07-03-2026

1103CMD303021260024 MS

PHYSICS

1) Gases exert pressure on the walls of the container because the gas molecules

(A) have finite volume

(B) obey Boyle's law
(C) possess momentum
(D) collide with one another

2) Find the ratio of de Broglie wavelength of molecules of hydrogen and helium which are at
temperatures 27°C and 127°C respectively.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3) At what temperature, rms speed of air molecules is doubled of that at 0oC?

(A) 819oC
(B) 719oC
(C) 909oC
(D) None of these

4) To what temperature should the hydrogen at 327oC be cooled at constant pressure, so that the
root mean square velocity of its molecules becomes half of its previous value?

(A) -123oC
(B) 123oC
(C) - 100oC
(D) 0oC

5) The P-V diagram of a gas system undergoing cyclic process is shown here. The work done during
isobaric compression is :

(A) 100 J
(B) 200 J
(C) 400 J
(D) 500 J

6) Which one of the following is not an assumption in the kinetic theory of gases?

(A) The volume occupied by the molecules of the gas is negligible

(B) The force of attraction between the molecules is negligible
(C) The collision between molecules are elastic
(D) All molecules have same speed

7) The emission spectrum of a black body at two different temperatures are shown by curves P and
Q (as shown in figure). The ratio of the areas under the two curves P and Q will be

(A) 1 : 16
(B) 4 : 9
(C) 81 : 256
(D) 16 : 81

8) The isothermal Bulk modulus of an ideal gas at pressure P is :–

(A) P
(B)

(C)

(D)

9) In the given graph the isothermal curves are :–

(A) AB and CD
(B) AB and AD
(C) AD and BC
(D) BC and CD

10) In an adiabatic change, the pressure and temperature of a monoatomic gas are related as .
What is the value of c?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

11) “Heat cannot by itself flow from a body at lower temperature to a body at higher temperature” is
a statement or consequence of:

(A) Second law of thermodynamics

(B) Conservation of momentum
(C) Conservation of a mass
(D) First law of thermodynamics

12) If the heat of 110 J is added to a gaseous system whose internal energy is 40J. Then the amount
of external work done is

(A) 140 J
(B) 70 J
(C) 110 J
(D) 150 J

13) A monoatomic gas is suddenly compressed to of its original volume adiabatically,

then the
pressure of the gas will change to:–

(A)

(B) 8
(C)

(D) 32 times its initial pressure

14) Which of the following gives the value of magnetic field due to a small current element according
to Biot-Savart's law?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

15) A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries a current of A.
What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre of the coil :

(A) 1 gauss
(B) 2 gauss
(C) 3 gauss
(D) 4 gauss

16) Magnetic field at a distance r from an infinitely long straight conductor carrying steady current
varies as

(A) 1/r2
(B) 1/r
(C) 1/r3
(D)

17) A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field in a circular path of radius R, when
kinetic energy of the particle is doubled, then the new radius is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D) 2R

18) Two thick wires and two thin wires, all of the same materials and same length form a square in
the three different ways P, Q and R as shown in fig with current connection shown, the magnetic
field at the centre of the square is zero in cases
(A) in P only
(B) in P and Q only
(C) in Q and R only
(D) P and R only

19) A charge q moves with velocity v through electric field E as well as magnetic field B. Then, the
force acting on it is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

20) Radius of the current carrying coil is R. If magnetic field at any point on the axis of the coil is

then find out axial distance of this point :-

[where B0 = magnetic field at center of coil]

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) R

21) The relation connecting B, H and I in SI system is

(A) B = H + I
(B) B = H - I
(C)
(D)

22) An iron rod is placed parallel to magnetic field of intensity 2000 A/m. The magnetic flux through
the rod is Wb and its cross-sectional area is 3 cm2. The magnetic permiability of the rod

(A) 10-1
(B) 10-2
(C) 10-4
(D) 10-3

23) Flux ϕ (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 10 ohm varies with time t (in sec) according to
the equation . What is the magnitude of the induced current at t = 0.25 s ?
(A) 1.2 A
(B) 0.8 A
(C) 0.6 S
(D) 0.2 A

24) If a particle of charge 10–12 C moving along the X-direction with a velocity of 105 m/s experiences
a force of 10–10 N in negative Y-direction due to a magnetic field, then the minimum value of
magnetic field is

(A) 6.25 × 103 T in Z-direction

(B) 10–15 T in Z-direction
(C) 6.25 × 10–3 T in Z-direction
(D) 10–3 T in Z-direction

25) A square loop of side 22 cm is changed to a circle in time 0.4 s. The magnetic field present is 0.2
T.
The emf induced is :–

(A) –6.6 mV
(B) –13.2 mV
(C) +6.6 mV
(D) +13.2 mV

26) Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has

(A) high susceptibility and low retentivity

(B) low susceptibility and high retentivity
(C) low susceptibility and low retentivity
(D) high susceptibility and high retentivity

27) The angle made by orbital angular momentum of electron with the direction of the orbital
magnetic moment is

(A) 120o
(B) 60o
(C) 180o
(D) 90o

28) In an A.C. circuit inductance, capacitance and resistance are connected. If the effective voltage
across inductance is VL, across capacitance is Vc and across resistance is VR, then the total effective
value of valtage is :

(A) VR + VL + Vc
(B) VR + VL - Vc

(C)
(D)

29)

A current i ampere flows in a circular arc of wire whose radius is R, which subtend an
angle radian at its centre. The magnetic induction B at the centre is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

30) A capacitor of capacity C and reactance X if capacitance and frequency become double then
reactance will be : -

(A) 4x

(B)

(C)

(D) 2X

31) Current 'I' is flowing in a conductor shaped as shown in the figure. The radius of the curves part
is r and the length of straight portion is very large. The value of the magnetic field at the centre O

will be :-

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

32) The ratio of intensity of magnetisation and magnetising field is called

(A) permeability
(B) magnetic induction
(C) magnetic intensity
(D) magnetic susceptibility

33) For a paramagnetic material, the dependence of the magnetic susceptibility on the
absolute temperature T is given by

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

34) The flux linked with a coil at any instant 't' is given by The induced emf at t
= 3s is:-

(A) 190 V
(B) - 190 V
(C) - 10 V
(D) 10 V

35) in a certain region of space, electric field and magnetic field are perpendicular to each
other and an electron enters in the region perpendicular to the direction of and both and
moves undeflected, then velocity of electron is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

36) An inductance coil have the time constant 4 sec, if it is cut into two equal parts and connected
parallel then new time constant of the circuit :-

(A) 4 sec
(B) 2 sec
(C) 1 sec
(D) 0.5 sec

37) At curie point, a ferro magnetic material becomes:-

(A) Non magnetic

(B) Diamagnetic
(C) Paramagnetic
(D) Strongly ferromagnetic

38) A solenoid of 10 henry inductance and 2 ohm resistance , is connected to a 10 volt battery . In
how much time the magnetic energy will reach to 1/4th of the maximum value?

(A) 3.5 sec

(B) 2.5 sec
(C) 5.5 sec
(D) 7.5 sec

39) In a series resonant L-C-R circuit, the power factor is

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 0.3
(D) 1.5

40) A material rod, when placed in a strong magnetic field, aligns itself at right angles to the
magnetic field. The nature of material is :-

(A) Diamagnetic
(B) Paramagnetic
(C) Ferromagnetic
(D) Low ferromagnetic

41) The power radiated by a perfect blackbody depends only on its

(A) material
(B) nature of surface
(C) colour
(D) temperature

42) A gas in a closed container is heated with 10J of energy, causing the lid of the container to rise
2m with 3N of force. What is the total change in energy of the system?

(A) 10 J
(B) 4 J
(C) – 10 J
(D) – 4 J

43) A complex current wave is given by

i = 5 + 5 sin (100 ωt) A. Its average value over one time period is given as :-

(A) 10 A
(B) 5 A
(C) A
(D) 0

44) Two long parallel wires kept 2 m apart carry 3A current each, in the same direction. The force
per unit length on one wire due to the other is

(A) , attractive
(B) repulsive
(C) , repulsive
(D) attractive

45) In the following graph of flux density versus magnetizing force coercivity and retentivity are
respectively represented by the points

(A) c, b
(B) a, o
(C) d, c
(D) f, e

46) If effective current in the given circuit is 2A, then what is the impedance of the circuit ?

(A) 100 Ω
(B) 50 Ω
(C) 75 Ω
(D) 150 Ω

47) An inductor coil of inductance L is divided into two parts and both parts are connected in
parallel. The net inductance is

(A) L
(B) 2L

(C)

(D)

48) If current of 4 A produces magnetic flux of 3 × 10–3 Wb through a coil of 400 turns, the energy
stored in the coil will be

(A) 1.2 J
(B) 2.4 J
(C) 24 J
(D) 240 J

49) An alternating voltage is connected to a capacitor through an a.c.

ammeter. The reading of the ammeter shall be

(A) 10 mA
(B) 20 mA
(C) 40 mA
(D) 80 mA

50) If the root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecule at a given temperature and pressure is 2
km/s, the root mean square velocity of oxygen at the same condition in km/s is :

(A) 2.0
(B) 0.5
(C) 1.5
(D) 1.0

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following statements is incorrect for anode rays?

(A) They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.

(B) Their e/m ratio depends on the gas in the discharge tube used to produce the anode rays.
(C) The e/m ratio of anode rays is constant.
(D) They are produced by the ionisation of the gas in the discharge tube.
2) Rutherford’s α – particle scattering experiments led to the conclusion that

(A) mass and energy are related together

(B) the mass and the positive charge of an atom are concentrated in the nucleus
(C) neutrons are present in the nucleus
(D) atoms are electrically neutral

3) Select iso electronic set :-

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

(A) a, b, d
(B) b, c, d
(C) a, b, c
(D) a, b, c, d

4) Bohr’s theory is not applicable to

(A) He
(B) Li+2
(C) He+
(D) H atom

5) Which of the following equation relates temperature of a reaction with ΔH° and ΔS° at equilibrium
?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6) In the complete combustion of butanol at 25oC of is enthalpy of combustion at

constant pressure and is the heat of combustion at constant volume, then

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

7) For which one of the following equations is equal to for the product

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

8) The increase in internal energy of the system is 100 J when 300 J of heat is supplied to it. What is
the amount of work done?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

9) The heat of neutralization will be highest in:

(A) NH4OH and CH3COOH

(B) NH4OH and HCl
(C) KOH and CH3COOH
(D) KOH and HCl

10) In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible when:

(A) The surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system

(B) There is no boundary between system and surroundings
(C) The surroundings and system change into each other
(D) The system changes into the surroundings spontaneously

11) Which among the following reactions exhibits ΔH = ΔU ?

(A) H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(g)

(B) 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)
(C) PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + + Cl2(g)
(D) C(s) + 2H2O(s) → 2H2(g) + + CO2(g)

12) For the reaction,

C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O( )
at constant temperature, ΔH – ΔU is

(A) –2RT
(B) RT
(C) –3RT
(D) 3RT

13) Calculate amount of methane formed by liberation of 149.6kJ of heat using following equation.

(A) 16g
(B) 24g
(C) 32g
(D) 48g

14) If bond formation energy of H-H bond is find the bond dissociation energy for 0.5
mole .

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

15) Find the value of Q from following equations.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(A) –(x + y) kJ
(B) (x – y) kJ

(C)

(D)

16) Calculate the enthalpy change when 12 g carbon react with sufficient hydrogen to form
methane. If enthalpy of formation of methane is –75 kJ mol–1.

(A) –45 kJ
(B) –60 kJ
(C) –75 kJ
(D) –90 kJ

17) NICAD storage cell is made up of _______ electrodes.

(A) Nickel
(B) Mercury
(C) Cadmium
(D) Nickel- Cadmium

18) Which of the following expressions represent molar conductivity of Al2(SO4)3?

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

19) What is the conductivity of 0.05 M KCl solution if cell constant is 1.32 cm–1 and resistance is 528
ohm?

(A) 0.0401 ohm–1 cm–1

(B) 0.0051 ohm–1 cm–1
(C) 0.0025 ohm–1 cm–1
(D) 0.0691 ohm–1 cm–1

20) Which of the following substances conducts electricity?

(A) Diamond
(B) Sulphur (solid)
(C) Molten NaCl
(D) Crystalline NaCl

21) Electrolytes when dissolved in water dissociate into ions because:

(A) They are unstable.

(B) The water dissolves it.
(C) The force of repulsion increases.
(D) The force of electrostatic attraction is broken down by water.

22) The function of a salt bridge is to:

(A) Maintain electrical neutrality of both half cells

(B) Increase the cell potential at the positive electrode
(C) Decrease the cell potential at the negative electrode
(D) Eliminate the impurities present in the electrolyte

23) While charging the lead storage battery

(A) PbSO4 anode is reduced to Pb.

(B) PbSO4 Cathode is reduced to Pb.
(C) PbSO4 cathode is oxidised to Pb.
(D) PbSO4 anode is oxidised to PbO2.

24) 3 Faraday of charge is passed through molten Al2O3, aqueous solution of CuSO4 and molten NaCl
taken in three different electrolytic cells. The amount of Al, Cu and Na deposited at the cathodes will
be in the ratio of :

(A) 1 mole : 2 mole : 3 mole

(B) 3 mole : 2 mole : 1 mole
(C) 1 mole : 1.5 mole : 3 mole
(D) 1.5 mole : 2 mole : 3 mole

25) wg of copper is deposited in a copper voltameter when an electric current of 2 ampere is passed
for 2 hours. If one ampere of electric current is passed for 4 hours in the same voltameter, copper
deposited will be : -

(A) w
(B) w/2
(C) w/4
(D) 2w

26) A solution of aluminium chloride is electrolysed for 30 minutes using a current of 2A. The
amount of the aluminium deposited at the cathode is ___ .
[Given : molar mass of aluminium and chlorine are 27 g mol–1 and 35.5 g mol–1 respectively, Faraday
constant = 96500 C mol–1].

(A) 1.660 g
(B) 1.007 g
(C) 0.336 g
(D) 0.441 g

27) Consider the cell Al |Al3+ (1M) || Sn2+ (1M) |Sn, for the above
cell is _____.

(A) – 882 kJ
(B) – 441 kJ
(C) – 147 kJ
(D) – 588 kJ

28) The standard oxidation potential of Zn and Ag in water at 20°C are –

Zn(s) = Zn2+ (aq.) + 2e– E° = 0.76 V
+ –
Ag(s) —→ Ag (aq) + e E° = 0.80
Which one of; the following reactions actually takes place –

(A) Zn(s) + 2Ag+(aq.) —→ Zn2+(aq.) + 2Ag(s)

(B) Zn2+ (aq.) + 2Ag(s) —→ 2Ag+(aq.) + Zn(s)
(C) Zn(s) + Ag(s) —→ Zn2+(aq.) + Ag+(aq).
(D) Zn2+(aq.) + Ag+(aq.) —→Zn(s) + Ag(s)

29) Reagent for the following conversion is?

(A) LiAlH4
(B) NaBH4
(C) H2/Pd
(D) All A, B & C

30) Boiling point of which of the following alcohol is maximum?

(A) Ethanol
(B) Propanol
(C) n-Butanol
(D) Isobutanol

31) Which of the following alcohol is highly soluble in H2O?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

32) A and B (respectively)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

33) Lucas reagent is :

(A) Conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2

(B) Conc. HCl and hydrous ZnCl2
(C) Conc. HNO3 and hydrous ZnCl2
(D) Conc. HNO3 and anhydrous ZnCl2
34) Isopropyl alcohol is heated at 300°C in presence of Cu catalyst to give :

(A) Acetone
(B) Dimethyl ether
(C) Acetaldehyde
(D) Ethane

35) Which of the following on reaction with Grignards reagent followed by hydrolysis forms
secondary alcohol?

(A) HCHO
(B)
(C)
(D)

36) Identify compound Q in following reaction.

R – OH + Q—→R – Cl + HCl + POCl3

(A) HCl
(B) PCl3
(C) PCl5
(D) SOCl2

37) Select schemes A, B, C out of

(I) Acid catalysed hydration

(II) HBO
(III) Oxymercuration-demercuration

(A) I in all cases

(B) I, II, III
(C) II, III, I
(D) III, I, II

38) Formation of diethyl ether from ethanol is based on a

(A) dehydration reaction

(B) dehydrogenation reaction
(C) hydrogenation reaction
(D) heterolytic fission reaction

39) Identify the product of following reaction

(A) Benzene
(B) Benzoic acid
(C) Benzaldehyde
(D) p-benzoquinone

40) Which among the following is the method for the preparation of ethers ?

(A) By the action of moist Ag2O on alkyl halide.

(B) By the action of [Link] on alkyl halide.
(C) By the action of [Link] hydroxide on alkyl halide.
(D) By the action of sodium alkoxide on alkyl halide.

41) Nylon are _______ fibres.

(A) semisynthetic
(B) polyamide
(C) polyester
(D) cellulose

42) - Caprolactum ______ has carbon atoms in its ring.

(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 8

43) Select the CORRECT match for both the polymers.

(A) Polythene : Homopolymer ; Buna-S : Copolymer

(B) Polythene : Copolymer ; Buna-S : Copolymer
(C) Polythene : Homopolymer ; Buna-S : Homopolymer
(D) Polythene : Copolymer ; Buna-S : Copolymer

44) Bakelite, the oldest synthetic polymer, is obtained from the reaction of:

(A) Phenol and formaldehyde

(B) Melamine and formaldehyde
(C) Cellulose and conc. NaOH
(D) Phenol and butadiene

45) Which one of the following is diamagnetic?

(A) Cr2+
(B) Fe3+
(C) Cu2+
(D) Sc3+

0 0
46) Which of the following have d S configuration

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) All of the above

47) What is the calculated value of spin only magnetic moment in terms of BM if only one unpaired
electron is present in a species?

(A) 2.76
(B) 2.84
(C) 2.2
(D) 1.73

48) Which among the following properties of lanthanoids is NOT true ?

(A) Good conductors of heat and electricity

(B) All are non-radioactive elements
(C) Have greater co-ordination number than six
(D) Strongly paramagnetic

49) Which from following is a non-ferrous alloy?

(A) Nickel steel

(B) Chromium steel
(C) Stainless steel
(D) Brass

50) Zn and Cd do not show variable valency because

(A) They are soft.

(B) Their d subshells are complete.
(C) They have only 2-electrons in outer must subshells.
(D) Their d subshells are incomplete.

BIOLOGY

1) If a cell following mitotic cell division, only one daughter cell continues to divide while other
differentiates and matures. Then this type of growth is and it is :-
(A) Arithmetic growth, constant linear growth.
(B) Geometric growth, constant linear growth
(C) Arithmetic growth, Exponential growth
(D) Geometric growth, Exponential growth

2) Choose the correct option for A,B,C or D:

(A) A– Primary growth

(B) B – Secondary growth
(C) C – Lateral growth
(D) D – Terminal

3) Assertion A: In a flowering plant, the vegetative phase precedes the flowering phase. Reason R:
The structure and function of plant cells, tissues, and organs are interrelated and determine the
orderly sequence of growth and development.

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

4) Growth of pollen tube is measured in terms of :-

(A) Weight
(B) Width
(C) Volume
(D) Length

5) Which one is correct expression of exponential growth :-

t
(A) w1 = w0er

(B) w1 =
rt
(C) w1 = w0e
rt
(D) w0 = w1 e
6)

Find the correct one with respect to above diagram :-

(A) Absolute growth rate in leaf A & leaf B is different

(B) Relative growth rate in leaf B is more than leaf A
(C) Despite 100% relative growth rate in leaf A, leaf B is large in size than leaf A
(D) Relative growth rate in leaf A and leaf B is equal.

7) During seed germination its food mobilized by :-

(A) Ethylene
(B) GA
(C) ABA
(D) Auxin

8) Which one of the following options given correct categorisation of three hormones.

A = Auxin B = GA C = ABA

(1) Human urine Foolish seeding disease Prevention of Abscisision

(2) Rooting hormone Bolting hormone Stress hormone

(3) Induce flowering Inhibition of α-amylase Flowering in LDP

(4) Yabuta F.W. went Addicott et al

(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)

9) Flowering in pineapple and apical dominance is exhibited by :-

(A) Ethylene
(B) Gibberellin
(C) Auxin
(D) ABA

10) Which of the following plant growth regulator increases the length of sugarcan-crop :-
(A) Indole-3-acetic acid
(B) 6-furfuryl amino purine (N6)
(C) Gibberellic acid (terpene derivative)
(D) Abscisic acid (Carotene derivatine)

11) Which of the following hormones was discovered from autoclaved hering sperm DNA?

(A) Auxin
(B) Gibberellin
(C) Ethylene
(D) Cytokinin

12)

Match the following :-

List-I List-II

A Auxin i Ripening and maturity of fruits

B Gibberellin ii Differentiation of xylem elements

C Cytokinin iii Speed up malting process

D Ethylene iv Overcome the apical dominance

A B C D
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)

13) Which plant is LDP ?

(A) Tobacco
(B) Glycine max.
(C) Xanthium
(D) Spinach

14)

How many statements are correct about the given figure ?

(a) Water potential of chamber-A is positive while that of B is negative
(b) Chamber A has higher solute potential than B
(c) Osmosis occurs from A to B

(d) DPD of A is less than B

(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) One

15) Phloem sap is consist of :-

(A) Water and sucrose only

(B) Water, sucrose, hormone and amino acid
(C) Sucrose and amino acid only
(D) Water, glucose and amino acid

16) Which one of the following is an incorrect statement ?

(A) Xylem transports only inorganic nutrients and phloem transports only organic materials
(B) The direction of movement in the phloem can be upward or downward
(C) Pressure potential (ψp) of flaccid cell is zero.
Transport proteins of root endodermal cells are not only adjust the quantity but also the type of
(D)
solute that reach the xylem.

17) The immediate cause of the opening of the stomata is :-

(A) increase in TP of guard cells

(B) decrease in TP of guard cells
(C) increase in TP of subsidiary cells
(D) endosmosis in subsidiary cells

18) Guard cells are considered as modified epidermal cells in the respect of :-
(i) Elastic inner wall
(ii) Possess chloroplast
(iii) Radially arranged microfibrils in cell wall
(iv) Differential thickning of walls
(v) Lack of nucleus
(vi) Non-living
Select correct option :-
(A) i, ii, iii
(B) ii, iii, vi
(C) i, ii, iii, iv
(D) All of these

19) Which one is Responsible for guttation ?

(A) Transpiration pull

(B) Root pressure
(C) Diffusion
(D) Both (1) and (2)

20) Guttation :-

(A) takes place during night when root pressure is positive

(B) takes place during night when root pressure is negative
(C) Always take place
(D) takes place during night when transpiraton is high

21) The continuity of water column in xylem is maintained due to :-

(A) Presence of air bubbles

(B) Cohesive property of water
(C) Evaporation power of water
(D) None of the above

22) Dixon and Jolly are associated with :-

(A) Light reaction and photosynthesis

(B) An aerobic respiration
(C) Cohesion and transpiration pull theory of ascent of sap
(D) Apical dominance

23)

Hydathodes help in

(A) Bleeding
(B) Guttation
(C) Protection against grazing
(D) More than one option is correct

24) Cohesion, Adhesion & surface tension physical properties of water, provide which of the
following properties (Characteristics) in water column ?

(A) Transpiration pull & Tensile strength

(B) Tensile strength and capillarity
(C) Capillarity & tranpiration pull
(D) All the above

25) What per cent of water reaching them is used by leaves in photosynthesis?

(A) Less than 1%

(B) About 5 %
(C) About 5 % in warm conditions and about 10 % in cold conditions
(D) About 50 %

26) Semi dwarf rice varieties which were developed in India, are :-

(A) IR-8, Ratna

(B) IR-36, IR-8
(C) Ratna, Jaya
(D) Sonalika, Kalyan Sona

27) Pusa swarnim variety of Brassica is resistant to_______ disease :-

(A) Bacteria blight

(B) Black rot
(C) White rust
(D) Hill bunt

28) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Atlas 66 (i) Mustard

(b) Pusa gaurav (ii) Flat bean

(c) Pusa sawani (iii) Wheat

(d) Pusa sem 3 (iv) Bhindi

(A) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(ii)
(B) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(C) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(D) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

29) Breeding of crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier
fats is called:-

(A) Bioprospecting
(B) Mineral Enrichment
(C) Bioconservation
(D) Biofortification
30) IARI has developed iron and calcium enrichment

(A) Spinach and bathua

(B) Pumpkin and carrot
(C) Tomato and mustard
(D) French and garden pea

31) The entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop
is called:-

(A) Herbarium
(B) Selection of superior recombinant
(C) Gene library
(D) Germplasm collection

32) The new varieties of plants are produced by mainly in classical plant breeding–

(A) Introduction and mutation

(B) Selection and introduction
(C) Selection and hybridization
(D) Mutation and slection

33)

Pusa Himgiri is variety of–

(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Chilly
(D) Mustard

34)

An undifferentiated mass of cell is obtained by culturing called:-

(A) Callus
(B) Explant
(C) Embryo
(D) Plantlet

35) Sonalika is a variety of

(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Maize
(D) Pea
36) Pomato is an example of -

(A) Somatic hybrid

(B) Somatic embryo
(C) Androgenic haploid
(D) SCP

37) Which variety of Bhindi is resistance to shoot and fruit borer ?

(A) Pusa Gaurav

(B) Pusa Sem 2
(C) Pusa Komal
(D) Pusa Sawani

38) Production of thousands of plants through tissue culture method is called -

(A) Macropropagation
(B) Micropropagation
(C) Somatic embryo
(D) Totipotency

39) "Atlas 66" is high protein contain variety of

(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Rice
(D) Bhindi

40) Which character of maize leads to resistance to maize stem borers naturally ?

(A) High Aspentic acid

(B) Low nitrogen content
(C) Low sugar content
(D) All of the above

41)

Match the following columns :-

Column I Column II
(Products) (Produced by)

A Citric Acid i Streptococcus

Propionibacterium
B Streptokinase ii
sharmanii

Saccharomyces
C Swiss cheese iii
cerevisiae
 D Ethanol iv Aspergillus niger
Option
A B C D

(1) iv iii ii i

(2) iv i ii iii

(3) i ii iii iv

(4) ii i iv iii
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)

42) How many alcoholic drinks of following are formed by distillation :-

(A) Wine (B) Beer (C) Whisky
(D) Brandy (E) Rum

(A) Only one

(B) Only three
(C) Only four
(D) All five types

43) Given below is the flowchart of sewage treatment. Identify A, B, C and D, and select the correct
option :-

(A) A- Primary effluent, B-Increased BOD, C-Activated sludge, D-Aerobic sludge digesters
(B) A-Primary effluent, B-Reduced BOD, C-Activated sludge, D-Anaerobic sludge digester
(C) A-Microbial digestion, B-Activated sludge, C-Reduced BOD, D-Anaerobic sludge digester
(D) A-Microbial digestion, B-Primary effluent, C-Reduced BOD, D-Aerobic sludge digester

44) Microorganism used in production of yoghurt are:-

(A) Zymomonas mobilis

(B) Streptococcus thermophilis + Lactobacillus bulgaricus
(C) Streptococcus lactis + Lacrobacillus bulgaricus
(D) Streptococcus thermophilis + lactobacillus lactis

45) Match the column :-

Column I Column II
Method of reproduction Importance
A Inbreeding i Increase herd size in short time
B Outcrossing ii Increases homozygosity
To overcome
C Cross breeding iii
inbreeding depression
To combine desirable characters of two
D MOET iv
different breeds
(A) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
(B) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i
(C) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
(D) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv

46) Which of the following is produced by cross-breeding ?

(A) Karanfries
(B) Sunandani
(C) Hisardale
(D) All the above

47) Identify the organism (a), (b) and (c) in the life cycle of honey bee shown below:-

(A) a = Queen, b = Drone, c = worker

(B) a = Drone, b = worker, c = Queen
(C) a = worker, b = Drone, c = Queen
(D) a = Queen, b = worker, c = Drone

48) Find out the correct match from the following table-
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) only (iii)

49) How many fishes in the list given below are Fresh water ?
Catla, Pomfret, Hilsa, Rohu, Mackerel, Sardine.

(A) Six
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) Five

50) Lac is resinous secretion of dermal glands, which secrete by :

(A) Laccifer
(B) Apis mellifera
(C) Bombyx mori
(D) Amphids

51) First line of defence of body is :-

(A) Skin and Mucous membrane

(B) Neutrophils and Monocytes
(C) Fever
(D) Interferon

52) Immune system retains the memory of which response in vaccination process :-

(A) Passive immunization response

(B) Primary immune response
(C) Secondary immune response
(D) All the above

53) Bean shaped large organ has the lymphocytes and phagocytes and is the reservoir for
erythrocytes. The organ is :-

(A) Thymus
(B) Spleen
(C) Liver
(D) Tonsil

54) Which provide micro-environment for the development and maturation of B-lymphocytes?

(A) Bone-marrow
(B) Spleen
(C) Thymus
(D) Both (A) and (C)

55) Identify the A, B, C, D in the following life cycle.

Options :-

A B C D

Salivary
(1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites
gland

Salivary
(2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

(4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte Salivary gland

(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

56) Widal test is used to diagnose the disorder :-

(A) Tuberculosis
(B) Dengue
(C) Cholera
(D) Typhoid

57) Match the column-I with column-II and choose correct option :-

column-I column-II

A. Bacteria (i) [Link]

B. Viruses (ii) Microsporum

C. Fungi (iii) S. typhi

D. Protozoan (iv) H.I.V.

E. Helminthes (v) Ascaris lumbricoids

(A) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
(B) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i, E-v
(C) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i
(D) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii, E-v

58) Genetic material of HIV is

(A) ds RNA
(B) ss RNA
(C) ds DNA
(D) ss DNA

59) Swelling of hands, scrotum, genital organs and breast is present in which disorder :-

(A) Filariasis
(B) Ascariasis
(C) Typhoid
(D) Tuberculosis

60) How many of the below are correct about given diagram :-
(a) Gives cell mediated immunity
(b) T-cells themselves do not secrete but help
B-cell to produce them.
(c) Disulphide bond present
(d) H2L2 molecule
(e) Glyco protein molecule
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

61) Which property of acquired immunity is the basis of concept of vaccination ?

(A) Specificity
(B) Diversity
(C) Discrumination b/w self & non-self
(D) Memory

62) Cocaine is commonly called as :

(A) Smack
(B) Erythroxylum coca
(C) Crack
(D) Heroin

63) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with itching on various parts of the body are the symptoms of
______.

(A) Elephantiasis
(B) Ringworm
(C) Ascariasis
(D) Amoebiasis

64) The antibody which can cross placental barrier is:-

(A) IgA
(B) IgE
(C) IgM
(D) IgG

65) Study of interaction of antigen an antibody in blood is :-

(A) Agglutination
(B) Haematology
(C) Serology
(D) Neutralisation

66)

Ecological niche of an organism is:-

(A) It's capacity to reproduce maximum

(B) It's functional position in an ecosystem
(C) Physical area covered by the organism
(D) Capacity to perform camouflage

67) Basic unit of ecological hierarchy :-

(A) Population
(B) Ecosphere
(C) Organism
(D) Community

68) Arrange the correct sequence of ecological hierarchy

(A) Organism – Community- Population - Ecosystem -Biome -Biosphere

(B) Organism -Population -community -Ecosystem – Biosphere- Biome
(C) Organism -Population - community -Ecosystem - Biome -Biosphere
(D) Organism -Population - community – Biome-Ecosystem - Biosphere

69) Basic unit of ecological study

(A) Community
(B) Population
(C) Organism
(D) Species

70) Which of the following are correct matching pairs?

Species Species Name of the

[Link].
X Y interaction

(i) – 0 (A) Mutualism

(ii) + – (B) Competition

(iii) + 0 (C) Parasitism

(iv) + + (D) Commensalism

(v) – – (E) Ammensalism

(A) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-iv, E-ii
(B) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-ii, E-iv
(C) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-i, E-iii
(D) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-iii, E-i

71) Which of the following is a conduit for energy transfer across trophic levels ?

(A) Mutualism
(B) Parasitism
(C) Predation
(D) Proto cooperation

72) Thromboplastin required for blood clotting at the place of injury is released by :-

(A) Blood platelets

(B) Eosinophils
(C) Neutrophils
(D) Lymphocytes

73) Systemic circulation includes which two chambers of a mammalian heart ?

(A) Left atria and left ventricle

(B) Right atria and right ventricle
(C) Right ventricle and left atria
(D) Right atria and left ventricle

74) Which of the following cations is required for the conversion of prothrombin into active thrombin
by thromboplastin?

(A) Cu2+
(B) Fe3+
(C) Fe2+
(D) Ca2+

75) Circulatory system in origin is :-

(A) Ectodermal
(B) Endodermal
(C) 1 and 2 both
(D) Mesodermal

76)

Column-I Column-II

(a) Fishes (1) Single circulation

(b) Amphibians (2) Incomplete double circulation

(c) Reptiles (3) Double circulation

(d) Birds

(e) Mammals
(A) a–1, b–1, c–2, d–2, e–3
(B) a–1, b–1, c–2, d–3, e–3
(C) a–1, b–2, c–2, d–3, e–3
(D) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–2, e–2
77) The main difference in the structure of arteries and veins is in :-

(A) Tunica interna, made up of simple squamous epithelium.

(B) Tunica media.
(C) Tunica externa.
(D) Tunica adventitia.

78) The fluid present in lymphatic system is called

(A) Plasma
(B) Blood
(C) Lymph
(D) Blood with RBCs

79) "Bundle of His" are :

(A) nervous tissue supplied to ventricles

(B) nervous tissue supplied to heart
(C) muscular tissue supplied to ventricles
(D) muscular tissue supplied to heart

80) By counting the number of QRS complexes in ECG, in a given period of time, one can determine
_______

(A) Blood pressure

(B) Blood typing
(C) Rate of heart beat
(D) Rate of infection

81) The correct route through which cardiac-impulse travels in the heart is :-

(A) SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → AV node

(B) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres
(C) AV node → Bundle of His → SA node → Purkinje fibres
(D) AV node → SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His

82) Which part of the human brain controls the breathing movements ?

(A) Cerebrum
(B) Cerebellum
(C) Diencephalon
(D) Medulla oblongata

83) Which is the correct sequence of the air passage in man?

(A) Nasal chamber → Pharynx → Trachea → Larynx → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

(B) Nasal chamber → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli
(C) Nasal chamber → Larynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli
(D) Nasal chamber → Larynx → Bronchi → Pharynx → Trachea → Bronchioles → Alveoli

84) Emphysema developes mainly because of :-

(A) Allergy or hypersensitization

(B) Spasm of the smooth muscles of bronchioles
(C) Cigarette smoking
(D) Inflammation of the alveoli

85) Chloride shift occurs in response to :-

(A) K+
(B) Na+
(C) H+
(D)

86) In which of the following the partial pressure of O2 is 95 mm of Hg.

(A) Pulmonary vein and systemic arteries

(B) Pulmonary artery and systemic veins
(C) Pulmonary vein and systemic veins
(D) Pulmonary artery and systemic arteries

87) A relationship between algae & fungi is an example of:

(A) Commensalism
(B) Protocooperation
(C) Mutualism
(D) Parasitism

88) Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

(A) Foetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an example for passive immunity.
When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies are produced in the host's body. It is called
(B)
"Active immunity".
(C) When ready-made antobodies are directly given, it is called "Passive immunity".
(D) Active immunity is quick and gives full response.

89) The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is :

(A) Male gametocytes

(B) Trophozoites
(C) Sporozoites
(D) Female gametocytes
90) The rejection of organ transplanting in humans is prevented by using

(A) Aspirin
(B) cyclosporin A
(C) calcitonin
(D) thrombin

91) Name the factors which do not allow pathogens to enter the body

(A) Physiological barrier

(B) Anatomical barrier
(C) Inflammatory barrier
(D) all of these

92) Lymphocytes that inhibit the development and proliferation of T and B cell are

(A) suppressor B cells

(B) suppressor T cells
(C) macrophages
(D) neutrophils

93) Antiserum has :-

(A) Antigen
(B) Antibody
(C) W.B.C.
(D) R.B.C.

94) Every antibody is specific because ?

(A) Specific type of bonds found in each antibody

There are only five type of antigens stimulates to form only 5 types of antibodies (IgG, A, M, D,
(B)
E)
(C) Fc segment is different for each antibody
(D) Paratope is specifically designed for each type of epitope in every antibody.

95) Immunity acquired after an infection is ?

(A) Active immunity

(B) Passive immunity
(C) Innate immunity
(D) both 2 and 3

96) 'C' shape rings which prevent collapsing of trachea are made up of which cartilage ?

(A) Hyaline cartilage

(B) Elastic cartilage
(C) White fibrous cartilage
(D) Calcified cartilage

97) The structure which contracts during normal inspiration is

(A) External intercostal muscles

(B) Abdominal muscles
(C) Diaphragm
(D) 1 & 3 both

98) Which of the following situations would result in the greatest degree of O2 saturation for
hemoglobin, assuming pO2 remains constant -

(A) Increased Co2 levels, decreased temperature

(B) Increased CO2 levels, increased temperature
(C) Decreased CO2 levels, decreased temperature
(D) Decreased CO2 levels, increased temperature

99) Blood from head, neck and arms enters the heart through :-

(A) Superior vena cava

(B) Inferior vena cava
(C) Pulmonary artery
(D) Pulmonary vein

100) Cells of human blood can be arranged in a series of increasing number (per cubic millimeter) in
blood as follows -

(A) Basophils → Monocyte → Eosinophil → Lymphocyte → Neutrophil → Platelets → Erythrocyte

(B) Basophils → Eosinophil → Monocyte → Lymphocyte → Neutrophil → Platelets → Erythrocyte
(C) Basophils → Eosinophil → Monocyte → Lymphocyte → Platelets → Neutrophil → Erythrocyte
(D) Basophils → Eosinophil → Lymphocyte → Monocyte → Neutrophil → Platelets → Erythrocyte
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. C C A A C D D A A A A B D C A B C D C C
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. C D D D A A C C D C C D C C A A C A B A
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. D B B D A C D B B B

CHEMISTRY

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. C B D A C A D A D A A C C B A C D B C C
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. D A A C A C A A D C D D A A B C C A D D
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. B A A A D D D B D B

BIOLOGY

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. A B B D C C B B C C D C D B B A A C B A
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A. B C B B A C C C D A D C A A A A D B A D
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A. B B B B B D D B B A A B B A C D B B A D
Q. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. D C B D C B C C B D C A D D D C B C C C
Q. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. B D B C D A C D C B D B B D A A D C A B
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Gas molecules possess momentum.

2)

3)

4)

= 150K
=

5) Area under curve AD

= 2 × 102 × 2 = 4 × 102 = 400 J

6)

Conceptual Question.

7) Area ∝ T4 ∝
8)

9)

AB and CD

10)

It is given that ...(1)

For an adiabatic change, = constant

...(2)

and for the monoatomic gas,

Comparing (1) and (2), we get

11) Heat cannot flow itself from a body at lower temperature to a body at higher temperature.
This corresponds to second law of thermodynamics.

12)

From 1st low

13)
ACC to adiabatic compression
14)

Conceptual Q.

15)

Explaining the Question : We have to find the magnetizing magnetic field not center of

circular coil if wire consisting 100 terms each of radius 8:0cm carries current

Concept : This question is based on biot - savart law

Solution : Farmula B =

B=
B = 10–4 T
∴ 10–4T = 1gauss
B = 1 gauss

Final answer : Option (1)

16)

Magnetic field at a distance r due to an infinitely long straight conductor is given by

17)

For double energy

18)

P and R only

19)

FE = 9E

20)

Explain the Question : A circular current carrying coil has radius R. The magnetic field at a
point on its axis is given as Bx = B0 / 64, where B₀ is the magnetic field at the center of the coil.
We have to find the axial distance of this point from the center.
Concept : This question is based on magnetic field on the axis of a circular current carrying
coil.
Formula : magnetic field on axis at distance x :
Bx = B0 / (1 + x2 / R2)3/2
Solution :
Given, Bx = B0 / 64
So,
B0 / (1 + x2 / R2)3/2 = B0 / 64
Cancelling B0 on both sides,
(1 + x2 / R2)3/2 = 64
Taking power 2/3 on both sides,
1 + x2 / R2 = 16
So,
x2 / R2 = 15
x= R
Final answer : 3

21)

Conceptual Question.

22)

Magnetic field intensity, H = 2000 Am–1

Magnetic flux
Area,
and

23) By using
24) . Here θ is the angle between .

Now . The value of B will be minimum when . i.e. B acts along Z-axis.
Minimum

= 10–3 T in Z-direction

25)

A = 0.00385m2
Rate of change in may field

26)

Susceptibility shows, how easily a substance can be magnetised.

27)

Conceptual Question.

28)
29)

30)

31)
B due to Arc

B2 = B due to wire (1) = 0

B3 = B due to wire (2) =

Bnet = B1 + B2 + B3

32)

Magnetic susceptibility

33)

34)

– 10 v

35) Question explanation:

 Find the velocity of an electron that moves undeflected through crossed electric and magnetic
fields.

Concept:
Lorentz Force and Velocity Selector principle

Solution:
The total Lorentz force on the electron is F = –e(E + v × B)
For the electron to move undeflected, the net force must be zero.
–eE – e(v × B) = 0
eE = –e(v × B)
|E| = |v × B|
Since v is perpendicular to B, |v × B| = vB sin(90°) . vB
E = vB

Final answer: Option (1)

36)

37) Question Explanation : The Curie point (or Curie temperature) is the temperature at
which a ferromagnetic material loses its ferromagnetic properties. We need to determine the
nature of the material above this temperature.
Concept :
This question is based on curie point (temp.)

Solution :

A. Ferromagnetic materials (like iron, cobalt, and nickel) exhibit strong magnetization due to
aligned magnetic domains.
B. At the Curie temperature, thermal agitation disrupts this alignment, and the material
transitions from ferromagnetic to paramagnetic.
C. Paramagnetic materials have randomly oriented dipoles but still show weak attraction to an
external magnetic field.

Correct Answer
At the Curie point, a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Paramagnetic

38)

L = 10 H, , V = 10 volt
Maximum energy =

⇒
⇒ 125 J

⇒
instantaneous current during growth in an L-R circuit

⇒
⇒
⇒

39)

40)

Explaining : A material rod, when placed in a strong magnetic field, aligns itself at right
angles to the magnetic field. The nature of material is :-
Concept : This question is based on Diamagnetic material.
Solution :
As we know that an opposing magnetic moment is developed in a diamagnetic material due to
"negative magnetic susceptibility" due to which it feels repulsion from the external magnetic
field, causes it to remain at right angle from the external magnetic field.

Final Answer : (1)

43)

i = 5 + 5 sin (100 ωt)

average value
< i > = 5 + 5 < sin (100 ωt) >
In one time period <sin(100ωt) > = 0
<i> = 5A

45)

From the given graph, point (b) represents retentively and (c) represents coercivity.

46) Explain Question: In series LR circuit voltages across L and R are given . We need to find
total impedance if current is 2 amp.

Concept: series RL circuit.

Solution:
Formula

(1)

(2)
VR = 90 V , VL = 120 V , I = 2 A

V
Now

Final answer: option (3)

47) L1 = L2=

48)

Self inductance of coil :

Energy stored in coil :

U = 2.4 J

49)
 50)

V2 = 0.5 km/s.

CHEMISTRY

57)

59) ;
If either of acid or base or both are weak then

60) In thermodynamics a process is called reversible when the surroundings are always in
equilibrium with the system.

63) 1 mol CH4 require = 74.8 kJ of heat

when 149.6 kJ of heat is released amount of

formed =
= 2 mol
= 32 g

71)

Explaining : - Why electrolytes dissociates into ions when dissolved in water?

Concept : This question is based on Electrolytes
Solution : Electrostatic attraction is broken down by polar solvent (water).
Final Answer : (4)

72)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Maintain electrical neutrality of both half cells.
Final Answer : (1)

74) Equation of α Q(charge)

Al : Cu : Na
3f 3eq : 3eq : 3eq
moles 1 mol : 3/2 : 3 mol
 76) gm equivalent of Al deposited =

w = 0.336 g,

98) Because except pm, all are non radioactive in nature.

99) Brass is alloy of Cu + Zn

100) Their d-subshells are completely filled with electrons.

BIOLOGY

101) NCERT Pg. # 243/15.1.4

103)

The assertion is true as the vegetative phase, which includes the growth of roots, stems, and
leaves, typically comes before the reproductive phase where flowers, fruits, and seeds are
produced. The reason is also true because the structure and function of plant cells, tissues,
and organs are indeed interrelated and contribute to the plant's orderly growth and
development. However, the reason as stated does not directly explain why the vegetative
phase precedes the flowering phase, which is more directly related to the plant's
developmental program and hormonal regulation. Therefore, both A and R are true, but R is
not the correct explanation of A.

104) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 241

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112) NCERT Pg. # 248, 249

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NCERT XII Pg. # 176

141) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 183

142) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 152

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153)

Spleen is a bean-shaped organ located in the upper left abdomen. It plays a crucial role in the
immune system by filtering blood, removing old or damaged red blood cells, and storing
platelets and white blood cells.

So, the correct answer is option 2

155)

Question Explanation: Choose which row correctly identifies A, B, C, D in the life cycle in
the malaria.
 Concept: Malaria

Solution: In the malaria (Plasmodium) life cycle sporozoites enter the host and go to the liver;
later stages (gametocytes) are formed in the host blood and sporozoites are produced in the
mosquito salivary gland. So ,

A — Sporozoites

B — Liver

C — Salivary gland

D — Gametocyte

Final answer: Option 3

156)

Question explanation : Identify the disease diagnosed using the Widal test.

Concept : Bacterial disease

Solution :

A. The Widal test is a serological test used to diagnose typhoid fever, also known as
enteric fever. It detects antibodies against Salmonella typhi, the bacteria that causes
typhoid.

Final answer : Option 4

159)

Question Explanation : Identify the disease that causes swelling of hands, scrotum, genital
organs, and breast.

Concept : Heliminthic diseases

Solution : The correct answer is option 1.

A. Filariasis → Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti; blocks lymph vessels → elephantiasis

(swelling of hands, scrotum, genital organs, breasts).

Final Answer : Option 1

160)

Explain Question : To identify the total number of correct statements about the given
diagram.
Concept : This question is based on Acquired immunity -Antibody.

Solution :
This is a diagram of an antibody molecule
(a) Gives cell mediated immunity Incorrect
(b) T-cells themselves do not secrete but help
B-cell to produce them. correct
(c) Disulphide bond present correct
(d) H2L2 molecule correct
(e) Glyco protein molecule correct
So,4 statements are correct

Final Answer : option (4)

161)

Question Explanation: The question asks which property of acquired immunity forms the
basis for vaccination.

Concept: Vaccination

Solution: Acquired immunity has several properties: specificity, diversity, self/non-self

recognition, and memory. The basis of vaccination is immunological memory, where exposure
to a weakened or inactivated pathogen stimulates the immune system to remember it, allowing
a faster and stronger response upon future infections. Thus the property responsible for the
effectiveness of vaccination is Memory.

Final answer: Option 4

163) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 149 (para-8.1)

164)

Question Explanation: Identify transplacental antibody.

Concept: Passive Immunity in Humans.

Solution: IgG is the only class of antibody that can be actively transported across the placenta
from mother to fetus. This provides the fetus with passive immunity.

Final Answer: IgG.

166)

Explaining the Question :-

This question asks for the definition of the ecological niche of an organism
Concept:-
This question is based on ecological niche
Solution :-
An ecological niche describes the role and functional position of an organism within an
 ecosystem, including its interactions and resource use.
Final Answer :- (2)

167)

Explaining the Question :-

This question asks for the basic unit of ecological hierarchy
Concept:-
This question is based on ecological hierarchy
Solution :-
An individual organism is the fundamental unit of ecology
Final Answer :- (3)

168)

Explaining the Question :- This question asks for the correct order in ecological
hierarchy

Concept:- ecological hierarchy

Solution :- Correct sequence: Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Biome →

biosphere It follows the correct ascending order from individual to global
level
Final Answer :- Option 3 Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem → Biome →
Biosphere

169)

Explaining the Question :- This question asks about the basic unit of ecological
study

Concept:- population

Solution :- A population is a group of individuals of the same species living in a defined

geographical area. It is the basic unit used to study factors like population growth, density,
and demography in ecology
Final Answer :- Option 2 Population

170)

Explaining the Question: This question asks about correctly matched ecological interaction
pairs based on species impact (+, –, 0).

Concept: population interactions:

Solution :

A. A (Mutualism) → iv (+ +)

B. B (Cmpetition) → v (– –)
 C. C (Parasitism) → ii (+ –)

D. D (Cmmensalism) → iii (+ 0)

E. E (Amensalism) → i (– 0)

Final Answer: Option 4 – A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-iii, E-i

171)

Explain Question: The question is asking: “Which type of interaction transfers energy from
one trophic level to another in an ecosystem?”

Concept: Predation

Solution:

Explanation:
Predation involves a predator consuming prey.
This directly transfers energy from one trophic level (prey) to the next (predator), making predators
conduits for energy flow in an ecosystem.

Final answer: Option 3. Predation

172)

Question explanation
The question is asking which component releases thromboplastin during injury to initiate
blood clotting.

Concept
Platelets.

Solution
Thromboplastin, an enzyme that helps convert prothrombin into thrombin, is released by
platelets at the site of injury to begin the clotting process.

Final answer
Blood platelets

176)

Question explanation: The question asks to match different vertebrate groups with their
type of blood circulation.
Concept: Type of blood circulation

Solution:

A. Fishes → Have single circulation (heart pumps blood once through the heart in one
 cycle).

B. Amphibians → Have incomplete double circulation (three-chambered heart).

C. Reptiles → Mostly have incomplete double circulation (except crocodiles).

D. Birds → Have double circulation with complete separation (four-chambered heart).

E. Mammals → Have double circulation with complete separation (four-chambered

heart).

So the correct matching is: a–1, b–2, c–2, d–3, e–3

Final answer: Option 3

178) NCERT Pg. # 282

180)

Question explanation:
The question is asking what can be determined by counting the number of QRS complexes in
an ECG within a given time period.
Concept:
This question is based on ECG.
Solution:
Since each QRS complex represents one ventricular contraction, counting them in a time
interval gives the rate of heartbeats per minute.
Final answer: (3)

181)

Question Explanation: The correct, sequential route of impulse conduction in the heart.

Concept: Cardiac Conduction System

Solution: The electrical impulse for a heartbeat originates in the Sinoatrial Node (SAN)
(pacemaker).
From there, it spreads through the atria and reaches the Atrioventricular Node (AVN).
It then passes through the Bundle of His and its branches, finally reaching the spreading
network of Purkinje fibres in the ventricular wall.

Final Answer: SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres

182)
Explain Question: Identify the brain region that regulates breathing.

Concept: Regulation of respiration

Solution: The correct answer is Option 4.

A. The medulla oblongata, part of the brainstem, controls involuntary activities like
breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure by sending signals to respiratory muscles.

Final answer: Option (4)

183)

Question Explanation: Sequence of air in the respiratory system.

Concept: Human Respiratory System

Solution: Air enters the body through the Nasal Chamber. It then travels to the common
passageway, the Pharynx, before moving to the Larynx (voice box). From the larynx, it goes
down the Trachea, which branches into the Bronchi. The bronchi further divide into smaller
Bronchioles, ending in the air sacs called Alveoli, where gas exchange takes place.

Final Answer: Nasal chamber → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles →

Alveoli

184)

Explain the question : What is the main cause of emphysema?

Concept : This question is based on respiratory disorder
Solution : Emphysema is primarily caused by long-term exposure to irritants like cigarette
smoke, which damages alveolar walls, reducing lung elasticity and impairing gas exchange.
Final answer : 3

186)

Explain Question: Identify the blood vessels where oxygen partial pressure is 95 mm Hg.
Concept: This question is based on Exchange of gases.
Solution: The correct answer is option 1, as pulmonary vein and systemic arteries carry
oxygen-rich blood with ~95 mm Hg pO₂.
Final Answer : 1

196) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 52

198) Decreased CO2 levels, decreased temperature

199)

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NCERT Pg#194