A) It is light in weight
(C) ice and water in same amount (B) It is easily available
(D) ice and water will vapourise (C) Its coefficient of linear expansion is low
(D) It is cheaply available
18. The superficial expansion of a metal is  and
volume expansion is , then : 25. Which of the following curve represent variation
 of density of water with temperature best :

(A)   (B)  
2 3
2 3
(C)   (D)  
3 2 (A) (B)

19. Choose the correct statement :

(A)  : : 1 : 3 : 2
(B)  : : 2 : 3 : 1
(C)  : : 3 : 1 : 1
(D)  : : 1 : 2 : 3 (C) (D)

20. With increase in temperature, the density of a

substance in general :
(A) increases (B) decreases 26. If two conducting slabs of thickness d1 and d2
(C) first increases then decreases and thermal conductivity K1 and K2 are placed
(D) first decreases then increases together face to face as shown in figure in the
steady state temperatures of outer surfaces are
21. Expansion in a substance is : 1 and 2. The temperature of common surface
(A) directly proportional to rise in the is :
temperature
(B) inversely proportional to rise in the
temperature
(C) independent of rise in temperature
(D) cannot say

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 MOMENTUM
K11d1  K 2 2 d 2 30. If heat is supplied to the system it :
(A) (A) does work only
K1d1  K 2 d 2
(B) increase the internal energy
K11  K 2 2 (C) either does work or increase the internal
(B) K1  K 2 energy or both
(D) does nothing
K11  K 2 2
(C) 1  2 31. Two rods having length 1 1 and  2 , made of
K11d 2  K 2 2 d1 materials with the linear expansion coefficient 1
(D) K1d 2  K 2 d1 and 2, were soldered together. The equivalent
coefficients of linear expansion for the obtained
rod :
27. Zeroth law of thermodynamic signifies :
(A) mass (B) heat
(C) Temperature (D) Inertia

28. The lengths and radii of two rods made of same 1 2   2 1 11   2  2
material are in the ratios 1 : 2 and 2 : 3 (A) (B)
1   2 1   2
respectively ; If the temperature difference
between the ends for the two rods be the same, 11   2  2  2 1  1 2
then in the steady state, the amount of heat (C) 1   2 (D) 1   2
flowing per second through them will be in the
ratio :
32. Two identical beakers with negligible thermal
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 4 : 3
expansion are filled with water to the same level
(C) 8 : 9 (D) 3 : 2
at 4°C. If one say A is heated while the other B
is cooled, then :
29. Five rods of same dimensions are arranged as
(A) water level in A must rise
sho wn in the fig. .They have thermal
(B) water level in B must rise
conductivities, k1, k2, k5, k4 and k3 when points
(C) water level in A must fall
A and B are maintained at different temperatures.
(D) water level in B must fall
No heat flows through the central rod if:
33. If T represent the absolute temperature of an
ideal gas, the volume coefficient of thermal
expansion at constant pressure, is :
(A) T (B) T2
(C) 1/T (D) 1/T2

34. A coolant in a chemical or nuclear plant is a liquid

that is used to prevent different parts of a plant
from getting too hot. One important property of
(A) k1 k4 = k2 k3 (B) k1 = k4 and k2 = k3 coolant is that it :
k1 k 2 (A) should have low specific heat.
(C) k  k (D) k1 k2 = k3 k4 (B) should have high specific heat.
4 3
(C) high density and low thermal conductivity.
(D) low density and high thermal conductivity.

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35.
MOMENTUM
An aluminium measuring tape which is correct or take any heat and there is no loss of matter
at 10º C measures the length of a line as 80 cm and heat to the surroundings. Specific heat of
at 50°. lf thermal coefficient of linear expansion ice is 2.2 × 103 J kg-1K-1. heat of fusion of water
of aluminium is of 2.50 x 10–5 perº C,the correct is 333 × 103 J kg–1 heat of vaporization of water
length of the line is is 2260 × 103 J kg–1. The amount of steam that
(A) 79.92 cm (B) 79.68 cm was bubbled into the water is :
(C) 80.08 cm (D) 80.32 cm (A) 34.7 gram (B) 236 gram
(C) 0.023 gram (D) 48.01 gram
36. A wire of length 1 cm and a cube of side 1 cm of
the same metal are heated through 1ºC. If the 41. The temperature of a metal coin is increased by
change in length of the wire is x cm then the 100°C and its diameter increases by 0.15%. Its
change in volume of the cube is : area increases by nearly :
(A) x3 cm3 (B) 3x cm3 (A) 0.15% (B) 0.60%
(C) x cm3 (C) 0.30% (D) 0.0225%
(D) indeterminate as data are insufficient
42. A solid cube and a solid sphere of identical
37. The quantity/ quantities that does/do not have material and equal masses are heated to the same
mass in its/their dimensions is/are : temperature and left to cool in the same
(A) specific heat (B) latent heat surroundings. Then ;
(C) electrical potential difference (A) the cube will cool faster because of its sharp
(D) electrical resistance edges.
(B) the cube will cool faster because it has a
38. The nature of the graph of pressure P against larger surface area.
reciprocal of volume V of an ideal gas at constant (C) the sphere will cool faster because it is
temperature is: smooth.
(A) a straight line not passing through origin (D) the sphere will cool faster because it has a
(B) a parabola larger surface area.
(C) a straight line passing through origin
(D) a rectangular hyperbola 43. We are able to squeeze snow and make balls
out of it because of :
39. Choose the INCORRECT statement from the (A) anomalous behaviour of water.
following. (B) large latent heat of ice.
(A) An increase in pressure results in increasing (C) large specific heat of water.
the melting point of some solids. (D) low melting point of ice.
(B) An increase in pressure results in decreasing
the melting point of some solids. 44. Ice at 0º C is put in a closed container and heat
(C) An increase in pressure results in increasing is supplied to it continuously at a uniform rate.
the boiling point of all liquids. Which of the following graphs gives the
(D) An increase in pressure results in decreasing temperature variation with time correctly ?
the boiling point of some liquids.

40. An Insulated vessel contains 0.4 kg of water at

0ºC. A piece of 0.1 kg ice at –15°C is put into it (A) (B)
and steam at 100ºC is bubbled into it until all ice
is melted and finally the contents are liquid water
at 40ºC. Assume that the vessel does not give

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 MOMENTUM
yt1 xt 2
(A) xt (B) yt
1 1

(C) (D) yt 2 xt1

(C) xt (D) yt
1 1

45. Two identical blocks of metal are at 20ºC and 49. 10 g of ice at –10ºC is added to 10g of water at
80ºC, respectively. The specific heat of the 85ºC. What is the final temperature and amount
material of the two blocks increases with of ice left in the system ?(System is kept inside
temperature. Which of the following is true about an ideal insulator )
the final temperatureTƒ when the two blocks are (A) 0°C, 0 g (B) 0°C, 2 g
brought into contact (assuming that no heat is (C) 37.5°C, 0 g (D) 37.5°C, 5 g
lost to the surroundings) ?
(A) Tƒ will be 50ºC. 50. In the Arctic region hemispherical houses called
(B) Tƒ will be more than 50ºC. Igloos are made of ice. It is possible to maintain
(C) Tƒ will be less than 50ºC. inside an Igloo as high as 20ºC because :
(D) Tƒ can be either more than or less than 50ºC (A) ice has high thermal conductivity
depending on the precise variation of the specific (B) ice has low thermal conductivity
heat with temperature. (C) ice has high specific heat
(D) ice has higher density than water
46. A new temperature scale uses X as a unit of
temperature, where the numerical value of the 51. A circular metallic ring of radius R has a small
temperature tX in this scale is related to the gap of width d. The coefficient of thermal
absolute temperature T by tX = 3T + 300. If the expansion of the metal is  in appropriate units.
specific heat of a material using this unit is 1400 If we increase the temperature of the ring by an
J kg–1 K–1 its specific heat in the S.I. system of amount T, then width of the gap:
units is : (A) will increase by an amount dT
(A) 4200 J kg–1 K–1 (B) will not change
(B) 1400 J kg–1 K–1 (C) will increase by an amount (2R – d)´T
(C) 466.7 J kg–1 K–1 (D) will decrease by an amount dT
(D) impossible to determine from the information
provided 52. If temperature of a certain mass of aluminium
having specific heat capacity of 0.8 J/g 0C is
47. The following three objects (1) a metal tray, (2) lowered by 6ºC and heat lost is 96J, then mass
a block of wood, and (3) a wooden cap are left of aluminium is :
in a closed room overnight. Next day the (A) 16g (B) 48g
temperature of each is recorded as T1 , T2 and (C) 60g (D) 20g
T3 respectively. The likely situation is :
(A) T1 = T2 = T3 (B) T3 > T2 > T1 53. An ideal gas filled in a cylinder occupies volume
(C) T3 = T2 > T1 (D) T3 > T2 = T1 V. The gas is compressed isothermally to the
48. A certain amount of heat is required to raise the volume V/3. Now the cylinder valve is opened
temperature of x gram of a substance through t1 and the gas is allowed to leak keeping
º C. The same amount of heat when taken away temperature same. What percentage of the
from y gram of water, it cools through t 2º
[Link], the specific heat of the substance is

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 MOMENTUM
number of molecules escape to bring the pressure surrounding.
in the cylinder back to its original valuye. (ii) The quantity of water in the bucket will not
(A) 66% (B) 33% change with time.
(C) 0.33% (D) 0.66% (iii) If ice is brought into the room, the ice begins to
melt and the room temperature begins to fall.
54. A 10.0 W electrical heater is used to heat a The room temperature and the temperature of
container filled with 0.5 kg of water. It is found the water in the bucket will fall jointly.
that the temperature of the water and the (iv) Two persons enter the room. Person M is
container rise by 3 K in 15 minutes. The medically normal but person N has fever with
container is then emptied, dried, and filled with body temperature 104ºF. M claims that water
2 kg of an oil. It is now observed that the same kept in a bucket is warm but N claims that water
heater raises the temperature of the container- is cool. Then the water temperature can be
oil system by 2 K in 20 minutes. Assuming no 39ºC.[ Hint : Boiling point of water at normal
other heat losses in any of the processes, the pressure is 100ºC = 212 ºF. Freezing point of
specific heat capacity of the oil is : water at normal pressure is 0 ºC = 32 ºF].
(A) 2.5 × 103 JK–1 kg–1 (A) ii, iii, and iv (B) iii and iv
(B) 5.1 × 103 JK–1 kg–1 (C) ii, iii (D) only iii
(C) 3.0 × 103 JK–1 kg–1
(D) 1.5 × 103 JK–1 kg–1 58. When an incandescent bulb is switched on and
the outer glass bulb also gets heated up. This is
55. Find the number of quanta of radiations of due to
frequency 7.55×1015 s–1 that must be absorbed (A) Convection of heat from filament of the bulb
in order to melt 6 g of ice. The approximate by the medium inside the bulb at all temperatures
energy required to melt 1g of ice is 333 J. (B) Conduction and convection of heat from
(h=6.62×10–34Js) filament to the bulb by the medium iside the bulb
(A) 0.90 × 1022 (B) 0.111 × 1020 at lower temperatures and by radiation of heat
(C) 5.38×1022 (D) 3.99 × 1020 at higher temeprature.
(C) radiation of heat form filament to the bulb at
56. For several days, the temperature at the bottom all temperatures
of a pond is 40 ºC and the air temperature just (D) Conduction of heat from filament to he bulb
above the top surface of the pond is –10 ºC. by the medium isdie the bulb at higher temperaturs
Depth of the pond is L. The Thermal conductivity and by radiation of heat at lower temperature.
of ice is 3 times that of water. Thickness of
frozen layer of the ice formed must be : 59. A thin paper cup filled with water does not catch
(A) 3L/4 (B) 4L/5 fire when placed over a flame. This is because
(C)3L/5 (D) 3L/7 (A) The water cuts off oxygen supply to the paper
cup
57. On a summer day one feels very uncomfortable (B) The paper cup does not become appreciably
sitting in a room, without an air conditioner. A hotter than the water it contain
bucket of water is kept in the middle of the room (C) Water is an excellent conductor of heat
for a long time. Room is thermally insulated from (D) Paper is a poor conductor of heat
the outside environment. Which of the following 60. An aluminum piece of mass 50g initially at 300
statement is /are correct ? °C is dipped quickly and taken out of 1kg of
(i) If one puts her / his hand in the water, she / he water, initially at 30 °C. If the temperature of
feels water in the bucket to be cooler because the aluminum piece be 160 °C, what is the
the water is at a lower temperature than the temperature of the water then (Specific heat

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 MOMENTUM
capacities of aluminum and water are 900 (A) 4 (B) 3
JKg-1K-1 and 4200Jkg-1K-1, respectively) (C) 2 (D) 1
(A) 165°C (B) 45 °C
(C) 31.5 °C (D) 28.5 °C 64. Melting point of a substance is 10°C. What does
this mean ?
61. The coefficient of linear thermal expansion of (A) The substance is a liquid at 10°C.
steel is 11×10–6/°C. The percentage change in (B) The substance is a solid at 10°C.
the length of the rod when temperature changes (C) There is an equilibrium between solid phase
by 70°C. and liquid phase at 10°C.
(A) 0.077% (B) 0.085% (D) The substance is 50% solid and 50% liquid
(C) 0.0576% (D) 0.00077% at 10°C.

62. A scientist measures the pressure (P) of a 65. An iron cylinder contains helium at a pressure of
particular mass of an ideal gas in a fixed volume 250kPa at 300K. The cylinder can with stand a
as a function of temperature (°C). The plot of pressure of 1 × 106 Pa. If the room in which the
his reading is shown in the figure below as the cylinder is placed catches fire. Predict whether
line AB. the cylinder would blow up before it melts
(melting point of cylinder is 1800 K).

66. An earthen pot was filled with 20 litres of water

at room temperature of 25°C and left closed.
After some time it was found that the temperature
of the water has dropped by 5°C while the
temperature of the surrounding and the pot
remained the same. How much is the amount of
water remaining in the pot?
He now repeats the experiment with the same
gas in the same volume, but with different mass.
Likely plot of pressure against temperature will
be :
(A) AB itself (B) CD
(C) EF (D) GH

63. Evaporation of (Sweat) water is an essential

mechanism in human beings for maintaining
normal body temperature. For human being, heat
of vaporization of water at a body temperature
of 37ºC is nearly 2.3 × 106 J/kg and specific
heat capacity is 3500 J/kg–1 K–1. On consuming
a certain prescribed diet, the body temperature
of an althlete of mass 82 kg is expected to
increase by 2ºC. In order to prevent this, he
drinks N bottles of mineral water (250 ml water
in each) at 37ºC Assume that the entire amount
of this water is given out as sweat, which
vaporizes. N is nearly :
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14. CENTRE OF MASS,RIGID BODY DYNAMICS & IMPACT OR COLLISION

(A) 0.2 kg m2 (B) 2kg m2

(C) 0.7 kg m2 (D) 7 kg m2
1. Find the angle subtended by an arc of 2m at the
centre of a circle of radius 2m : 8. Calculate the moment of inertia of a copper
(A) 1 rad (B) 2 rad sphere of diameter 20 cm about a tangent to the
(C)  rad (D) 2 rad sphere (sphere= 8.9 g cm–3) :
(A) 5.206 × 106 g cm2 (B) 2 × 106 g cm2
2. A disc rotates clockwise with a constant angular (C) 4.8 × 106 g cm2 (D) 18 × 106 g cm2
velocity at two revolutions per second. What is
the direction and magnitude of the angular 9. During inelastic collision of two particles :
velocity ? (A) (KE)final = (KE)initial
(A) 1 rad/s, inwards (B) 2 rad/s, outwards (B) (KE)final must be greater than (KE)initial
(C) 4  rad/s, inwards (D) 8 rad/s, outwards (C) (KE)final must be less than (KE)initial
(D) (KE)final may be greater or less than (KE)
3. What will be the angle covered in 4 second, in initial
above question ?
(A) 4 rad (B) 8 rad 10. Two balls collide at the same temperature, which
(C) 12 rad (D) 16 rad quantity is conserved ?
(A) Temperature (B) Velocity
4. A gridstone has a constant angular acceleration (C) Kinetic energy (D) Momentum
of 2 rad/ s2. If it starts from rest find the angular
speed of the gridstone after 2 seconds : 11. The first ball of mass m moving with a velocity u
(A) 4 rad/s (B) 2 rad/s collides head on with the second ball of mass m
(C) 1 rad/s (D) zero rad/s at rest. If the coefficient of restitution is e, then
the ratio of the velocities of the first and the
5. The handle of a door is at a distance of 1m from second ball after the collision is :
the axis of rotation. A force of 5N is applied on
the handle at an angle of 30º to the position 1 e 1 e
(A) (B)
vector of the handle. Find the torque on the door: 1 e 1 e
(A) 85 Nm (B) 90 Nm
(C) 95 Nm (D) 2.5 Nm 1 e 1 e
(C) (D)
2 2
6. A solid square plate is spun around different axes
with the same angular speed. In which of the 12. A particle of mass m moving towards the east
following choice of axis of rotation will the kinetic with speed v collides with another particle of
energy of the plate be the largest ? the same mass and same speed v moving
(A) through the central normal to the plate. towards the north. If the two particles stick to
(B) along one of the diagonals of the plate. each other, the new particle of mass 2m will have
(C) along one of the edges of the plate. a speed of :
(D) through one corner normal to the plate. (A) v (B) v/2
(C) v / 2 (D) v 2
7. Energy of 484 J is spent in increasing the speed
of a wheel from 60 rpm to 360 rpm. Find the
moment of inertia of the wheel.
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MOMENTUM
A particles of mass 5 m initially at rest explodes 17. A ball of mass m approaches a wall of mass
into three fragments with mass ratio 3 : 1 : 1. (M>> m) with speed 4 m/s along the normal to
two of the fragments each of mass m are found the wall. The speed of wall is 1 m/s towards the
to mo ve with a sp eed 60 m/s in mutually ball. The speed of the ball after an elastic collision
perpendicular directions. The velocity of third with the wall is :
fragment is : (A) 5 m/s away from the wall
(A) 60 2 ms–1 (B) 20 3 ms–1 (B) 9 m/s away from the wall
(C) 3 m/s away from the wall
(C) 10 2 ms–1 (D) 20 2 ms–1 (D) 6 m/s away from the wall
EXERCISE-2
14. A bullet of mass A and velocity B is fired into a 18. The centre of gravity of a body coincides with
block of mass C and sticks to it. The final velocity the centre of mass :
of the system equals : (A) always (B) never
B A (C) if the acceleration due to gravity is uniform
(A) B (B) B over the body
AB AC
(D) if the body has a uniform distribution of mass
AB A C
(C) A (D)
C B

15. A ball collide directly on a similar ball at rest.

The first ball is brought to rest by the impact. If
half of the kinetic energy is lost by impact, the
value of coefficient of restitution is :
1 1
(A) (B)
2 2 3
1 3
(C) (D)
2 2

16. Two masses mA and mB moving with velocities

vA and vB in opposite directions collide elastically.
After that the masses mA and mB move with
velocities vB and vA respectively. The ratio of
mA/mB is :
VA
(A) 1 : 1 (B) V
B

VA  VB VA  VB
(C) VA (D) VA

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