24-03-2026

1103CMD303021260032 MS

PHYSICS

1) A particle performing S.H.M. with maximum velocity 'V'. If the amplitude is doubled and periodic

time is made then the maximum velocity is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 6V

2) A circular arc of radius r carrying current 'I' subtends an angle at its centre. The radius of a
metal wire is uniform. The magnetic induction at the centre of circular arc is
(μ0 = permeability of free space)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

3) An inductor coil of inductance L is divided into two parts and both parts are connected in parallel.
The net inductance is

(A) L
(B) 2L

(C)

(D)

4) The radius and mean density of the planet are four times as that of the earth. The ratio of escape
velocity at the earth to the escape velocity at a planet is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 1 : 3

5) A black sphere has radius R whose rate of radiation is E at temperature T. If radius is made half
and temperature 4 T, the rate of radiation will be

(A) 64 E
(B) 32 E
(C) 16 E
(D) 8 E

6) In a diffraction pattern due to single slit of width 'a', the first minimum is observed at an angle
30° when light of wave length 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is

observed at an angle

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7) Ordinary bodies P and Q radiate maximum energy with wavelength difference 3 mm. The absolute
temperature of body P is four times that of Q. The wavelength at which body Q radiates maximum
energy is

(A) 2 μm
(B) 4 μm
(C) 6 μm
(D) 8 μm

8) Four electric charges +q, +q, –q and –q are placed in order at the corners of a square of side 2L.
The electric potential at point midway between the two positive charges is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

9) What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 'zero' and
then 'one' ?
(A) 0, 0
(B) 0, 1
(C) 1, 0
(D) 1, 1

10) Two sound waves having displacements

x1 = 2 sin (1000 πt) and x2 = 3 sin (1006 πt), when interfere, produce

(A) 5 beats/s with maximum intensity 25 units

(B) 6 beats/s with maximum intensity 16 units
(C) 3 beats/s with maximum intensity 25 units
(D) 1 beats/s with maximum intensity 5 units

11) A ring and a disc roll on horizontal surface without slipping with same linear velocity. If both
have same mass and total kinetic energy of the ring is 6 J then total kinetic energy of the disc is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

12) In potentiometer experiment cells of e.m.f. E1 and E2 are connected in series (E1 > E2) the
balancing length is 80 cm of the wire. If the polarity of E2 is reversed, the balancing length becomes

20 cm. The ratio is

(A) 1 : 2
(B) 2 : 3
(C) 3 : 4
(D) 5 : 3

13) For a particle in uniform circular motion has

(A) linear velocity always radial to the circular path, without change in its magnitude
(B) linear velocity always tangential to the circular path, without change in its magnitude
(C) linear acceleration always tangential to the circular path
(D) linear acceleration always along the axis of the circular path
14) Using Bohr's model, the orbital period of electron in hydrogen atom in nth orbit is (m = mass of
electron, h = Planck's constant, e = electronic charge, ε0 = permittivity of free space)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

15) In the following graph of flux density versus magnetizing force coercivity and retentivity are
respectively represented by the points

(A) c, b
(B) a, o
(C) d, c
(D) f, e

16) A small planet is revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius 'R' with a
period of revolution 'T'. If the gravitational force between the planet and the star were proportional
to R–5/2, then 'T' would be proportional to

(A) R3/2
(B) R3/5
(C) R7/2
(D) R7/4

17) If the potential difference used to accelerate electrons is increased four times, by what factor
does the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons change?

(A) Wavelength increased two times

(B) Wavelength decreased to half
(C) Wavelength increased four times
(D) Wavelength remains the same
18) The inductive reactance of a coil is 'R' Ώ. If inductance of a coil is tripled and frequency of a.c
supply is also tripled, then new inductive reactance will be

(A)

(B)

(C) 3 R
(D) 9 R

19) n the block diagram of simple rectifier circuit, from a variable a.c voltage, constant d.c, voltage
is obtained. The correct order of operation is

(A) voltage regulator, diode rectifier, filter.

(B) diode rectifier, voltage regulator, filter.
(C) diode rectifier, filter, voltage regulator.
(D) filter, voltage regulator, diode rectifier.

20) A ball ‘A’ is projected vertically upwards with certain initial speed. Another ball ‘B’ of same mass
is projected at an angle of with vertical with the same initial speed. At the highest point, the
ratio of potential energy of ball A to that of ball B will be

(A) 4 : 3
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 3 : 2

21) The path difference between two waves and

is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

22) An alternating voltage is connected to a capacitor through an a.c.

ammeter. The reading of the ammeter shall be

(A) 10 mA
(B) 20 mA
(C) 40 mA
(D) 80 mA

23) A gardening pipe having an internal radius ‘R’ is connected to a water sprinkler having ‘n’ holes
each of radius ‘r’. The water in the pipe has a speed ‘v’. The speed of water leaving the sprinkler is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

24) A magnetic needle of magnetic moment and moment of

inertia performs simple harmonic motion in a magnetic field of 0.01 T. Time taken to complete 10
oscillations is

(A) 0.2512 s
(B) 2.512 s
(C) 25.12 s
(D) 251.2 s

25) In case of rotational dynamics, which one of the following statement is correct?
[ = angular velocity, = linear velocity
=radius vector, = angular acceleration
= linear acceleration, = angular momentum
linear momentum, torque, =centripetal force]

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

26) The r.m.s. velocity of hydrogen at S.T.P. is ‘u’m/s. If the gas is heated at constant pressure till its
volume becomes three times, then the final temperature of the gas and the r.m.s. speed are
respectively

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

27) The distance of the two plants A and B from the sun are and respectively. Also

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D) 10 v

28) Earth has mass radius and for moon mass and radius. Distance between their

centres is ‘r’. A body of mass ‘M’ is placed on the line joining them at a distance from the centre of
the earth. To project a mass ‘M’ to escape to infinity , the minimum speed required is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

29) There are two samples A and B of a certain gas, which are initially at the same temperature and

pressure. Both the compressed from volume v to . Sample A is compressed isothermally while
sample B is compressed adiabatically. The final pressure of A is

(A) twice that of B.

(B) equal to that of B
(C) more than that of B.
(D) less than that of B.

30) A single slit diffraction pattern is formed with light of wavelength . The second secondary
maximum for this wavelength coincides with the third secondary maximum in the pattern for light of
wavelength . The value of is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

31) In an a.c. generator, when the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field

(A) magnetic flux is zero and induced e.m.f. is maximum.

(B) magnetic flux is maximum and induced e.m.f. is zero.
(C) both magnetic flux and induced e.m.f. are maximum.
(D) both magnetic flux and induced e,m.f. are zero.

32) Ratio of radius of gyration of a circular disc to that of circular ring each of same mass and radius
around their respective axes is

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

33) In an AC circuit volt and mA. The power dissipated in the

circuit is

(A) 20 watt
(B) 15 watt
(C) 10 watt
(D) 5 watt

34) In the following circuit, a power of 50 watt is absorbed in the section AB of the circuit. The value
of resistance ‘x’ is

(A) 10 Ω
(B) 8 Ω
(C) 6 Ω
(D) 4 Ω

35) A ray of light is incident at 60o on one face of a prism of angle 30o and the emergent ray

makes 30o with the incident ray. The refractive index of the prims is

(A) 1.732
(B) 1.414
(C) 1.5
(D) 1.33

36) The pressure inside two soap bubbles,(A) is 1.01 and that of(B) is 1.02 atmosphere respectively.
The ratio of their respective radii (A to B) is(outside pressure =1 atm)
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 4 : 1
(C) 6 : 1
(D) 8 : 1

37) The range of voltmeter of resistance ‘G’ is ‘V’ volt. The resistance required to be connected in
series with it in order to convert it into a voltmeter of range ‘nV’ volt, will be

(A)
(B) G/n
(C) nG

(D)

38) Find the magnitude of current in the given circuit

(A) zero ampere

(B) 1 ampere
(C) 0.1 ampere
(D) 0.2 ampere

39) The relation between total magnetic field(B), magnetic intensity (H),permeability of free space
and susceptibility is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

40) Two blocks of masses 6 kg and 4 kg are placed in contact with each other on a smooth surface as
shown. If a force of 5N is applied on a heavier block, the force on the lighter block is

(A) 5N
(B) 4N
(C) 2N
(D) 1N
41) In the logic circuit diagram, when all the four inputs A, B, C, D are one, the outputs Y1,Y2,Y3 are
respectively (1, 1, 0). When all the inputs A, B, C, D are changed to 'zero', the outputs Y1, Y2, Y3
respectively change to

(A) (0, 1, 0)
(B) (0, 0, 1)
(C) (1, 1, 0)
(D) (1, 1, 1)

42) In the system of two particles of masses 'm1' and 'm2', the first particle is moved by a distance 'd'
towards the centre of mass. To keep the centre of mass unchanged, the second particle will have to
be moved by a distance.

(A)
, towards the centre of mass.

(B)
, away from the centre of mass.

(C)
, towards the centre of mass.

(D)
, away from the centre of mass.

43) A sonometer wire is stretched by hanging a metal bob, the fundamental frequency of the wire is
'n1'. When the bob is completely immersed in water, the frequency of vibration of wire becomes
'n2'. The relative density of the metal of the bob is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

44) In the given circuit diagram, in the steady state the current through the battery and the charge
on the capacitor respectively are
(A) 2 A and 3 C

(B)
A and C
(C) 11 A and 3 C
(D) zero ampere and 3 F

45) A point object kept at P in front of a glass sphere of radius 'R' has its image formed at Q such
that PO = QO. The refractive index of material of glass sphere is 1.4. The distance PO is equal to

(A)

(B) 2 R
(C) 5 R
(D) 6 R

46) Four identical uniform solid spheres each of same mass M’ and radius ‘R’ are placed touching
each other as shown in figure, with centres A, B, C, D. ‘IA’ ‘IB’ ‘IC and ‘ID are the moment of inertia of
these spheres respectively about an axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane. The
difference in ‘IA and ‘IB is

(A) 24 MR2
(B) 32 MR2
(C) 56 MR2
(D) 80 MR2

47) Two condensers one of capacity and other capacity C are connected to a battery of voltage V
as shown. The work done in charging fully both the condensers is
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) 2CV2

48) A coil having an inductance of H is connected in series with a resistance of 300 . If 20 V from
a 200Hz source are impressed across the combination, the value of the phase angle between the
voltage and the current is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

49) When radiation of wavelength ‘ ’ is incident on a metallic surface, the stopping potential is 4.8
V. 1f the surface is illiminated with radiation of double the wavelength then the stopping potential
becomes 1.6 V. The threshold wavelength for the surface is

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8

50) A source of sound is moving towards a stationary observer with /of the speed of sound.
The ratio of apparent to real frequency is

(A) 10 : 9
(B) 11 : 10
(C) (11)2 : (10)2
(D) (9)2 : (10)2

CHEMISTRY
1) Identify the products obtained in the ozonolysis of propene.

(A) Methanol and Ethanol

(B) Methanal and Ethanol
(C) Methanal and Ethanal
(D) Methanol and Ethanal

2) Identify the hybridisation and geometry of SF4 molecule respectively.

(A) sp3 and tetrahedral

(B) sp3d and trigonal bipyramidal
(C) sp3d2 and trigonal bipyramidal
(D) sp3d2 and octahedral

3) Which from following buffers is used to maintain the pH of human blood naturally?

(A) Hydrogen cyanide and sodium cyanide

(B) Copper hydroxide and copper chloride
(C) Carbonic acid and salt of carbonic acid
(D) Ammonium hydroxide and ammonium chloride

4) Identify the carbon atoms of glucose and of fructose forming glycosidic bond in sucrose.

(A) C–l of α–glucose and C–2 of β–fructose

(B) C–l of β–glucose and C–2 of β–fructose
(C) C–2 of α–glucose and C–2 of β–fructose
(D) C–3of α–glucose and C–1 of β–fructose

5) 10 g each of NH3, N2, Cl2 and H2S are expanded isothermally and reversibly at same temperature.
Identify gas that performs maximum work.

(A) N2
(B) Cl2
(C) H2S
(D) NH3

6) Chlorine has two isotopes 35Cl and 37Cl with average atomic mass of 35.5. What is the ratio of their
relative abundance respectively ?

(A) 1:1
(B) 2:1
(C) 1:3
(D) 3:1

7) Which among the following is NOT a true statement regarding enantiomers?

(A) Enantiomers have identical refractive index.
(B) Enantiomers have same chemical properties.
(C) Enantiomers are superimposable mirror images of each other.
(D) Enantiomers have equal but opposite optical rotation.

8) Which from following polymers is believed to leach human carcinogen in to food when used as
household plastic?

(A) LDPE
(B) PP
(C) PS
(D) PET

9) Which from following molecules has trigonal planar geometry ?

(A) CH4
(B) C2H2
(C) NH3
(D) BF3

10) Which from following polymers is grouped under elastomers ?

(A) Buna-s
(B) Nylon 6,6
(C) Terylene
(D) Polythene

11) What type of following compounds is obtained in first step of Wolf-Kishner reduction of carbonyl
compounds?

(A) Carboxylic Acids

(B) Alcohols
(C) Hydrazones
(D) Alkenes

12) The reaction is found to be first order in A, second order in B and zero
order in C. What is the effect of increasing concentration of all reactants twice ?

(A) Rate of reaction increases 8 times.

(B) Rate of reaction increases 24 times.
(C) Rate of reaction increases 36 times.
(D) Rate of reaction remains unaffected

13) Calculate the molar mass of solute in a solution prepared by dissolving 1 gram in 0.3 dm3 solvent
having osmotic pressure 0.2 atm at 300 K.
[R = 0.082 dm3 atm K–1 mol–1]

(A) 422 gmol–1

(B) 372 gmol–1
(C) 390 gmol–1
(D) 410 gmol–1

14) Identify the product obtained when chlorobenzene is heated with conc. HNO3 in presence of
conc. H2SO4.

(A) Only l–chloro–4–nitrobenzene

(B) Only l–chloro–2–nitrobenzene
Mixture of l–chloro–4–nitrobenzene and
(C)
1–chloro–2–nitrobenzene
(D) 2,4,6–trinitrochlorobenzene

15) Which from following is a correct priority order for selection of principal functional group for
nomenclature of polyfunctional compound?

(A) –COOH > –SO3H > –COOR

(B) –COOR > –COOH > –SO3H
(C) –SO3H > –COOR > –COOH
(D) –COOR > –SO3H > –COOH

16) Which of the following is used to avoid leakage of electrolyte in dry cell?

(A) Paste of MnO2

(B) Paste of NH4Cl
(C) Starch
(D) Paste of ZnCl2

17) Identify the polymer used to obtain LCD screen from following.

(A) Polyacrylamide
(B) Buna-N
(C) Polycarbonate
(D) Perspex

18) Which of the following changes involves transfer of 5 electrons ?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
19) Identify order of following reaction.

(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 1.5
(D) 2

20) What is the position of transition elements from Sc to Zn in long form of periodic table?

(A) Group 4 to 13, period-3

(B) Group 3 to 12, period-4
(C) Group 5 to 14, period-4
(D) Group 3 to 12, period-5

21) Identify correct decreasing order of solubilities of alcohols, alkanes and amines in water
having comparable molar mass.

(A) alcohol > amine > alkane

(B) alkane > amine > alcohol
(C) amine > alcohol > alkane
(D) alkane > alcohol > amine

22) What happens when solution of an electrolyte is diluted ?

(A) Both Λ and k increases

(B) Both Λ and k decreases
(C) Λ increases and k decreases
(D) Λ decreases and k increases

23) What is the volume of 1 mole real gas at STP (V0 = 22.4 dm3). If compressibility factor of real
gas is 1.1 at STP ?

(A) 22.40 dm3

(B) 23.64 dm3
(C) 24.64 dm3
(D) 23.50 dm3

24) Which from following is a correct decreasing order of ionization enthalpies of different elements
?

(A) S > Se > Te > Po

(B) Te > Po > S > Se
(C) S > Te > Po > Se
(D) Te > Po > Se > S
25) What is the radius of fourth orbit of Be+++ ?

(A) 211.6 pm
(B) 158.7 pm
(C) 52.9 pm
(D) 13.2 pm

26) Which of the following is tertiary allylic alcohol?

(A) Prop-2-en-1-ol
(B) But-3-en-2-ol
(C) 2-Methylprop-2-en-ol
(D) 2-Methylbut-3-en-2-ol

27) Which from following statements is true about CH3CH(NH2) CH2COOH molecule ?

(A) It is an example of amino acids.

(B) It's IUPAC name is 3-carboxy-2-amine.
(C) The amino group is located at C-3.
(D) NH2 group is considered as principal functional group for IUPAC naming.

28) Which among the following is vinylic halide?

(A) CH2 = CH – CH2 – X

(B) CH3 - CH = CH – X
(C)
(D) C6H5 – CH2 – X

29) Identify 'A' in the following reaction A Ethanamine

(A) C2H5CN
(B) CH3CONH2
(C) C2H5CONH2
(D) CH3NO2

30) Identify the product obtained when benzonitrile is reduced by stannous chloride in presence
of hydrochloric acid followed by acid hydrolysis.

(A) Benzal chloride

(B) Benzoyl chloride
(C) Benzophenone
(D) Benzaldehyde

31) Identify the product obtained when isopropyl bromide is reacted with metallic sodium in dry
ether.
(A) isobutene
(B) isohexane
(C) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(D) 2,3-Dimethylhexane

32) The solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over
the solution. Identify the law for this statement.

(A) Henry's Law

(B) Raoult's Law
(C) Dalton's Law
(D) Avogadro's Law

33) Identify the molecular formula of an alkane that exhibits only two different structural isomers.

(A) C2H6
(B) C3H8
(C) C4H10
(D) C6H12

34) An organic compound 'A' on reaction with PCl3 gives an alkyl chloride having formula C3H7Cl.'A'
on oxidation with pcc forms an aldehyde having formula C3H6O. Identify 'A'.

(A) Propan-1-ol
(B) Propan-2-ol
(C) Propanoic acid
(D) Propanone

35) Which of the following is general representation of Grignard reagent ?

(A) R – O – Na
(B) R – COO – Ag
(C) R – Mg – X
(D) R – COO K

36) Product formed when calcium carbide reacts with heavy water :-

(A) CaD2
(B) Ca2D2O
(C) C2D2
(D) CD2

37) Which of the following is electron-deficient Hydride :-

(A) BH3
(B) AlH3
(C) 1 & 2 both
(D) CH4

38) Which of the following can liberate H2 gas with NaOH ?

(A) Sn
(B) Be
(C) Al
(D) All of the above

39) Total no. of electron rich hydrides in following are BH3, H2O, NH3, HF, CH4 :-

(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) None

40) Isomers have essentially identical :

(A) Structural formula

(B) Chemical properties
(C) Molecular formula
(D) Physical properties

41) In which conversion, bond length decreases?

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

42) A system absorbs 20 KJ heat and does 10 KJ work then internal energy of system will -

(A) Decreases by 10 KJ
(B) Increases by 10 KJ
(C) Increases by 30 KJ
(D) Decreases by 30 KJ

43) The number of atoms present in 16 g of oxygen is

(A) 6.02 × 1011.5

(B) 3.01 × 1023
(C) 3.01 × 1011.5
(D) 6.02 × 1023
44) The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

45) Equilibrium constant of a gaseous reaction depends on

(A) Molar concentrations of reactants and products

(B) Density of gas
(C) Temperature
(D) Partial pressure

46) Product is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) Both 1 & 3

47) Be+2 is isoelectronic with :-

(A) Mg+2
(B) Na+
(C) Li+
(D) H+

48) Which method is used to separate different fractions of Crude oil in petroleum industry?
(A) Sublimation
(B) Crystalisation
(C) Fractional distillation
(D) Chromatography

49) The general molecular formula; which represents the homologous series of alkanols is :

(A) CnH2n+2O
(B) CnH2nO2
(C) CnH2nO
(D) CnH2n+1O

50) The maximum number of electrons than can be accommodated in 5f orbitals is:

(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 18

BIOLOGY

1) 'Western Blot' test is a confirmatory test to detect HIV antibodies. It is based on detecting specific
antibody to the _______ and ________ of HIV.

(A) viral ssRNA and matrix protein

(B) viral core protein and envelope glycoprotein
(C) viral reverse transcriptase enzymes and capsid protein
(D) viral envelope protein and reverse transcriptase enzymes

2) One of the following is INCORRECT with respect to stabilizing natural selection.

(A) More individuals of a population acquired a mean character value.

(B) It tends to favour the intermediate forms.
(C) It eliminates both the phenotypic extremes.
(D) It increases variations.

3) Which one of the following is an example of autosomal dominant trait?

(A) Cystic fibrosis

(B) Haemophilia
(C) Huntington's disease
(D) Sickle cell anaemia

4) An infant suffering from cretinism shows following characters EXCEPT _________.

(A) stunted physical growth
(B) increased BMR
(C) delayed puberty
(D) mental retardation

5) Y chromosome is __________ .

(A) metacentric
(B) acrocentric
(C) telocentric
(D) sub-metacentric

6) A graph showing growth rate at three phases of growth in plants is _________.

(A) linear
(B) sigmoid
(C) zigzag
(D) straight line

7) Main cause of extinction of stellar sea cow and passenger pigeon is _________ .

(A) over exploitation

(B) co-extinction
(C) habitat loss
(D) alien species invasion

8) Select the correct statements regarding RBCs from the following.

i. They are produced from reticulocytes.
ii. They show presence of granules which contain various secretions.
iii. They show presence of carbonic anhydrase enzyme.
iv. They are responsible for transport of respiratory gases.
v. Uncontrolled increase in their number leads to leukemia.
Choose the correct option given below.

(A) i, ii and iii only

(B) i, iii and iv only
(C) ii, iii and v only
(D) iii, iv and v only

9) Which of the following statements are correct?

i. Transgenic mice help to study relationship between oncogenes and cancer development.
ii. Introduction of additional copies of bovine beta casein into dairy cattle resulted in a two fold
increase in beta casein in the milk.
iii. The liver in the dairy cows is an excellent protein production factory.
v. The oncogenes myc and ras were introduced into mice to produce antibodies.
v. To make human antibody product, genetically modified cows are immunized with a vaccine
containing the disease agent.
Choose the correct option.

(A) i, ii and iii only

(B) i, ii, iii and iv only
(C) ii, iii, iv and v only
(D) i and v only

10) The enzyme, present in saliva which acts as an antibacterial agent and prevents infections, is
_________ .

(A) lipase
(B) lactose
(C) lysozyme
(D) salivary amylase

11) Select a correct pair of glial cells present in the PNS of man.

(A) Astrocyte and Schwann cell

(B) Ependymal cell and astrocyte
(C) Oligodendrocyte and satellite cell
(D) Schwann cell and satellite cell

12) Match the diseases in Column I with the type of microbe causing them in Column II.

Column I Column II

i. Elephantiasis a. Virus

ii. Typhoid b. Nematode parasite

iii. Dermatophytosis c. Gram-ve bacteria

iv. Dengue d. Protist

v. Malaria e. fungus
Choose the correct option.
(A) i – e, ii – d, iii – b, iv – c, v - a
(B) i – a, ii - e, iii – c, iv – b, v - d
(C) i – b, ii – c, iii - e, iv - a, v - d
(D) i – d, ii – b, iii - a, iv - e, v - c

13) How many male gametes can be formed from 2 pollen mother cells?

(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 32

14) Given below are two statements.

Statement I: The Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator bird because of a special
chemical present in the body.
Statement II: The caterpillar of this butterfly feeds on poisonous weed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct option.

(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

15) In human, multiple alleles are seen controlling the inheritance of which of the following?

(A) Sickle cell anaemia

(B) Blood groups
(C) Colour blindness
(D) Thalassemia

16) Pneumotaxie center in pons is responsible for following EXCEPT _________.

(A) limiting inspiration

(B) slow wave sleep
(C) rapid eye movements
(D) wakefulness

17) Which one of the following trait exhibit pleiotropism?

(A) Sickle cell anaemia

(B) Haemophilia
(C) Thalassemia
(D) Phenylketonuria

18) Acute renal failure (ARF) can be biochemically detected by _________ in urine.

(A) increased glucose level

(B) presence of bile pigments
(C) elevated serum creatinine level
(D) more water content

19) Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

Region that holds arms and Paratopes on variable regions

i. a.
stem of antibody together of antibody

epitopes present on antigen or

ii. Antigen binding sites b.
foreign particle

iii. H-chains and L-chains c. Hinge

 Four polypeptide chains of
iv. Antigenic determinants d.
antibody molecule

(A) i - c, ii - a, iii - d, iv – b
(B) i - d, ii – c, iii - a, iv - b
(C) i - b, ii – d, ii – c, iv – a
(D) i – a, ii – b, iii - c, iv - d

20) The sugar present in DNA is __________.

(A) ribose
(B) ribulose
(C) glucose
(D) deoxyribose

21) What is the diameter of solenoid structure consisting of six nucleosomes formed during the
packaging of DNA in eukaryotes?

(A) 10 nm
(B) 20 nm
(C) 30 nm
(D) 100 nm

22) Net primary productivity (NPP) is the total amount of energy __________.

(A) stored in primary consumers

(B) received from the sun
(C) produced by plants
(D) available to heterotrophs

23) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I - Dorsal root ganglion of the spinal nerve has a collection of unipolar sensory neurons
whose dendrons synapse with association neuron in the grey matter of spinal cord.
Statement-II - Ramus communicans contains - motor nerve fibers which originate from autonomic
ganglia in the lateral horn of grey matter of spinal cord.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(B) Both statement 1 and statement II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

24) In germline gene therapy, healthy genes can be introduced into the following EXCEPT _________.

(A) sperms
(B) eggs
(C) placental cells
(D) early embryo

25) Match column I with column II.

Column I Column II

i. Levitt a. Starch – sugar interconversion theory

ii. Dixon and Joly b. Cohesion Tension theory

iii. Steward c. Theory of proton transport

iv. Bohem d. Physical force theory

(A) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv – d
(B) i - b, ii - a, iii - c iv - d
(C) i - d, ii - a, iii - c iv – b
(D) i - c, ii - b, iii - a, iv - d

26) Capillarity is due to _________ .

(A) Surface tension only

(B) Surface tension and forces of cohesion only
(C) Surface tension and forces of adhesion only
(D) Surface tension and forces of cohesion and adhesion only

27) Fugivores are more in __________region.

(A) temperate
(B) tropical
(C) polar
(D) estuarine

28) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I - Osmoconformers are those animals which have body fluids iso-osmotic to the
surrounding.
Statement- II - Marine organisms are mostly osmoconformers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

29) Which of the chromosomal aberrations do not show any loss or gain of gene complement of the
chromosome?
(A) Deletion
(B) Duplication
(C) Inversion
(D) Translocation

30) Given below are two statements.

Statement- I- Inner layer of cell wall of root hair is made up of cellulose.
Statement- II- Outer layer of root cell wall is composed of pectin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

31) Which one of the following is NOT true regarding fossils?

They are the dead remains of plants and animals that lived in past found in various geological
(A)
layers of earth.
(B) They provide direct evolution. evidence of
(C) They are found in sedimentary rocks. amber, ice etc.
(D) Primitive forms of fossils occupy upper or more recent layers of earth.

32) All are sources of particulate pollutants

(A) dust
(B) Nitrogen Oxide
(C) pesticides
(D) smoke

33) Len Select the mismatched pair with respect to poultry diseases.

(A) Ranikhet - viral disease

(B) Pullorum - bacterial disease
(C) Thrush parasitic disease
(D) Coccidiosis - protozoan disease

34) In the human dental formula, the numbers in numerator indicate

(A) number of different types of teeth in upper jaw.

(B) number of different types of teeth in lower jaw.
(C) number of different types of teeth in the half of upper jaw.
(D) number of different types of teeth in both upper and lower jaws

35) Thoracic volume decreases and pressure increases due to _______ .

(A) contraction of intarcostal muscles.
(B) relaxation of diaphragm.
(C) contraction of diaphragm.
(D) ribs and sternum move upward and outward.

36) the number of ATP molecules produced through electron transport chain during oxidation of one
glucose molecule is

(A) 08
(B) 30
(C) 34
(D) 36

37) The cry gene from Bacillus thuringiensis gives the crop plant property.

(A) herbicidal
(B) insecticidal
(C) fungicidal
(D) medicinal

38) In the given equation showing Haber-Bosch industrial nitrogen fixing process, "x" stands for.

(A) 40°C
(B) 50°C
(C) 70°C
(D) 450°C

39) Which one of the following is NOT a property seen in endosperm of angiosperms?

(A) nutritive in function

(B) developed from PEN
(C) formed before fertilization
(D) triploid tissue

40) In honey bee, develops from unfertilized egg by parthenogenesis.

(A) drone
(B) queen
(C) worker
(D) fertile females

41) Turgidity and shape of cells is maintained mainly by

(A) gases
(B) water
(C) nutrients
(D) minerals

42) In human beings, the faecal matter is temporarily stored in till defaecation.

(A) rectum
(B) caecum
(C) transverse colon
(D) ascending colon

43) Plant hormones are transported through

(A) xylem parenchyma

(B) xylem sclerenchyma
(C) phloem sclerenchyma
(D) phloem parenchyma

44) During Krebs cycle, which of the following reactions is involved in the conversion of fumarate
into malate?

(A) Dehydrogenation
(B) Hydration
(C) Dehydration
(D) Decarboxylation

45) The osmolarity of dialysate is mOsmol/L.

(A) 100
(B) 300
(C) 500
(D) 1200

46) The unit of DNA in which duplication occurs is known as

(A) intron
(B) exon
(C) replicon
(D) cistron

47) Following are some events occurring during fertilization process.

Arrange the CORRECT sequence of events and choose the option given below.
i. Fertilizin antifertilizin reaction.
ii. Cortical reaction
iii. Acrosome reaction
iv. Karyogamy
v. Capacitation of sperms

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

48) Match the artificial vegetative method of propagation in Column I with the example in Column II
and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

i. Stem cutting a. Rose

ii. Leaf cutting b. Blackberry

iii. Root cutting c. Bougainvillea

iv. Bud grafting d. Sansevieria

(A) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv – b
(B) i - c, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a
(C) i - c, ii – d, ii – b, iv – a
(D) i – d, ii – c, iii - b, iv - a

49) Out of the total CO2 formed, about 70% enters into the RBCs and forms _________.

(A) Carbonic acid

(B) Carbamino haemoglobin
(C) Oxyhaemoglobin
(D) Carboxyhaemoglobin

50) Receptors for static / linear balance are located in ________ .

(A) semicircular canals

(B) sacculus
(C) scala media
(D) scala tympani

51) Which aspect of light influences flowering the most?

(A) Quality
(B) Intensity
(C) Quality and intensity
(D) Duration of light

52) During urea recycling, through which part of the nephron, urea is released into tissue fluid?
(A) Distal convoluted tubule
(B) Loop of Henle
(C) Proximal convoluted tubule
(D) Collecting duct in inner medulla

53) Perisperm is found in __________ seeds.

(A) Castor, malze

(B) Black pepper, Beet
(C) Mango, Pea
(D) Barley, Rice

54) Friedrich Meischer used ____________ solution for lysing pus cells to precipitate the nuclei.

(A) strong alkaline

(B) weak alkaline
(C) strong acidic
(D) weak acidic

55) Which of the following genes of Lac-Operon codes for the synthesis of repressor protein?

(A) Promoter
(B) Regulator
(C) Operator
(D) Structural

56) The variation of biotic and abiotic components Yin the ecosystem due to space results in ________.

(A) spatial pattern

(B) physical structure
(C) habitat
(D) niche

57) Which one of the following is NOT an adaptation found in endoparasites?

(A) Loss of unnecessary sense organs.

(B) Loss of digestive system.
(C) Loss of reproductive system.
(D) Presence of suckers.

58) Sensory epithelium of nasal chamber shows presence of __________

(A) olfactory receptors

(B) gustato receptors
(C) photoreceptors
(D) thermoreceptors
59) If there is complete linkage of genes, then in F2 generation

(A) there will be more recombinant characters.

(B) there will be less recombinant characters.
(C) only parental characters will be seen.
(D) parental and recombinant characters will be seen in equal ratio.

60) Additional nitrogen base sequences called 'UTRs' are present in_______.

(A) DNA
(B) mRNA
(C) rRNA
(D) tRNA

61) ln angiosperms, development of embryo sac involves _____.

(A) 2 meiotic and 3 free nuclear mitotic divisions

(B) 2 mitotic and 3 free nuclear meiotic divisions
(C) 1 meiotic and 3 free nuclear mitotic divisions
(D) 1 meiotic and 2 free nuclear mitotic divisions

62) The conversion of an aquatic habitat into a climax forest community is an example of __________
stem succession.

(A) hydrarch
(B) mesarch
(C) xerarch
(D) secondary

63) Human heart is called myogenic because ________.

(A) it is capable of generating contractions independent of nervous input.

(B) shows presence of Purkinje fibres.
(C) cardiac muscles show systole and diastole.
(D) it completes one cycle in 0.8 sec in adult.

64) A nucleosome consists of __________

(A) DNA molecule of 200 base pairs with nonhistone proteins

(B) histone core with DNA wrapped around it
(C) histone octamer only
(D) single H1 histone molecule with DNA wrapped around it

65) Select the correct sequence in evolutionary history of man from recent to ancient period.
 Homo erectus Homo habilis Neanderthal man Australopithecus Ramapithecus
(A)
Dryopithecus.
Neanderthal man Homo erectus Homo habilis Australopithecus Ramapithecus
(B)
Dryopithecus.
Homo habilis Homo erectus Neanderthal man Australopithecus Dryopithecus
(C)
Ramapithecus.
Neanderthal man Homo habilis Homo erectus Australopithecus Dryopithecus
(D)
Ramapithecus.

66) Given below are two statements.

Statement I: Heart is mesodermal in origin whereas lungs are endodermal.
Statement II: Pleural fluid protects heart and pericardial fluid protects lungs.

(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement Il is correct.

67) The optimum range of temperature for plant growth is ______.

(A) 10°C-15°C
(B) 15°C 25°C
(C) 25°C-35°C
(D) 35°C-45°C

68) Given below are two statements.

Statement I - Detritus is the raw material for decomposition.
Statement II - The breakdown of detritus into CO2, water and nutrient is called decomposition. In the
light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

69) Percolation and water holding capacity of soil is determined by______.

(A) availability of water

(B) amount of rainfall
(C) plants growing on it
(D) soil composition and grain size

70) Species-area relationship was observed by _________.

(A) Alexander Von Humboldt

(B) Walter Rosen
(C) Edward Wilson
(D) Paul Ehrlich

71) Given below are two statements:

Statement- I- Cortical nephrons have longer loops of Henle, which extend very deep in medulla.
Statement- II- Juxta- medullary nephrons have shorter loops of Henle, which run superficially into
the medulla.
In the light of the above statements. choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

72) Select the correct option indicating the products of following reaction:
Lactose

(A) Glucose and Fructose

(B) Glucose and Galactose
(C) Galactose and Fructose
(D) Berglucose and Glucose

73) Complete A and B in the given pyramid of energy from the options given below.

(A) 10% 1%
(B) 1% 10%
(C) 10.1% 1%
(D) 1.1% 10×1%

74) How many meiotic divisions are required for formation of 40 seeds in angiosperms?

(A) 40
(B) 50
(C) 75
(D) 100

75) Match the following in Column I with Colum II and select the correct of
 Column I (Organ) Column II (Function)

A. Liver I. Secretion of glucagon

B. Stomach II. Storage of glycogen

C. Gall bladder III. Secretion of HCl

D. Pancreas IV. Storage of bile

(A) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(B) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

76) Which of the following pair of structure is filled with endolymph?

(A) Scala tympani and semicircular canals

(B) Scala vestibuli and semicircular canals
(C) Scala media and semicircular canals
(D) Scala media and scala vestibuli

77) Observe the following diagram and select the correct chromosomal aberration from the list given
below.

(A) Deletion
(B) Duplication
(C) Inversion
(D) Translocation

78) Which one of the following physiological or environmental factors decides the direction of shoot
and root growth ?

(A) Water
(B) Oxygen
(C) Micro and macro elements
(D) Gravitational force

79) Supreme Court of India has banned loudspeakers at public gatherings after ____________ .

(A) 10 pm
(B) 8 pm
(C) 12 noon
(D) 10 am

80) How many molecules of reduced coenzymes are formed during aerobic respiration of one
glucose molecule?

(A) 08
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14

81) Select the INCORRECT match of hormones and its type.

(A) Aldosterone - Mineralocorticoid

(B) Estradiol - Glucocorticoid
(C) Vasopressin - Antidiuretic
(D) Norepinephrine - Vasoconstrictor

82) Oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve shifts towards left due to following EXCEPT_______.

(A) decrease in ppCO2

(B) decrease in (H+) hydrogen ion concentration
(C) high temperature
(D) decrease in formation of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate

83) Select the correct statements with respect to asexual reproduction. Choose the correct option
given below.
(A) Asexual reproduction does not involve gamete formation.
(B) Progeny is genetically identical to the single parent.
(C) Gemmule formation is a type of asexual reproduction found in sponges, coelenterates and
ascidians.
(D) It involves both mitosis and meiosis in single parent.
(E) Budding type of reproduction occurs in Hydra and corals and takes place in favourable
conditions.

(A) A and E only

(B) C and D only
(C) A, B and D only
(D) A, B and E only

84) Ampicillin resistant gene is knocked out from the vector plasmid by using restriction enzyme
________.

(A) Eco RI
(B) Alu I
(C) Bam H1
(D) Pst 1

85) Match Column I containing names of enzymes with Column II containing their microbial sources.

Column I Column II
 i. Invertase a. Sclerotiana libertine

ii. Pectinase b. Trichoderma konigii

iii. Lipase c. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

iv. Cellulase d. Candida lipolytica

choose the correct option given below.

(A) i - c, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a
(B) i - a, ii - d, iii - c, iv - b
(C) i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b
(D) i - c, ii - a, iii- d, iv - b

86) Vinegar is _______ acid.

(A) gluconic
(B) fumaric
(C) acetic
(D) citric

87) The number of base pairs in VNTRs is between ____________.

(A) 200 - 400

(B) 150 - 200
(C) 120 - 160
(D) 20 - 100

88) In which zone of typical root, root hairs are present?

(A) Maturation zone

(B) Zone of absorption
(C) Zone of elongation
(D) Meristematic region

89) Shows incomplete linkage for colour and shape of grains.

(A) Pisum sativum

(B) Zea mays
(C) Wheat
(D) Rice

90) Which one of the following in NOT secreted during augmentation by the cells of DCT and CT?

(A) K+
(B) H+
(C) Creatinine
(D) Glucose

91) Select the INCORRECT statement regarding reproductive health in humans.

Amniocentesis is used to observe the chromosomes for any possible abnormalities in the
(A)
developing foetus.
(B) Major venereal disease are Gonorrhoea, diarrhoea, syphilis and AIDS.
(C) Population of India in the year 2020 has crossed 1-35 billion.
(D) In a sperm bank, the sperms are stored at low temperatures by cryopreservation.

92) There are certain feminine features developed in human male with XXY chromosome
configuration, then what is the suitable term given to such condition?

(A) Thalassemia
(B) Gynaecomastia
(C) Leukemia
(D) Carcinoma

93) Arteriosclerosis is _________________.

(A) hardening of arteries

(B) deposition of cholesterol in the arteries
(C) induced hormonal changes
(D) increase in viscosity of blood

94) Respiratory centres are located in __________ of brain.

(A) cerebrum and cerebellum

(B) pons and medulla
(C) epithalamus hypothalamus
(D) superior and inferior colliculi

95) The water molecule formed during aerobic respiration by the reaction of reduced molecular
oxygen with proton is called water.

(A) capillary
(B) hygroscopic
(C) metabolic
(D) combined

96)

Select the correct match of hormone and its type

(A) Thyroxine – Polypeptide

(B) ADH – Amine
(C) Insulin – Protein hormone
(D) Calcitonin – Mineralocorticoid

97) Bloating is a symptom seen in the patient suffering from _____.

(A) diarrhoea
(B) jaundice
(C) vomiting
(D) marasmus

98) Match the example of plants given in Column I with their respective type of pollination given in
Column II.

Column I Column II

(i) Water hyacinth (a) Epihydrophily

(ii) Halogaris (b) Anemophily

(iii) Zastera (c) Hypohydrophily

(iv) Vallisneria (d) Entomophily

Choose the correct option given below.
(A) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
(B) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
(C) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
(D) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

99) During luteal phase of menstrual cycle ______ hormone stops secretion of FSH.

(A) progesterone
(B) inhibin
(C) ACTH
(D) ADH

100) Select the correct match with respect to number, name, type of nerve and functions of cranial
nerves.

Number Name Type Function

Movements of larynx,
(A) XI Spinal accessory Mixed pharynx, neck and
shoulder

(B) IX Glossopharyngeal Motor Movement of tongue

(C) III Abducens Sensory Vision

Visceral sensations and

(D) X Vagus Mixed
visceral movements
(A) (A)
(B) (B)
(C) (C)
(D) (D)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. D B D B A B B B C C D D B C A D B D C A
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. B B B C C A A D D B B D D B B A A A B C
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. B C C C D B B D B A

CHEMISTRY

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. C B C A D D C C D A C A D C A B D A B B
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. A C C A A D C B B D C A C A C C C D A C
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. C B D C C D C C A C

BIOLOGY

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. B D C B B B A B D C D C B A B D A C A D
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A. C D D C D D B A C A D B C C B C B D C A
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A. B A D B B C B C A B D D B B B A C A C C
Q. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. C A A B B C C A D A B B A B C C C D A C
Q. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. B C D D D C D B B D B B A B C C A C B D
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Vmax = ωA =

V’ = 6V

2)

3) L1 = L2=

4)

5)

E' = 44 64E

6)

For 1st maxima :

asinθ = nλ

a× =1λ a = 2λ
For 1st secondary maximum :
asinθ =

2λsinθ =

7)

λPTP = b
λQTQ = b
λPTP = λQTQ
Also given that TP = 4TQ and λQ – λP = 3mm
(λQ –3) × 4TQ = λQTQ
4λQ – 12 = λQ

= 4 μm

8)

or

9)

Hence option (C) is correct.

10)
x1 = 2sin(1000πt)
x2 = 3sin(1000πt)
f1 = 500, f2 = 503
beat frequency = f2 – f1 = 3 beats/s
Imax = (3 + 2)2 = 25 unit

11)

= mv2 = 6 J (given)

Also KEdisc =

12)
E1 + E2 = 4E1 – 4E2
3E1 = 5E2

13)

In case of UCM velocity is always tangential with constant magnitude.

14) Orbital radius :

Orbital velocity :

Orbital period :

using z = 1 for hydrogen

15)

From the given graph, point (b) represents retentively and (c) represents coercivity.
16)
Balancing centrifugal & centripetal forces.

17)

Also,

If V is doubled then, l will be halved.

18)

ZL wL
If w is made 3w and L is made 3L.
then, ZL will become 9ZL = 9R

19)

Correct order of operations is :

Diode rectifier, filter, voltage regulator

20)

At highest point entire kinetic energy gets converted to potential energy.

for ball A, (mu2) = (mghA) = [Link]

m (u cos 30)2 = mghB = [Link]

21)

Phase difference

Path difference

22)

23)

By equation of continuity A1 V1 = A2 V2
R2 V = n 2 V2

24)

Time period (T) =

T = 2π (0.4) = 0.8 π
Time taken for 10 oscillators = T × 10
=8π
= 25.12 s

25)

Correct option (C)

26)

T1 = 273 K (S.T.P.)
For constant pressure, V T
 T2 = 3T1 = 819 K

Also Crms =

27)

Orbital speed

28)

Gravitational potential at

Work done to escape mass M to is

The work done is equal to kinetic energy

29)

For A
[isothermal compression]
PV = constant
For B
[Adiabatic compression]

for B find pressure is more than that of A.

30)

For diffraction path difference a = asinθ = nλ for minima

For diffraction path difference asinθ = (2n + 1) for maxima

X = X2

31)

magnetic flux is maximum and induced e.m.f. is zero.

32)

33)

Power = erms irms

34)

Power = i2
50 W = [2.5]2 R
50 = 6.25 R
8Ώ=R

35)

As i + e = A +
60 + 30 = 30 +
= 60

36)

37)

We know that

The voltmeter gives the full-scale deflection for potential difference V. Its resistance is G.
Hence, Ig = (V/G).
Given that V = nV. Therefore,

38)

Diode is reverse biased. So it acts as open switch.

39)

B = m0 (1 + ) H

Correct option (B)

40)
F.B.D of 4 kg

R = 4a – 4(0.5) = 2N

41)
(y1, y2, y3) = (0, 0, 1)

42)

As C.M. remains same

Negative sign shows that m2 should be displaced towards C.M.

43)

Relative density of material

44)

In stead state no current flows through capacitor

As capacity is in parallel with battery
voltage across capacitor = 6 V
Q = CV = 0.5 × 6 = 3 C

45)

but QO = PO

PO = R

P = 6R

46)

47)

Equivalent capacitance

Work done in charging capacitance = Potential Energy stared in capacitance

48) inductive reactance

Phasar diagram (impedance triangle)

49)

for photo electric effect

Case I: …..(1)

Case II: …..(2)

equation 2 /equation 1
 But

50) By Doppler Effect of sound (source is Approaching Stationary observer)

CHEMISTRY

51)

52)

SF4 molecular
(a) Hybridisation [H] = No. of sigma bonds + no. of lone pair

H=4+1
H = 5 sp3d
(b) Geometry : Trigonal bipyramidal

53)

Knowledge based

54)

From the structure of sucrose

55)

Maximum work
Wmax = –2.30nRTlogV2/V1
The gas which has maximum number of moles will perform maximum work.

is more hence will do maximum work.

56)

Given : Average atomic mass of Cl = 35.5

Let % isotopic abdunance of Cl –37 be ‘x’
∴ % isotopic abudance of Cl–35 will be 100–x
∴ Average atomic mass of Cl =

35.5 × 100 = 37x – 35x + 3500

3550 = 2x + 3500
2x = 3550 – 3500

∴ 35Cl : 37Cl

57) Knowledge based

58) Knowledge based

59)
(A) CH4 = sp3 hybridisation
(B) C2H2 = sp hybridisation
(C) NH3 = sp3 hybridisation
(D) BF3 = sp2 hybridisation (Trigonal planar geometry)

60)

Knowledge based

61)

62)

2A + B + C ® D + E
0
Rate = K[A][B]2[C]
New rate equation
Rate = K[2]1 [2]2
Rate = 2 × 4 = 8 times

63)

Given : w = 1 gram, V = 0.3 dm3, Π = 0.2 atm,

T = 300 K, M = ?, R = 0.082 dm3-atm/K

M = 410 g/mole

64)

65) According to priority table of functional groups.

66)

Knowledge based

67)
Knowledge based

68)

Change in O.N. is 5
∴ 5e– are transferred

69)

It is an example of Ist order reaction.

70)

71)

Alcohol > Amine > Alkane

72)

Variation of conductivity (K) with Dilution:

On dilution, Volume is increases, 4 concentration decreases 4 hence number of ions per
unit volume get decreases. So conductivity decreases.
* Variation of Molar conductivity (Λm)with dilution

On dilution, concentration (M) & conductivity (K) both gets decreases but value of

get increases. Increase in value of is much greater than decrease in conductivity hence
molar conductivity increases with dilution.

73)
Vreal = 22.4 x 1.1 = 24.64 dm3

74) Trends of ionisation energy

75)

Radius of orbit

= 211.6 cm (1Å = 102 pm)

76)

77)
Amino group is located at C–3.

78) Vinylic Halides

In Vinylic halides the carbon that bears the halogen is doubly bonded to another carbon
CH3 - CH = CH - X

79)
80)

81)

82)

Henry’s law

83)

C4H10 (Butane) have 2 different structural isomers.

84)

85)

R – Mg – X

86) CaC2 + D2O → Ca(OD)2 + C2D2

87)

BH3 and AlH3 are electron deficient while CH4 is electron precise hydride.

88) Amphoteric metal + NaOH → H2

 89) Hydrides with lone pair on central atom is known as electron rich hydride.

90)

Isomers have same general formula and molecular formula.

91)

Explaining the Question :- Question is asking to choose option in which bond length
decreases during

Concept:- This question is based on MOT

Solution :-

C2 =

Bond length
From C2 to
bond order increases hence bond length decreases

Final Answer :- 3

92) Question Explanation:

We need to find ΔE of system if value of Heat (q) work are given.

Concept:
First Law of thermodynamics

Solution:
ΔE = q + w
q = + 20 KJ (Heat absorbed by system)
W = – 10 KJ (Work done by system)
ΔE = q + w
ΔE = 20 – 10 = 10 KJ
ΔE = + 10 KJ
Internal energy Increases by 10 KJ.

Final Answer: Option(2)

93)

94) Explain Question:

What is efficiency of fuel cell.
Concept:
Fuel cell.

Solution:

The efficiency of fuel cell

Final answer: Option (3)

95) Keq only changes with reaction temperature.

96) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about product.

Concept :
This question is based on Nitration.

Solution :

Final Answer :
Option (4)

97)

electrons

Be+2 → 4 – 2 = 2
Li+ → 3 – 1 = 2

98) Fractional distillation

99)
 100)

Question Explanation: Find the maximum number of electrons in 5f orbitals.

Concept: Electron Configuration
Solution: The number of orbitals in a subshell is determined by the azimuthal quantum
number (l). The 'f' subshell corresponds to l = 3. The number of orbitals is given by 2l+1. Each
orbital can hold a maximum of two electrons.
Calculation: For an f-subshell, l = 3. Number of orbitals = 2l + 1 = 2(3) + 1 = 7.
Maximum number of electrons = 2 electrons/orbital

× 7 orbitals = 14 electrons.

f-subshell consists of 7 orbitals and each orbital can accommodate a maximum of 2 electrons
therefore f-subshell can accommodate a maximum of 14 electrons.

Final Answer: 14

BIOLOGY