24-08-2025

PTMT_06_23082025 MD

PHYSICS

1)

Find work done by gravitational force if block starts slipping down from top most point and reaches

to the lower end:-

(1) 50 N
(2)
(3) –100 N
(4) –200 N

2) A particle 'A' of mass 20 kg is moving in the positive x–direction. Its initial position is x = 0 &
initial velocity is 1 m/s. The velocity at x = 10 m is: (use the graph given)

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3)
(4) 100/3 m/s

3) The spring is compressed by distance a and the system is released. The block again comes to rest
when the spring is elongated by a distance b. During this process :-
 work done by the spring on the block=
(1)

(2)
work done by the spring on the block=
coefficient of friction=
(3)

(4)
coefficient of friction =

4) A block of 4 kg mass starts at rest and slides a distance d down a frictionless incline (angle 30°)
where it runs into a spring of negligible mass. The block slides an additional 25 cm before it is
brought to rest momentarily by compressing the spring. The force constant of the spring is 400

Nm–1. The value of d is (take g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 25 cm
(2) 37.5 cm
(3) 62.5 cm
(4) None of these

5) A block of mass 'm' is placed on a rough inclined plane. The plane is moving with a constant
velocity v. The block is not sliding on the inclined plane. Work done by force of friction (w.r.t.

ground) in time t is :-

(1) (µmgcosθ)vt
(2) zero
(3) (mgvt)sinθcosθ
(4) (mgsinθ)vt

6) A motorcyclist is trying to jump across a path as shown by driving horizontally off a cliff A at a
speed of 5 ms–1. Ignore air resistance and take g = 10 ms–2. The speed with which he touches the
peak B is :-

(1) 2.0 ms–1

(2) 15 ms–1
(3) 25 ms–1
(4) 20 ms–1

7) A car of mass m is accelerating on a level smooth road under the action of a single force F. The
power delivered to the car is constant and equal to P. If the velocity of the car at an instant is v, then
after travelling how much distance it becomes double?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) If spring constant of the spring is 100 N/m, extension produced in it is nearly :-

(1) 18 cm
(2) 13 cm
(3) 9 cm
(4) 21 cm

9)
A block is released on a smooth track from A. The minimum value of h so that the block will
complete the loop is :-

(1) R/2
(2) 3R/2
(3) zero
(4) 5R/2

10) A particle moving along the x axis is acted upon by a single force F = F0e–kx, where F0 and k are
constants. The particle is released from rest at x = 0. It will attain a maximum kinetic energy of:

(1)

(2)

(3)
k
(4) ke F0

11) Consider the situation as shown in the diagram. The bullet penetrates the block and emerges

0 0

with speed v /3. If after collision, the string becomes horizontal, v will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)
A rifle bullets loses th of its velocity in passing through a plank. Assuming that the plank
exerts a constant retarding force, the least number of such planks required just to stop the bullet is
:-

(1) 11
(2) 20
(3) 21
(4) 9

13) A stone with weight w is thrown vertically upward into the air from ground level with initial
speed v0. If a constant force f due to air drag acts on the stone throughout it's flight. The maximum
height attained by the stone is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A particle is moved from (0, 0) to (a, a) under a force F = from two paths. Path 1 is OP
and path 2 is OQP. Let W1 and W2 be the work done by this force is these two paths. Then, :-

(1) W1 = W2
(2) W1 = 2W2
(3) W2 = 2W1
(4) W2 = 4W1

15) Amount of work done to carry a block from A to B will be (Assume friction coefficient μ):-
(1) mgh
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) A pendulum of length 2m is initially lifted at P. When it reaches Q, it loses 10% of its total energy

due to air resistance. The velocity at Q is

(1) 6 m/sec
(2) 1 m/sec
(3) 2 m/sec
(4) 8 m/sec

17) A pigeon in flight experiences a force of air resistance given by F= bv2 where v is the flight
speed and b is a constant. What is the maximum speed of the pigeon if its power output is P ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The curved portions are smooth and horizontal surface is rough. The block is released from P. At

what distance from A it will stop ?

(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 4 m

19)

A constant force F is applied on a body. The power (P) generated is related to the time elapsed (t) as

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) The string of a pendulum of length 'l' is displaced through 90° from the vertical and released.
Then, the minimum strength of the string in order to withstand the tension as the pendulum passes
through the mean position is

(1) mg
(2) 3 mg
(3) 5 mg
(4) 6 mg

21) Two blocks of masses m1 = 2kg and m2 = 4 kg are moving in the same direction with speeds v1 =
6 m/s and v2 = 3 m/s, respectively on a frictionless surface as shown in the figure. An ideal spring
with spring constant k = 30000 N/m is attached to the back side of m2. Then the maximum
compression of the spring after collision will be

(1) 0.06 m
(2) 0.04 m
(3) 0.02 m
(4) None of these

22) A force acting on a body maintains its velocity at . The power

exerted is :-

(1) 4 W
(2) 5 W
(3) 2 W
(4) 8 W

23) If two persons A and B take 2 seconds and 4 seconds respectively to lift an object to the same
height h, then the ratio of their powers is:

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 3

24) The potential energy of a particle in a force field is U = where A and B are positive
constants and r is the distance of particle from the centre of field for the equilibrium. The distance of
particle is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A uniform chain (mass M, length L) is released from rest from a smooth horizontal surface as
shown in the figure. Velocity of the chain at the instant it completely comes out of the table will be.

V=
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
V=

26) A water pump lifts liters of water to a height of 30m in one hour. If the efficiency of the
pump is 75% power of the pump is (g = 10ms-2)

(1) 2kw
(2) 3kw
(3) 4kw
(4) 1kw

27) A particle moves in a potential region given by . Its state of equilibrium will
be -

(1) x = 25 m
(2) x = 0·25 m
(3) x = 0·05 m
(4) x = 0·5 m

28) Assuming potential energy 'U' at ground level to be zero.

All objects have same mass.
UP = Potential energy of solid sphere
UQ = Potential energy of solid cube
UR = Potential energy of solid cone
US = Potential energy of solid cylinder

(1) US > UR
(2) UQ > US
(3) UP > UQ
(4) UP > US

29) A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying on a smooth table and one third of its length is
hanging vertically down over the edge of the table. If g is acceleration due to gravity, the work
required to pull the hanging part on the table is :-

(1) MgL
(2) MgL/3
(3) MgL/9
(4) MgL/18

30) An object of mass 4 kg is moving along X-axis such that its position x varies with time t as x2 =
16t3, with x in metre and t in sec. Work done as a function of time can be shown as :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31) A particle of mass 500 gm is moving in a straight line with velocity = b x5/2. The work done by
the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 4 m is : (Take b = 0.25 m–3/2 s–1).

(1) 2 J
(2) 4 J
(3) 8 J
(4) 16 J

32) Velocity-time graph for a body of mass 10 kg is shown in figure. Work-done on the body in first

two seconds of the motion is :-

(1) –9300 J
(2) –12000 J
(3) 12000 J
(4) –4500 J

33) A shot is fired at 30° with the vertical from a point on the ground with kinetic energy K. If air
resistance is ignored, the kinetic energy at the top of the trajectory is:

(1) 3K/4
(2) K/2
(3) K
(4) K/4

34) The spring extends by x on loading, then energy stored by the spring is (if T is the tension in
spring and k is spring constant).

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) A simple pendulum is released from A as shown. If m and represent the mass of the bob and

length of the pendulum, the gain in kinetic energy at B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A block of mass 2 kg is released from A on a track that is one quadrant of a circle of radius 1 m.
It slide down the track and reaches B with a speed of 4m/s and finally stops at C at a distance of 3m
from B. The work done against the force of friction is :-

(1) 2 J
(2) 5 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 20 J

37) The potential energy for a force field is given by U(x, y) = sin (x + y). The magnitude of force

acting on the particle of mass m at is

(1) 1
(2)

(3)

(4) 0

38) In figure, a block of mass 4 kg falls on a spring from a height 15 cm. If the spring constant of the
spring is 2000 N/m, maximum compression in the spring will be (take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 14 cm
(2) 18.2 cm
(3) 12.6 cm
(4) 10 cm

39) A particle is projected with a speed . The coefficient of friction between the particle
and the hemispherical plane is μ = 0.5. Then, the initial acceleration of the particle is :

g
(1)

(2) g ←

(3)

(4) 2g

40) A particle of mass 100 g is performing vertical circular motion as shown in the figure. Find

tangential acceleration at the given position :-

(1) 500 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 0.5 m/s2
(4) 100 m/s2

41)
A roller coaster is moving as shown in figure. It just completes the verticle circular motion on a path
of radius 2m. What should be the velocity at the highest point.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42) A particle placed of tap of a smooth sphere when disturbed slightly leave contact of θ. Then θ = ?

(1) cos–1 1/3

(2) cos–1 1/4
(3) cos–1 2/3
(4) cos–1 1/2

43) A bob is attached to a string of length ℓ and the bob is released keeping the string horizontal. If
the string is catched by a nail located vertically below the point of suspension and the bob just
swings around a complete circle around the nail, then the distance of the nail from point of
suspension.

(1) (2/5)ℓ
(2) (2/3)ℓ
(3) (3/5)ℓ
(4) (1/3)ℓ

44) A particle is released from the top of the smooth hemisphere R as shown

The normal contact between the particle and the hemisphere in

position θ is :-

(1) mg (3 – 2 cos θ)
(2) mg (3 cos θ – 2)
(3) mg (4 cos θ – 3)
(4) mg (4 – 3 cos θ)

45) A mass tied to a string moves in a vertical circle with a uniform speed of 5 m/s as shown. At the

point P the string breaks. The mass will reach a height above P of nearly :-

(1) 1m
(2) 0.5 m
(3) 1.75 m
(4) 1.25 m

CHEMISTRY

1) If ∆Hºf (NH3) = –46 kJ and ∆H° of the reaction N2H4(g) + H2(g) → 2 NH3(g) is –187.4 kJ, than ∆H°f
(N2H4) is :

(1) 95.4 kJ
(2) –95.4 kJ
(3) –141.5 kJ
(4) –233.7 kJ

2) If the standard entropies of CH4(g), H2O(g), CO2(g) and H2(g) are 186.2, 188.2, 197.6 and 130.6 J-K–1-
mol–1 respectively, then standard entropy change for the reaction :-
CH4(g) + H2O(g) → CO2(g) + 3H2(g) is:-

(1) 75 J-K–1-mol–1
(2) 145 J-K–1-mol–1
(3) 215 J-K–1-mol–1
(4) 285 J-K–1-mol–1

3) The standard enthalpy of formation of octane (C8H18) is –250 kJ/mol. Calculate the enthalpy of
combustion of C8H18. The enthalpy of formation of CO2(g) and H2O(ℓ) are –394 kJ/mol and –286
kJ/mol respectively:-

(1) –5200 kJ/mol

(2) –5726 kJ/mol
(3) –5476 kJ/mol
(4) –5310 kJ/mol

4)
If
H2O(g) → H(g) + OH(g) ; ΔH = 498 KJ mol–1
OH(g) → H(g) + O(g) ; ΔH = 428 KJ mol–1
then bond enthalpy of the O—H bond is :

(1) 498 KJ mol–1

(2) 463 KJ mol–1
(3) 428 KJ mol–1
(4) 70 KJ mol–1

5) The heat of neutralization of strong acid and strong base is 57.0 kJ eq–1. The heat released when
0.5 mol of HNO3 solution is added to 0.2 mol of NaOH solution is :-

(1) 57.0 kJ
(2) 28.5 kJ
(3) 11.40 kJ
(4) 34.9 kJ

6) Enthalpy of dilution of 4M HCl to 2M HCl is –2.5 kJ/mol. Find enthalpy change when 500 ml of
HCl is diluted from 4M to 2M

(1) –2.5 kJ/mol

(2) –5 kJ/mol
(3) –10 kJ/mol
(4) –1.25 kJ/mol

7) The heat of sublimation of I2(s) is 57.3 kJ/mole and enthalpy of fusion of I2(s) is 15.5 kJ/mole. The
enthalpy of vapourisation of I2(ℓ) is :-

(1) 41.8 kJ/mole

(2) –41.8 kJ/mole
(3) +72.8 kJ/mole
(4) –72.8 kJ/mole

8)

What is heat of atomisation of P4O6(s)

Given heat of sublimation of P4O6 is x kJ/mol & P-O bond energy is y kJ/mol.

(1) x + 6y
(2) x + y
(3) x + 8y
(4) x + 12y

9) If S + O2 → SO2 ΔH = –298.2 kJ

SO2 + → SO3 ΔH = –98.7 kJ

 SO3 + H2O → H2SO4 ΔH = –130.2 kJ

H2 + → H2O ΔH = –287.3 kJ
Then the enthalpy of formation of H2SO4 at 298 K is :-

(1) –814.4 kJ
(2) –650.3 kJ
(3) –320.5 kJ
(4) –233.5 kJ

10) The bond enthalpies of H2 , X2 and HX are in the ratio of 2 : 1 : 2. If the enthalpy for formation of
HX is –50 KJ mol–1, the bond enthalpy of H2 is :-

(1) 200 KJ mol–1

(2) 400 KJ mol–1
(3) 100 KJ mol–1
(4) 300 KJ mol–1

11)

What amount of energy (in kJ) is released in the combustion of 5.8 gm of C4H10(g) ?
2C4H10(g) + 13O2(g) → 8CO2(g) + 10H2O(ℓ ; ΔH° = –5756 kJ
)

(1) 575.6
(2) 287.8
(3) 182
(4) 57.56

12) Consider the reaction at 300 K

C6H6(ℓ) + , kJ
What is ΔU for the combustion of 1.5 mole of benzene at 27°C ?

(1) –326.25 kJ
(2) –4900.25 kJ
(3) –4906.5 kJ
(4) –3274.75 kJ

13) A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a
constant temperature of 37.0°C. As it does so, it absorbs 208J of heat. The values of q and w for the
process will be :-
(R = 8.314 J/mol K) (ln 7.5 = 2.01)

(1) q = + 208 J, w = – 208 J

(2) q = – 208 J, w = – 208 J
(3) q = – 208 J, w = + 208 J
(4) q = + 208 J, w = + 208 J
14) The heat of dissociation of H2 is 435 kJ mol–1. If C(s) → C(g), ∆H = 720 kJ mol–1, calculate the
bond energy per mol of the C–H bond in CH4 molecule ∆Hf for CH4 = –75 kJ mol–1 :

(1) 416.25 kJ mol–1

(2) 1665 kJ mol–1
(3) 832.5 kJ mol–1
(4) None

15) The vlaue of ΔH(aq.) of BaCl2(s) and BaCl2 .2H2O(s) are –a KJ/mol and b KJ/mol respectively. The
value of ΔHhydration of BaCl2(s) is:

(1) b – a
(2) a + b
(3) –a – b
(4) a – b

16) Given that

CH4(g) + 360 KJ → C(g) + 4H(g)
C2H6(g) + 620KJ → 2C(g) + 6H(g)
The value of C–C bond energy is :

(1) 260 KJ mol–1

(2) 180 KJ mol–1
(3) 130 KJ mol–1
(4) 80 KJ mol–1

17) The standard heat of combustion of a hydrocarbon compound is an/a-

(1) Extensive property

(2) Colligative property
(3) Intensive property
(4) Constitutive property

18) Which of the following equations represents standard heat of formation of CH4 ?

(1) C(diamond) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g)

(2) C(graphite) + 2H2 (g) → CH4 (g)
(3) C(diamond) + 4H (g) → CH4(g)
(4) C(graphite) + 4H(g) → CH4(g)

19)

During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas its

(1) Internal energy increases

(2) Enthalpy decreases
(3) Enthalpy remains unaffected
(4) Enthalpy reduces to zero

20) In a closed insulated container a liquid is stirred with a paddle to increase the temperature
which of the following is true :

(1) ∆E = W ≠ 0, q = 0
(2) ∆E = W = 0, q ≠ 0
(3) ∆E = 0, W = q ≠ 0
(4) W = 0 ∆E = q ≠ 0

21) The work done during the expansion of a gas from a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a constant
external pressure of 3 atm is

(1) –608 J
(2) +304 J
(3) –304 J
(4) –6 J

22) What is the value of ∆E, when 64g oxygen is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC at constant volume? (Cv
on an average is 5 J-K–1-mol–1) :-

(1) 1200 J
(2) 1500 J
(3) 1800 J
(4) 2000 J

23) The value of ΔE when the system absorbs 1000 KJ of heat and does 650 KJ of work on the
surrounding is :

(1) 350 KJ
(2) –350 KJ
(3) 1650 KJ
(4) –1650 KJ

24)

ΔH = ΔE for the case :

(1) C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g)

(2) C(s) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g)
(3) NH4HS(s) → NH3(g) + H2S(g)
(4) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

25) The correct figure representing isothermal and adiabatic expansions of an ideal gas from a
particular initial state is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) q = –w is not true for :-

(1) Isothermal process

(2) Adiabatic process
(3) Cyclic process
(4) 1 and 3 both

27)

Which one is incorrect statement:

(1) In open system mass and heat can exchange

(2) Pressure and temperature are intensive properties
(3) Work is not a state function
(4) Volume and density are extensive properties

28) Heat absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process shown in figure is :

(1) 107 π J
(2) 106 π J
(3) 102 π J
(4) 104 π J

29)

P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes are given in the given figure:
Plot A and plot B should correspond to :

(1) He and O2
(2) He and Ar
(3) O2 and He
(4) O2 and F2

30)

For the reaction, C(s) + O2 (g) → CO(g)

Which one of the statement is correct at constant T and P ?

(1) ΔH = ΔU
(2) ΔH < ΔU
(3) ΔH > ΔU
(4) ΔH is Independent of physical state of reactants

31) If work done by the system is 300 joule when 100 cal heat is supplied to it. The change in
internal energy during the process is :-

(1) – 200 Joule

(2) 400 Joule
(3) 720 Joule
(4) 120 Joule

32) Two litres of an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atm expands, isothermally into a vacuum until its
total volume is 10 litres. How much heat is absorbed ?

(1) 8 joule
(2) Zero
(3) 5 joule
(4) 3 joule

33)
For the reaction at 300 K
A(g) + B(g) C(g) ΔE = –3.0 kcal;
ΔS = –10.0 cal/K value of ΔG is

(1) -600 cal

(2) -6600 cal
(3) -6000 cal
(4) None of these

34) Calculate the temperature above which the reduction of lead oxide to lead in the following
reaction becomes spontaneous.
PbO(s) + C(s) → Pb(s) + CO(g)
[given : ∆H = 108.4 kJ mol–1 ; ∆S = 190 JK–1 mol–1]

(1) 570.5 K
(2) 297.5 K
(3) 397.5 K
(4) 165.5 K

35)

In which reactions ∆S is positive

(1) H2O(ℓ) → H2O(s)

(2) 3O2(g) → 2O3(g)
(3) H2O(ℓ) → H2O(g)
(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

36) Determine the entropy change for the reaction given below :
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) at 300 K.
If standard entropies of H2(g), O2(g) and H2O(l) are 126.6, 201.20 and 68.0 J K–1 mol–1 respectively.

(1) –218.4 J K–1 mol–1

(2) –318.4 J K–1 mol–1
(3) –520.2 J K–1 mol–1
(4) –128.6 J K–1 mol–1

37)

When ∆H is + ve and ∆S is –ve, the reactions

(1) Always non-spontaneous at all temperatures

(2) Always spontaneous
(3) Always spontaneous at high temperature
(4) Spontaneous at low temperature but non-spontaneous at high temperatures

38)
Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any
process is :

(1) ∆Ssystem – ∆Ssurroundings > 0

(2) ∆Ssystem > 0 only
(3) ∆Ssurroundings > 0 only
(4) ∆Ssystem + ∆Ssurroundings > 0

39)

Under what condition ΔG = ΔGº

(1) Q = 1
(2) Q > 1
(3) Q < 1
(4) Q = 0

40)

For the reaction H2O(ℓ) H2O(g) at 373K and one atmosphere pressure :

(1) ΔE = 0
(2) ΔH = TΔS
(3) ΔH = ΔE
(4) ΔH = 0

41)

If 900 J/g of heat is exchanged at boiling point of water, then what is increase in entropy?

(1) 43.4 J mol–1 K–1

(2) 87.2 J mol–1 K–1
(3) 900 J mol–1 K–1
(4) Zero

42) Assertion (A): In the equation, H = U + PV, H is a state function and independent of path.
Reason (R): U, P, V all are state functions.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct

43) Assertion (A): The mean bond energy of all the four C–H bonds in CH4 molecule is not equal.
Reason (R): After breaking of C–H bonds one by one, the electronic environments changes.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct

44) Assertion (A): In adiabatic process, heat energy exchanged is zero.

Reason (R): Temperature of the system does not change in adiabatic process.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

45) Assertion : For an isothermal expansion of ideal gas, change in internal energy is zero.
Reason : For an ideal gas, internal energy is a function of both temperature & volume.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.

BIOLOGY

1) Heterosporous pteridophyte is

(1) Salvinia
(2) Equisetum
(3) Adiantum
(4) Lycopodium

2) Read the statement A to D & select wrong statement :

(A) The pteridophytes include horsetails & fern
(B) Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues : xylem & phloem.
(C) In Bryophytes, the dominant phase in the life cycle is the sporophytic plant body.
(D) In Pteridophytes, the main plant body is a gametophyte

(1) only B
(2) ony A & C
(3) only C & D
(4) only B & D

3) Which of the following is responsible for peat formation :-

(1) Sphagnum
(2) Marchantia
(3) Riccia
(4) Funaria
4) List some of the organism are given below.
Trypanosoma, Chlorella, Spirullina, Chlamydomonas, Euglena, Physarum, Gonyaulax.
How many organism are rich in protein and are used food supplement even by space travellers ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

5) What is common among Porphyra, Agaricus, Chlorella and Spirulina ?

(1) They all are placed under same kingdom according to five kingdom classification.
(2) They all have nuclear membrane
(3) They all may be used as food or food supplement.
(4) They all are autotrophic

6) Stored food of red algae is similar to :-

(1) Chitin
(2) Mannitol
(3) Amylopectin and glycogen
(4) Glycogen and chitin

7) Find out the correct matches from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Ulothrix Filamentous Chlorophyceae

ii Laminaria Brown Algae Phaeophyceae

iii Nostoc N2 Fixing green alga Cyanobacteria

iv Fucus Haplontic life cycle Phaeophyceae

(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) iii and iv
(4) i and iii

8) Study the following table carefully and give the correct answer from the options :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Chlorella Protein source Cyanobacteria

(ii) Spirullina Chlorophyceae Protein source

Grow in salty
(iii) Halophiles Archaebacteria
areas
 Saprophytic Forms
(iv) Slime moulds
protists plasmodium
(1) i & ii - incorrect, iii & iv correct
(2) i & iii - incorrect, ii & iv correct
(3) ii & and iv - incorrect, iii & i - correct
(4) i, ii, iii - correct, only iv is incorrect

9) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Zoospores formation is the most common mode of asexual reproduction among algae.
(b) Volvox and Fucus exhibit oogamous mode of sexual reproduction.
(c) Laminarin and mannitol are complex proteins, serve as reserve food in brown algae.
(d) Zoospores are pear shaped biflagellated having two laterally inserted flagella of unequal size in
brown algae.

(1) Only a, b and d

(2) Only a, b
(3) Only a, b and c
(4) Only b, d

10) Which of the following is/are correct combinations with respect to their unique characters :-
(A) Marsilea – Sporocarp and heterospory.
(B) Puccinia – Heterocious and ascospores.
(C) Cycas – Motile sperm and phanerogam.
(D) Sphagnum – False moss

(1) Only (A) and (B)

(2) Only (A) and (C)
(3) Only (C)
(4) Only (C) and (D)

11) Which of the following is true for alternation of generation ?

(1) The sporophyte undergoes syngamy to produce spores

(2) The gametophyte undergoes syngamy to produce spores
(3) The sporophyte undergoes meiosis to produce spores
(4) The gametophyte undergoes meiosis to produce gametes

12) List some of the plants is give below. How many plants are vascular cryptogames
Selaginella, Azolla, Marsilea, Saprolegnia, Petunia, Cedrus, Funaria, Polytrichum, Pteridium,
Polysiphonia

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six
13) Assertion: The plant body of Bryophytes is more differentiated than that of algae.
Reason: They may possess root like, stem like or leaf like structures.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) A graph is given below exhibiting evolution of gametophyte of different plant groups at No. 1 to

6. Identify that number 1 representing which group of plants ?

(1) Moss
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Angiosperm
(4) Liverwort

15) All characters belong to gymnosperms except-

(1) Some are homosporous and some are heterosporous

(2) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall
(3) Main plant body sporophytic
(4) Gametophytic generation is not independent.

16) Select incorrect statement for bryophytes-

(1) They have little economic importance and little ecological importance.
(2) Main plant body is gametophyte & independent.
(3) Sporophytic generation completely or partially depends upon gametophytic generation.
(4) They have jacketed sex organs.

17) The predominant stage of the life cycle of moss is gametophyte which consists of two stages they
are respectively :-

(1) Protonema, Prothallus

(2) Spore mother cell, protonema
(3) Protonema, leafy stage
(4) Protonema, Zygote

18) Study the given diagram and give answer of questions a, b and c.
 (a) Name of plant ?
(b) Class of plant ?
(c) Ploidy of rhizoids ?

a b c

(1) Sphagnum Lycopsida Haploid

(2) Equisetum Sphenopsida Diploid

(3) Funaria Liverwort Diploid

(4) Marchantia Moss Haploid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19)

Read the following statements and find out how many statements are correct :-
(A) As the producers algae are of paramount importance.
(B) Stores food of phaeophyceae is floridean starch.
(C) Cell wall of algae is made up of cellulose, galactans, mannans etc.
(D) Volvox is an example of colonial forms
(E) The red algae usually vegetatively reproduce by fragmentation.

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Two

20) Read the following statements about pteridophytes :-

(i) The main plant body is sporophyte
(ii) The sporophyte is differentiated into true roots, stem and leaves.
(iii) Their gametophyte lack vascular bundle
(iv) Microphylls are found in Selaginella and macrophylls in ferns like Dryopteris
(v) Strobili or cones are found in Selaginella and Equisetum
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Two
(4) Three

21) In given figure of Funaria, how many labelled parts represent gametophytic and sporophytic

generations, respectively ?

(1) 2, 3
(2) 3, 2
(3) 4, 1
(4) 1, 4

22) Some of the structures are given below which of them are related to life cycle of gymnosperms ?
Endosperm, Nucellus, Microsporophyll, Megasporophyll, seed, archegonia, integument.
How many of above structure/s is/are haploid ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

23) The gametophyte of pteridophytes requires to grow-

(1) Warm, damp and shady place

(2) Cool, damp and shady place
(3) Warm, dry and shady place
(4) Cool, dry and place of well sunshine

24) Match the column-A with column-B :-

Column-A Column-B

(a) Volvox (i) Green algae

(b) Chara (ii) Red algae

(c) Dictyota (iii) Green algae

(d) Polysiphonia (iv) Brown algae

 (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) i iii ii iv

(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iii iv ii i

(4) iii i iv ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) :- Sporophyte of pteridophytes is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves.
Reason (R) :- These organs lack vascular tissue.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

26) How many following characters does not belongs to bryophyta ?

(i) Amphibians of the plant kingdom.
(ii) Reptiles of the plant kingdom.
(iii) Lack true root, stem and leaves.
(iv) Sporophytes depends on gametophyte.
(v) Vascular tissue system present.
(vi) Presence of embryo.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

27) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In pteridophytes, the genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce only one kind of
spore and are called homosporous.
Statement II: The development of zygotes into young embryos within the female gametophytes in
heterosporous plants is considered a precursor to the seed habit, which is an important step in
evolution.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
28) Consider the following statements regarding the major pigments and stored food in the different
groups of algae and select the correct options given–
(A) In cholorophyceae the stored food material is starch and the major pigments are chlorophyll - a
and b
(B) In phaeophyceae, laminarin is the stored food and major pigments are chlorophyll-a and b
(C) In rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food and the major pigments are chlorophyll a &
d and phycoerythrin.

(1) A is correct, but B and C are wrong

(2) A and B are correct but C is wrong
(3) A and C are correct, but B is wrong
(4) C is correct, but A and B are wrong

29) Read the following statements and select the correct option:
I. Heterospory is found in all members of pteropsida
II. Selaginella is advanced among pteridophytes as it produces seeds
III. Pinus has unbranched stem and has male and female cones on separate plants
IV. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of life cycle of Fucus

(1) All are incorrect

(2) Both II and III are correct
(3) Only II is correct
(4) Only IV is incorrect

30) Choose the correct option w.r.t. given diagram.

(1) D - Ginkgo, A - Long Shoot, B - Dwarf shoot, C - Seeds

(2) D - Ginkgo, A - Dwarf Shoot, B - Long shoot, C - Fruits
(3) D - Cycas, A - Dwarf Shoot, B - Long shoot, C - Fruits
(4) D - Ginkgo, A - Dwarf Shoot, B - Long shoot, C - Seeds

31) The following have diplontic life cycle except

(1) Fucus
(2) Salvia
(3) Salvinia
(4) Cycas
32) The red thalli of most of the red algae are

(1) Unicellular
(2) Multicellular
(3) Non-cellular
(4) Acellular

33) Spirogyra, Dictyota and Sargassum are similar in having -

(1) Laminarin and mannitol as reserve food.

(2) Unicelled and non-jacketed sex organs.
(3) Archegonia and antheridia.
(4) Multicelled and jacketed sex organs.

34) How many statements are incorrect for pteridophytes from given sentences ?
(i) Prothallus is inconspicuous, small but multicellular. free-living, mostly photosynthetic thalloid
gametophyte.
(ii) Prothallus requires cool, damp, shady places to grow.
(iii) Majority of the pteridophytes are heterosporous.
(iv) Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are homosporous.
(v) The development of the zygotes into young embryos takes place within the female gametophytes,

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

35) Protonema stage is found in

(1) Hornworts
(2) Mosses
(3) Liverworts
(4) Fungi

36) Read the following statement :-

(A) Possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and xanthophylls
(B) Cellulosic Cell wall usually covered by gelatinous coating of algin
(C) Gametes are pyriform and bear two laterally attached flagella
(D) Members are found primarily in marine habitats.
All these information are related to which class

(1) Phaeophyceae
(2) Chlorophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

37) Choose the incorrect statement:

 The leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity
(1)
and wind.
In Pinus male and female cones borne on the same tree but in Cycas male cones and
(2)
megasporophylls are borne on different trees.
(3) Pollination in gymnosperms is carried by air.
(4) In gymnosperms male and female gametophytes have independent free-living existence.

38) Prothallus in pteridophyte is :-

(1) Nonvascular, haploid, multicellular, small mostly photosynthetic thalloid body

(2) Vascular, diploid, Multicellular sporophyte
(3) 2n, free-living gametophyte generation
(4) A thallus/plant body in some primitive pteridophytes

39) Which of the following algal group do not produce motile structures?

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Both pheophyceae and rhodophyceae

40) Which of the following statement is incorrect about Gymnosperm?

(1) Pollination takes place by air in gymnosperms

(2) They are heterosporous
(3) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed
(4) All Gymnosperm are dioecious without any exception

41) Embryogenesis is absent in which of the given plant groups?

(1) Algae
(2) Bryophyte
(3) Pteridophyte
(4) Gymnosperm

42) How many in the list given below have pear shaped male gametes.
Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra, Fucus, Laminaria, Ulothrix, Sargassum, Chara, Volvox, Porphyra,
Gelidium, Gracilaria, Chlorella

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two

43) Identify the following figure of a pteridophyte :-

(1) Salvinia
(2) Equisetum
(3) Pteridium
(4) Selaginella

44) The sporophyte of mosses –

(I) Is more elaborate than that is liverwort
(II) Consisting of foot, seta and capsule
(III) Spores present in capsule
(IV) Spore produce after meiosis
(V) Elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal

(1) All are correct

(2) (I), (II), (III) only
(3) (IV), (V) only
(4) (I), (III), (V) only

45) The given figures (A, B, C, D) represent the members algae. Identify the correct option for the
given diagrams.

[Link]. A B C D

1 Porphyra Fucus Dictyota Polysiphonia

2 Polysiphonia Porphyra Dictyota Fucus

3 Fucus Dictyota Porphyra Polysiphonia

4 Porphyra Polysiphonia Fucus Dictyota

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians and marine fishes excrete urea and are called
ureotelic animals.
Statement-II : Urea are produced in every cells of body during metabolic activities.

(1) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

47) In the given diagram choose the correct statement regarding of labelled part :

(1) A – efferent arteriole. It has more diameter than afferent artiole.

(2) B–Bowman's capsule. Inner wall is containing podocytes.
(3) C–DCT, responsible for conditional reabsorption of Na+.
(4) D–PCT, max reabsorption of H2O occurs in this part.

48)

Correct representation of counter current mechanism is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

49) If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to be expected?

(1) There will be no urine formation.

(2) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed.
(3) The urine will be more concentrated.
(4) The urine will be more diluted.

50) Assertion : The urinary bladder stretches as urine collects.

Reason : The urinary bladder is lined by transitional epithelium.

(1) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) If assertion is correct and reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason is false

51) Juxtamedullary nephron differs from cortical nephron in

(a) Number
(b) Length of loop of Henle
(c) Presence of vasa recta
(d) Location in kidney

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

52) In which one of the following organisms its excretory organs are correctly stated?

(1) Humans Kidneys, sebaceous glands

(2) Earthworm Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia

(3) Cockroach Malpighian tubules and enteric caeca

(4) Frog Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) Which of the following statements is/are true:-

(A) Filtrate is hypertonic in proximal part of distal convoluted tubule
(B) Filtrate is isotonic in proximal convoluted tubule
(C) Filtrate at base of loop of Henle is hypertonic
(D) When the urine passes through the collecting tubule, it becomes hypotonic
(E) Filtrate in the proximal part of distal convoluted tubule is hypotonic as compared to that in the
thick segment of ascending limb of Henle's loop

(1) B, C, D, E only
(2) B, C only
(3) B, C and E only
(4) B, E only

54) (A) Concentration of urine is function of Juxta-medullary Nephron.

(B) Afferent arteriole has more diameter than efferent arteriole.
(C) Rennin is a vasoconstrictor
Read above statements carefully & choose correct option

(1) A is correct while, B and C are incorrect

(2) B is correct while, A and C are incorrect
(3) A, B are correct while, C is incorrect
(4) A, C are correct while, B is incorrect

55)

(a) Glucose is completely reabsorbed

(b) Urea is partially reabsorbed
(c) Proteins are secreted into urine
(d) Creatinine is secreted into urine

Which of the following option in view of above statements is correct ?

(1) a, b & c
(2) b, c & d
(3) a, b & d
(4) a, c & d

56) Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct answer.
Statement-A : The glomerular capillary blood pressure causes filtration of blood through three
cellular layers.
Statement-B : Podocytes are arranged in an intricate manner so as to leave some minute slit pores

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

57) Which of the following parts of the nephron given in column I is correctly matched with their
functions given in column II ?

Column-I Column-II
(Part of the nephron) (Functions)

(A) Proximal convoluted tubules (I) Salt is reabsorbed in this region

Sodium and water are reabsorbed under

(B) Distal convoluted tubules (II)
the influence of hormone in this region

Primary site of glucose and amino acid

(C) Descending limb of Henle's loop (III)
reabsorption

(D) Ascending limb of Henle's loop (IV) Major substance reabsorbed here is water
(1) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(2) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
(4) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I

58) Match the column–I and II and select the correct option ?

Column-I
Column-III (Name of animal)
(Excretory organ)

(A) Malpighian tubules (i) Prawn

(B) Green glands (ii) House fly

(C) Nephridia (iii) Earth worm

(D) Flame cells (iv) Liver fluke

(E) Kidney (v) Crab

(vi) Frog

(vii) Tapeworm

(viii) Cockroach

(ix) Human

(x) Leech

A B C D E

(1) ii, vii i, v & iii iv & x vi & viii ix

(2) i&v iii & x ii & viii iv & vii vi & ix

(3) ii, viii i&v iii & x iv & vii vi & ix

(4) ii, iv i & ii v, vii & viii vi ix & x

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) The diagrams show vertical sections of kidneys of coypu, brown rat and kangaroo rat, showing
the relative size of cortex and medulla. Coypu are found in freshwater and never short of water to
drink. Brown rats are able to go some days without drinking. Kangaroo rats are able to live in
deserts without drinking at all. Which kidney belongs to which animal?

A B C

(1) Brown rat Coypu Kangaroo rat

(2) Brown rat Kangaroo rat Coypu

(3) Kangaroo rat Brown rat Coypu

(4) Kangaroo rat Coypu Brown rat

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

60) Match column I with column II :-

Column -I Column - II

has ascending &

(A) PCT I.
descending limb

(B) DCT II. Filtration of blood

Loop of Reabsorption of
(C) III.
Henle 70-80% electrolytes

Counter-
(D) current IV. Ionic balance
mechanism

Renal Maintenance of conc.

(E) V.
corpuscle gradient in medulla
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-V, E-II
(2) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-II, E-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-V, E-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-V, E-II

61) In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea ?

(1) Renal Vein

(2) Dorsal Aorta
(3) Hepatic Vein
(4) Hepatic Portal Vein

62) Osmolarity of interstitial fluid is equivalent to that of blood plasma at

(1) Interstitial fluid in cortex

(2) Base of loop of Henle
(3) Inner medullary interstitium
(4) Median medullary interstitium

63) Which of the following constituents do not appear in the glomerular filtrate with in the bowman's
capsule ?

(1) Glucose
(2) Amino acid
(3) Plasma protein
(4) NaCl

64) Assertion :- Ammonia is highly toxic, therefore is essential to remove it from the body.
Reason :- Ammonia can't be excreted out with H2O as it is insoluble.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion & reason are correct and reason not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion true and reason false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

65) How many character belongs to human kidney :-

(a) Length is 10-12 cm & width is 5-7 cm
(b) Right kidney upper then to left kidney
(c) Mesonephric kidney present
(d) Kidneys are reddish brown, been shaped
(e) Human's nephron has two parts-glomerulus & renal tubules

(1) a, b, d, e
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) a, d, e
(4) a, b, d

66) Glucose and Amino acid are reabsorbed where and how ?
(1) In loop of Henle by selective transport
(2) In PCT by active transport
(3) In DCT by conditional reabsorption
(4) In CD by passive transport

67) Select the correct statement for the part of renal tubule which is lined by simple cuboidal brush
border epithelium.

(1) Passive reabsorption of glucose and amino acids

(2) Active reabsorption of nitrogenous wastes like urea
(3) Minimum reabsorption
(4) 70-80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed

68) Choose the odd one out w.r.t. the amount of blood filtered by the kidneys.

(1) 1100-1200 ml of blood per minute

(2) 1/5th of the blood pumped by each ventricle of the heart in a cardiac cycle.
(3) 20% of the cardiac output
(4) 1/5 (Stroke volume heart rate)

69) During urine formation the magnitude of pressure that opposes ultrafiltration :-

(1) 50 mm of Hg
(2) 10-25 mm of Hg
(3) 20 mm of Hg
(4) 75 mm of Hg

70) Observe the diagram and answer the question asked :-

Which part is lined by simple cuboidal brush

bordered epithelium to increase the surface area for reabsorption ?

(1) 3, descending limb of loop of Henle

(2) 5, Vasa recta
(3) 6, Proximal convoluted tubule
(4) 7, collecting duct

71) Counter current mechanism include

(a) Henle's loop
(b) Vasa recta
(c) PCT
(d) DCT

(1) (b), (c), (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (b), (c)

72)

Match the column-I and column-II, choose the correct options.

Column-I Column-II

a Amonotelic i Birds

b Ureotelic ii Mammals

c Uricotelic iii Aquatic animal

(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–i
(2) a–i, b–iii, c–ii
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iii
(4) a–i, b–ii, c–iii

73) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as -

Assertion (A) and the other is Labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- Human kidney can produce urine nearly four times concentrated than the initial
filtrate formed.
Reason (R) :- The special arrangement of Henle's loop and Vasa Recta is called the counter current
mechanism and helps to maintain a concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) is the but (R) is false

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

74) Which of the following is correct with regards to fresh water fish ?

(1) They pass dilute urine

(2) They generally drink water
(3) Ionocyte remove monovalent ions
(4) All the above

75) The tuft of capillaries in the vertebrate kidney where water, urea and salts are filtered out of the
blood is the :-

(1) Bowman's capsule

(2) Collecting duct
(3) Glomerulus
(4) Loop of Henle

76) In glomerulus, afferent arteriole :-

(1) Is wider than efferent arteriole

(2) Is narrower than efferent arteriole
(3) And efferent arteriole have similar diameter
(4) Is narrow than efferent capillaries

77) Urine is always fluid except in :-

(1) reptiles and amphibians

(2) birds and reptile
(3) birds and mammals
(4) reptiles and mammals

78) All of the following contain metanephric kidney exept :-

(1) Amphibians
(2) Reptiles
(3) Birds
(4) Mammals

79) Statement-I : The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.

Statement-II : The Ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II correct.
(4) Statement-I correct and Statement-II incorrect.

80) Human urine is usually acidic because :

(1) Hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the filtrate

The sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen ion for each sodium ion in peritubular
(2)
capillaries
(3) Excreted plasma proteins are acidic
(4) K and Na exchange, generates acidity

81) Nitrogenous wastes are absorbed by :-

(1) Active transport

(2) Passive transport
(3) Osmosis
(4) Active & Passive

82)

If GHP = 65, BCOP = 30, CHP = 15 find NFF.

(1) 20 ml/min
(2) 10 ml/min
(3) 45 ml/min
(4) 105 ml/min

83) Almost all the aquatic animals excrete ammonia as the nitrogenous waste product. Which of the
following statement is not in agreement with this situation ?

(1) Ammonia is easily soluble in water.

(2) Ammonia is released from the body by simple diffusion
(3) Ammonia is highly toxic and needs to be eliminated as and when formed.
(4) Ammonia gets converted into a less toxic form called urea.

84) Figure shows a diagrammatical representation of a renal corpuscle. Identify A, B, C and D and

choose the correct alternative.

(1) A-Efferent arteriole, B-Afferent arteriole, C-Bowman's capsule, D-proximal convoluted tuble
(2) A-Afferent arteriole, B-Efferent arteriole, C-Glomerulus, D-Distal convoluted tubule
(3) A-Afferent arteriole, B-Efferent arteriole, C-Bowman's capsule, D-Proximal convoluted tubule
(4) A-Afferent arteriole, B-Efferent arteriole, C-Bowman's capsule, D-Distal convoluted tubule

85) The given figure shows the longitudinal section of kidney with few structures labelled as I, II, III
& IV. Identify renal vein in the given figure.

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

86) Obligatory water reabsorption takes place in :-

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule

(2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Collecting duct
(4) Both (2) & (3)

87) A large quantity of fluid is filtered everyday by nephrons in the kidneys but only about 1% of it is
excreted as urine. The remaining 99% of the filtrate :-

(1) is stored in the urinary bladder

(2) is reabsorbed into the blood
(3) gets collected in the renal pelvis
(4) is lost as sweat.

88) Which of the following statements is false?

I. Outer cortex and inner medulla are the two zones in kidney
II. Medulla is divided into 8-12 renal pyramids
III. Pyramid projects into calyx
IV. Inwards extension of cortex between the pyramids is called renal column of Bertini

(1) I and IV
(2) II and IV
(3) IV
(4) None

89) Which one of the following is correct regarding the excretion ?

Large amount of water from renal filtrate is reabsorbed in DCT and a less amount is reabsorbed
(1)
by PCT
(2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is completely impermeable to NaCl salt.
(3) Malpighian corpuscle is found in medulla region of kidney.
(4) The colour of urine is pale yellow and is slightly alkaline in nature.

90) Reabsorption and secretion of major substances at different parts of the Nephron are shown in

the given figure. In this figure A, B, C, D are? (Respectively)

–
(1) HCO3 , Nutrients, Urea, NaCl
+ –
(2) NaCl, Urea, K , HCO3
–
(3) NaCl, Urea, HCO3 , Ammonia
–
(4) H2O, Urea, NaCl, HCO3
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 3 2 3 2 1 2 4 1 3 1 1 1 4 1 2 1 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 3 2 2 1 4 3 4 3 4 4 4 1 3 4 1 4 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 3 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 3 2 3 2 1 4 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 4 3 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 4 1 4 1 2 4 3 3 3 4 2 1 1 3 2 1 4 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 1 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 1 3 2 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 2 4 3 2 4 3 1 4 3 2 2 2 2 1 4 1 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 4 1 1 2 2 4 4 1 4 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 (2) 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 3 3 3 2 4 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 3 1 2 1 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 1 4 3 2 1 2 4 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation :
A 1 kg block slides down a 10 m inclined plane at 30°. We need to calculate the work done by
gravity as it moves from the topmost point to the lower end.

Concept-Based (Work Done by Gravity on an Inclined Plane)

Formula Used :

Calculation :
Given

A. m = 1 kg,
B. g = 10 m/s2,
C. θ = 30∘,
D. d = 10 m.

Correct answer : (1)

2)

W(10) =
From WET

v2 = 4
v = 2 m/s

3)

Ws + Wf = ΔK
μ=

μ=

4)

mg Sin 30° (d + x) – Kx2 = 0

d = 37.5 cm

5)

work done by force of friction,

w = F × (vt)
w = (mgvt)sinθ cosθ

6) Speed in horizontal direction remains constant during whole journey because there is no
acceleration in this direction.
So, vh = 5 ms–1
∴ vV2 = 2gh = 2 × 10 × (70 – 60) = 200
Hence, the speed with which he touches the cliff B is :

= 15 m s–1.

7) P = Fv =

⇒ ⇒

8)

kx = T =

x= = .13 m = 13 cm

9) Explanation :
A block is released on a smooth track from A. The minimum value of h so that the block will
complete the loop.

Concept :
Vertical circular motion
Formula :

Mathematical Calculation :
• For complete the loop minimum velocity at the point B is (by energy conservation)

at D

from energy conservation

Conclusion : Hence, option (4) is correct

Estimated Time : 2-3 minute

Level : Medium

10)

11)

0
mv = Mv1 + m
0 = v12 – 2gL

12)

Let the retarding force by one block is F and displacement inside one block is x.
So using work energy theorem for one block.

....(1)

Applying work energy theorem for n blocks, –[Link] = m[o – v2]

Using value of Fx from ......(1)

Solving for n, n = 10.25

So, 11 planks

13)

Using work energy theorem, Wf + Wg = ΔK

–f.h – Wh = 0 – m

14) Given force is a constant force and work done by a constant force is always path
independent.
∴ W1 = W2

15) If length AB = x
(mgsinθ + µmgcosθ)x
16) Explain Question: We need to find velocity of the pendulum bob at point Q (considering
10% loss of total energy).
Concept: Work energy theorem (And loss adjustment to total energy)
Solution:
If v is velocity of pendulum at Q
and 10% energy is lost while moving from P to Q
detus apply loss adjustement to total energy between P and Q.

⇒ v = 6 m/sec
Final Answer: option (1) 6 m/sec.

17) ∵ P = Fv = bv3 ∴ v =

18)

Explanation: In this question we have to find the distance from Point A at which it will stop
after getting released them height h and Covering some horizontal distance in rough surface.
Concept:- In order to solve this question, we will first Calculate Potential energy due to height
and then will balance it by kinetic energy (By conservation of the chemical energy) to find of
velocity at point A and later we will use equation. of Motion to find final distance after which
object came to rest.
formula used:
P.E= Mgh

Calculation:-

and
Equating both we get

Putting values we get

let f' be the friction force on horizontal surface and it is balanced by all accelerated force so
acceleration a 's
fnet: ma

μg ∴ (Since body stops)

∴ By v² u²+2as

(μ m/s Velocity at point A will be initial velocity will be)

 The block will move on flat part by SM. After Starting gut reaching at B it will rise to some
height on right side till is remaining Kinetic energy is converted to Potential energy and again
It will return to Point B and has point B having Same kinetic energy Again it will cover 21
distance or rough surface, Reaches at Point A and then rises to some height with remaining
Kinetic energy and men it will again. Return to Point A, covers some distance and let's say it
finally stops at point - C.

Total distance on horizontal part is

Ac = 5 - 4 = 19
Conclusion - final distance = 1M
option-1

19)

20)

21)

22) Concept Based:

dot product (power)
Formula Used:
P=F⋅v
where P is power, F is force vector, and v is velocity vector.

Calculation:

P=
= (4 × 2) + (1 × 2) + (–2 × 3)
=8+2–6=4W

Final Answer: The correct option is (1).

23)

24)

∵F= = 0 for equilibrium

25)
Apply MEC
ΔKE = ΔPE

26) Let be the guiltiest power then,

27)

1. Question Explanation
2
A particle moves in a potential field given by U = 2x – 2x + 100. We need to find the
equilibrium position.
2. Concept Based

Equilibrium occurs where the force is zero, which means

3. Formula Used

Force:

Equilibrium condition:
4. Calculation

Setting
4x – 2 = 0
x = 0.5m

28) In P,Q and S; the centre of masses lie at D/2 height from the base level. Where as in R
(cons) the com lies at D/4 height from the base. Hence UP > UQ

29) Mass of hanging portion is (one third) and centre of mass c, is at a distance h =

below the table top. Therefore, the required work done is,
30)

31) By work energy theorem

work done by net force = ΔK.E.

32) By the graph at t = 2 sec

velocity = 40 m/s
work done is change in kE

33) At projection,

At maximum height,

34)

35)
36) mgH = W.D. against friction.

37)

38)

mg (h + x) – =0

40

25x2 – x –

x=

x= = 0.1 m or 10 cm

39)

fk = μN
fk = 2μmg
maT = 2μmg

aΤ = 2μg (←)

= ()

40)

at = g sin 30° = 5 m/s2

41) Question Explanation :
A roller coaster moves in a vertical circular path of radius 2 m. We need to determine the
minimum velocity at the highest point to ensure it just completes the loop.

Concept :
Condition for Completing a Vertical Loop:
Solution :

• Centripetal Force: FC =
At the highest point: To just completes the vertical circular motion the only force acting
as centripetal force is weight

mg =
• Solving for velocity:
v2 = gr
v=

Given r = 2m,
v=
v=
Final Answer:
Option 3: m/s

42)

Question Explain : We have to find the angle 'θ' with the vertical at which the particle leaves
contact leaves contact with the sphere.

Concept : (i) The particle leaves contact when the normal force becomes zero. (ii) C-O.M.E.

Formula : Conservation of Energy : Loss in potential energy = Gain in kinetic energy

centripetal force Fc​ =

Calculation :

Conservation of Energy : Loss in potential energy = Gain in kinetic energy

mg (R – R cos θ) = mv2
 y2 = 2gR(1–cosθ)

centripetal force: mgcosθ − N = ​

The particle leaves contact when the normal force N=0

mgcosθ =
mg cosθ = 2mg (1 – cosθ)
cos θ = 2 – 2 cosθ
3 cos θ = 2

cosθ =

Final Answer: Option (3)

43)
and to complete the circle

Thus

44)

V2 = 2gR (1 – cosθ)

mgcosθ – N =
= mgcosθ – N = 2mg(1– cosθ)
= N = 3 mg cosθ – 2 mg

45) At highest point v = 0

v2 = u2 – 2gh

⇒ h=

CHEMISTRY
46)

47)

48)

49)

50)

51)
52)

53)

54) ΔHf(H2SO4) = –298.2 + (–98.7) + (–130.2)

+ (–287.3) = –814.4 kJ

55)

Let bond energy is X

H2 : X2 : HX
2X : X : 2X
Formation of HX

Bond energy of H2 = 2X
= 2 × 100 = 200 kJ/mol

56)

2C4H10 + 13O2(g) → 8CO2(g) + 10H2O(ℓ);

ΔH° = –5756 kJ
2 × 58 = 116 gm
∵ From 116 gm C4H10, heat released = 5756 kJ

∴ From 5.8 gm C4H10, heat released = = 287.8 kJ

57)

ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT

–3271 = ΔU +
ΔU = –3267.25 KJ/mol
for 1 mole of bezene ΔU for 1.5 mol of benzene
= – 3267.25 × 1.5 = – 4900.25 KJ
58)

Option (1) is correct

59)

Option (1) is correct

60) (i) BaCl2(s) + aq. → BaCl2 . 2H2O(aq),ΔH1=–a

(ii) BaCl2 2H2O(s) + aq. → BaCl2 . 2H2O(aq.) ΔH2 = b.
Target reaction - BaCl2(s) + aq. → BaCl2.2H2O(s) ...(3)
equation (3) = equation(i) – equation (ii)
ΔH = –(a + b).

61) From Ist equation ΔHC–H = = 90 kJ/mol

from II equation 6ΔHC–H + ΔHC–C = 620 kJ
nd

ΔHC–C = 620 – 6 × 90
= 620 – 540 = 80 kJ/mol.

62)

The standard heat of combustion is defined as the heat evolved on burning one mole of the
compound in presence of O2 to give CO2 and water. Since the amount of the substance is
specified, it becomes an intensive property.

63)

Option (2) is correct

64)

Option (3) is correct

65)

Option (1) is correct

66)

w = –pdv
= –3 × 2 × 101.3
67)

68)

69)

Option (4) is correct

70)

71)

Question Explanation

We are asked to identify for which process the equation q = – w is not true. This involves
understanding how heat and work relate in different thermodynamic processes.

Concept
First law of thermodynamics: ΔU = q + w

Solution:
• Isothermal process: Temperature is constant, so ΔU = 0. From the first law: 0 = q + w ⇒ q
= – w, so the equation is true.

• Adiabatic process: No heat exchange, so q = 0. From the first law: ΔU = w, hence q ≠ – w,

so the equation is not true.

• Cyclic process: Internal energy returns to its original value, so ΔU = 0. From the first law: 0
= q + w ⇒ q = – w, so the equation is true.

Final Answer (2)

72)

Density is a intensive property as its value does’nt depend on amount of matter.

73)

Option (3) is correct

74)

Option (3) is correct

75)

Option (3) is correct

76)

Option (4) is correct

77) No work is done, no heat is absorbed.

78)

Option (1) is correct

79)

Option (1) is correct

80)

Option (3) is correct

81)

82)

Option (1) is correct

83)
 Option (4) is correct

84)

Option (1) is correct

85)

Option (2) is correct

86)

87) NCERT Class-11, Page no. 143 & 138

88) NCERT Class-11, Page no. 153 & 154

89) Temperature of the system changes in adiabatic process.

90)

NCERT XI (2019) Pg # 161

BIOLOGY

91)

Heterosporous pteridophytes are plants that produce two different types of spores: small
microspores that develop into male gametophytes, and large megaspores that develop into
female gametophytes. This condition of producing two spore types is called heterospory and is
a significant evolutionary step, with examples including the genera Selaginella and Salvinia

92)

NCERT XI, Pg # 36

93)

NCERT STATEMENT
94) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 32

95)

The correct answer is 3. They all may be used as food or food supplement.
Explanation: Porphyra, Agaricus, Chlorella, and Spirulina are all used as food or food
supplements.
• Porphyra is a type of red algae used in certain cuisines.
• Agaricus is a genus of mushrooms, commonly known as edible mushrooms.
• Chlorella(Non-motile green algae) and Spirulina(Blue green algae) are consumed for
their nutritional benefits, often as supplements.

96) NCERT-XI Pg. # 33

97) NCERT XI, Page # 19,30,33,43

98) NCERT XI, Page # 18,19,20,21

99) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 30

100)

Option (2) is correct

101) NCERT-XI, Pg # 42

102) NCERT XI pg.# 37

103) NCERT Pg. # 35 (Pare 3.2.)

The plant body of bryophytes are more differentiated as compare to algae because in
bryophytes main plant body differentiated in root like and stem like structures while the
thalloid body of algae not differentiated in such types of structures.

104)

Option (1) is correct

105)

Option (1) is correct

106)
Option (1) is correct

107)

Option (3) is correct

108)

NCERT Pg. No. 37, Fig. 3.3

109) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 32 Four (A, C, D, E)

110) NCERT XI Pg. # 36

111) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 34, Fig.3.2(C) → A, B parts of sporophyte rest of all parts of
gametophyte.

112) NCERT XI pg # 39

113)

Option (2) is correct

114) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32,33, Para-3.1.1, 3.1.2, 3.1.3

115) NCERT, Pg. # 30

116) NCERT Pg. # 29, 30

117) Statement I: Incorrect. The genera like Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous
because they produce two kinds of spores, macrospores and microspores, not homosporous as
they do not produce only one kind of spore.
Statement II: Correct. The development of zygotes into young embryos within the female
gametophytes in heterosporous plants is indeed considered a precursor to the seed habit,
marking an important evolutionary step.

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 26

119) The correct answer is (a) All are incorrect .

120) Ncert Page 39.

121)

NCERT [Link].71 [Link]. 271

122)

Option (2) is correct

123) Spirogyra, Dictyotaand Sargassum are similar in having unicellular and non- jacketed sex
organs.

124)

Option (2) is correct

125)

Option (2) is correct

126) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 32,33 ; Para-3.1.2

127) NCERT XI (E) Pg # 38, 39

128)

Option (1) is correct

129)

Option (3) is correct

130)

Option (4) is correct

131)

Option (1) is correct

132)

Option (2) is correct

133) NCERT XIth (E) Pg. # 37 (a)

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 36

135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 31,fig.3.1(c-i),(b-ii),(b-iii),(c-ii)

136)

NCERT 11th Pg#205

137)

NCERT 11th Pg#207

138)

NCERT 11th Pg#211

139)

NCERT 11th Pg#210

140)

NCERT 11th Pg#212

141)

NCERT 11th Pg#208

142)

NCERT 11th Pg#206

143)

NCERT 11th Pg#210

144)

NCERT 11th Pg#212

145) Explanation:
 A. (a) Glucose is completely reabsorbed → (Correct)
A. In a healthy individual, glucose is completely reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted
tubule (PCT} and does not appear in urine (unless the renal threshold is exceeded, such
as in diabetes).
B. (b) Urea is partially reabsorbed → (Correct)
A. Some urea is reabsorbed passively in the nephron to maintain osmotic balance, while the
rest is excreted.
C. (c) Proteins are secreted into urine → (Incorrect)
A. Normally, proteins are not secreted into urine because they do not pass through the
glomerular filter due to their large size. Their presence in urine (proteinuria) is a sign of
kidney damage.
D. (d) Creatinine is secreted into urine → (Correct)
A. Creatinine, a waste product of muscle metabolism, is actively secreted into urine by the
tubules and is not reabsorbed.

Correct Answer: Option (3) a, b & d

146)

NCERT 11th Pg#208

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

148)

NCERT 11th Pg#206

149)

NCERT 11th Pg#206

150)

NCERT 11th Pg#208

151)

NCERT 11th Pg#205

152)

NCERT 11th Pg#211

153)

NCERT 11th Pg#209

154)

NCERT 11th Pg#205

155) NCERT 11th Pg#206

156)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

157) NCERT 11th Pg#210

158) NCERT 11th Pg#208

159)

NCERT 11th Pg#209

160)

NCERT 11th Pg#207

161)

NCERT 11th Pg#211

162)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 290

163) NCERT 11th Pg#213

164)

NCERT 11th Pg#205

165)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 208

166)

NCERT 11th Pg#208

167)

NCERT 11th Pg#205

168)

NCERT 11th Pg#205

169) NCERT 11th Pg#209

170)

NCERT 11th Pg#213

171)

NCERT 11th Pg#209

172)

NCERT 11th Pg#209

173)

NCERT 11th Pg#205

174)

NCERT 11th Pg#208

175)

NCERT 11th Pg#207

176)

NCERT 11th Pg#209

177)

NCERT 11th Pg#209

178)

NCERT 11th Pg#206

179)

NCERT 11th Pg#209

180)

NCERT 11th Pg#210