NEET

BIOLOGY
MODULE - 9

Human Health and Disease

Microbes in Human Welfare

Biotechnology : Principles
and Processes

Biotechnology and Its

Applications
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 INDEX

S. No. Chapter Name Page No.

1. Human Health and Disease

Theory and Exercise 1.1 to 1.5 1 – 36

Exercise 2 37 – 42

Exercise 3 43 – 48

Exercise 4 (Previous Year’s Questions) 49 – 56

Answer Key 57 – 58

2. Microbes in Human Welfare

Theory and Exercise 1.1 to 1.2 59 – 72

Exercise 2 73 – 76

Exercise 3 77 – 79

Exercise 4 (Previous Year’s Questions) 80 – 83

Answer Key 84

3. Biotechnology : Principle and Processes

Theory and Exercise 1.1 to 1.3 85 – 109

Exercise 2 110 – 116

Exercise 3 117 – 121

Exercise 4 (Previous Year’s Questions) 122 – 129

130
Answer Key
S. No. Chapter Name Page No.

4. Biotechnology and Its Applications

Theory and Exercise 1.1 to 1.3 131 – 144

Exercise 2 145 – 149

Exercise 3 150 – 154

Exercise 4 (Previous Year’s Questions) 155 – 161

162
Answer Key
Human Health and Disease Biology

Chapter
HUMAN HEALTH
1 AND DISEASE

Chapter Overview
Health-Introduction :
• For a long time, health was considered as a state of body and mind
– Introduction where there was a balance of certain ‘humors’.
• This is what early Greeks like Hippocrates as well as Indian
– Common Diseases in Human
Ayurveda system of medicine asserted. It was thought that
– Immunity persons with ‘blackbile’ belonged to hot personality and would
have fevers. This idea was arrived at by pure reflective thought.
– AIDS • The discovery of blood circulation by William Harvey using
experimental method and the demonstration of normal body
– Cancer
temperature in persons with blackbile using thermometer
– Drugs & Alcohol abuses disproved the "good humor hypothesis" of health.
• In later years, biology stated that mind influences, through
neural system and endocrine system, our immune system and
that our immune system maintains our health. Hence, mind and
mental state can affect our health.
• How do we define health ?
The term health is very frequently used by everybody. Health does
not simply mean ‘absence of disease’ or ‘physical fitness’. It could
be defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well-
being. When people are healthy, they are more efficient at work.
This increases productivity and brings economic prosperity. Health
also increases longevity of people and reduces infant and maternal
mortality.
Factor affecting health :-
(i) Genetic disorders : deficiencies with which a child is born
and deficiencies/defects which the child inherits from
parents by birth;
(ii) Infections and
(iii) Life style including food and water we take, rest and
exercise we give to our bodies, habits that we have or lack
etc.
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 Biology Human Health and Disease
• How can we achieve good health ?
Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good health. Yoga
has been practiced since time immemorial to achieve physical and mental health.
• Awareness about diseases and their effect on different bodily functions, vaccination (immunisation)
against infectious diseases, proper disposal of wastes, control of vectors and maintenance of hygienic
food and water resources are necessary for achieving good health.

• What is disease ?
When the functioning of one or more organs or systems of the body is adversely affected, characterised
by various signs and symptoms, we say that we are not healthy, i.e., we have a disease. Diseases can be
broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious
(i) Diseases which are easily transmitted from one person to another, are called infectious diseases.
Infectious diseases are very common and every one of us suffers from these at sometime or other.
Some of the infectious diseases like AIDS are fatal.
(ii) Among non-infectious diseases, cancer is the major cause of death. Drug and alcohol abuse also
affect our health adversely.

Common Diseases in Humans

• A wide range of organisms belonging to bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, helminths, etc., could cause
diseases in man. Such disease causing organisms are called pathogens. Mostly parasites are therefore
pathogens as they cause harm to the host by living in (or on) them. The pathogens can enter our body by
various means, multiply and interfere with normal vital activities, resulting in morphological and functional
damage. Pathogens have to adapt to life within the environment of the host. For example, the pathogens that
enter the gut must know a way of surviving in the stomach at low pH and resisting the various digestive
enzymes.

Bacterial Diseases
(i) Typhoid (Enteric fever) :
Pathogen : Salmonella typhi bacteria
Mode of Infection :
Contaminated food and water (Faecal oral route).
Enter into small intestine and migrate to other organs through blood.
Symptoms :
• Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C)
• Weakness
• Stomach pain
• Constipation
• Headache
• Loss of appetite.
• Intestinal perforation and death may occur insever cases.
• Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test.
• A classic case in medicine, that of Mary Mallon nicknamed Typhoid Mary, She was a cook by
profession and was a typhoid carrier who continued to spread typhoid for several years through the
food she prepared.

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Human Health and Disease Biology
(ii) Pneumonia :
Pathogen: Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae bacteria.
Mode of Infection :
• Droplet infection, by inhaling the droplets/ Aerosols released by infected person.
• By sharing glasses and utensils with an infected person.
• Bacteria infects the alveoli of the lungs. Alveoli get filled with fluid
Symptoms :
• Fever, chills, cough and headache
• Suffocation and Chest pain.
• Lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour.
• Lungs donot get sufficient air, proper exchange of gases does not take place in alveoli. Some other
bacterial diseases are-Dysentery (Shigella dysenteriae), Cholera (Vibrio Cholerae), whooping cough/Pertussis
(Bordetella Pertussis), Diphtheria (Corynebacterium diphtheriae), Tuberculosis(T.B.) (Mycobacterium
tuberculosis), Leprosy (Mycobacterium leprae), Tetanus (Clostridium tetani), Plague (Black death)
(Yersinia pestis)

Viral Diseases
(i) Common Cold:
Pathogen : Rhino viruses
Mode of Infection:
Droplets resulting from cough or sneezes of an infected person are either inhaled directly or
transmitted through contaminated objects such as pens, books, cups, doorknobs, computer keyboard
or mouse etc. and
cause infection in a healthy person.
Symptoms :
• They infect the nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.
• The common cold is characterised by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness,
cough, headache, tiredness, etc., which usually last for 3-7 days.
• Some other viral diseases are influenza (Flu) measles (Rubeola virus), Chicken pox (Varicella virus)
Small pox (Variola virus), SARS (Severe acute respiratory syndrome), Swine flu (H1N1 virus),
Chikun-gunya : Chikungunya virus (ss-RNA) (Vector : Aedes-ageypti mosquito), Dengue fever :
Flavi-arbo virus (Vector : Aedes-ageypti mosquito), Hepatitis-B : HBV (ds DNA), Polio : Polio virus
(ss RNA)
Dengue Fever
Rathogen:-Flavi Arbo virus
 Vector Borne Disease, Female Aedes Mosquito (Digen. Mosquito)
 Platelets no diseases decreases
 Symptome: High fever, Vomiting, Muscular pain, Rashes
Ex. skin, Bleeding from lase. Mouth
 Chickengunya
 Potrogen Chickingunya Virus
 Carrier is Female sedes Mosquite
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Protozoanal Diseases
(I) Amoebiasis (Amoebic Dysentry)
Pathogen : Entamoeba histolytica protozoa
It is monogenetic (single host life cycle, i.e., humans)
Modes of Transmission : By contaminated food and water (Faecal oral route)
• House flies act as mechanical carriers.
Symptoms :
• Constipation,
• Abdominal pain and cramps,
• Stools with excess mucous and blood clots.
Helminthes Disease
(I) Ascariasis
Pathogen: Ascaris (round worm)
 Ascaris is an endoparasite of the small intestine of human beings. It is more common in the children.
Mode of Infection : The eggs of the parasite are excreted along with the excreta of infected persons
which contaminate soil, water, plants, etc. A healthy person acquires this infection through
contaminated water, vegetables, fruits, etc.
Symptoms :
• Internal bleeding
• Muscular pain
• Fever
• Anemia
• Blockage of the intestinal passage
(II) Filariasis (Elephantiasis)
Pathogen : Wuchereria or Filarial worm [Link] and W. malayi).
Mode of Infection : The pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person through the bite by the female
culex mosquito vectors.
Symptoms :
• The filarial worms cause a slowly developing chronic infection inflammation of the organs in which
they live for many years.
• They usually affect the lymphatic vessels.
• This disease is characterised by the swelling of the legs, scrotum and other parts of the body.
• This is commonly called Elephantiasis due to its resemblance to a leg of an elephant.
• The genital organs are also often affected, resulting in gross deformities.

Fig. : Inflammation in one of the lower limbs due to elephantiasis

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Human Health and Disease Biology
Fungal Disease
(I) Ring Worm
Pathogen: Fungi belonging to genera Trichophyton, Epidermophyton and Microsporum are responsible
for ringworm in man.
Mode of Infection : Ringworms are generally acquired from soil or by using towels, clothes or even the
comb of infected individuals.
• Affected Parts : Skin, Nails and scalp.
Symptoms :
• Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp are the
main symptoms of the disease. These lesions are accompanied by intense itching.
• Heat and moisture help these fungi to grow, which makes them thrive in skin folds such as those in
the groin or between the toes (Athletes’s foot disease)

Fig. : Ringworm affected area of the skin

Malaria
• Plasmodium, a tiny protozoan is responsible for Malaria. Different species of Plasmodium (P. vivax,
P. malariae and P. falciparum) are responsible for different types of malaria. Of these, malignant
malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious one and can even be fatal.
• Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites (infectious form) through the bite of infected
female Anopheles mosquito. The parasites initially multiply within the liver cells and then attack
the red blood cells (RBCs) resulting in their rupture.
• The rupture of RBCs is associated with release of a toxic substance, haemozoin, which is
responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every three to four days.
• When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, these parasites enter the mosquito's
body and undergo further development. The parasites multiply within them to form sporozoites that
are stored in their salivary glands.
• When these mosquitoes bite a human, the sporozoites are introduced into his/her body. Malarial
parasite required two hosts- human and mosquitoes - to complete its life cycle.
• The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector (transmitting agent) of malaria.
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 Biology Human Health and Disease

Prevention and Control

 Maintenance of personal and public hygiene is very important for prevention and control of many
infectious diseases.
(i) Measures for personal hygiene include keeping the body clean; consumption of clean drinking
water, food, vegetables, fruits, etc.
(ii) Public hygiene includes proper disposal of waste and excreta; periodic cleaning and disinfection of
water reservoirs, pools, cesspools and tanks and observing standard practices of hygiene in public
catering. These measures are particularly essential where the infectious agents are transmitted
through food and water such as typhoid, amoebiasis and ascariasis.
• In cases of air-borne diseases such as pneumonia and common cold, in addition to the above
measures, close contact with the infected persons or their belongings should be avoided.
• For diseases such as malaria and filariasis that are transmitted through insect vectors, the most
important measure is to control or eliminate the vectors and their breeding places. This can be
achieved by avoiding stagnation of water in and around residential areas, regular cleaning of
household coolers, use of mosquito nets, introducing fishes like Gambusia in ponds that feed on
mosquito larvae, spraying of insecticides in ditches, drainage areas and swamps, etc.
• In addition, doors and windows should be provided with wire mesh to prevent the entry of mosquitoes. Such
precautions have become all the more important especially in the light of recent widespread incidences of
the vector-borne (Aedes mosquitoes) diseases like dengue and chikungunya in many parts of India.
• The advancements made in biological science have armed us to effectively deal with many infectious diseases.
• The use of vaccines and immunisation programs have enabled us to completely eradicate a deadly
disease like smallpox.
• A large number of other infectious diseases like polio, diphtheria, pneumonia and tetanus have
been controlled to a large extent by the use of vaccines.
• Biotechnology is at the verge of making available newer and safer vaccines. Discovery of antibiotics
and various other drugs has also enabled us to effectively treat infectious diseases.
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Human Health and Disease Biology
Exercise 1.1
1. Which of the following diseases are spread by 8. Which of the following is the major cause of
intake of contaminated food and water ? death among non-infections diseases ?
a. Ascariasis b. Amoebiasis (1) Asthma (2) Acute renal failure
c. Ringworm d. Polio (3) Cancer (4) Scurvy
e. Typhoid f. Dengue
9. Health is affected by :-
(1) a, b and e (2) a, b, d and e
(1) Genetic disorders / deficiencies
(3) a, c and f (4) d and e
(2) Infections
2. A disease with symptoms showing sustained (3) Life style
high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach (4) All of these
pain, constipation, headache, loss of appetite
leading to intestinal perforation in severe 10. Which is necessary for achieving good
cases is: health?-
(1) Malaria (2) Kala-azar (a) Balanced diet
(3) Typhoid (4) Amoebic dysentery (b) Regular exercise
(c) Control of vectors
3. Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, (d) Maintenance of hygienic food and water
anaemia and blockage of the intestinal (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (c) only
passage are the common (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
symptoms of :
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Elephantiasis 11. Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious
(3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid and non-infectious diseases. In the list given
below, identify the infectious diseases.
4. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual stages (i) Cancer
(gametocytes) begin to develop in
(ii) Influenza
(1) Stomach of mosquito
(iii) Allergy (iv) Small pox
(2) Intestine of man
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) Liver of man
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)
(4) Red blood cells of man
12. Infectious diseases are :
5. Out of the following disease which are
(1) Diseases present from birth
caused due to bacterial infection ?
(2) Deficiency diseases
a. Typhoid b. Elephantiasis
(3) Spread from one individual to another
c. Cholera d. Tuberculosis
(4) Occur during life
(1) a and b only (2) b and c only
(3) a, c and d only (4) a, b, c and d 13. Which one of the following statements is
true?
6. Which one is not spread by droplet infection ?
(1) Dysentery, plague and diphtheria are
(1) Tuberculosis (2) Diptheria
viral diseases
(3) Pertussis (4) Gonorrhoea
(2) HIV replicates in host cell with the help
7. Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted through : of reverse transcriptase enzyme
(1) Insect bite (3) The disease ringworm is common in
(2) Sweat winter season.
(3) Food and water contamination (4) Common cold could be confirmed by
(4) Bird droppings Widal test
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 Biology Human Health and Disease
14. Which of the following humour shows “Hot 21. "Fluid filled alveoli" are feature of :-
personality ? (1) Amoebiasis (2) Pneumonia
(1) Yellow bile (2) Black bile (3) Ascariasis (4) Typhoid
(3) Blood (4) Phelgm
22. Toxin which is responsible for chill and high
15. When people are healthy they are ? fever during malaria
(a) More efficient at work (1) Haematin (2) Haemoglobin
(b) Having low productivity (3) Haemozoin (4) Erythrocruorin
(c) Brings economic prosperity
23. Which of the following is not correct about
(d) Having high longevity
Malaria?
(e) Having high infant and maternal mortality
(1) Malignant malaria is caused by
How many of the above statements are
Plasmodium Falciparum
correct
(2) Plasmodium enters the human body as
(1) Two (2) Three
sporozoites
(3) Four (4) One
(3) It is caused through the bite of infected
16. The common cold is caused by female Anopheles
(1) Rhino viruses (4) Formation of zygote occurs in infected
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae human
(3) Salmonella typhi
24. Which of the following are air borne
(4) Plasmodium vivax
diseases?
17. Disease characterised by swelling of scrotum (1) Pneumonia and Typhoid
and genital organs due to chronic inflammation (2) AIDS and cancer
of lymphatic vessels is ? (3) Amoebiasis and Ascariasis
(1) Ascariasis (2) Mumps (4) Pneumonia and Common cold
(3) Filariasis (4) Leprosy
25. Which of the following is correct
18. Plasmodium enters the human body as about malaria ?
(1) Female Anopheles mosquito (a) Malignant malaria is caused by
(2) Sporozoite plasmodium falciparum
(3) Trophozoite (b) Plasmodium enters the human body as
(4) Haemozoin sporozoites.
19. Which of the following is most affected by (c) It is caused through the bite of infected
the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti? female anopheles mosquito.
(1) Lymphatic vessels (d) The rupture of RBCs is associated with
(2) Respiratory system release of a toxic substance haemozoin
(3) Nervous system (1) b, c only (2) a, c, d only
(4) Blood circulation (3) a, b, c only (4) a, b, c, d

20. Disease which are transmitted through 26. 'Mary mallon' was carrier of a disease. This
contaminated food and water disease spreads through which of the following:-
(1) Ascariasis, filariasis, T.B. (1) Bite of mosquito
(2) Malaria, typhoid, dengue (2) Droplets
(3) Typhoid, amoebiasis and ascariasis (3) Contaminated food and water
(4) Filariasis, amoebiasis, dengue (4) Prolonged physical contact
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Human Health and Disease Biology
27. Match the columns with regards to Vector 33. Where will you look for the sporozoites of
and Disease. malarial parasite?
Column-I Column-II (1) Saliva of infected female Anopheles
mosquito
p. Culex i. Dengue
(2) Salivary glands of freshly moulted
q. Anopheles ii. Filariasis female Anopheles mosquito
r. Aedes iii. Malaria (3) Spleen of infected humans
(1) p-i, q-ii, r-iii (2) p-ii, q-iii, r-i (4) RBCs of humans suffering from malaria
(3) p-ii, q-i, r-iii (4) p-i, q-iii, r-ii 34. Malaria is caused by plasmodium species,
28. Which one is not a common symptom of which is a parasite having a complex life
cycle. The fusion between male and female
typhoid ?
gametocytes of plasmodium happens inside.
(1) Weakness (1) Human liver
(2) Sustain high fever (39° to 40° C) (2) Human RBCs
(3) Lips and finger nails may turn bluish (3) Mosquito gut
(4) Loss of appetite (4) Mosquito salivary glands
29. Diagram showing ringworm affected area of 35. Incorrect about Entamoeba histolytica or
skin. Which is not related with disease ? amoebiasis is :-
(a) Parasite of small intestine
(b) Causes dysentery
(c) Houseflies are mechanical carriers
(d) Symptoms include constipation,
(1) Microsporum abdominal pain and cramp.
(2) Trichophyton (1) a (2) c
(3) Epidermophyton (3) a, c (4) All are correct
(4) Wuchereria
36. Diphtheria is connected with :
30. Which one of the following sets includes (1) Lungs (2) Throat
bacterial disease? (3) Blood (4) Liver
(1) Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles 37. Entamoeba histolytica is a ______ parasite in
(2) Diphtheria, leprosy, plague of human which causes amoebiasis
(3) Cholera, typhoid, mumps (1) Non pathogenic; Large Intestine
(4) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelitis (2) Bacteria; Oesophagous
31. The chemical test that is used for diagnosis (3) Pathogenic; Small Intestine
of typhoid is:- (4) Protozoan; Large Intestine
(1) ELISA-Test 38. Which of the following will occur in
(2) ESR-Test vertebrate host of Plasmodium?
(3) PCR-Test (a) Formation of motile zygote
(4) Widal-Test (b) Formation of gametocytes
32. Dengue fever is transmitted by :- (c) Formation of sporozoites
(1) Aedes aegypti (Tiger mosquito) (d) Release of Haemozoin
(2) Culex faligans (e) Repeated fever
(3) Anopheles (1) a, c, d (2) a, b, c, d, e
(4) Sand fly (3) b, d and e (4) d and e only
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 Biology Human Health and Disease
Immunity
 Everyday we are exposed to large number of infectious agents. However, only a few of these exposures
result in disease. Why? This is due to the fact that the body is able to defend itself from most of these
foreign agents. This overall ability of the host to fight the disease-causing organisms, conferred by the
immune system is called immunity.
Immunity is of two types:
(i) Innate immunity or congenital immunity or Non specific immunity
(ii) Acquired immunity. or Adaptive or Specific immunity
Immunity

Innate (Non specific) Acquired (Specific)

→ Physical barrier
→ Physiological barrier
→ Cellular barrier Active Passive
→ Cytokine barrier
→ Inflammation

Natural: Artificial : Natural: Artificial :

Developed due Induced by IgG (Placenta) Injection of preformed
to natural infection. vaccination IgA (Colostrum) Antibody (e.g. ATS)

Innate Immunity
• Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, that is present at the time of birth. This is
accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of the foreign agents into our
body. Innate immunity consist of four types of barriers. These are:
(1) Physical /Anatomical barriers:
(a) Skin : Skin on our body is the main barrier which prevents entry of the micro-organisms. Outermost
layer of skin is dead (stratum corneum), so the bacteria do not grow or enter into it. Acidic pH of
skin (3-5) also destroy the bacteria.
(b) Mucosa : Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urinogenital
tracts also help in trapping microbes entering our body. Mucosa contain mucosal cells and cilia.
mucus traps the micro organism and cilia propel them outside.
(2) Physiological barriers :
 Some physiological processes of body also inhibits growth of microbes after they get entered into the
body.
(i) Fever : High temperature of body, inhibit the growth of microbes.
(ii) pH of body : Acidic pH of various part of body like, stomach and Vagina inhibit the growth of microbes.
(iii)Secretions : Secretions of body like Saliva, Tear etc., contain lysozyme enzyme, destroys bacterias.
by destroying their cell ways.
(3) Cellular barriers :
(A) Phagocytic Cells :
 • These cells engulf and destroy microbes with the help of their lytic enzymes (Phagocytosis).
• Neutrophils and monocytes in blood and macrophages in tissues.
• Neutrophils are common and active phagocytic cells which are also called polymorphonuclear
lencocytes (PMNL)
• In response to pathogenic infection, the total count of WBC in body increase.
• Most important phagocytes are Neutrophils and Macrophages. Monocytes are liberated at the site
of infection and fused to form big eating cells-macrophages in tissues.
• Macrophages are large irregular shaped cells that engulf microbes, virus, cellular debris etc. in
response to an infection.
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Human Health and Disease Biology
(B) Non Phagocytic cells (eg. Natural-Killer cells) :
• It is a large granular lymphocyte cell.
• During this process apart from the phagocytes, another type of cells called Natural killer cells that
kill virus infected cells and tumour cells of body by secreting perforin which creates pores in the
plasma membrane of infected cells. Water enters through these pores causing swelling and
bursting of these cells.

(4) Cytokine barriers :

• Virus-infected cells secrete anti-viral protein called interferons which protect non-infected host
cells from further viral infection.
• Interferon are made up to 270 amino acids and inhibits the multiplication of viruses in adjacent
cells by producing Translation Inhibiting Protein (T.I.P.).
• Interferons are species specific chemicals.
• Interferons make neighbouring cells resistant to viral infection and therefore can be used for
prophylaxis and treatment of viral infections.
• INFs = activate immune system and destroy tumor cells and Also has shown some success in
treatment of Kaposi sarcoma in AIIDS patients.
• Inflammation : Local response of living mammalian tissue to injury or infection due to any agent.
It is the body defence reaction in order to eliminate or limit the spread of infectious agent.
• Inflammation is chracterised by : Redness, Swelling, Pain & High temperature

Acquired Immunity
• Acquired immunity, on the other hand, is pathogen specific. It is found in vertebrates only.
Unique Features of Acquired immunity :
(i) Specificity : Acquired immunity is specific for specific micro-organisms.
(ii) Diversity : Our immune system has an ability to recognize the vast variety of micro-organisms.
(iii) Discrimination between self and non-self : It can recognise self (own body tissue or molecules)
and non self (foreign tissue or molecules) and respond, against non-self only.
(iv) Memory : When a pathogen enter into the body first time, body takes longer times to recognise
and respond to it, this is called primary immune response which is slow and of low intensity, but
the memory of this encounter remain in immune system.
• When same pathogen enters into the body second time, body immune system rapidly recognise this
pathogen and respond quickly to it. This is called secondary immune response (Anamnestic). This
is rapid and more intense due to involvement of memory.
Blood antibody concentration

Ist antigen
exposure 2nd antigen
exposure
Primary Secondary
response Response (More
rapid and intense)

0 30 60 90
Time period (in days)

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 Biology Human Health and Disease
• The primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with the help of two special types of
lymphocytes present in our blood, i.e., B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes. The B-lymphocytes
produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens into our blood to fight with them. These
special protein molecules are called antibodies. The T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies
but help B cells produce them.

Active and Passive Immunity

• When a host is exposed to antigens, which may be in the form of living or dead microbes or other
proteins, antibodies are produced in the host body. This type of immunity is called active immunity.
Active immunity is slow and takes time to give its full effective response. Injecting the microbes
deliberately during immunisation or infectious organisms gaining access into body during natural
infection induce active immunity.
• When ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign agents, it is
called passive immunity.
• Do you know why mother’s milk is considered very essential for the new-born infant? The yellowish
fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies
(IgA) to protect the infant.
• The foetus also receives some antibodies from their mother, through the placenta during pregnancy.
These are some examples of passive immunity
Difference between active and passive immunity
Active immunity Passive Immunity
1. Produced actively by the immune system 1. Received passively by the host and the
of host host's immune system does not participate.
2. Induced by natural infection or by 2. Develops by introduction of readymade
contacts with antigens through vaccines. antibodies.
3. Immunity takes some time to become 3. Immunity becomes effective immediately.
effective
4. Immune response–long lasting and more 4. Immune response – short lived and less
effective. effective.
5. Based on memory and therefore 5. No immunological memory. Subsequent
subsequent challenge with booster does administration of antibody less effective
makes it more effective. due to "immune elimination".
6. Used for prophylaxis to increase body 6. Used for treatment of acute infection.
resistance.

• Acquired immunity is provided by special type of cells known as lymphocytes.

• These lymphocytes are of two types : (A) T-lymphocytes (B) B-lymphocytes.
• Based on these two type of lymphocytes there are two types of active immunity.
(1) CMI (Cell mediated immunity) or Cellular immunity
(2) AMI (Antibody mediated immunity) or humoral immunity
(1) C.M.I.  Cell mediated immunity or Cellular immunity
• This immunity is based on T-cells. (60-70%)
• There are 4 type of T-cell
(i) Helper T-cell (TH) (ii) Killer T-cell or cytotoxic T-cell (TK or TC)
(iii) Suppressor T-cell (TS) (iv) Memory T-cell (Tm)
• When pathogens enter inside the body, first macrophage interact with them and activates TH -cell
which releases cytokines or Lymphokiness (eg : Interleukin - ILs)
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(i) Helper T-cell :
• The activated helper cell stimulates the killer T-cell and B-cell which start dividing and produce
clone (group of similar cells), this phenomenon is called clonal selection.
• They produce lymphokines (messenger molecules) which cause accumulating of WBCs to the
affected site. TH-cells stimulate B–cells to produce plasma cells that secretes antibodies and also
facillitate the action of other T–cells.
(ii) Killer T-cell :
• These cell or clone of these cell destroy the target cell (cancerous cells and infected cells) and kill
the pathogen by secreting Lymphotoxic substances and perforins (cell-lysis)
• These are responsible for cell–mediated immunity. They also destroy transplanted organs, tumour
cells and other foreign cells.
(iii) Suppressor Cells (T):
• These suppress the functions of TC and TH cells. B–cells and plasma cells are also affected by TS
cells by synthesizing suppressor factors and suppress the entire immune system for attacking the
own body
(iv) Memory T-cell :
• They don't kill the pathogen or don't form the antibodies but these cell retain the memory of every
encounter for long time.
• They converts into effector cells (TC) on later encounter with specific antigen even after several
years.
(2) A.M.I. (Antibody mediated immunity or humoral immunity)
 • This immunity is based on B-lymphocyte (10-20%) and these B-lymphocyte secret the antibody.

Antibody or Immunoglobulin (Ig) :

 • These are complex glycoprotein molecule made up of 4 polypeptide chains two light and two heavy
chains.
• Hence, an antibody is represented as H2 L2.
• These two chain held together by disulphide bond in shape of Y molecule.
• Each heavy and each light chain possesses a variable (V) and a constant (C) region.
 • Variable (V) regions of both heavy and light chains together form an assymetric "Antigen bindin
site or paratope"
• These two top tips of antibody (Paratopes) binds with a particular part of antigen (Antigenic
determinant or epitope) in a lock and key fashion and thus antigen-antibody complex is formed.
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• Reactions of Antibodies :
(i) Agglutination (ii) Opsonisation (iii) Neutralization
Types of Antibodies in Human
[Link]. Group of Total Main Characters and Function
Antibodies (%) Quantity Occurrence
1. IgA 10 The Primary antibodies Protection of mucous membranes
present in colostrum, Saliva, and outer surface of body and
Mucus and other secretions. protection from inhaled or ingested
(M.W. 1,70,000) pathogens.
2. IgD 1–3 Present in trace amount of Activation of B–lymphocytes and
the surface of lymphocytes in supports immune reactions.
blood, (M.W. 1,85,000)
3. IgE 0.05 Present in very small Stimulation of mast cells, related to
quantities, show specific allergic reactions and protection
linkage with mast cells and from parasites.
basophils, (M.W. 1,88,000)
4. IgG 75–80 Most common and smallest Provide immune power to human
antibodies. It has capacity to embryo and specific linkage with
pass through placenta, (M.W. phagocytic cells.
1,46,000) for phagocytosis.
5. IgM 5–10 Oldest and first antibody This antibody appears first at the
generated in response to time of defence, generates strong
antigens, It is the largest Ig agglutination, and also related to
with pentameric form, (M.W. complement system.
9,60,000 heaviest)

Vaccination and Immunisation

 • Vaccine is suspension of attenuated/Inactivated pathogen or antigenic proteins which is taken
orally or injected to provide immunity against pathogen.
• The principle of immunisation or vaccination is based on the property of ‘memory’ of the immune
system.
• In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogen or inactivated/weakened pathogen
(vaccine) are introduced into the body. The antibodies produced in the body against these antigens
would neutralise the pathogenic agents during actual infection.
• The vaccines also generate memory – B and T-cells that recognise the pathogen quickly on
subsequent exposure and destroy pathogen with a massive production of antibodies.
• If a person is infected with some deadly microbes to which quick immune response is required as in
tetanus, we need to directly inject the preformed antibodies, or antitoxin (a preparation containing
antibodies to the toxin). Even in cases of snakebites, the injection which is given to the patients,
contain preformed antibodies against the snake venom. This type of immunisation is called passive
immunisation.
• Edward jenner (1796) : Father of immunisation : He prepared vaccine for small pox.
 • Louis pasture : He discovered the process of inactivating the pathogen & prepared vaccines for
Anthrax, chicken cholera, Rabies etc.
• Von Behring :- Father of passive immunisation He prepared the antidiphtherial serum (ADS)
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Types of Vaccines :
Live Vaccines (Natural/ Killed Vaccines Toxoids Recombinant Antigen
Attenuated) (Inactivated) vaccines Vaccines (Subunit Vaccine)
• Small pox • Salk polio (IPV) • Tetanus • Hepatitis–B Vaccine
(TT) produced from transgenic
yeast through RDT.
• BCG (Bacillus Calmette • Whooping cough • Diphtheria
Guerin) (Pertussis) (DT)
• OPV (Oral polio Vaccine, • TAB for Typhoid • Botulism
Sabin Type 1)
• MMR (Measles, Mumps, • Rabies (Rabipur)
Rubella)
• Influenza
• Pneumonia
• Cholera

Immune System Disorder

•
Improper functioning of immune system may cause discomfort (Allergy), disease (AIDS) or even
death (anaphylactic shock). These disorders can be divided into 3 categories.
(A) Allergy :
• When a person show hyper sensitiveneses for a common foreign agent then it is called allergy.
• The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment is
called allergy. The substances to which such an immune response is produced are called allergens.
(eg : dust particles, pollen grains, mites, etc.)
• The antibodies produced in these cases are IgE.
• Symptoms of allergic reactions include sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and difficulty in breathing.
• Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like histamine, serotonin etc. from the mast cells.
• For determining the cause of allergy, the patient is exposed to or injected with very small doses of
possible allergens, and the reactions studied.
• The use of drugs like anti-histamine, adrenalin and steroids quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy.
Examples :
(i) Bronchial Asthma : Allergen causes inflammation in bronchi and bronchioles This is characterised
by the spasm of the smooth muscles present in the walls of the bronchiole (Bronchiospasm).
Symptoms : coughing and difficulty in breathing mainly during expiration.(Wheezing)
Prevention and cure :
(i) Avoiding exposure to the foreign substance or allergens is the best preventive measure.
(ii) Antibiotic therapy for removing the infection, and use of bronchodilator drugs, as well as inhalers
for symptomatic relief.
(ii) Hay Fever : Mucosa of eyes and upper respiratory passage become hyper secretory in response to
allergen (mainly pollen grain).
(iii) Anaphylactic shock : Death due to excessive allergic response.
(B) Auto immune disorder :
 • Memory-based acquired immunity evolved in higher vertebrates
• Higher vertebrates can distinguish foreign molecules as well as foreign organisms (eg. Pathogens)
from self molecules or self cells. Most of the experimental immunology deals with this aspect.
• Sometimes, due to genetic and other unknown reasons, the body attacks self-cells. This results in
damage to the body and is called auto-immune disease.
• When the immune system does not discriminates between self and non-self antigen, antibodies are
formed against the self antigen, which destroy the self antigen or the self tissue of the body.
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Examples :
(i) Myasthenia gravis : Antibodies are formed against acetylcholine receptors which are present at
Neuro- muscular junction which causes fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscles.
(ii) Pernicious anemia (Destructive) : Antibodies are formed against castle intrinsic factor
(Stomach) so the vitamin B12 is not absorbed in intestine. which causes pernicious anemia.
(iii) Hashimoto disease : Antibodies are formed against the thyroid gland. These antibodies destroy
the thyroid gland of the patient.
(iv) Rheumatoid arthritis : It is due to presence of rheumatoid factor (a type of IgM). It is
characterised by inflammation of synovial membrane. (membrane thickens), synovial fluid
increases fluid pressure causes pain.
 Heat treatment and physiotherapy help in relieving inflammantion and pain. Joint replacement
surgery is done in extreme cases.
(v) I.D.D.M : (Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus or Type-I).
Antibodies are formed against the  cell of pancreas that cause the deficiency of insulin in body
and this is called I.D.D.M.. Symptoms are hyperglycaemia, glycosuria, polyuria, polydipsia
(excessive thirst), polyphagia (Excessive hunger)
(vi) Multiple sclerosis : Antibodies are formed against the myelin sheath of nerve cells. Destruction
of myline sheath causes nervous weakness.
(vii) Vitiligo : Immune system distroyes melanocytes of skin thus white patches are appeared on
exposed part of body (face and hands)
(viii) Psoriasis : Immune system distroyes skin cells thus red patches are appeared on covered part of
body.

(C) Immuno deficiency disorder :

 May be due to gene mutation, gene deficiency, infection, nutritional deficiency & accidents.
Examples :
(i) A.I.D.S. (Acquired immuno deficiency syndrome) : HIV attaches on T-helper cells. This cause the
decrease count of T-helper and loss of acquired immunity.
(ii) S.C.I.D. : (Severe combined immuno deficiency) : This disorder is due to gene mutation which
causes deficiency of enzyme adenosin deaminase. This enzyme involved in formation of T and B
lymphocytes. SCID is characterized by very low number of circulating thymocytes and affected
individual die at an early age. It can be treated by gene therapy.
Immune System in The Body
 • Our Immune system is unique in the sense that it recognises foreign antigens, responds to these
and remembers them. The immune system also plays an important role in allergic reactions, auto-
immune diseases and organ transplantation.
• The human immune system consists of :
(i) lymphoid organs
(ii) lymphoid tissues
(iii) Specialised cells (Lymphocytes and antigen presenting cells)
(iv) soluble molecules like antibodies
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Lymphoid organs :
These are the organs where origin and/or maturation and proliferation of lymphocytes occur.
(a) Primary lymphoid organs :
• where immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes. (eg. : bone marrow
and thymus)
• The bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced.
• The thymus is a lobed organ located near the heart and beneath the breastbone. The thymus is quite
large at the time of birth but keeps reducing in size with age and by the time of puberty get reduced
to a very small size. Both bone-marrow and thymus provide micro-environments for the
development and maturation of T- lymphocytes.
(b) The secondary lymphoid organs :
• They provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen, which then proliferate to
become effector cells.
• After maturation the lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid organs like spleen, lymph nodes,
tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small intestine and appendix.
• The spleen is a large bean shaped organ. It mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes. It acts as a
filter of the blood by trapping blood-borne microorganisms. Spleen also has a large reservoir of RBCs.
• The lymph nodes are small solid structures located at different points along the lymphatic system.
Lymph nodes serve to trap the micro-organisms or other antigens, which happen to get into the
lymph and tissue fluid. Antigens trapped in the lymph nodes are responsible for the activation of
lymphocytes present there and cause the immune response.
• There is lymphoid tissue also located within the lining of the major tracts (respiratory, digestive and
urogenital tracts) called mucosal associated lymphoid tissue (MALT). It constitutes about 50 per
cent of the total lymphoid tissue in human body.

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Exercise 1.2
1. Antigen binding site in an antibody is formed 9. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a
by : quick relief from :-
(1) Two light chains (1) Allergy (2) Nausea
(2) Two heavy chains (3) Cough (4) Headache
(3) One heavy and one light chain
(4) Either between two light chains or 10. MALT :
between one heavy and one light chain (1) Stands for Mucosal Associated Lymphoid
depending upon the nature of antigen Tissue
2. Mark the correct statement ? (2) Is the lymphoid tissue located within the
(1) The anamnestic response against a mucosal lining
pathogen is highly intensified (3) Constitutes approximately 50% of the
(2) The T-lymphocytes produce antibodies lymphoid tissue in human body
(3) The B-lymphocytes produce cell mediated (4) All of the above
response
(4) An antibody is represented by H2L4 11. Interferons are included under :
(1) Physical barrier
3. Which of the following immunoglobulin (Ig)
is present in colostrum ? (2) Cytokine barrier
(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) Cellular barrier
(3) IgM (4) IgE (4) Inflammatory barrier
4. In which of the following organs the T-cells 12. Which of the following are the properties of
originate? acquired immunity?
(1) Bone marrow (2) Thymus
(1) Specificity
(3) Lymph nodes (4) Spleen
(2) Diversity
5. Which of the following infectious diseases (3) Immunological memory
have been controlled to a large extent by the (4) All of the above
vaccines ?
a. Polio b. Diptheria 13. Colostrum, the first milk secretion of mammary
c. Pneumonia d. Tetanus gland is rich in immunoglobulin
(1) a and b (2) c and d (1) IgE (2) IgM
(3) a and d (4) a, b, c and d (3) IgA (4) IgG
6. Which of the following cells are not included
14. Skin and mucus coating form _______
in cellular barriers ?
barriers of innate immunity :-
(1) Neutrophils (2) Helper T-cells
(3) Microglia (4) Macrophages (1) Physiological (2) Physical
(3) Cellular (4) Cytokine
7. The short-lived antibody secreting B-cells are
called: 15. Number of polypeptide chains present in a
(1) Memory cells (2) Dendritic cells molecule of antibody -
(3) Plasma cells (4) Histiocytes (1) 2 (2) 4
8. The first nobel prize for medicine and (3) 6 (4) 8
physiology was awarded to von Behring. He
had treated a girl suffering from diphtheria 16. Which of the following is not a lymphoid
by administering antitoxins which are: tissue?
(1) Toxoid (2) Weakened bacteria (1) Spleen (2) Tonsils
(3) Antibodies (4) Interferons (3) Pancreas (4) Thymus
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17. True statement about hepatitis B vaccine is 25. Select the incorrect statement :-
(1) Produced by recombinant DNA technology (1) Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto immune
(2) Produced by [Link] disease
(3) Suspension of polypeptide of pathogen (2) Steroids and anti-histamine drugs are
(4) Whole pathogen is given used in treatment of allergy
(3) Spleen does not contain macrophages.
18. Immunisation is based on :- (4) HIV replicates in T-helper cells.
(1) Memory of individuals
(2) Pathogenic power 26. Cell mediated immunity is provided by :
(3) Phagocytosis (1) B-Lymphocytes (2) Plasma cells
(3) T-Lymphocytes (4) Antibodies
(4) Memory of immune system
27. Antigen is .
19. Lymphocytes that inhibit the development
(1) Substances which stimulates the production
and proliferation of T and B cell are :
of venom
(1) B cells
(2) Vaccine
(2) Suppressor T cells
(3) Antibody production stimulating agent
(3) Macrophages
(4) Part of the body defence system
(4) Neutrophils
28. Mark correct statement regarding Interferon :-
20. Which is a primary lymphoid organ? (1) Kills the virus in virus infected cell
(1) Bone marrow and spleen (2) Kills the virus and destroy cancerous cell
(2) Spleen and thymus (3) Antiviral protein
(3) Bone marrow and tonsils (4) Antibacterial protein
(4) Thymus and bone marrow
29. Immune system retains the memory of which
21. Vaccine provides - response in vaccination process:
(1) Natural passive acquired immunity (1) Passive immunization response
(2) Natural active acquired immunity (2) Primary immune response
(3) Artificial active acquired immunity (3) Secondary immune response
(4) Artificial passive acquired immunity (4) Anamnestic response
22. BCG vaccine is a preventive measure against:- 30. Neutrophils and monocytes are important
(1) Tuberculosis (2) Typhoid cells participating in :
(3) AIDS (4) Cholera (1) Phagocytosis
(2) Clonal selection
23. D.P.T. vaccine is example of:-
(3) Passive immunity
(1) Diphtheria vaccine
(4) Antibody production
(2) Tetanus vaccine
(3) Recombinant vaccine 31. Select the incorrect statement about
(4) Both (1) and (2) antibody molecule :
(1) Consists of one heavy and one light chain
24. Autoimmunity against the synovial (2) Light and heavy chains are bound by
membrane at joint is called :- disulphide links
(1) Multiple sclerosis (3) Both light and heavy chains form antigen
(2) I.D.D.M. binding sites
(3) Hashimoto disease (4) The C-terminal of heavy chain is a
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis constant region
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32. Which of the following cells actively 37. DPT vaccination provides
participate during allergy? (1) Active immunity (2) Passive immunity
(1) B - lymphocytes (2) Liver cells (3) Natural immunity (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Mast cells (4) Red blood cells
38. Read the following statements regarding
33. To which type of barrier (Under innate spleen and select the correct option.
immunity) do saliva in mouth and tears from (i) Spleen is a large bean-shaped organ
eye belong? which mainly contains lymphocytes and
(1) Physiological barriers phagocytes.
(2) Physical barriers (ii) Spleen is a large reservoir of erythrocytes.
(3) Cytokine barriers (iii) Spleen is a primary lymphoid organ.
(4) Cellular barriers (iv) Spleen acts as a filter of the blood by
trapping blood borne micro- organisms.
34. The antigen binding site of an antibody is
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
present at
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(1) The constant region
(2) The C - terminal 39. Which of the following provide the sites for
(3) The variable region interaction of lymphocytes with the pathogen ?
(4) Between constant and variable region (A) Bone marrow
(B) Spleen
35. A substance produced by the host in response to
(C) Thymus gland
an infection by foreign substance is
(D) Lymph nodes
(1) Antigen (2) Phytotoxin
(E) Appendix
(3) Antibody (4) Hormone
(F) Peyer's patches of small intestine
36. Vaccination is a part of :- (1) B, C only (2) B, D, E, F only
(1) Treatment (2) Immunisation (3) B, D only (4) B, D, F only
(3) Diagnosis (4) Passive immunisation

AIDS
• The word AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. This means deficiency of
immune system, acquired during the lifetime of an individual indicating that it is not a congenital
disease. ‘Syndrome’ means a group of symptoms.
• AIDS is caused by the Human Immuno deficiency Virus (HIV), a member of a group of viruses called
retro virus, which have RNA as genetic material.
• Transmission of HIV-infection generally occurs by
(a) sexual contact with infected person, (multiple sex partner, prostitutes, homosexuality)
(b) by transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products,
(c) by sharing infected needles as in the case of intravenous drug abusers, poorly sterilised surgical
instruments etc.
(d) from infected mother to her child through placenta (33%) or through colostrum after birth.
• So, People who are at high risk of getting this infection includes –
(i) individuals who have multiple sex partners
(ii) drug addicts who take drugs intravenously
(iii) individuals who require repeated blood transfusions
(iv) children born to an HIV infected mother.
• It is important to note that HIV/AIDS do not spread by mere touch or physical contact; hugging,
kissing, sharing meal, shaking hands, mosquito bites, coughing, sneezing, looking after AIDS
patients. It spreads only through body fluids like blood, semen etc. It is, hence, imperative, for the
physical and psychological well- being, that the HIV/AIDS infected persons are not isolated from
family and society.
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• World AIDS day = 1st December
• It is not a congenital disease
• Also called slim disease
• AIDS was first reported in 1981 and in the last twenty-five years or so, it has spread all over the
world killing more than 25 million persons.
• First detected in homosexual males in USA (1981) at Disease control centre, Atlanta.
• In India first AIDS case was reported in 1986 from Chennai.

Structure and pathogenecity :

• It is a Retro virus (Lenti virus family) and has 2 identicle molecules of ssRNAs, enzymes (reverse
transcriptase, protease, Integrase) in centre core.
• Core also has Inner protein coat (P-24) and Outer protein coat (P-17)
• It also has an envelope of lipoproteins (derived from host cell membrane) and contains GP-120 and GP-41.
• GP-120 has complementry sequence to CD-4 receptors present on Macrophages (HIV factory), and
helper-T cells.

Fig : Replication of retrovirus (Infected cell can survive while viruses are being replicated and released)
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• After getting into the body of the person, the virus enters into macrophages where RNA genome of
the virus replicates to form viral DNA with the help of the enzyme reverse transcriptase. This viral
DNA gets incorporated into host cell's DNA and directs the infected cells to produce virus particles.
The macrophages continue to produce virus and in this way acts like a HIV factory.
• Simultaneously, HIV enters into helper T-cells (TH), replicates and produce progeny viruses. The
progeny viruses released in the blood attack other helper T-cells. This is repeated leading to a
progressive decrease in the number of helper T-cells in the body of the infected person. During this
period, the person suffers from bouts of fever, diarrhoea and weight loss.
• Due to decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes, the person starts suffering from infections
that could have been otherwise overcome such as those due to bacteria especially Mycobacterium,
viruses, fungi and even parasites like Toxoplasma. The patient becomes so immuno-deficient that
he/she is unable to protect himself /herself against these infections.
Investigation :
(i) Screeing test : A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay (ELISA).
 Alkaline phosphatase and peroxidase enzymes are used in ELISA.
(ii) Confirmatory tests : Western blot test which detects antibodies, in patient's serum
Symptoms :
(i) Asymptomatic phase : There is always a time-lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS
symptoms. This period is called Incubation period This period may vary from a few months to many
years (usually 5-10 years).
 There is low antibody, production in 1st 2-12 weaks so infectivity of patients or activeness of virus
is maximum in this period. No specific symptom appear in this phase so ELISA test is negative in
this period is called window period
(ii) AIDS related complex (ARC) : mild form of HIV
 swollen lymph nodes, bouts of fever, repeated episodes of diarrhoea, weight loss, prolonged cough etc.
(iii) Full blown AIDS :
• Patient become fully immune deficient in this period. T-lymphocytes or CD4 count decreases below
200 × 106/litre (normal CD count > 900 × 106 per/litre) and now this condition is called full blown AIDS.
• Tuberculosis by Mycobacterium avium.
• Candidiasis of mouth and oesophagus by fungus Candida albicans
• Pneumonia by fungus Pnemocystis carinii
• Sores by Herpes simplex virus -II
• Cancer of skin and lymph nodes (Kaposi' sarcoma), HIV acts as an oncovirus.
• Encephalitis by Protozoan Toxoplasma gondii
• Most of infections are due to oppurtunistic infections, appear when immunity become weak.

Treatment :
• Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs is only partially effective. They can only prolong the
life of the patient but cannot prevent death, which is inevitable.
(i) Reverse transcriptase inhibitor = Zidovudin (AZT), Stavudin, Trizivir, DDI (Didexymidine), Foscarnet, etc.
(ii) Protease inhibitor = Ritonavir, Nelfinavir, Sequinavir etc.
(iii) HAART (Highly Active Anti Retroviral Therapy): It includes both reverse transcriptase inhibitor and
protease inhibitor drugs. Therefore, it is also called cocktail treatment.
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Prevention of AIDS :
• As AIDS has no cure, prevention is the best option. Moreover, HIV infection, more often, spreads
due to conscious behaviour patterns and is not something that happens inadvertently, like
pneumonia or typhoid.
• Of course, infection in blood transfusion patients, new-borns (from mother) etc., may take place due to
poor monitoring. The only excuse may be ignorance and it has been rightly said – “don’t die of ignorance”.
• In our country the National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) and other non-governmental
organisation (NGOs) are doing a lot to educate people about AIDS. WHO has started a number of
programmes to prevent the spreading of HIV infection.
• Infrection of HIV or having AIDS is something that should not be hidden since then, the infection
may spread to many more people.
• The following steps may help in preventing the AIDS:
(i) Making blood (from blood banks) safe from HIV.
(ii) Ensuring the use of only disposable needles and syringes in public and private hospitals and clinics,
(iii) Free distribution of condoms and advocating safe sex
(iv) Controlling drug abuse,
(v) Promoting regular check-ups for HIV in susceptible populations
(vi) People should be educated about AIDS.
• HIV/AIDS-infected people need help and sympathy instead of being shunned by society. Unless
society recognises it as a problem to be dealt with in a collective manner – the chances of wider
spread of the disease increase manifold. It is a malady that can only be tackled, by the society and
medical fraternity acting together, to prevent the spread of the disease.

Exercise 1.3
1. How many of the following act can transmit 3. Several viral diseases have been controlled
HIV infection ? by vaccines but the same has not been
(i) Physical contact (Does not involve possible with AIDS, Why ?
intercourse) with infected person. (1) Cost of development and production of
vaccines
(ii) Using needles which are used by infected
(2) Lack of suitable experimental animal on
person. which vaccines can be tested
(iii) From infected mother to child (3) Lack of antigenic proteins on the HIV virus
(iv) By touching, Hugging or kissing infected (4) High rate of mutability in HIV
persons. 4. AIDS cannot be transmitted by :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (iii) and (iv) (1) Transfusion of contaminated blood
(3) (iii) and (iv) only (4) (ii) and (iii) only (2) Sexual contact with infected person
(3) By sharing infected needles
2. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome is :
(4) From normal mother to her child through
(1) Characterised by reduction in number of placenta
killer T-cells
5. Which of the following individuals are at high
(2) An autoimmune disease
risk of getting AIDS infection ?
(3) Characterised by reduction in the number
(1) Person suffers from thalassemia
of helper T-cells (2) Multiple sexual partners
(4) The result of inability of body to produce (3) Drug addicts (intravenous)
interferons (4) All of these
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 Biology Human Health and Disease
6. The viral protein that helps HIV to recognise 10. AIDS was first reported in
helper T cells is : (1) USA (2) France
(1) CXCR (3) Russia (4) India
(2) GP 120
11. AIDS is due to :-
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(1) Reduction in number of helper T cells
(4) Nucleocapsid proteins
(2) Lack of interferon
7. AIDS virus has (3) Reduction in number of killer T cells
(1) Single strand DNA (4) Autoimmunity
(2) Double strand DNA
12. AIDS is caused by the human immuno
(3) Single strand RNA
deficiency virus (HIV) and __'X'__ acts like
(4) Double strand RNA
HIV factory Choose the option which
8. AIDS spreads due to correctly fills up to blank 'X'
(1) Homosexuality (1) Helper 'T' cell
(2) Infected needles and syringes (2) Cytotoxic 'T' cell
(3) Infected mother to foetus (3) Memory 'T' cell
(4) All of these (4) Macrophage

9. Enzyme responsible for replication of HIV in 13. After entering T-cell, HIV first forms -
macrophages is (1) mRNA
(1) RNA polymerase (2) Single stranded DNA
(2) DNA ligase (3) Double stranded DNA
(3) DNA polymerase (4) Double stranded RNA
(4) Reverse transcriptase

CANCER
 Study of cancer is called oncology.
• Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases of human beings and is a major cause of death all over
the globe.
• More than a million Indians suffer from cancer and a large number of them die from it annually. The
mechanisms that underlie development of cancer or oncogenic transformation of cells, its
treatment and control have been some of the most intense areas of research in biology and
medicine.
• Uncontrolled, abnormal and excessive mitotic division of cells is called cancer. These abnormal
and undifferentiated cells are called cancerous cells.
• In our body, cell growth and differentiation is highly controlled and regulated. In cancer cells, there
is breakdown of these regulatory mechanisms. Normal cells show a property called contact
inhibition by virtue of which contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth. Cancer
cells appears to have lost this property. As a result of this, cancerous cells just continue to divide
giving rise to masses of cells called tumors.
• Tumors are of two types :
(A) Benign (B) malignant.
• Benign tumors normally remain confined to their original location and do not spread to other parts
of the body and cause little damage.
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 Human Health and Disease Biology
• The malignant tumors, on the other hand are a mass of proliferating cells called neoplastic or tumor cells.
• These cells grow very rapidly, invading and damaging the surrounding normal tissues. As these cells
actively divide and grow they also starve the normal cells by competing for vital nutrients.
• Cells from such tumors reach distant sites through blood, and wherever they get lodged in the body,
they produce a new tumor there. This property called metastasis is the most feared property of
malignant tumors.

Type of Cancer
 Cancers are classified on the basis of tissues of origin from where cancer develops.
(i) Carcinoma : Cancers arise in epithelial tissues, such as skin or the epithelial lining of internal organs
or glands. Carcinoma is most common type of tumour (85%)
eq. : (a) Brain cancer (b) Oral cancer (c) Gastric cancer (d) Colon cancer
(e) Lung cancer (f) Cervical cancer (g) Adeno cancer (gland tumour)
(h) Breast cancer
• Breast cancer in female and prostate cancer in males are common incidence in world. Lung cancer
accounts for 31.1% of all cancer death in men and 25% in women.
• Cervical (Uterine Cervix) cancer in females and oral cancer in males are common in India.
• According to a rough estimate about 8 lacs cases of cancer are detected in India every year out of
which 4 lakhs leads to death.
• Melanoma : These are cancerous growths of melanocytes (a type of skin cells). It is a type of carcinomas.
(ii) Sarcoma : This is tumour of mesodermal tissue. eg. muscles, adipose tissue, lymphoid tissue and
skeletal tissue. They are rare in humans (about 1% of all tumours)
eg. Bone cancer – Osteoma
Muscle cancer – Myoma
Lymph node cancer – Lymphoma
(iii) Leukaemia or Blood Cancer : It is the cancer of blood forming tissues which is characterised by
abnormal rise in TLC.
 It occurs due to chromosomal aberration (Reciprocal translocation)
Normal mechanism of body growth :
 Normal cell division regulation by proto-oncogenes and it is suppressed by tumour surppressor gene.
1. Proto–oncogene

2. Tumor–suppressor gene
3. Gene related to programme cell death

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 Biology Human Health and Disease
Normal cells
(1) Genes that induce cellular proliferation, eg. genes encoding growth factors, growth factor
receptors, transcription factors etc. (Proto-oncogenes). Furthermore, several genes called cellular
oncogenes (c-onc) or proto oncogenes have been identified in normal cells which, when activated
under certain. conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells.
(2) Genes that inhibit cellular proliferation (Tumour Suppressor Genes).
(3) Genes that regulate programmed cell death. (Suicide genes)
• All these genes are involved in normal growth.
• Alteration of these genes (Activation of proto-oncogene and inactivation of tumor suppressor gene)
may lead to oncogenic transformation (Cancerous growth).
• Cancer cells don't show contact inhibition phenomenon which is shown by normal cells (when
normal cells come in contact with other cells they inhibit uncontrolled growth by activation of
tumour suppressor genes of cells).

Carcinogens :
 Transformation of normal cells into cancerous or neoplastic cells may be induced by some physical,
chemical or biological agents. These agents are called carcinogens.
(1) Radiations : Ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays and non-ionizing radiations like UV cause
alteration in genetic material (DNA damage) leading to cancerous transformation. There are 5 times
more incidence of leukemia in Hiroshima & Nagasaki due to radiation effect of nuclear bombing.
(2) Chemical factor : The chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been identified as a major
cause of lung cancer.
• Tobacco and betal chewing cause oral cancer.
• Heavy smoking (N-Nitrosodimethylene) causes oral cancer, cancer of larynx and lungs.
• Combusion product of coal and pesticides, artificial flavour, sweetners, synthetic food, add flavour,
hormonal imbalance in body cause cancer.
• Hormonal imbalance or estrogen excess causes breast cancer.
• Urinary bladder cancer is common in dye workers.
(3) Physical factors : Sharp teeth cause Tongue cancer
Kashmiri people keep 'Kangri' close to skin that cause skin cancer & this skin cancer is called kangri cancer.
(4) Biological factors : Cancer causing viruses called oncogenic viruses have genes called viral oncogenes.
 Alteraction of these genes (Activation of proto-oncogene and inactivation of tumor suppressor gene)
may lead to cancerous growth.

Cancer detection and diagnosis :

 Early detection of cancers is essential as it allows the disease to be treated successfully in many cases.
(i) Blood examination :-
(a) Test of increased WBC counts in case of leukenia
(b) Detection of the tumor markers like -Feto protein (AFP) for liver cancer, PSA (Prostate specific
antigen) for prostate cancer.
(ii) Histopathological Study :
 In biopsy a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined under
microscope (histopathological studies) by a pathologist.
 F.N.A.C. : (Fine needle aspiration cytology)  Fluid is collected from tumor (eg :- Breast Cyst) and
examined for presence of cancer.
 Pap Smear : It is used for cervical cancer (slide is prepared from cervical fluid).
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 Human Health and Disease Biology
(iii) Radiography : Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT-Scan (computed tomography) and MRI
(magnetic resonance imaging) are very useful to detect cancers of the internal organs.
 CT-Scan uses X-rays to generate 3D image of the internal of an object
 MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to accurately detect pathological and
physiological changes in the living tissue. (safest technique)
(iv) Modern technique : Antibodies (Monoclonal) against cancer-specific antigens are also used for
detection of certain cancers.

Treatment of Cancer :
 The common approaches for treatment of cancer are surgery, radiation therapy and immunotherapy.
(i) Surgery : By removing the entire cancerous tissue and infected lymph nodes.
(ii) Radiotherapy : Rapidly dividing tumor cells are destroyed by limited use of radiations, taking proper
care of the normal tissues surrounding the tumor mass. Cobalt therapy (Co–60), X-ray radiations are given.
(iii) Chemotherapy : Several chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill cancerous cells. Some of these are
specific for particular tumors. Majority of drugs have side effects like hair loss, anemia, [Link] anti-
cancerous drugs. Inhibit the DNA synthesis stopping cell cycle of cancerous cell
E.g.:–
Vincristine
Weed – Cantharanthus roseus
Vinblastin / Vinca rosea (Sadabahar plant)

(iv) Immuno therapy : Monoclonal antibodies and vaccine are given in it.
• Most cancers are treated by combination of surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
• Tumor cells have been shown to avoid detection and destruction by immune system. Therefore, the
patients are given substances called biological response modifiers such as -interferon which
activate their immune system and help in destroying the tumor.

Exercise 1.4
1. Tumor formation is caused by : 5. Oncogenic transformation of a normal cell
(1) Uncontrolled meiosis can be caused by all of the following, except
(2) Loss of contact inhibition (1) Exposure to X-rays
(3) Rupturing of cells (2) Exposure to visible range of spectrum
(4) Loss of immunity of cells (3) Exposure to benzopyrene
2. After removing the tumour surgically its cells (4) Exposure to cadmium oxide
are microscopically examined to check whether
6. Sarcoma is a malignancy of
these are malignant, such process is called :
(1) Autopsy (2) MRI (1) Epithelial tissue
(3) CT scan (4) Biopsy (2) Blood
(3) Mesoderm
3. Cancer of muscular tissue is called :
(4) Reticuloendothelial tissue
(1) Carcinoma (2) Melanoma
(3) Sarcoma (4) Myoma 7. In leukaemia, there is tremendous increase in
the number of
4. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of
origin to other part of the body forming (1) R.B.C.
secondary tumors is called : (2) Immature cells
(1) Metagenesis (2) Diapedesis (3) [Link]
(3) Metamorphosis (4) Metastasis (4) [Link] and immature leucocyte cells
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 Biology Human Health and Disease
8. Cancer is treated through a combination of 14. Which of the following is not the character of
(1) Surgery and drugs cancerous cell?
(2) Drugs and radiation (1) Undifferentiated cell
(3) Surgery and radiation (2) Metastasis present
(4) Surgery, radiation and Chemotherapy (3) It may be fatal
9. Treatment of cancer is : (4) Contact inhibition present
(1) Surgery (2) Radiotherapy 15. Metastasis is -
(3) Chemotherapy (4) All (1) Rapid division in cancer cells
10. Cancer cells are characterised by (2) Regeneration of cancer cells
(1) Uncontrolled growth (3) Spread of cancer cells at new sites
(2) Invasion of local tissue (4) All of the above
(3) Spreading to other body parts
16. Surest investigation and safest investigation
(4) All the above
technique used for cancer detection
11. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by respectively are?
radiation than normal cells because they are- (1) Biopsy, CT-Scan (2) MRI, Biopsy
(1) Undergoing rapid divisions (3) Biopsy, MRI (4) CT scan, FNAC
(2) Different in structure
(3) Non-dividing 17. Sarcoma is cancer of −
(4) Starved of nutrition (1) Epithelial tissue
(2) Mesodermal tissue
12. In malignant tumors, the cells proliferate,
(3) Blood
grow rapidly and move to other parts of the
(4) Endodermal tissues
body to form new tumors. This stage of
disease is called 18. Confirmation of cancer is done by :
(1) Metagenesis (2) Metastasis (1) CT Scan
(3) Metachrosis (4) Mitosis (2) X-ray
13. Carcinoma is a cancer of : (3) Microscopic examination of body fluids
(1) Lymphocytes (2) Connective tissue or tissues.
(3) Erythrocytes (4) Epithelial tissue (4) Surgery

Drugs and Alcohol Abuse

• Surveys and statistics show that use of drugs and alcohol has been on the rise especially among
the youth.
• This is really a cause of concern as it could result in many harmful effects. Proper education and
guidance would enable youth to safeguard themselves against these dangerous behaviour patterns
and follow healthy lifestyles.
• The drugs, which are commonly abused are opioids, cannabinoids and coca alkaloids. Majority of
these are obtained from flowering plants. Some are obtained from fungi like LSD (Lysergic acid
diethyl amides).
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(A) Opioids : (eg : morphine, Heroine etc.)

Chemical structure of Morphine Opium poppy

• These are the drugs, which bind to specific opioid receptors present in our central nervous system
and gastrointestinal tract.
• Heroin, commonly called smack is chemically diacetylmorphine which is a white, odourless, bitter
crystalline compound. This is obtained by acetylation of morphine, which is extracted from the latex
of poppy plant Papaver somniferum. Generally taken by snorting and injection, heroin is a
depressant and slows down body functions.
• Morphine is a very effective sedative and painkiller and is very useful in patients who have
undergone surgery.
(B) Cannabinoids

Skeletal structure of cannabinoid molecule Leaves of Cannabis sativa

Flowering branch of Datura

• These are a group of chemicals, which interact with cannabinoid receptors present principally in
the brain.
• Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescences of the plant Cannabis sativa. The flower
tops, leaves and the resin of cannabis plant are used in various combinations to produce marijuana,
hashish, charas and ganja.
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• Generally taken by inhalation and oral ingestion, these are known for their effects on
cardiovascular system of the body.
• These days cannabinoids are also being abused by some sports persons.
 • Other well-known plants with hallucinogenic properties are Atropa belladona and Datura.
• LSD (Lysergic acid diethyl amides) is a dangerous Hallucinogen, obtained from fruiting bodies of a
fungus (Claviceps purpurea)
(C) Coca alkaloid or cocaine :
• These are obtained from coca plant Erythroxylum coca, native to South America.
• It interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine.
• Cocaine, commonly called coke or crack is usually snorted.
• It has a potent stimulating action on central nervous system, producing a sense of euphoria (feeling
of well being) and increase energy, excessive dosage of cocaine causes hallucinations.
• Drugs like barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines, LSD and other similar drugs, that are
normally used as medicines to help patients cope with mental illnesses like depression and
insomnia, are often abused.
• Several plants, fruits and seeds having hallucinogenic properties have been used for hundreds of
years in folk-medicine, religious ceremonies and rituals all over the globe. When these are taken
for a purpose other than medicinal use or in amounts/frequency that impairs one’s physical,
physiological or psychological functions, it constitutes drug abuse.

Smoking
• Smoking also paves the way to hard drugs. Tobacco has been used by human beings for more than
400 [Link] is smoked, chewed or used as a snuff.
• Tobacco contains a large number of chemtical substances including nicotine, an alkaloid. Nicotine
stimulates adrenal gland to release adrenaline and nor-adrenaline into blood circulation, both of
which raise blood pressure and increase heart rate.
• Smoking is associated with infection of throat, bronchitis, emphysema, coronary heart disease,
gastric ulcer, etc. and increased incidence of cancers of lung and urinary bladder.
• Tobacco chewing is associated with increased risk of cancer of the oral cavity.
• Smoking increases carbon monoxide (CO) content in blood and reduces the concentration of
haembound oxygen (oxyhaemoglobin). This causes oxygen deficiency in the body.
• When one buys packets of cigarettes one cannot miss the statutory warning that is present on the
packing which warns against smoking and says how it is injurious to health. Yet, smoking is very
prevalent in society, both among young and old. Knowing the dangers of smoking and chewing
tobacco, and its addictive nature, the youth and old need to avoid these habits. Any addict requires
counselling and medical help to get rid of the habit.
Diseases and disorders of smoking :
(1) Lung cancer
(2) Bronchitis : Inflamation in respiratory tract and alveoli.
(3) Emphysema : It is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory
surface area decreased.
(4) Heart disease : Lumen of blood vessels become narrow which increases the blood
pressure(Hypertension)
(5) Intestinal ulcer and other irregularities of Gut
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Adolescence and Drug/Alcohol Abuse
• Adolescence means both ‘a period’ and ‘a process’ during which a child becomes mature in terms
of his/her attitudes and beliefs for effective participation in society. The period between 12-18
years of age may be thought of as adolescence period.
• In other words, adolescence is a bridge linking childhood and adulthood. Adolescence is
accompanied by several biological and behavioural changes. Adolescence, thus is a very vulnerable
phase of mental and psychological development of an individual.
• Curiosity, need for adventure and excitement, and experimentation, constitute common causes,
which motivate youngsters towards drug and alcohol use.
• A child’s natural curiosity motivates him/her to experiment. This is complicated further by effects
that might be perceived as benefits, of alcohol or drug use. Thus, the first use of drugs or alcohol
may be out of curiosity or experimentation, but later the child starts using these to escape facing
problems.
• Of late, stress, from pressures to excel in academics or examinations, has played a significant role
in persuading the youngsters to try alcohol and drugs.
• The perception among youth that it is ‘cool’ or progressive to smoke, use drugs or alcohol, is also in
a way a major cause for youth to start these habits.
• Television, movies, newpapers, internet also help to promote this perception. Other factors that
have been seen to be associated with drug and alcohol abuse among adolescents are unstable or
unsupportive family structures and peer pressure.

Addiction and Dependence

• Because of the perceived benefits, drugs are frequently used repeatedly. The most important thing,
which one fails to realise, is the inherent addictive nature of alcohol and drugs.
• Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects –such as euphoria and a temporary
feeling of well- being – associated with drugs and alcohol. These drive people to take them even
when these are not needed, or even when their use becomes self-destructive.
• With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of the receptors present in our body increases.
Consequently the receptors respond only to higher doses of drugs or alcohol leading to greater
intake and addiction.
• However, it should be clearly borne in mind that use of these drugs even once, can be a fore-
runner to addiction.
• Thus, the addictive potential of drugs and alcohol, pull the user into a vicious circle leading to their
regular use (abuse) from which he/she may not be able to get out.
• In the absence of any guidance or counselling, the person gets addicted and becomes dependent
on their use.
• Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant withdrawal
syndrome if regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly discontinued. This is characterised by anxiety,
shakiness, nausea and sweating, which may be relieved when use is resumed again. In some cases,
withdrawal symptoms can be severe and even life threatening and the person may need medical
supervision.
• Dependence leads the patient to ignore all social norms in order to get sufficient funds to satiate
his/her needs.
• These result in many social adjustment problems.
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Effects of Drug/Alcohol Abuse
• The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are manifested in the form of reckless
behaviour, vandalism and violence. Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma and death due to
respiratory failure, heart failure or cerebral hemorrhage.
• A combination of drugs or their intake along with alcohol generally results in overdosing and even deaths.
• The most common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse among youth include drop in academic
performance, unexplained absence from school/college, lack of interest in personal hygiene,
withdrawal, isolation, depression, fatigue, aggressive and rebellious behaviour, deteriorating
relationships with family and friends, loss of interest in hobbies, change in sleeping and eating
habits, fluctuations in weight, appetite, etc.
• There may even be some far-reaching implications of drug/alcohol abuse. If abuser is unable to get
money to buy drugs/alcohol he/she may turn to stealing. The adverse effects are just not restricted
to the person who is using drugs or alcohol. At times, a drug/alcohol addict becomes the cause of
mental and financial distress to his/her entire family and friends.
• Those who take drugs intravenously (direct injection into the vein using a needle and syringe), are much
more likely to acquire serious infections like AIDS and hepatitis B. The viruses, which are responsible
for these diseases, are transferred from one person to another by sharing of infected needles and
syringes. Both AIDS and Hepatitis B infections are chronic infections and ultimately fatal.

AIDS and Hepatitis B are transmitted through infected blood and both are STDs.
• The use of alcohol during adolescence may also have long-term effects. It could lead to heavy drinking
in adulthood. The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages nervous system and liver (cirrhosis). The
use of drugs and alcohol during pregnancy is also known to adversely affect the foetus.
• Another misuse of drugs is what certain sportspersons do to enhance their performance. They (mis)use
narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics and certain hormones in sports to increase muscle
strength and bulk and to promote aggressiveness and as a result increase athletic performance.
• The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females include masculinisation (features like
males), increased aggressiveness, mood swings, depression, abnormal menstrual cycles, excessive
hair growth on the face and body, enlargement of clitoris, deepening of voice.
• In males it includes acne, increased aggressiveness, mood swings, depression, reduction of size of the testicles,
decreased sperm production, potential for kidney and liver dysfunction, breast enlargement, premature
baldness, enlargement of the prostate gland. These effects may be permanent with prolonged use.
• In the adolescent male or female, severe facial and body acne, and premature closure of the
growth centres of the long bones may result in stunted growth

Prevention and Control

• The age-old adage of ‘prevention is better than cure’ holds true here also.
• It is also true that habits such as smoking, taking drug or alcohol are more likely to be taken up at
a young age, more during adolescence.
• Hence, it is best to identify the situations that may push an adolescent towards use of drugs or alcohol, and
to take remedial measures well in time. In this regard, the parents and the teachers have a special
responsibility. Parenting that combines with high levels of nurturance and consistent discipline, has been
associated with lowered risk of substance (alcohol/drugs/tobacco) abuse. Some of the measures mentioned
here would be particularly useful for prevention and control of alcohol and drugs abuse among adolescents.
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(i) Avoid undue peer pressure : Every child has his/her own choice and personality, which should be
respected and nurtured. A child should not be pushed unduly to perform beyond his/her threshold
limits; be it studies, sports or other activities.
(ii) Education and counselling : Educating and counselling him/ her to face problems and stresses, and to accept
disappointments and failures as a part of life. It would also be worthwhile to channelise the child’s energy into
healthy pursuits like sports, reading, music, yoga and other extracurricular activities.
(iii) Seeking help from parents and peers : Help from parents and peers should be sought immediately so that they
can guide appropriately. Help may even be sought from close and trusted friends. Besides getting proper
advise to sort out their problems, this would help young to vent their feelings of anxiety and guilt.
(iv) Looking for danger signs : Alert parents and teachers need to look for and identify the danger signs
discussed above. Even friends, if they find someone using drugs or alcohol, should not hesitate to bring
this to the notice of parents or teacher in the best interests of the person concerned. Appropriate
measures would then be required to diagnose the malady and the underlying causes. This would help
in initiating proper remedial steps or treatment.
(v) Seeking professional and medical help : A lot of help is available in the form of highly qualified psychologists,
psychiatrists, and deaddiction and rehabilitation programmes to help individuals who have unfortunately got
in the quagmire of drug/alcohol abuse. With such help, the affected individual with sufficient efforts and will
power, can get rid of the problem completely and lead a perfectly normal and healthy life.

Alcohol and Alcoholism

• Ethyl alcohol is consumed as fermented beverages with low content of alcohol (beer, wine) and as
distilled beverages with a relatively high alcohol percentage (Brandy, Rum, Whisky, Gin).
• This alcohol is rapidly absorbed from the wall of stomach and enters the blood stream within
minutes of ingestion.
• In the liver alcohol is converted into a more toxic substance acetaldehyde.
Effects of alcohol drinking :
(1) Lowering of blood sugar level (Hypoglycemia)
(2) Alcohol drinking affects the cerebellum part of brain so control and coordination of the body
affected. (Zig- Zag moments)
(3) Effects on liver : The liver is the organ most affected by alcohol.
 Excess alcohol in the blood causes increase in the synthesis of fat which is deposited in the liver
cell and bile ducts. This results in the "Fatty liver syndrome"
 The further stages of this are "Liver cirrhosis" and "Billiary cirrhosis diseases". Liver become
fibrous.
(4) Amnesia : Loss of memory
(5) Gastritis : It causes the inflammation in the wall of stomach. In chronic cases the gastric ulcers
usually develop.
(6) Resistance of the body : Body resistance against disease is reduced. (Lowers immunity)
(7) Alcohol psychosis.

Special Point
• Immunity : Resistance of the body against a pathogen or disease.
• Antigen or Agglutinogen : Substance which stimulates the production of antibodies.
• Antibody or Agglutinin : It is a complex glycoprotein secreted by B-lymphocytes in response to an antigen.

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 Biology Human Health And Disease
• Antiserum : Serum of any animal which contains the antibody for a specific antigen is called
antiserum.
• Venom (poison) : Toxic substances secreted by snake and some insect.
• Incubation period : Time interval between the entry of pathogen and appearance of symptoms is
called incubation period.
• Window period : Period between infection to the time when it can be laboratorically detected.
• ELISA is very quick diagnostic technique for detection of a wide variety of pathogens, disorders,
allergens and hormones, like
(i) Pregnancy test through presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) in urine or blood.
(ii) AIDS or HIV infection.
(iii) Hepatitis.
(iv) STD or sexually transmitted disease.
(v) Rubella virus infection
(vi) Thyroid disorder etc.

Chemotherapy : Treatment with chemicals (Medicine)

(A) Antibiotics : Substances which are secreted by microorganism that inhibit the growth or destroy the
other microorganism are called antibiotics. This term was given by Walksman (Streptomycin - first
bacterial antibiotic obtained from bacteria – Streptomycin griseus).
Example – Bacteriostatic - Tetracycline, Chloramphenicol. Bacteriolytic or Bacteriocidal-Streptomycin,
Ciprofloxacin, Ampicillin.
(B) Analgesics : Substance that relieves pain.
Example – Opioid analgesics - Morphine, Codeine. Others - Diclofenac
(C) Antipyretics (Antifebrile) : (Pyrexia - Fever) Substance that reduces temperature or fever of body.
Example - Aspirin (Acetyl salicylic acid) - (It produces gastric ulcer so not extensively recommanded as
a analgesic). Ibuprofen, Paracetamol, Nimesulide.
(D) Antihistaminic drug : These drugs give relief from allergies by neutralizing histamine that is released
from the ruptured mast cell e.g. Cetirizine
 The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the rejection of incompatible tissues / organs
(graft rejection).
 Cyclosporin drug is used as a immunosuppresent drug during tissue grafting.
 Tissue typing is done before tissue grafting, which is based on MHC antigen located on the surface of
tissue cells.
Exercise 1.5
1. Which one depresses brain activity ? 3. Opiate narcotic is :
(1) Sedatives and tranquillisers (1) Bhang
(2) Opiate narcotics (2) Charas
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) Heroin
(4) Hallucinogens (4) Nicotine
2. Drugs which develop physical dependence 4. Drug that increases cardiovascular effects is
and characterised by strong withdrawal (1) Nicotine + Cocaine
effects are : (2) Benzodiazepine + Barbitunate
(1) Opiates (2) Sedatives (3) Bartiturates + Novacaine
(3) Stimulants (4) Tranquillisers (4) Insulin + Amphetamine
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5. Choose the correct pair 14. Marijuana is extracted from
(1) LSD – Narcotic (1) Cannabis sativa
(2) Heroin - Psychedelic (2) ergot fungus
(3) Benzodiazepam – Painkiller (3) roots of hemp plant
(4) Amphetamine - Stimulant (4) cocoa plant
6. LSD is obtained from 15. Chemical structure of a drug is given below.
(1) Cannabis (2) Claviceps Select the correct option :
(3) Fusarium (4) Nostoc
7. An adolescent often shows changes in moods
and emotions due to :
(1) Difficulty in social adjustments
(2) Hormone flushes
(3) Search for self identify
(4) Egocentrism (1) The drug binds to specific receptors
present in central nervous system only.
8. Fatty liver syndrome is due to excessive (2) It is very effective sedative and pain killer
intake of :
and is very useful in patients who have
(1) Morphine (2) Tobacco
undergone surgery
(3) Alcohol (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) It has hallucinogenic properties and has
9. Tobacco chewing results in :- been used for hundred of years in folk
(1) Mouth cancer (2) Lung cancer medicine, religious ceremonies and
(3) Bone cancer (4) Leukaemia rituals all over the world.
10. Which of the following is a very powerful (4) It is known for its effects on
painkiller? cardiovascular system and is obtained
(1) Cocaine (2) Charas from Erythroxylum coca, native to south
(3) Hashish (4) Morphine America.

11. Opium is obtained from :- 16. Cocaine interferes with transport of :-

(1) Cannabis sativa (1) GABA (2) Acetylcholine
(2) Coffea arabica (3) Dopamine (4) Glutamate
(3) Oryza sativa
17. Which of the following drug is used for
(4) Papaver somniferum
treatment of insomnia and depression :
12. Which of the following combination is not a (1) Barbiturates (2) Amphetamine
cannabinoids ? (3) Antihistamines (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Charas, Ganja (2) Datura, LSD
(3) Charas, Hashish (4) Marijuana, Bhang 18. Cocaine is derived from :-
(1) Erythroxylum coca (2) Coffea arabica
13. The drugs, which are commonly abused are (3) Thea sinensis (4) Cannabis sativa
opioid, cannabinoids and coca alkaloid.
Majority of these are obtained from .... while 19. Which of the following is included in
some are obtained from... cannabinoid?
(1) Fungi, non-flowering plants (1) Morphine
(2) Flowering plants, fungi (2) Heroin
(3) Fungi, flowering plants (3) Codeine
(4) Non flowering plants, fungi (4) Charas
Sarvam Career Institute 35
 Biology Human Health And Disease
20. 26. Mark the correctly matched options :-
(A) Leaves of Cannabis
sativa –

Diagram is showing, skeletal structure of:-

(1) Morphine molecule (B) Opium poppy –
(2) Cannabinoid molecule
(3) Opioids molecule
(4) Coca alkaloid
21. Which measure would be particularly useful (C) Flowering branch of
for prevention and control of alcohol and Datura–
drug abuse among adolescents ?
(a) Avoid undue peer pressure
(b) Seeking professional and medical help (1) A and B (2) B and C
(c) Looking for danger sign (3) A, B and C (4) Only C
(d) Education and counselling
(e) Seeking help from parents and peers 27. How many of the given drugs have
(1) a, b, d (2) a, c, d, e hallucinogenic property ?
(3) c, e (4) a, b, c, d, e (a) Overdose of drug obtained from
22. Mark the wrong statement - erythroxylum coca.
(1) With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance (b) Drug obtained from Claviceps purpurea.
level of the receptors present in our body (c) Drug obtained from papaver somniferum.
increases. (d) Drug obtained from Atropa belladona
(2) Smoking increases carbon monoxide (CO) and datura.
content in the blood and reduce the (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
concentration of haem bound oxygen.
(3) (a), (b) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) only
(3) Smack is chemically diacetylmorphine
(4) The plant illustrated is Atropa belladonna 28. In alcoholics, liver gets damaged as it:-
and has hallucinogenic properties. (1) Accumulates excess of fats
(2) Stores excess of glycogen
(3) Secretes more bile
(4) Has to detoxify alcohol

29. (a) Smack

23. LSD is obtained from :- (b) Diacetylmorphine
(1) Cannabis sativa (c) White
(2) Claviceps purpurea (d) Odourless
(3) Erythroxylum coca (e) Bitter crystalline compound
(4) Papaver somniferum Above statements/informations are correct
24. Caffeine and cocaine are the examples of for-
(1) Sedatives (2) Stimulants (1) Morphine
(3) Hallucinogens (4) Opiate narcotis (2) Heroin
(3) Cocain
25. Excessive use of alcohol mainly causes-
(1) Uremia (2) Liver cirrohsis (4) Barbiturates
(3) Cancer (4) Anaemia
36 Sarvam Career Institute
Human Health And Disease Biology
Exercise 2
1. Mark the correct statement :- 6. (A) Loss of appetite
(a) Yoga has been practiced to achieve (B) Intestinal ulcer
physical and mental health (C) Sustained high fever (39º – 40°C)
(b) Infectious diseases are very common and (D) Constipation
everyone of us suffers from these at sometime These are the symptoms of which of the
(c) AIDS is an infectious disease following disease.
(d) Cancer is non-infectious disease (1) Pneumonia
(e) Health bring economic prosperity (2) Thyroid
(1) a, b and c (2) b, c, d and e (3) Ascariasis
(3) c and d (4) a, b, c, d and e
(4) Enteric fever (Typhoid)
2. Find out the correct matching of a disease,
7. An intestinal parasite which causes blockage
pathogen and mode of transmission.
of the intestinal passage and whose eggs are
Disease Pathogen Transmission
excreted along with the faeces of infected
(A) Pneumonia Streptococcus Infected food
person is-
haemolyticus and water
(1) Wuchereria bancrofti
(B) Filariasis Wuchereria Male culex
bancrofti mosquito (2) Ascaris
(C) Malaria Plasmodium Female aedes (3) Epidermophyton
mosquito (4) Microsporum
(D) Typhoid Salmonella Infected food 8. Choose the correct set of diseases which
typhi and water spread by contaminated food and water:
(1) A (2) B (1) Filariasis, Ringworms
(3) C (4) D (2) Ascariasis, Amoebic dysentery
3. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with itching (3) Pneumonia, Typhoid
on various parts of the body are the (4) Filariasis, Ascariasis
symptoms of the disease _______.
9. House flies are mechanical carriers of :-
(1) elephantiasis (2) ringworm
(1) Amoebiasis (2) Ascariasis
(3) ascariasis (4) amoebiasis
(3) Diarrhoea (4) All of the above
4. Pick wrong one out :
(1) Elephantiasis -Wuchereria 10. Identify A & B in digenetic life cycle of
(2) Amoebic dysentery -Entamoeba histolytica plasmodium species -
A
(3) Infective stage of Plasmodium for human
- Sporozoite Female Human
(4) Pneumonia -Salmonella typhi anopheles Host
B
5. A person suffering from a disease caused by
plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and (1) A–Sporozoite, B–Gametocyte
fever at the time when : (2) A–Gametocyte, B–Sporozoite
(1) The sporozoites released from RBCs are (3) A–Sporozoite, B–Trophozoite
being rapidly killed and broken down (4) A–Merozoite, B–Gametocyte
inside spleen.
(2) The trophozoites reach maximum growth 11. Which one is not a symptom of disease
and give out certain toxins. caused by E. histolytica ?
(3) Infected RBCs get ruptured to release (1) Stools with excess mucus
sporozoites and certain toxins. (2) Constipation
(4) The microgametocytes and megaga metocytes (3) Abdominal pain
are being destroyed by the WBCs. (4) Bluish nails and lips
Sarvam Career Institute 37
 Biology Human Health And Disease
12. Which of the following is a bacterial disease? 19. Acid in stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears
(1) Measles (2) Chicken pox form eyes, all prevent microbial growth
(3) Rabies (4) Tuberculosis belong to which of the following barriers?
13. Physiological barriers that prevent microbial (1) Physical barrier
growth includes all the following except one. (2) Physiological barrier
(1) Mucosa in urinogenital tract (3) Cellular barrier
(2) Acid in stomach
(4) Cytokine barrier
(3) Fever
(4) Lysozyme in saliva 20. Select the correct statements regarding the
14. Which of the following cell is non phagocytic characteristics of acquired immunity-
and forms cellular barrier of innate immunity? (i) Cell- mediated immunity is responsible
(1) T-lymphocyte (2) Natural killer cells for rejection of graft.
(3) Monocyte (4) PMNL (ii) It produces a primary response of low
15. Mark the correct statement regarding a- intensity.
interferon :- (iii) Active and passive immunity are types of
(1) Species specific chemical secreted by acquired immunity.
infected host cells
(iv) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes (PMNL)
(2) Acts as biological response modifiers
(3) Activates the immune system and helps and natural killer cells are involved in
in destroying tumor cells acquired immunity.
(4) All of the above (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
16. A non specific type of defense that is present (3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)
at the time of birth is 21. A substance produced by the host in response to
(1) Acquired immunity
an infection of foreign structure is
(2) Humoral immune response
(3) Cell mediated immunity (1) Antigen (2) Phytotoxin
(4) Innate immunity (3) Antibody (4) Hormone
17. To which type of barriers under innate 22. Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers
immunity do saliva from mouth and tears in which type of immunization?
eye belongs ?
(1) Active immunization
(1) Physiological barriers
(2) Physical barriers (2) Passive immunization
(3) Cytokine barriers (3) Auto-immunization
(4) Cellular barriers (4) Humoral immunization
18. Which of the following statement is false for 23. Severest form of allergy with maximum
the structure given below ?
serum IgE concentration is:-
(1) Bronchial asthma
(2) Hay fever
(3) Common cold
(4) Anaphylactic shock

24. Which of the following is not a first

generation vaccine and is prepared by
(1) Represented by H2L2
recombinant DNA technology ?
(2) These molecule contains peptide bonds
(3) These are secreted by Plasma cells (1) BCG (2) MMR
(4) They have four peptide chains of four types (3) Polio vaccine (4) Hepatitis-B vaccine
38 Sarvam Career Institute
Human Health And Disease Biology
25. DPT vaccine provide protection against 3 32. Which of the following statements is
diseases life long this is called incorrect ?
(1) Passive immunity (1) a-interferons can act as biological
(2) Natural active immunity response modifiers.
(3) Artifical active immunity
(2) IgM antibody are found in pentamer form.
(4) Innate immunity
(3) Physical barrier is a type of innate
26. Which of the following diseases has been immunity
eradicated from world by the use of vaccine-
(4) Contact inhibition is property present in
(1) Plague (2) Malaria
cancer cells.
(3) Small pox (4) Kala-azar
27. Which of these glands is large at the time of 33. Which of the following gene is absent in a
birth but in adults, it reduces to a very small normal cell?
size? (1) Proto-oncogene
(1) Thyroid (2) Adrenal (2) Tumor-suppressor gene
(3) Thymus (4) Spleen (3) Gene related to program cell death
28. The spread of cancerous cells to distant sites (4) Oncogene
is termed as
34. Most cancers are treated by combination of:-
(1) Metastasis (2) Metachrosis
(3) Metamorphosis (4) Metagenesis (a) Surgery (b) Radiotherapy
(c) Chemotherapy
29. HIV decrease natural immunity of the body by
(1) a and b (2) a and c
(1) Destroying antibodies
(2) Destroying erythrocytes (3) b and c (4) a, b and c
(3) Attacking T–lymphocytes 35. Natural killer cells kill virus-infected cells
(4) Attacking B–lymphocytes and some tumour cells by producing :
30. Mark the correct option for diagnosis of HIV (1) Histamine and prostaglandin
virus: (2) Perforins that form pores in the plasma
(1) Screening test – ELISA, Confirmatory membrane of target cells
test – Western blot
(3) Phagocytic effect
(2) Screening test – Western blot, confirmatory
(4) Lysozyme
test - Biopsy
(3) Screening test – Northern blot, confirmatory 36. Cancer detection is based on :-
test – Widal test (a) Biopsy
(4) Screening test – ELISA, confirmatory test (b) Histopathological studies of tissue
– Biopsy
(c) Blood test
31. HIV is a ...A.., and has genetic material (d) Bone marrow test
composed of ....B..., HIV replicates inside the
(1) a, b (2) a, c & d
host cells. Its considered a retrovirus
(3) a, b & c (4) a, b, c & d
because it uses an enzyme, ....C...., to convert
.....D.... into ......E...... Here A to E refers to : 37. Neoplastic transformation of DNA damage
(1) A - retrovirus, B-RNA, C-reverse can be brought about by several factors.
transcriptase, D-RNA, E-DNA Choose the factors which lead to oncogenic
(2) A - retroviral, B- DNA, C-reverse
transformation within exposed cells :
transcriptase, D-DNA, E-RNA
(a) UV rays (b) X-rays
(3) A-rhinovirus, B-DNA, C-reverse
transcriptase, D-DNA, E-RNA (c) Tobacco smoke (d) Retro-virus
(4) A-adenovirus, B-RNA, C-DNA (1) a and b (2) a, b and c
Polymerase, D-RNA, E-DNA (3) b and c (4) a, b, c and d
Sarvam Career Institute 39
 Biology Human Health And Disease
38. Which of the statement regarding treatment 42. Which of the following is correct for LSD,
of cancer is false ? morphine and charas respectively?
(1) Chemotherapy has side effects like hair (1) Claviceps, Papaver somniferum, Trichoderma
loss and anaemia. (2) Claviceps, Cannabis, Cocca plant
(2) Iodine-131 is used to treat certain type of (3) Claviceps, Papaver somniferum, Cannabis
thyroid cancer
(4) Papaver somniferum, Cleviceps, Cannabis
(3) interferon are used as immunological
substances which activate the immune 44. Opioids are the drugs which bind to specific
system. opioid receptors present in our CNS and GIT.
(4) Any one therapy is enough to treat any Heroin, commonly called smack is chemically.....,
kind of cancer. which is white, odourless, bitter crystalline
39. The substance given to cancer patients in compound, obtained by.......of morphine ?
order to activate their immune system and (1) Diacetylmorphine, methylation
destroy the tumor is: (2) Diacetylmorphine, acetylation
(1) Histamines (2) Interleukins (3) Benzodiazepines, amination
(3) α- interferons (4) Morphines (4) Amphetamines, acetylation
40. MRI uses strong ____ and ____ to accurately 45. Drugs used to quickly reduce the symptoms
detect pathological and physiological changes
of allergy :
in the living tissue ?
(i) Anti-Histaminic drugs
(1) Magnetic fields ; Non-ionizing radiations
(ii) Adrenaline
(2) Magnetic fields ; ionizing radiations
(3) Beam of electrons ; ionizing radiations (iii) Some steroids
(4) Beam of electrons ; non-ionizing radiations (iv) α-interferons
(1) i, ii, iii (2) i, ii, iv
41. Correct about given diagram is :
(3) ii, iii (4) i, ii

46. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from

coca plant Erythroxylum coca, native of-
(1) South America (2) Africa
(3) Australia (4) China
(1) Datura
(2) Source of Coca alkaloids 47. Which part/parts of Cannabis is/are used in
(3) Source of marijuana various combinations to produce marijuana,
(4) Products acts as sedative cum analgesics hashish, charas ganja etc. :
(a) Flower tops (b) Leaves (c) Resin
42.
(1) a + b
(2) b + c
(3) a + c
(4) a + b + c
Mark correct statements about the above figure : 48. Which one alters thoughts and perceptions
(a) Chemical structure of morphine
without any sensory stimulus?
(b) Opioid
(1) Sedative and tranquillisers
(c) Receptors present in CNS and GIT
(2) Cocaine
(d) Extracted from latex of poppy plant
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, d (3) Opiate narcotics
(3) a, c, d (4) All are correct (4) Hallucinogen
40 Sarvam Career Institute
Human Health And Disease Biology
49. Use of cannabis products results in? 52. Identify the steps A, B, C and D in given figure
(1) Stimulation of nervous system thus representing the mode of action of AIDS
virus. Match the labelling n column I with
increases alertness and activity
column II.
(2) Suppressed brain function and relied in
pain
(3) Depressed brain activity and feeling of
calmness
(4) Alteration of perception, thoughts and
feelings

50. Which of the following statement is false for

the structure labelled as "A" in the figure
Column-I Column-II
given below?
(a) (A) (i) Viral RNA in
introduced into
host cell
(b) (B) (ii) Viral DNA is
produced from
RNA by reverse
transcriptase
(c) (C) (iii) Viral DNA
incorporates into
host genome
(d) (D) (iv) New viral RNA is
produced by the
(1) Primary lymphoidal organ infected cell
(2) Immature lymphocytes differentiate into Choose the correct option.
(1) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(iv)
antigen - sensitive lymphocytes
(2) a–(ii), b–(iii), c–(iv), d–(i)
(3) Site of production of B-lymphocytes (3) a–(iii), b–(iv), c–(i), d–(ii)
(4) Micro-environment is provided for development (4) a–(iv), b–(i), c–(ii), d–(iii)

and maturation of T-lymphocytes 53. Surgical removal of thymus of a new born

shall result in failure to mature?
51. The RNA genome of the HIV replicates in the (1) Monocytes (2) B -lymphocytes
host cell to form viral DNA with the help of (3) T -lymphocytes (4) Basophils

(1) RNA polymerase 54. Deficiency of enzyme ADA leads to :-

(2) Reverse transcriptase (1) AIDS
(2) SCID
(3) DNA polymerase
(3) Anaphylactic shock
(4) Polynucleotides (4) Both (1) and (2)
Sarvam Career Institute 41
 Biology Human Health And Disease
55. Match the diseases in column I with the 58. Match these pathogens with their diseases :-
appropriate items (pathogen / prevention / Pathogens Diseases
treatment)in column II.
(A) Haemophilus (i) Malignant
Column-I Column-II
(A) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema influenzae malaria
pallidum (B) Entamoeba (ii) Elephantiasis
(B) Diptheria (ii) Use only Histolytica
sterilised food (C) Plasmodium (iii) Pneumonia
and water
falciparum
(C) Cholera (iii) DPT vaccine
(D) Syphilis (iv) Use of oral (D) Wuchereria (iv) Typhoid
rehydration malayi
therapy (F) Salmonella (v) Amoebiasis
(1) A→ (i), B→ (ii), C→ (iii), D→ (iv) typhi
(2) A→ (ii), B→ (iv), C→ (i), D→ (iii) (1) A-v, B-i, C-iii, D-ii, E-iv
(3) A→ (ii), B → (i), C→ (iii), D →(iv)
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-v, E-ii
(4) A→ (ii), B → (iii), C → (iv),D →(i)
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-v, E-ii
56. Match the columns with regard to innate
(4) A-iii, B-v, C-i, D-ii, E-iv
immunity:
Column-I Column-II 59. Following are the differences between innate
(A) Interferons (i) Physiological immunity and acquired immunity.
barrier
Innate immunity Acquired immunity
(B) Gastric juice, (ii) Physical barrier
saliva, tear and (i) It is inherited by It is acquired by
sweat an organism from an organism after
(C) Mucosa and skin (iii) Cellular barrier the parents and birth.
(D) Neutrophils, (iv) Cytokine protects it from
monocyte, N.K barrier
birth throughout
cell
(1) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv) life.
(2) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii) (ii) It is also called as It is also called as
(3) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii) specific immunity non-specific
(4) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii) immunity
57. Match the following : (iii) It consists of It consists of
Column-I Column-II different types of specialized cells (T-
(A) Common cold (i) Diarrhoea barriers that cell and B-cells) and
(B) Typhoid (ii) Haemophilus
prevent the entry antibodies that
influenzae
(C) Pneumonia (iii) Stool with mucous, of foreign agents. circulate in the body
blood fluid
(D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus Select the option with correct pair of
(E) Cholera (v) Salmonella typhi differences.
(F) Amoebiasis (vi) Haemozoin granules (1) (i) and (ii)
(1) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–i, F–iii
(2) (i) and (iii)
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iv, E–iii, F–v
(3) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–vi, E–iii, F–i (3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) A–iv, B–v, C–ii, D–i, E–vi, F–iii (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
42 Sarvam Career Institute
Human Health And Disease Biology
Exercise 3
1. Read the following statements and choose 5. Choose the correct answer from the options
the correct option: given below
Statement (A): Pneumonia pathogen infects Statement-I : The disease which are easily
alveoli of the lungs whereas common cold transmitted from one person to another, are
pathogen affects nose and respiratory called infectious disease.
passage but not the lungs. Statement-II : Infectious disease are very
Statement (B): Macrophages and B - common and everyone of us suffers from
lymphocytes, both act as HIV factory.
these at some time or other.
(1) Only statement A is correct.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(2) Only statement B is correct
incorrect.
(3) Both statements A and B are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
incorrect.
2. Read the following statements and choose (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
the correct option: is correct.
Statement A : Entamoeba histolytica is a (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
parasite in the large intestine of humans.
correct.
Statement B : Amoebiasis is characterised by
constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, 6. Choose the correct answer from the options
stools with excess mucous and blood clots. given below
(1) both statements are correct Statement-I : Plasmodium, a tiny protozoan
(2) both statements are incorrect causes malaria.
(3) only statement A is correct Statement-II : Chill and high fever recurring
(4) only statement B is correct every three to four days in malaria.
3. Statement I : Drugs like bartiturates, (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
amphetamines benzodiazepines, and other incorrect.
similar drugs, that are normally used as (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
medicines to help patients cope with mental incorrect.
illness like depression and insomnia. (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
Statement II : Morphine is a very effective is correct.
sedative and painkiller and is very useful in (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
patients who have undergone surgery. correct.
(1) Both statements I and II are correct
(2) Statement I correct and II incorrect 7. Assertion :- In severe cases of Pneumonia;
(3) Statement I incorrect and II correct the lips and finger nails may turn gray to
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect bluish in colour.
Reason :- In Pneumonia the alveoli get filled
4. Statement I : The pathogens can enter our
body by various means, multiply and interfere with fluid leading to severe problems in
with normal vital activities, resulting in respiration.
morphological and functional damage. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
Statement II : Rhinovirus represent one such reason is the correct explanation of
group of viruses which cause one of the most assertion.
infectious human ailments - The AIDS. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(1) Both statements I and II are correct reason is not the correct explanation of
(2) Statement I correct and II incorrect assertion.
(3) Statement I incorrect and II correct (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
Sarvam Career Institute 43
 Biology Human Health And Disease
8. Assertion :- In biopsy test for cancer, piece of 11. Assertion : Colostrum provides naturally
the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is acquired passive immunity to the infant.
stained and examined under X-ray by a Reason: Colostrum is rich in IgA.
pathologist. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
Reason :- Use of X-ray is able to generate a 3-D reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
image of the section of affected tissue. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
assertion.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of 12. Assertion :- Natural Killer cells are found in
assertion. blood.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. Reason :- These are type of lymphocytes.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
9. Assertion :- a-interferon is given to cancer (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
patient which helps in destroying the reason is not the correct explanation of
tumour. assertion.
Reason :- a-interferon is biological response (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
modifiers, which activates the immune (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
system and helps in destroying tumour. 13. Assertion :- Interferons are a type of
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and antibodies produced by body cells infected
reason is the correct explanation of by bacteria.
assertion. Reason:- Interferons stimulate inflammation
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but at the site of injury.
reason is not the correct explanation of (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
assertion. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
10. Assertion :- Principle of vaccination is based (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
on the property of 'memory' of the immune (4) If both assertion and reason are false
system.
14. Assertion :- Sporozoites of malarial parasite
Reason :- In vaccination, a preparation of
enter in the human body due to bitting of
antigenic protein of pathogens or inactivated freshly born female anopheles mosquito, whose
/ weakened pathogen are introduced into the mother was a carrier of malarial parasite.
body. Reason :- Male & female gametocytes are
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and formed in the human intestine.
reason is the correct explanation of (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
assertion. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
44 Sarvam Career Institute
Human Health And Disease Biology
15. Assertion : Bone marrow and thymus are 19. Assertion : In active immunisation the body
primary lymphoid organs. itself produces antibodies to fight against
Reason : These organs provide the sites for infections.
interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen, Reason : Active immunity is slow and takes
which then proliferate to become effector cells. time to give its full effective response.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
16. Assertion : Neoplastic or tumor cells grow 20. Assertion : Marijauna is obtained from
very rapidly, invading and damaging the Cannabis sativa/hemp plant.
surrounding normal tissues.
Reason : Marijauna is known for their effects
Reason : Metastasis is the most feared
on cardio-vascular system.
property of malignant tumors.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
21. Assertion : MRI uses strong magnetic fields
17. Assertion : Cocaine interferes with the and non-ionising radiations.
transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine. Reason : MRI are very useful to detect cancer
Reason : Excessive dosage of cocaine can of the internal organs.
cause hallucinations. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
assertion. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
22. Assertion : B-lymphocytes mediate the
18. Assertion : The patients are given substances
humoral immune response.
called biological response modifiers such as
Reason: Proliferation and maturation of B-
a interferons which activates their immune system.
lymphocytes occurs in secondary lymphoid
Reason : Tumor cells have been shown to avoid
organs.
detection and destruction by immune response.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false (4) If both assertion and reason are false
Sarvam Career Institute 45
 Biology Human Health And Disease
23. Assertion : Virus infected cells secrete a 27. Assertion : Nowadays, allergies and asthma
protein that is a cytokine barrier of innate are more common in children of metro cities.
immunity. Reason: Lowered immunity and increased
Reason: Interferons promote anti-viral state sensitivity to the environment due to prevalent
that limits viral replication in infected cells life style and city pollution are responsible factors.
and viral spreading in non-infected cells. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
assertion. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
28. Assertion : Metastatic cells have lost the
24. Assertion : Amoebic dysentery spreads property of contact inhibition.
through faeco-oral route. Reason: Oncogenes in normal cells promote
Reason: Houseflies act as mechanical the secretion of growth factors.
carriers for its spread. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
29. Assertion : During HIV infection, the patient
25. Assertion : Active immunity is slow and takes
becomes immune-deficient.
time to show its full effect.
Reason: HIV virus attacks helper T-
Reason: Active immunization leads to
lymphocytes and decreases their cell count.
formation of antibodies and memory B-cells
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
and T-cells.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
assertion. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false 30. Assertion : Techniques like CT and MRI are
26. Assertion : Plasmodium falciparum causes very useful in detection of cancers of internal
malignant malaria which, if not treated, can organs.
be fatal. Reason: Techniques of molecular biology can
Reason: Plasmodium falciparum directly also be used to detect diseases having
resides in nervous tissue. genetic susceptibility.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false (4) If both assertion and reason are false
46 Sarvam Career Institute
Human Health And Disease Biology
31. Assertion : Adolescence is a very vulnerable 35. Assertion : Opioids are stimulants.
phase of mental and psychological development Reason: Opioids have receptors only in brain.
of an individual. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
Reason: Addition to drugs or alcohol is very reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
common during adolescence. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
reason is not the correct explanation of
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. 36. Assertion : Morphine is very useful in
(4) If both assertion and reason are false patients undergoing surgery.
32. Assertion : Nicotine in tobacco is a Reason: It is a very effective sedative and
sympathomimetic compound. pain killer.
Reason: Nicotine stimulates the release of (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
adrenaline into blood. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is not the correct explanation of
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but assertion.
reason is not the correct explanation of (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
assertion. (4) If both assertion and reason are false
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false 37. Assertion : cyclosporin A is an immune
suppressive medicine.
33. Assertion : With time, there is greater intake
Reason: Cyclosporin A stimulates activation
and addiction of drugs among addicts.
Reason: With repeated use of drugs, of T-cells and prevents rejection.
tolerance level of receptors declines. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
assertion. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false
38. Assertion : Anamnestic response is due to
34. Assertion : Use of cocaine causes a memory cells.
temporary sense of euphoria.
Reason: The predominant antibody in
Reason: It has a stimulatory effect on central
anamnestic response ins IgM.
nervous system by promoting release of GABA.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false (4) If both assertion and reason are false
Sarvam Career Institute 47
 Biology Human Health And Disease
39. Assertion : Tissue and blood group match is 40. Assertion : Blood vessels of lower limbs are
needed for organ transplant between blocked by filarial worm in case of elephantiasis.
recipient and donor. Reason: Blood and lymph accumulate over
Reason: Transplantation helps the patient of time in tissues and give rise to enlarged
organ failure to live a normal life. elephantlike limbs.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false (4) If both assertion and reason are false

48 Sarvam Career Institute

Human Health And Disease Biology
Exercise 4 (Previous Year's Questions)
1. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of: 6. Select the correct statement from the ones
[AIPMT PRE – 2010] given below : [AIPMT PRE – 2010]
(1) Typhoid (2) Malaria (1) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery
(3) Pneumonia (4) Tuberculosis
as it stimulates recovery
2. Which one of the following statements is (2) Barbiturates when given to criminals
correct with respect to AIDS ? make them tell the truth
[AIPMT PRE – 2010]
(3) Morphine is often given to persons who
(1) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper
T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers have undergone surgery as a pain killer
(2) The HIV can be transmitted through eating (4) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure
food together with an infected person and heart rate
(3) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV
infection 7. At which stage of HIV infection does one
(4) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent usually show symptoms of AIDS?
percent with proper care and nutrition [AIPMT PRE – 2011]
3. Which one of the following techniques is (1) When the infecting retrovirus enters host
safest for detection of cancers ? cells
[AIPMT MAIN – 2010] (2) When the viral DNA is produced by
(1) Radiography (X-ray) reverse transcriptase
(2) Computed tomography (CT)
(3) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-
(3) Histopathological studies
lymphocytes and damages large number
(4) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
of these
4. Ringworm in humans is caused by :
(4) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
[AIPMT PRE – 2010]
infected person
(1) Viruses (2) Bacteria
(3) Fungi (4) Nematodes 8. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics
5. Consider the following four statements (a-d) because it is: [AIPMT MAINS – 2011]
regarding kidney transplant and select the (1) not an infectious disease
two correct ones out of these.
(2) caused by a virus
[AIPMT PRE – 2010]
(3) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
(a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the
recipient may need to take immuno- (4) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
suppressants for a long time
9. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering
(b) The cell-mediated immune response is
responsible for the graft rejection from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
(c) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for Which diagnostic technique will you recommend
rejection of the graft for its detection ? [AIPMT PRE – 2011]
(d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney (1) ELISA
transplant depends on specific interferons (2) MRI
The two correct statements are : -
(3) Ultra sound
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (c) (4) WIDAL
Sarvam Career Institute 49
 Biology Human Health And Disease
10. Select the correct statement with respect to 14. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in:
diseases and immunisation: [AIPMT PRE – 2012]
[AIPMT MAINS – 2011] (1) Human RBCs
(1) Injection of snake antivenom against (2) Human liver
snake bite is an example of active (3) Gut of female Anopheles
immunisation. (4) Salivary glands of Anopheles
(2) If due to some reason B and T lymphocytes
15. In which one of the following options the two
are damaged, the body will not produce
examples are correctly matched with their
antibodies against a pathogen.
particular type of immunity?
(3) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens
causes passive immunity. [AIPMT PRE – 2012]
(4) Certain protozoans have been used to (1) Examples - Saliva in mouth and tears in
produce hepatitis B vaccine. eyes,
Types of Immunity- Physical barriers
11. Which one of the following options gives the (2) Examples - Mucus coating of epithelium
correct matching of a disease with its lining the urinogential tract and the HCl
causative organism and mode of infection- in stomach
[AIPMT MAINS – 2011] Types of Immunity- Physiological barriers
(1) Disease - Malaria, Causative Organisms - (3) Examples - Polymorpho nuclear leukocytes
Plasmodium vivax, Mode of Infection – and monocytes
Bite of male Anopheles mosquito Types of Immunity- Cellular barriers
(2) Disease - Typhoid, Causative organism - (4) Examples - Anti-tetanus and antisnake
Salmonella typhi, Method infection – bite injection
With inspired air
Types of Immunity- Active immunity
(3) Disease - Pneumonia, Causative
organism - Streptococcus pneumonie, 16. Which of the following statement is correct
Mode of infection - Droplet infection with respect to immunity?
(4) Disease - Elephantiasis, Causative [AIPMT MAINS – 2012]
organism - Wuchereria bancrofti, Mode (1) Antibodies are protein molecules, each
of infection - With infected water and food of which has four light chains.
(2) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function
12. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic
intake of: [AIPMT PRE – 2012] of B-lymphocytes.
(1) Tobacco (Chewing) (2) Cocaine (3) Preformed antibodies need to be injected
(3) Opium (4) Alcohol to treat the bite by a viper snake.
(4) The antibodies against small pox
13. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes
: [AIPMT PRE – 2012]
(1) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the 17. Select the correct statement regarding the
common cold is caused by the bacterium specific disorder of muscular or skeletal
Haemophilus influenzae system- [AIPMT PRE – 2012]
(2) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli (1) Myasthenia gravis-Auto immune disorder
whereas the common cold affects nose which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
and respiratory passage but not the lungs. (2) Gout-Inflammation of joints due to extra
(3) Pneumonia is a communicable disease deposition of calcium
whereas the common cold is a nutritional (3) Muscular dystrophy-age related shortening
deficiency disease. of muscles
(4) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live (4) Osteoporosis-decrease in bone mass and
attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas the higher chances of fractures with advancing
common cold has no effective vaccine age
50 Sarvam Career Institute
Human Health And Disease Biology
18. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown 22. Which is the particular type of drug that is
below and select the right option giving their obtained from the plant whose one flowering
source and use : [AIPMT MAINS – 2012] branch is shown below? [AIPMT – 2014]

(1) Hallucinogen (2) Depressant

(3) Stimulant (4) Pain - killer
Molecule Source Use
23. Which of the following is not a sexually
(1) (b) Atropa Produces
transmitted disease? [AIPMT – 2015]
Cannabinoid belladona hallucinations
(1) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(2) (a) Papaver Pain killer
(AIDS)
Morphine somniferum
(2) Trichomoniasis
(3) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates
(3) Encephalitis
coca the transport
of dopamine (4) Syphilis
(4) (b) Heroin Cannabis Depressant 24. Which of the following immunoglobulins
sativa and slows does constitute the largest percentage in
down body human milk? [RE AIPMRT – 2015]
functions (1) IgG (2) IgD
19. The cell-mediated immunity inside the (3) IgM (4) IgA
human body is carried out by
25. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient
[NEET UG – 2013]
due to- [RE AIPMRT – 2015]
(1) Erythrocytes (2) T-lymphocytes
(1) Innate immune response
(3) B-lymphocytes (4) Thrombocytes
(2) Humoral immune response
20. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by (3) Cell-mediated immune response
[NEET UG – 2013] (4) Passive immune response
(1) Mosquito bite
(2) Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris 26. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying
(3) Eating imperfectly cooked pork [AIPMT – 2015]
(4) Tse-tse fly (1) Leucocytes
21. At which stage of HIV infection does one (2) Helper T−lymphocytes
usually show symptoms of AIDS : (3) Thrombocytes
[AIPMT – 2014] (4) B−lymphocytes
(1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an 27. Which of the following viruses is not
infected person. transferred through semen of an infected
(2) When the infected retro virus enters host
male? [AIPMT – 2015]
cells.
(1) Human immunodeficiency virus
(3) When HIV damages large number of
(2) Chikungunya virus
helper T-Lymphocytes.
(3) Ebola virus
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by
(4) Hepatitis B virus
reverse transcription
Sarvam Career Institute 51
 Biology Human Health And Disease
28. Match each disease with its correct type of 33. Asthma may be attributed to:
vaccine [AIPMT – 2015] [NEET-I – 2016]
Column-I Column-II (1) Bacterial infection of the lungs
(A) Tuberculosis (i) Harmless (2) Allergic reaction of the mast cells in the
virus lungs
(B) Whooping (ii) Inactivated (3) Inflammation of the trachea
(4) Accumulation of fluid in the lungs
cough toxin
(C) Diphtheria (iii) Killed bacteria 34. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies
(D) Polio (iv) Harmless while polio drops that are administered into
bacteria the body contain: [NEET-I – 2016]
(1) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d- (i) (1) Activated pathogens
(2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) (2) Harvested antibodies
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii) (3) Gamma globulin
(4) Attenuated pathogens
(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
35. Which of the following is correct regarding
29. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar
AIDS causative agent HIV? [NEET-II – 2016]
surface area involved in gas exchange is
(1) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
drastically reduced due to damage in the
(2) HIV does not escape but attacks the
alveolar walls. [RE AIPMRT – 2015]
acquired immune response
(1) Asthma (2) Pleurisy (3) HIV is enveloped virus containing one
(3) Emphysema (4) Pneumonia molecule of single-stranded RNA and one
30. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies molecule of reverse transcriptase
in a person, to which of the following would (4) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two
you look for confirmatory evidence? identical molecules of single-stranded
RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase
[RE AIPMRT – 2015]
(1) Serum globulins 36. Lack of relaxation between successive
(2) Fibrinogen in plasma stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is
(3) Serum albumins known as : [NEET-I – 2016]
(4) Haemocytes (1) Spasm (2) Fatigue
(3) Tetanus (4) Tonus
31. In higher vertebrates, the immune system
can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this 37. Which of the following statements is not true
property is lost due to genetic abnormality for cancer cells in relation to mutations?
and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to :- [NEET-I – 2016]
[NEET-I – 2016] (1) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate
the cell cycle.
(1) Allergic response
(2) Mutations destroy telomerase inhibition.
(2) Graft rejection
(3) Mutations inactivate the cell control.
(3) Auto-immune disease
(4) Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.
(4) Active immunity
38. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often
32. Name the chronic respiratory disorder due to non-acceptance by the patient's body.
caused mainly by cigarette smoking. Which type of immune-response is responsible
[NEET-I – 2016] for such rejections? [NEET-II – 2017]
(1) Emphysema (1) Cell-mediated immune response
(2) Asthma (2) Humoral immune response
(3) Respiratory Acidosis (3) Physiological immune response
(4) Respiratory Alkalosis (4) Auto-immune response
52 Sarvam Career Institute
Human Health And Disease Biology
39. MALT constitutes about _____ percent of the 45. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by
lymphoid tissue in human body. mother during the initial days of lactation is very
[NEET-II – 2017] essential to impart immunity to the newborn
(1) 20% (2) 70% infants because it contains: [NEET – 2019]
(3) 10% (4) 50% (1) Macrophages
40. Match the following sexually transmitted (2) Immunoglobulin A
diseases (Column-I) with their causative (3) Natural killer cells
agent (Column-II) and select the correct (4) Monocytes
option. [NEET-II – 2017]
46. Which of the following immune responses is
Column-I Column-II
responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
[NEET – 2019]
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
(1) Inflammatory immune response
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
(2) Cell-mediated immune response
(d) AIDS (iv) Human
(3) Auto-immune response
Papilloma Virus
(1) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) (4) Humoral immune response
(2) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i) 47. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by:
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) [NEET – 2019]
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i) (1) Acetylation of morphine
41. In which disease does mosquito transmitted (2) Nitration of morphine
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of (3) Methylation of morphine
lymphatic vessels? [NEET – 2018] (4) Glycosylation of morphine
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ascariasis
48. The infectious stage of plasmodium that
(3) Ringworm disease (4) Amoebiasis
enters the human body is- [NEET – 2020]
42. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain (1) Sporozoites
the drug "Smack"? [NEET – 2018] (2) Female gametocytes
(1) Flowers (2) Latex
(3) Male gametocytes
(3) Roots (4) Leaves
(4) Trophozoites
43. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
49. Match the following diseases with the
disease? [NEET – 2018]
causative organism and select the correct
(1) Psoriasis
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis option [NEET – 2020]
(3) Alzheimer's disease Column-I Column-II
(4) Vitiligo (a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
44. Identify the correct pair representing the
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
causative agent of typhoid fever and the
confirmatory test for typhoid. [NEET – 2019] (d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus
(1) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test (1) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii)
(2) Salmonella typhi / Widal test (2) (a) → (ii), (b) → (i), (c) → (iii), (d) → (iv)
(3) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test (3) (a) → (iv), (b) → (i), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iii)
(4) Streptococcus peumoniae / Widal test (4) (a) → (i), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iv)
Sarvam Career Institute 53
 Biology Human Health And Disease
50. Identify the wrong statement with reference 53. Given below are statements : [NEET – 2022]
to immunity: [NEET – 2020] Statement I : Autoimmune disorder is a
(1) When ready-made antibodies are directly condition where body defense mechanism
given, it is called “Passive immunity”. recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.
(2) Active immunity is quick and gives full Statement II : Rheumatoid arthritis is a
response condition where body does not attack self
(3) Foetus receives some antibodies from cells. In the light of the above statements,
mother, it is an example for passive choose the most appropriate answer from the
immunity option given below :
(4) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) (1) Both statement I and statement II are
antibodies are produced in the host’s incorrect
body. It is called “Active immunity” (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
51. Match List – I with List – II. [NEET – 2021]
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
Column-I Column-II
is correct
(a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
influenzae
correct
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria 54. Match List I with List II [NEET – 2023]
Bancrofti List I List II
(d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba (A) Ringworm (I) Haemophilus
Histolytica influenzae
Choose the correct answer from the (B) Filariasis (II) Trichophyton
questions given below. (C) Malaria (III) Wuchereria
(1) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (i), (d) → (iv) bancrofti
(2) (a) → (iv), (b) → (i), (c) → (iii), (d) → (ii) (D) Pneumonia (IV) Plasmodium
(3) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii) vivax
(4) (a) → (i), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (iii) Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
52. Select the incorrect statement with respect
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
to acquired immunity- [NEET – 2022]
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(1) Anamnestic response is elicited on
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
subsequent encounters with the same
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
pathogen.
(2) Anamnestic response is due to memory of 55. In which blood corpuscles, the HIV
first encounter undergoes replication and produces progeny
(3) Acquired immunity is non-specific type viruses? [NEET – 2023]
of defense present at the time of birth (1) B-lymphocytes
(4) Primary response is produced when our (2) Basophils
body encounters a pathogen for the first (3) Eosinophils
time (4) TH cells
54 Sarvam Career Institute
Human Health And Disease Biology
56. Match List I with List II [NEET – 2023] 59. Which of the following are Autoimmune
List I List II disorders? [NEET – 2024]
(A) Heroin (I) Effect on A. Myasthenia gravis
cardiovascular B. Rheumatoid arthritis
system C. Gout
(B) Marijuana (II) Slow down D. Muscular dystrophy
body function E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
(C) Cocaine (III) Pain killer Choose the most appropriate answer from
(D) Morphine (IV) Interfere with the options given below:
transport of
(1) B, C & E only
dopamine
(2) C, D & E only
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) A, B & D only
given below: (4) A, B & E only
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
60. Match List I with List II : [NEET – 2024]
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II List I List II
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (A) Typhoid (I) Fungus
(B) Leishmaniasis (II) Nematode
57. Match List I with List II [NEET – 2024]
(C) Ringworm (III) Protozoa
List I List II
(D) Filariasis (IV) Bacteria
(A) Common (I) Plasmodium
cold Choose the correct answer from the options
(B) Haemozoin (II) Typhoid given below:
(C) Widal test (III) Rhinoviruses (1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(D) Allergy (IV) Dust mites (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
given below : (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV 61. Given below are two statements: [NEET – 2024]
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I Statement I : Bone marrow is the main
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
lymphoid organ where all blood cells
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
including lymphocytes are produced.
58. Match List I with List II [NEET – 2024] Statement II : Both bone marrow and thymus
List I List II provide micro environments for the development
(A) Cocaine (I) Effective and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
sedative in In the light of the above statements, choose
surgery the most appropriate answer from the
(B) Heroin (II) Cannabis sativa options given below:
(C) Morphine (III) Erythroxylum
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(D) Marijuana (IV) Papaver
incorrect.
somniferum
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
Choose the correct answer from the options
is correct.
given below :
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II correct.
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV incorrect.
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62. Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to: 64. Which of the following type of immunity is
[NEET – 2025]
present at the time of birth and is a
A. A mass of proliferating cell
B. Rapid growth of cells nonspecific type of defence in the human
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding body? [NEET – 2025]
tissue
D. Those confined to original location (1) Cell-mediated Immunity
Choose the correct answer from the options (2) Humoral Immunity
given below:
(3) Acquired Immunity
(1) A, B, D only (2) B, C, D only
(3) A, B only (4) A, B, C only (4) Innate Immunity
63. Which are correct: [NEET – 2025]
65. Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
A: Computed tomography and magnetic
resonance imaging detect cancers of [NEET – 2025]
internal organs.
(1) Antigen binding site is located at C-
B: Chemotherapeutics drugs are used to kill
non-cancerous cells. terminal region of antibody molecules.
C: α-interferon activate the cancer patients' (2) Constant region of heavy and light chains
immune system and helps in destroying
the tumour. are located at C-terminus of antibody
D: Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological molecules.
response modifiers.
(3) Each antibody has two light and two
E: In the case of leukaemia blood cell
counts are decreased. heavy chains.
Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) The heavy and light chains are held
given below:
(1) C and D only (2) A and C only together by disulfide bonds.
(3) B and D only (4) D and E only

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ANSWER KEYS

Exercise 1.1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 3 4 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 3 2 2 2 1 3 2 1 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38
Ans. 2 3 4 4 4 3 2 3 4 2 4 1 1 3 1 2 4 3

Exercise 1.2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 1 4 2 4 3 2 2 3 1 4 2 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
Ans. 3 1 4 4 3 3 3 3 2 1 1 3 1 3 3 2 1 4 2

Exercise 1.3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. 4 3 4 4 4 2 3 4 4 1 1 4 2

Exercise 1.4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Ans. 2 4 3 4 2 3 4 4 4 4 1 2 4 4 3 3 2 3

Exercise 1.5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 1 3 1 4 2 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 1 2 3 1 1 4 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 4 4 2 2 2 4 3 1 2

Exercise 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 2 4 3 4 2 2 1 1 4 4 1 2 4 4 1 4 2 1
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 2 4 4 3 3 3 1 3 1 1 4 4 4 2 3 4 4 3 1
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59
Ans. 3 4 3 2 1 1 4 4 4 3 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 4 2

Exercise 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 1 1 2 4 4 1 4 1 2 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 1 2 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 3 3 2 2 3 1 3 1 2 2 1 3 3 4 1 3 3 2 4

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Exercise 4 (Previous Year's Questions)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 1 4 3 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 4 2 3 3 3 4 2 2 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 1 3 4 3 2 2 2 3 1 3 1 2 4 4 3 4 1 4 4
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 1 1 2 3 3 2 4 4 4 1 2 4 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65
Ans. 3 4 2 4 1

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Microbes in Human Welfare Biology

Chapter
MICROBES IN
2 HUMAN
WELFARE
Chapter Overview
Introduction
Besides macroscopic plants and animals, microbes are major
– Microbes in Household Products
components of biological systems on this earth. Microbes are
– Microbes in Industrial Products present everywhere in soil, water, air, inside our bodies and that
– Microbes in Sewage Treatment of other animals and plants.
They are present even at sites where no other life-form could
– Microbes in Production of Biogas
possibly exist, e.g., deep inside the geysers (thermal vents)
– Microbes as Biocontrol Agents
where the temperature may be as high as 100°C, deep in the soil,
– Microbes as Biofertilisers under the layers of snow several meters thick and in highly
acidic environments.
Microbes belong to diverse groups of organisms like bacteria,
fungi, protozoa, and microscopic animal and plant viruses,
viroids and prions (proteinaceous infectious agents) are also
included among microbes. Some of the microbes are shown
below.

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Microbes like bacteria and many fungi can be grown on nutritive media to form colonies, that can be
seen with naked eyes. Such cultures are useful in study micro-organisms.

Fig. : (a) Colonies of bacteria growing in a petri dish; (b) Fungal colony growing in a petri dish

While microbes are causal agents of most of the infectious diseases, they are also useful to humans in
many important processes at home, industries, agriculture and sevage treatment.

Microbes in House Hold Products

We use microbes or products derived from them everyday.
a. Curd : Micro-organisms such as Lactobacillus and others commonly called lactic acid bacteria
[LAB]
1. During growth, the LAB produce acids that coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins.
2. The starter or inoculum contains millions of LAB, which at suitable temperatures multiply, thus
converting milk to curd.
3. Curd is more nutritious than milk as it contains a number of vitamins especially B12. In our stomach
lactic acid bacteria [LAB] play very beneficial role in checking disease causing microbes.
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Microbes in Human Welfare Biology
b. Cheese : It is one of the oldest food items in which microbes were used. It is partially degraded
concentrate of milk fat and casein.
1. Different varieties of cheese are known by their characteristic texture, flavour and taste, the
specificity is determined by the microbes used. For example, large holes Swiss cheese is ripened
with the help of bacterium called Propionibacterium sharmanii.
2. Roquefort cheese is ripened by fungi Penicillium roquefortii.
3. Camembert cheese is ripened by Penicillium camembertii.
Cheese is of three types

Soft [50–80% water] Semi–hard [45% water] Hard [<40% water]

e.g. Camembert cheese e.g. Roquefort cheese e.g. Swiss cheese

c. Bread : Bread is prepared from dough, which is fermented using Baker's yeast ( Saccharomyces
cerevisiae). Puffed-up appearance of dough is due to production of CO2 during fermentation. CO2
gas along with ethyl alcohol evaporate during baking making bread porous and soft.
Swelling of dough during bread making is known as leavening. It is caused by secretion of three
enzymes by yeast–Amylase, Maltase and Zymase.

d. Dosa and idli : The fermented preparation of rice and black gram, prepared by using bacteria.
Microbe used – Leuconostoc and Streptococcus species of bacteria.
e. Toddy : It is traditional drink of some parts of South India and is made by fermenting sap from palm
known as Caryota urens. Toddy left for few hours undergoes fermentation due to presence of
naturally occurring yeast.

Microbes in Industrial Products

1. In industry, microbes are used to synthesise a number of products valuable to human beings like
beverages and antibiotics.
2. Production on an industrial scale, requires growing microbes in very large vessels called
fermentors.

Fig. : Fermentors
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(a) Fermented Beverages
(i) Yeast species used in alcoholic fermentation are :
Saccharomyces cerevisiae commonly called Brewer's yeast. S. ellipsoidens – Wine yeast.
S. sake-Sake yeast and
S. pireformis – Ginger beer/Ale yeast.
(ii) Malted cereals, molasses and fruit juices produce ethanol by fermentation, Molasses are most
commonsubstrate for ethanol production.
(iii) Depending on the type of the raw material used for fermentation and the type of processing (with
orwithout distillation) different types of alcoholic drinks are obtained.
(iv) Wine and beer are produced without distillation (Low alcohol concentration).
(v) Whisky brandy and rum are produced by distillation of fermented broth (high alcohol
concentration).
(vi) The concentration of alcohol in beverages that are naturally fermented is usually less. But high
indistilled alcohols.

Table: Alcoholic Beverages with substrates and their concentration

Alocohol Substrate used Concentration of alcohol
1. Beer Barley malt 3–6%
2. Wine Fruit juices 9–12%
3. Whisky Fermented 50%
4. Brandy Cereals 60–70%
5. Rum Fruit juices 40%
6. Gin Molasses 40%
7. Vodka Rye malt Potato 60–80%

Fig.: Fermentation Plant

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(a) Antibiotics : Antibiotics are chemical substances, which are produced by some microbes and kill or
retard the growth of other (disease-causing) microbes.
(i) Anti is a Greek word that means 'against and bio means 'life', together they mean 'against life', in
the context of disease causing organisms, whereas with reference to human beings, they are 'pro
life' and not against.
(ii) Antibiotic are regarded as one of the most significant discoveries of the twentieth century and
havegreatly contributed towards the welfare of the human society.
(iii) The first antibiotic Penicillin was discovered by Alexander Fleming. While working on
Staphylococci bacteria, he observed a mould growing in one of his unwashed culture plates around
which Staphylococci could not grow. He found that the chemical was produced by fungi and named
it Penicillin after the mould Penicillium notatum.
(iv) However, its full potential as an effective antibiotic was established by Ernest Chain and Howard
Florey.
This antibiotic was extensively used to treat American soldiers wounded in World War II.
Fleming, Chain and Florey were awarded the Nobel prize in 1945, for this discovery.
(v) Antibiotics have greatly improved our capacity to treat deadly diseases such as plague, whooping
cough (kalikhansi), diphtheria (gal ghotu) and leprosy [kusth rog], which used to kill millions all
over the globe. Bulk of antibiotics are obtained from three groups of microorganisms i.e., Bacteria
(Bacillus), Actinomycetes (Streptomyces) and Fungi (Peniclium, Aspergillus).
(b) Chemicals, Enzymes and Other Bioactive Molecules
Bioactive molecules are those molecules which are functional in living system or can interact with
their components. Microbes are used for commercial and industrial production of certain chemicals
(bioactive molecules) like organic acids, alcohols, enzymes, cyclosporin A and statins.
(i) Organic acids : Certain microbes have ability to convert carbohydrate into organic acids.
Table : Microbes, their products and usage
Microbes Product Usage
(a) Aspergillus niger Citric acid Employed in dyeing, inks, medicines
(fungus) flavouring and preservation of food
(b) Acetobacter aceti Acetic acid Used in preparation of vinegar
(bacterium)
(c) Clostridium butylicum Butyric acid Used for making rencid butter
(bacterium)
(d) Lactobacillus Lactic acid Curd
(bacterium)
(e) Aspergillus niger, Gluconic acid Gluconate source of calcium to
Penicillium (fungi) infants, cow and lactating mothers.

(ii) Enzymes : Hardly 1.0 – 1.5% of the total enzymes are employed in industry and medicine.
• Lipases : These are used in detergent formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains from
laundry. Lipases are obtained from Candida lipolytica and Geotrichum candidum.
• Pectinases and proteases : They help in clarifying fruit juices making them clearer as compared to
those made at home. Microbe used for production of pectinases is Aspergillus niger.
Proteases are obtained from Mortierella renispora, Aspergillus and Bacillus species.
• Streptokinase : It is produced by the bacterium Streptococcus and is modified by genetic
engineering is used as 'Clot buster' for removing clots from the blood vessels of patients who have
undergone myocardial infarction leading to heart attack.
• Amylase : They degrade starch and are obtained from Aspergillus, Rhizopus and Bacillus species.
• Cyclosporin A : It is used as an immuno-suppressive agent in organ-transplant patients, is
produced by the fungus, Trichoderma polysporum.
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(iii) Statins : These are produced by the yeast-Monascus purpureus. Statins have been commercialised as
blood-cholesterol lowering agents. It acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for
synthesis of cholesterol. Statins resemble mevalonate and competitive inhibitor of -hydroxy
--methylglutaryl CoA reductase or HMG CoA reductase.

Microbes in Waste Water (Sewage) Treatment

We know that large quantities of waste water are generated everyday in cities and towns. A major
component of this waste water is human excreta.
This municipal waste-water is also called sewage. It contains large amounts of organic matter and
microbes. Many of which are pathogenic.
Have you ever wondered where this huge quantity of sewage or urban waste water is disposed off daily?
This cannot be discharged into natural water bodies like rivers and streams directly – you can
understand why. Before disposal, hence, sewage is treated in sewage treatment plants (STPs) to make
it less polluting. Treatment of waste water is done by the heterotrophic microbes naturally present in
the sewage. This treatment is carried out in two stages:

Primary treatment : These treatment steps basically involve physical removal of particles – large and
small – from the sewage through filtration and sedimentation. These are removed in stages; initially,
floating debris is removed by sequential filtration. Then the grit (soil and small pebbles) are removed
by sedimentation. All solids that settle form the primary sludge, and the supernatant forms the
effluent. The effluent from the primary settling tank is taken for secondary treatment. Secondary
treatment or Biological treatment : The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks. where it is
constantly agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it. This allows vigorous growth of useful
aerobic microbes into flocs (masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like
structures). While growing, these microbes consume the major part of the organic matter in the
effluent. This significantly reduces the BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) of the effluent. BOD refers
to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic matter in one liter of water were
oxidised by bacteria. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is reduced. The BOD test measures the
rate of uptake of oxygen by micro-organisms in a sample of water and thus, indirectly, BOD is a measure
of the organic matter present in the water. The greater the BOD of waste water, more is its polluting
potential.
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Once the BOD of sewage or waste water is reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed into a settling
tank where the bacterial ‘flocs’ are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge. A small part
of the activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to serve as the inoculum. The remaining major
part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge digesters. Here, other kinds of bacteria,
which grow anaerobically, digest the bacteria and the fungi in the sludge. During this digestion, bacteria
produce a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases form biogas
and can be used as source of energy as it is inflammable.
The effluent from the secondary treatment plant is generally released into natural water bodies like
rivers and streams.
You can appreciate how microbes play a major role in treating millions of gallons of waste water everyday
across the globe. This methodology has been practiced for more than a century now, in almost all parts of the
world. Till date, no manmade technology has been able to rival the microbial treatment of sewage.

You are aware that due to increasing urbanisation, sewage is being produced in much larger quantities
than ever before. However the number of sewage treatment plants has not increased enough to treat
such large quantities. So the untreated sewage is often discharged directly into rivers leading to their
pollution and increase in water-borne diseases.
The Ministry of Environment and Forests has initiated Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan to save
these major rivers of our country from pollution. Under these plans, it is proposed to build a large number of
sewage treatment plants so that only treated sewage may be discharged in the rivers. A visit to a sewage
treatment plant situated in any place near you would be a very interesting and educating experience.

Exercise 1.1
1. Milk is changed into curd by- 3. Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and
(1) Bacillus Megaterium convert it to curd and also improve its
(2) Acetobacter aceti nutritional quality by increasing :-
(3) Xanthomonas citri (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B12
(4) Lactobacillus acidophilus (3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin C and A
2. Which one of the following is used in the
4. Lactic acid bacteria present in curd:
making of bread :
(1) Rhizopus stolonifer (1) Check growth of disease causing microbes
(2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Kill protozoan parasites
(3) Zygosaccharomyces (3) Kill nematodes
(4) Saccharomyces ludwigii (4) Is antiviral
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5. Cheese and yoghurt are products of: 14. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the
(1) Pasteurisation (2) Distillation formation of :
(3) Dehydration (4) Fermentation (1) Ethanol (2) Methanol
(3) Acetic acid (4) Antibiotics
6. During the formation of bread it becomes
porous due to release of CO2 by the action of: 15. Select the correct match -
(1) Yeast (2) Bacteria (1) Aspergillus niger - Acetic acid
(3) Virus (4) Protozoans (2) Streptokinase - Immuno suppressive
(3) Cyclosporin - A - Clot buster
7. Which of the following Microorganisms use (4) Statins - Cholesterol lowering agent
for swisss cheese :
16. The drug Cyclosporin a used for organ
(1) Propionibacterium (2) Geotrichum
transplant patients is obtained from a
(3) Penicillium (4) Streptococcus
(1) Bacterium (2) Fungus
8. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to- (3) Virus (4) Plant
(1) Growth of LAB 17. Maximum percentage of alcohol present in
(2) Production of O2 & ethanol the product of yeast fermentation :
(3) Production of CO2 (1) Brandy (2) Gin
(4) Growth of yeast Monascus (3) Rum (4) Wine
9. The microorganism grown on molasses 18. Antibiotics are mostly obtained from :
(sugar solution) and used to prepare alcohol: (1) Bacteria
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Rhizopus (2) Actinomycetes
(3) Acetobacter (4) Lactobacillus (3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Both (1) & (2)
10. Which one of the microorganism is used for
production of citric acid in industries ? 19. Beer is obtained from :
(1) Lactobacillus bulgaricus (1) Molasses (2) Grapes
(2) Penicillium citrinum (3) Barley (4) Rye
(3) Aspergillus niger 20. The term 'antibiotic' was coined by-
(4) Rhizopus nigricans (1) Edward Jenner
(2) Louis Pasteur
11. Which of the following is used to
(3) Selman Waksman
manufacture ethanol from starch-
(4) Alexander Fleming
(1) Penicillin (2) Saccharomyces
(3) Azotobacter (4) Lactobacillus
21. Which one of the following is not true about
12. Formation of vinegar from alcohol is caused by antibiotics :
(1) Bacillus subtilis (2) Clostridium (1) First antibiotic was discovered by
(3) Acetobacter aceti (4) Azotobacter Alexander Fleming
(2) The term ‘antibiotic’ was coined by S.
13. Which of the following fermented beverage Waksman in 1942.
will not be produced by distillation of (3) Some persons can be allergic to a
fermented broth. particular antibiotic
(1) Whisky (2) Brandy (4) Each antibiotic is effective against one
(3) Rum (4) Wine particular kind of germ
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22. Which one produce gas by decomposing the 24. Distillation required for producing which
gobar (Dung) in gobar gas- alcoholic drinks :
(1) Fungus (1) Wine and beer
(2) Virus (2) Whisky, brandy and rum
(3) Methanogenic bacteria (3) Wine, beer, whisky, brandy and rum
(4) Algae (4) Wine, beer and rum

23. Why do we prefer to call secondary water 25. Most important characteristic that aspergillus
treatment as biological treatment ? niger, Clostridium butylicum and Lactobacillus
(1) Removal of large and small particles share :
from the sewage through filtration and (1) Produces alcohol
sedimentation. (2) Produces enzymes
(2) Use of microbes for removal of pollutant (3) Produces organic acid
(3) Production of biogas by microbes (4) Produces bioactive substances
(4) Production of activated sludge

Microbes in Production of Biogas

Biogas is a mixture of gases (containing predominantly methane) produced by microbial activity and
which may be used as fuel. Major component of biogas is methane (50-70%) which is highly
inflammable, other gases are carbon dioxide (30-40%) and mixture of other gases H2, H2S etc. (10%).
Calorific value of biogas is 4429 kcal/m3 at 50% methane content.
(1) Microbes produce different types of gaseous end-products during growth and metabolism. Certain
bacteria, which grow anaerobically on cellulosic material, produce large amount of methane along
with CO2 and H2. These bacteria are collectively called Methanogens and one such common bacterium
is Methanobacterium.
(2) These bacteria are commonly found in anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment. These bacteria are
also present in the rumen of cattle where they help in the breakdown of cellulose and play an important
role in the nutrition of cattle. Thus, the excreta (dung) of cattle, commonly called gobar, is rich in these
bacteria. Dung can be used for generation of biogas, commonly called gobar gas.
(3) The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the efforts of Indian
Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).

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 Biology Microbes in Human Welfare
(4) The biogas plant consists of :
(i) A concrete tank, 10-15 feet deep, in which bio-wastes are collected and a slurry of dung is fed.
(ii) A floating cover is placed over the slurry, which keeps on rising as the gas is produced in the tank
due tomicrobial activity. It has an outlet, which is connected to a pipe to supply biogas to nearby
houses.
(iii) The spent slurry is removed through another outlet and may be used as fertiliser.
(5) Cattle dung is available in large quantities in rural areas where cattles are used for a variety of
purposes. So, biogas plants are more often built in rural areas. The biogas thus produced, is used for
cooking and lighting.
(6) Formation of biogas is three step anaerobic process involving Solubilisation, Acidogenesis and
Methanogenesis.

Microbes as Biocontrol Agents

(1) Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests.
(2) In modern society, these problems have been tackled increasingly by the use of chemicals - by use of
insecticides and pesticides. These chemicals are toxic and extremely harmful, to human beings and
animals alike, and have been polluting our environment (soil, ground water), fruits, vegetables and
crop plants. Our soil is also polluted through our use of weedicides to remove weeds. These are
conventional farming practices which often use chemical methods to kill both useful and harmful life
forms indiscriminately, this is holistic approach that seeks to develop and understanding of the webs
of interaction between the group of organisms that constitute the field fauna and flora.
(3) Biological control of pests and diseases : In agriculture, there is a method of controlling pests that
relies on natural predation rather than introduced chemicals.
Organic farmer believes that biodiversity furthers health. The more variety a landscape has, the more
sustainable it is. Organic farmer therefore, works to create a system where the insects that are
sometimes called pests are not eradicated, but instead are kept at manageable levels by a complex
system of checks and balances within a living and vibrant ecosystem.
The organic farmer holds the view that the eradication of the creatures that are often described as pests
is possible but is undersirable because without them the beneficial predatory and parasitic insects
which depend upon them as food or hosts would not be able to survive.
(4) Thus, the use of biocontrol measures reduce our dependence on toxic chemicals and pesticides. An
important part of the biological farming approach is to become familiar with the various life forms that
inhabit the field, predator as well as pests, and also their life cycles, patterns of feeding and the
habitats they prefer. This helps in developing appropriate means of biocontrol.
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Examples of Biocontrol :
(i) Ladybird, a beetle with red and black markings, is useful in controlling aphids.
(ii) Dragonflies are useful to get rid of mosquitoes.
(iii) Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a microbial biocontrol agent that can be introduced to control
butterfly caterpillars. These are available in sachets as dried spores which are mixed with water
and sprayed onto vulnerable plants such as brassicas and fruit trees, where these are eaten by
insect larvae. In the gut of the larvae, the toxin is released and the larvae get killed. The bacterial
disease kills the caterpillars, but leave other insects unharmed.
The transgenic plants, developed by genetic engineering, have B. thuringiensis toxin genes into
plants. Such plants are resistant to attack by insect pests. e.g., Bt cotton.
(iv) Fungus Trichoderma is a biological control being developed for use in the treatment of plant
diseases. Trichoderma species are free living fungi that are very common in the root ecosystems
and are effective against several plant pathogens.
(v) Baculoviruses are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods. The majority of
baculoviruses used as biocontrol agents are in the genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus (NPV). These
viruses are excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal applications.
They have no negative impacts on plants, mammals, birds, fish or even on non-target insects.
Integrated Pest Management (IPM) : This is desirable when beneficial insects are being conserved to
aid in an overall integrated pest management (IPM) programme, or when an ecologically sensitive
area is being treated.
Sustainable pest management is otherwise known as integrated pest management i.e., integration of
tactics for control of single pest on one or more crops. IPM, as applied in agriculture is ideally the use
of most effective, economical, safest, ecologically sustainable and sociologically acceptable
combination of physical chemical and biological methods to limit the harmful effects of crop pests.
The overall objective of IPM is to create and to maintain situations in which insects are prevented from
causing significant damage to crops.
A number of tools or components have been successfully used for IPM in several crops. These include-
use of pest resistant or tolerant varieties, predators and pathogens, use of parasites, summer
ploughing, quarantine measures, late plating, controlled use of pesticides, attractants, repellents etc.

Microbes as Biofertilisers
(1) The use of the chemical fertilisers to meet the ever-increasing demand of agricultural produce has
contributed significantly to environmental pollution. There are many problems associated with over
use for chemical fertilisers so there is a need to switch to organic farming.
(2) Organic farming is raising of crops through the use of biofertilisers that provide optimum nutrients to
crop plants.
(3) Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of soil. The main sources of biofertilisers
are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria.
Currently, a number of biofertilisers are available commercially in the market and farmers use these
regularly in their fields to replenish soil nutrients and to reduce dependence on chemical fertilisers.

Bacteria :
(i) Rhizobium forms symbiotic association with root nodules of leguminous plants.
These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by plants as nutrients.
(ii) Bacteria like Azospirillum and Azotobacter can fix atmospheric nitrogen while free living in the soil,
thus,enriching the nitrogen content of soil.
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Fungi :
Fungi also forms symbiotic associations with roots of higher plants known as Mycorrhiza. Many
members of the genus Glomus from mycorrhiza. The fungal symbiont absorbs phosphorus from soil and
passes it to plants. Plants having such associations also show resistance to root borne pathogens
tolerance to salinity and drought, and an overall increase in plant growth and development. In return
fungi gets shelter and food from this association.
Cyanobacteria : Cyanobacteria are autotrophic microbes widely distributed in aquatic and terrestrial
environments many of which can fix atmospheric nitrogen e.g., Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria, etc.,
in paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as an important biofertiliser. Blue green algae (BGA) also adds
organic matter to the soil and increases its fertility. It also reduces alkalinity of soil.

Special Points
1. Single Cell Protein (SCP) :-
It is microbial biomass. This biomass is obtained from both mono and multi cellular micro-organism.
Single cell protein can be produced using algae, fungi, yeast and bacteria.
Conventional agricultural production of cereals, pulses, vegetables, fruits, etc., may not be able to
meet the demand of food at the rate at which human and animal population is increasing. The shift
from grain to meat diets also creates more demand for cereals as it takes 3-10 Kg of grain to produce 1
Kg of meat by animal farming. More than 25 per cent of human population is suffering from hunger and
malnutrition. One of the alternate sources of proteins for animal and human nutrition is Single Cell
Protein (SCP).
Microbes are being grown on an industrial scale as source of good protein. Microbes like Spirulina can
be grown easily on materials like waste water from potato proecssing plants (containing starch), straw,
molasses, animal manure and even sewage, to produce large quantities and can serve as food rich in
protein, minerals, fats, carbohydrate and vitamins. Incidentally such utilisation also reduces
environmental pollution.
It has been calculated that a 250 kg cow produces 200 g of protein per day. In the same period, 250g of
a micro-organism like Methylophilus methylotrophus, because of its high rate of biomass production
and growth, can be expected to produce 25 tonnes of protein. The fact that mushrooms are eaten by
many people and large scale mushroom culture is a growing industry makes it believable that microbes
too would become acceptable as food.
Exercise 1.2
1. Which bacteria are utilized in Gobar gas 3. Biogas produced by anaerobic fermentation
plant? of waste biomass consists of :
(1) Methanogens (1) Methane
(2) Nitrifying bacteria
(2) Traces of H2, H2S and N2
(3) Ammonifying bacteria
(4) Denitrifying bacteria (3) CO2
(4) All of these
2. What are the advantage of gobar gas over
conventional utilization- 4. The technology of biogas production was
(1) More efficient source of energy
developed in India mainly due to the efforts
(2) Used as good fertilizer
of
(3) Reduces the chances of spreading of
pathogens (1) IARI (2) KVIC
(4) All the above (3) both (1) and (2) (4) WHO
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Microbes in Human Welfare Biology
5. Biogas is the mixture of gases produced by 13. Trichoderma has proved a useful
the microbial activity. The type of the gas microorganism for -
produced depends upon - (1) Gene transfer in higher plants
(1) type of microbes (2) Biological control of soil-borne plant
(2) type of organic substrate / waste pathogens
(3) size of digester (3) Bioremediation of contaminated soils
(4) (1) & (2) Both (4) Reclamation of wastelands
6. Biogas consists of : 14. Ladybird is useful to get rid of
(1) Carbon monooxide, methane and hydrogen (1) Aphids (2) Mosquitoes
(2) Carbon dioxide, methane and hydrogen (3) Boll worm (4) Jassids
(3) Carbon monooxide, ethane and hydrogen
(4) Carbon dioxide, ethane and hydrogen 15. BGA is chiefly used as biofertilizer in the crop
of-
7. During anaerobic digestion of organic waste,
(1) Wheat (2) Gram
such as in producing biogas, which one of the
(3) Mustard (4) Paddy
following is left undegraded-
(1) Lipids (2) Lignin 16. Which of the following is the pair of
(3) Hemi-cellulose (4) Cellulose biofertilizers :
8. Rate limiting material in biogas production (1) Azolla and BGA
is- (2) Nostoc and legume
(1) Methane (2) Cellulose (3) Rhizobium and grasses
(3) Starch (4) Acetic acid (4) Salmonella & E. Coli

9. Biogas is produced by anaerobic breakdown 17. All of the following is a part of IPM
of biomass of agricultural waste by (Integrated Pest Management) except:-
methanogenic bacteria. It is a : (1) Use of resistant varieties
(1) One step process (2) Two step process (2) Use of crop rotation
(3) Three step process (4) Multistep process (3) Biological and Mechanical control of pests
(4) Regular use of high dose of pesticides
10. Microbial insecticide is :
from begining to end of the crop
(1) Bacillus polymyxa
(2) Bacillus brevis 18. Which of the following statements is
(3) Bacillus subtilio incorrect ?
(4) Bacillus thuringenesis (1) Biofertilizers are used to maintain and
11. Which of the following bacterium is associated improve soil fertility
with production of bioinsecticide is ? (2) Chemical fertilizers pollute soil and
(1) Bacillus subtilis water resources
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) Chemical fertilizers are expensive
(3) Agrobacterium (4) Most pesticide used these days are
(4) Azotobacter specific in nature

12. The use of predator to control a pest is called : 19. IPM (Integrated Pest Management) involves :
(1) Genetic engineering (1) Tissue culture
(2) Biological control (2) Biological control
(3) Chemical control (3) Bio-fertilizers
(4) Artificial control (4) Confusion technique
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20. Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control :- 27. The material of biological origin, which is
(1) Moth used to maintain and improve soil fertility is:-
(2) Flies
(1) Bio pesticide
(3) Mosquito
(4) All the above (2) Bionutrient
(3) Chemical fertilizers
21. Which biocontrol agent is very common in
root ecosystem & is effective aganist several (4) Green manure
plant pathogens?
28. Modern farmer's can increase the yield of
(1) Baculoviruses
(2) Trichoderma Paddy upto 50% by the use of -
(3) Nucleopolyhedro virus (1) Cyanobacteria
(4) Ladybird beetle & Dragonflies
(2) Rhizobium
22. Which of the following is the examples of (3) Mycorrhiza
biofertilizers?
(4) Farm yard manure
(1) Green manure
(2) Compost manure 29. Bio pesticide include :-
(3) BGA and VAM
(1) Only bioinsecticide
(4) Green manure & chemical fertilizers
(2) Only bioherbicide
23. A common biocontrol agent for the control of
(3) Bioinsecticide & bioherbicide
plant diseases caused by fungi is:-
(1) Agrobacterium (4) Bioherbicide, bioinsecticide & biofertilisers
(2) Glomus
30. Which one of the following microbes forms
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Baculovirus symbiotic association with plants and helps

24. Integrated pest management (IPM) is based them in their nutrition?

on - (1) Glomus
(1) Biological control of pest (2) Trichoderma
(2) Mechanical control
(3) Azotobacter
(3) Carefully timed used of pesticides
(4) All the above (4) Aspergillus

25. Which of the following is a symbiotic 31. How do statins lower blood cholesterol level
nitrogen fixer? ?
(1) Azolla
(1) Competitively inhibiting the enzyme
(2) Glomus
(3) Azotobacter responsible for synthesis of cholesterol
(4) Nitrosomonas (2) Non-competitively inhibiting the enzyme
26. A free-living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium responsible for synthesis of cholesterol
which can also form symbiotic association (3) Destroy enzyme responsible for
with the water fern Azolla is :
synthesis of cholesterol
(1) Anabaena (2) Tolypothrix
(4) Destroy cholesterol in blood.
(3) Chlorella (4) Nostoc
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Exercise 2
1. How many given statements are correct ? 3. Which option is correct about antibiotics?
(i) Microbes are diverse- protozoa, bacteria, (i) Antibiotics are chemical substances,
fungi and microscopic plant viruses, viroids which are produced by some microbes
and also prions that are proteinaceous and can kill or retard the growth of other
infectious agents. disease-causing microbes only.
(ii) Microbes like bacteria and many fungi can (ii) Penicillin is obtained by Alexander
be grown on nutritive media to form colonies, Fleming from mould Penicillium notatum.
which cannot be seen by the naked eyes. (iii) Fleming. Chain and Florey were awarded
(iii) During growth, the LAB produce acids that the Nobel Prize in 1945, for discovery of
coagulate and partially digest the milk lactose. Penicillin.
(iv) A small amount of curd added to the fresh (iv) Antibiotics have greatly improved our
milk as inoculum or starter contain millions capacity to treat deadly diseases
of lactic acid bacteria (LAB), which (v) Plague, whooping cough (kali khansi),
converting milk to curd. diphtheria (gal ghotu) and leprosy (kusht
(v) Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) also improves rog), are deadly diseases which kill
its nutritional quality of curd by increasing millions of people all over the globe are
vitamin B . treated by antibiotics.
(vi) In our stomach too, the LAB play very (vi) Antibiotics also obtain from bacteria,
beneficial role in checking disease causing fungi and some other microbes.
microbes. (1) (i), (iii) and (vi) are incorrect
(1) 3 (2) 5 (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi) are correct
(3) 6 (4) None of these (3) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) are correct
(4) All statements are correct
2. Select correct option for given statements:
(i) Production of fermented product on an 4. Microbes are also used for commercial and
industrial scale requires growing microbes industrial production of certain chemicals
in very large vessels called fermentors. like organic acids, alcohols and enzymes,
(ii) Microbes especially yeasts have been choose correct statements from given statements.
used for the production of beverages like (i) Aspergillus niger is a fungus produce
wine, beer, whisky, brandy or rum. acetic acid.
(iii) Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used for (ii) Acetobacter aceti is a bacterium which
bread-making and production of beverages. produces citric acid.
(iv) Brewer's yeast is used for fermenting malted (iii) Clostridium butylicum is a bacterium
cereals and fruit juices, to produce ethanol. which produces butyric acid and propionic
(v) epending on the type of the raw material acid
used for fermentation and the type of (iv) Lactobacillus which is a bacterium
processing different types of alcoholic produces lactic acid and CO2.
drinks are obtained (v) Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used for
(vi) Wine and beer are produced by distillation commercial production of ethanol and CO2.
whereas whisky, brandy and rum are produced (vi) Microbes can produces enzymes like
by without distillation f the fermented broth. lipase, pectinases and proteases.
(1) Two statements are incorrect (1) (v) and (vi)
(2) Four statements are correct (2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(3) Five statements are correct (3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) All statements are correct (4) All statements are incorrect
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5. Select correct option for secondary 7. Match the following list of bioactive
treatment or biological treatment: substances and their roles :
(A) The primary effluent is passed into large Bioactive Role
aeration tanks where it is constantly Substance
agitated mechanically and air is pumped (a) Statin (i) Removal of oil
into it which allows vigorous growth of stains
useful aerobic microbes. (b) Cyclosporin A (ii) Removal of clots
(B) Aerobic microbes consume the major from
part of the organic matter in the effluent blood vessels
which significantly reduces the BOD (c) Streptokinase (iii) Lowering of blood
(Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of the cholesterol
effluent. (d) Lipase (iv) Immunosuppressive
(C) The greater the BOD of waste water more agent
is its polluting potential so sewage water (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
is treated till the BOD is reduced. (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(D) In settling tank bacterial ‘flocs’ are 8. Match the items in column-I and Column-II
allowed to sediment and this sediment is and choose correct answer.
called primary sludge. Column-I Column-II
(E) A small part of the primary sludge is (a) Lady bird (i) Methanobacterium
pumped back into the aeration tank to (b) Mycorrhiza (ii) Trichoderma
serve as the inoculum. (c) Biological (iii) Aphids
(F) In anaerobic sludge digesters other kinds control
of bacteria, which grow anaerobically, (d) Biogas (iv) Glomus
digest the bacteria and the fungi in the (1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
sludge. (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(G) During anaerobic sludge digestion, bacteria (3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
produce biogas such as methane, (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide.
9. Match the columns.
(1) (A), (C), (E) and (G) are correct
Column-I Column-II
(2) (A), (B), (C), (F) and (G) are correct
Biological Pests
(3) (A), (C), (D), (E) and (F) are incorrect
control agent
(4) All statements are correct
(a) Lady birds (i) Butterfly
6. Why does ‘Swiss cheese’ have big holes ? caterpillar
(1) Due to production of a large amount of O2 (b) Bacillus (ii) Mosquitoes
by a bacterium thuringiensis
(2) Due to production of a large amount of (c) Dragon fly (iii) Aphids
CO2 by a bacterium (d) Trichoderma (iv) Root pathogen
(3) Due to production of a large amount of (1) a-iii; b-i; c-ii; d-iv
CO2 by a yeast (2) a-iv; b-iii; c-ii; d-i
(4) Due to production of a large amount of (3) a-i; b-iii; c-ii; d-iv
ethanol by a bacterium (4) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-iii
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Microbes in Human Welfare Biology
10. Match the given columns and choose the 13. Given below are three statements (A- C) each
correct answer- with one or more blanks. Select the option
Column-I Column-II which correctly satisfy the blanks-
(I) Statins (A) Yeast Statements:
(II) Ethanol (B) Blood cholesterol A. ___ a traditional drink of some parts of
lowering agent South India is made by fermenting sap
(III) Dung (C) Insect resistant from palms.
Plant B. Citric acid is obtained through the
(IV) Bt-cotton (D) Biogas
fermentation carried out by ____ and
(1) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C ____ on sugary syrups.
(2) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B C. In ____ the fungus forms a mantle on the
(3) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D surface of the roots.
(4) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
Options:
11. Name the blank spaces A, B, C and D given in (1) A - Toddy; B - Aspergillus niger,
the following table: Mucor, C - Ectomycorrhiza
Types of Scientific Commercial (2) A - Wine; B- Aspergillus niger, Mucor,
microbe Name Product C - Ectomycorrhiza
Bacterium A Lactic acid (3) A - Beer; B - Aspergillus niger, Mucor,
Fungus B Cyclosporin C - Ectomycorrhiza
A
(4) A - Rum; B - Aspergillus niger, Mucor,
C Monascus Staitins
C - Ectomycorrhiza
purpureus
Fungus Penicillium D 14. Match the following Column
notatum
(1) A - Lactobacillus, B - Trichoderma Colum-I Column-II
polysporum, C - Yeast (Fungus), I. Methanogens A. Microbial
D - Penicillin biocontrol
(2) A - Lactobacillus, B - Trichoderma agent
polysporum, C - Yeast (Algae),
II. Organic B. Penicillin
D – Penicillin
wastes
(3) A - Lactobacillus, B - Trichoderma
polysporum, C - Yeast (Prokaryote), III. Bacillus C. Biochemical
D - Penicillin thuringiensis oxygen
(4) A - Lactobacillus, B - Trichoderma demand
polysporum, C - Agaricus (Fungus), IV. Penicillium D. Methanobacterium
D - Penicillin notatum
12. Which of the following is used as biofertilizer-
(1) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
A. Cyanobacteria B. yeast
C. Symbiotic bacteria D. Free living bacteria (2) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
(1) A, B, C (2) A, B, D (3) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
(3) A, C, D (4) A, B, C, D (4) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
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15. Following is the sewage treatment. In which 17. Consider the following statements and
of the following options, correct word for all choose the correct statements-
the four numbers (1, 2, 3 and 4) are indicated – (I) Antibiotics are chemical substances,
Primary treatment Primary treatment Secondary treatment
Effluent from primary settling tank
(1)
which are produced by some microbes
(2)
and only can retard the growth of other
Biogas formation (4) Sludge digestor Flocs
Activated sludge (3) BOD
(disease-causing ) microbes.
(1) 1 - Large aeration tanks;
(II) Amphicilin was the first antibiotic to be
2 - Chemically agitation;
discovered
3 - High; 4 - Anaerobic
(III) Cyclosporin A is produced by the fungs
(2) 1 - Large aeration tanks;
2 - Mechanically agitation; Trichoderma polysporum.
3 - Low; 4 - Anaerobic (1) I and III
(3) 1 - Large aeration tanks; (2) II and III
2 - Mechanically agitation; (3) I and II
3 - Low; 4 - Aerobic (4) Only III
(4) 1 - Large aeration tanks;
2 - Mechanically agitation; 18. Name the blank space a, b, c and d in the
3 - High; 4 - Anaerobic table given below –
16. Which of the following statements is correct
Types of Scientific Commercial
-
microbe Name Product
A. Single cell protein is rich in high
quality proteins but poor in fat. Fungus a Penicillin
B. BOD is the amount of oxygen that Bacterium Acetobacter b
would be consumed if all the inorganic aceti
matter in one litre of water were oxidised c Aspergillusniger Citric acid
by bacteria.
Yest d Ethanol
C. Trichoderma sp are free living fungi
that are effective biocontrol agents of (1) a - Penicillium notatum,
several pathogens. b - Acetic acid, c - Fungus,
D. Baculoviruses are pathogens that
d - Saccharomyces cerevisiae
attack insects and other arthropods.
(2) a - Penicillium notatum,
E. Bacillus thuringiensis is first used
biopesticide. b - Acetic acid, c - Bacteria,
F. Lactase enzyme is used in alcoholic d - Monococcus
fermentation. (3) a - Penicillium notatum,
G. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association b - Acetic acid, c - Fungus,
between fungi and vascular plant. d – Clostridium
(1) B, C, F, G
(4) a - Penicillium notatum,
(2) A, D, F
b - Galic acid, c - Fungus,
(3) A, C, D, E, G
(4) B, F d - Saccharomyces cerevisiae

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Exercise 3
1. Assertion :- Yeasts such as Saccharomyces 5. Assertion :- Micro-organisms such as Lactobacillus
cerevisiae are used in baking industry. and others commonly called Lactic acid Bacteria
Reason:- Carbon dioxide produced during (LAB) grow in milk and convert it to curd.
fermentation causes bread dough to rise. Reason:- During growth, the LAB produce
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and acids that coagulate and partially digest the
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. milk proteins.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is not the correct explanation of reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
2. Assertion :- Extraction and purification of (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
enzymes is laborious and expensive.
6. Assertion :- Different varieties of cheese are
Reason:- Protein engineering can be used to known by their characteristic texture, flavour
produce enzymes at large scale. and taste, the specificity coming from the
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and microbes are used.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. Reason:- Cheese is manufactured by use of
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but different types of microbes like bacteria or
reason is not the correct explanation of fungi.
assertion. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
3. Assertion :- Microbes is present in soil,
assertion.
water, air, inside our bodies and that of other
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
animals and plants. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
Reason:- Microbes are present everywhere.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and 7. Assertion :- Different type of alcoholic drinks
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. depending on the type of the raw material
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but used for fermentation.
reason is not the correct explanation of Reason:- With or without distillation different
assertion. types of alcoholic drinks are obtained.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
4. Assertion :- Microbes are present even at reason is not the correct explanation of
sites where no other life-form could possibly assertion.
exist. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Reason:- It cannot survive in deep inside the (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
geysers (thermal vents) where the temperature 8. Assertion :- Penicillin was the first antibiotic
may be as high as 100°C, deep in the soil, to be discovered, and it was a chance discovery.
under the layers of snow several metres Reason:- Alexander Fleming discovered Penicillin
thick, and in highly acidic environments. while working on Staphylococci bacteria.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
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9. Assertion :- Lipases enzyme is produce by 13. Assertion : Cheese is one of the oldest food
microbes and used in laundry. items in which microbes are used.
Reason:- Used in detergent formulation for
Reason : Different varieties of cheese are
removing oily stains from the cloth.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and known by, characteristic texture, flavour and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. taste.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. reason is not the correct explanation of

10. Assertion : Azotobacter fixes nitrogen in assertion.

symbiotic form. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
Reason : Rhizobium bacteria fixes nitrogen in (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
free living form.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and 14. Assertion : Baculovirus are species specific.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. Reason : It is very common in root ecosystem
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
and effective against several plant
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. pathogens.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
11. Assertion : Curd is more nutritious than milk. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
Reason : LAB present in curd checks growth reason is not the correct explanation of
of disease causing microbes.
assertion.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. 15. Assertion : Statins are product of fermentation
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. activity of yeast.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. Reason : Statins and mevalonate competitive
12. Assertion : Cyclosporin A is an immunosuppressive for same active site on enzyme involved in
medicine. cholesterol synthesis.
Reason : It stimulates activation of T-cells
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
and prevents rejections.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.

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16. Assertion : Wine and beer are produced by 17. Assertion : The chief component of biogas is
distillation of the fermented broth. CH4.
Reason : Different types of alcoholic drinks Reason : Biogas plants are prepared on the
are obtained only by fermentation, always foregin technology.
followed by distillation process. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

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 Biology Microbes in Human Welfare
Exercise 4 (Previous Year's Questions)
1. Read the following statement having two 6. Consider the following four statements (a-d)
blanks (A and B): and select the option which includes all the
“A drug used for --------(A)-------- patients is correct ones only: [AIPMT MAINS – 2012]
obtained from a species of the organism ----- (a) Single cell spirulina can produce large
quantities of food rich in
---(B)--------” [AIPMT MAINS – 2011]
protein,minerals, vitamins etc.
The one correct option for the two blanks is:
(b) Body weight-wise the microorganism
(1) Blank A - AIDS Blank B - Pseudomonas
Methylophilus methylotrophus may be
(2) Blank A - Heart Blank B - Penicillium able to produce several times more
(3) Blank A - Organ-transplant Blank proteins than the cows per day
B - Trichoderma (c) Common button mushrooms are a very
(4) Blank A - Swine flu Blank B -Monascus rich source of vitamin C
(d) A rice variety has been developed which
2. Which one of the following is a wrong
is very rich in calcium.
matching of a microbe and its industrial (1) Statements (b), (c) & (d)
product, while the remaining three are (2) Statements (a), (b)
correct ? [AIPMT MAINS – 2011] (3) Statements (c), (d)
(1) Aspergillus niger -citric acid (4) Statements (a), (c) & (d)
(2) Yeast -Statins
7. Which one of the following is an example of
(3) Acetobacter aceti-acetic acid carrying out biological control of pest/ diseases
(4) Clostridium butylicum-lactic acid using microbes ? [AIPMT PRE – 2012]
3. In gobar gas, the maximum amount is that of (1) Bt-cotton to increase sugarcane yield
(2) Lady bird beetle against mosquito in
:- [AIPMT MAINS – 2012]
mustard
(1) Propane (2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Trichoderma sp. against certain plant
(3) Butane (4) Methane
pathogens
4. Yeast is used in the production of :- (4) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white rust
[AIPMT PRE – 2012] in Brassica

(1) Bread and beer 8. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to

(2) Cheese and butter humans in making curd from milk and in the
(3) Citric acid and lactic acid production of antibiotics are the ones
(4) Lipase and pectinase categorised as- [AIPMT PRE – 2012]
(1) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
5. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used (2) Heterotrophic bacteria
commercially in the production of:- (3) Cyanobacteria
[AIPMT PRE – 2012] (4) Archaebacteria
(1) Citric acid 9. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial
(2) Blood chlolestrol lowering statins infarction is normally immediately given :-
(3) Ethanol [AIPMT PRE – 2012]
(4) Streptokinase for removing clots from (1) Cyclosporin-A (2) Statins
the blood vessels. (3) Penicillin (4) Streptokinase
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Microbes in Human Welfare Biology
10. During sewage treatment, biogas are produced, 14. Which of the following is wrongly matched in
which include- [NEET UG – 2013] the given table ? [NEET-I – 2016]
(1) Hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen and methane Microbe Product Application
(2) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon (A) Trichoderma Cyclosporin Immuno-
Polysporum A suppressive
dioxide
drug
(3) Methane, oxygen and hydrogen sulphide (B) Monascus Statins Lowering of
(4) Hydrogen sulphide, methane and sulphur purpureus blood
dioxide cholesterol
(C) Streptococcus Streptokinase removal of
11. A good producer of citric acid is- clot
[NEET UG – 2013] from blood
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Aspergillus vessel
(3) Pseudomonas (4) Clostridium (D) Clostridium Lipase removal of oil
butylicum stains
12. Match the following list of microbes and their (1) A (2) B
importance : [RE AIPMT – 2015] (3) C (4) D
Column-I Column-II
15. Match Column-I with Column-II and select
(A) Saccharomyces (i) Production of
the correct option using the codes given
cerevisiae immunosuppres below : [NEET-II – 2016]
sive agents Column-I Column-II
(B) Monascus (ii) Ripening of (a) Citric acid (i) Trichoderma
purpureus Swiss (b) Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium
cheese (c) Statins (iii) Aspergillus
(C) Trichoderma (iii) Commercial (d) Butyric acid (iv) Monascus
polysporum production of Codes:
ethanol (1) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (iv), d - (ii)
(D) Propionibacterium (iv) Production of (2) a - (i), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (iii)
sharmanii blood (3) a - (iii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (ii)
- cholesterol (4) a - (iii), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (iv)
lowering agents 16. Which of the following is correctly matched
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii) for the product produced by them?
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) [NEET-2017]
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) (1) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) (2) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
(3) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
13. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
production of biogas from the dung of
17. Conversion of milk to curd improve its
ruminant animals, include the-
nutritional value by increasing the amount of
[NEET-I – 2016]
[NEET-2018]
(1) Halophiles
(1) Vitamin B12
(2) Thermoacidophiles
(2) Vitamin A
(3) Methanogens (3) Vitamin D
(4) Eubacteria (4) Vitamin E
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18. Which of the following can be used as a 22. Match the following columns and select the
biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant correct option. [NEET-2020]
disease ? [NEET-2019] Column-I Column-II
(1) Anabaena (a) Clostridium (i) Cyclosporin-
butylicum A
(2) Lactobacillus
(b) Trichoderma (ii) Butyric Acid
(3) Trichoderma
polysporum
(4) Chlorella
(c) Monascus (iii) Citric Acid
19. Which of the following is a commercial blood purpureus
cholesterol lowering agent? [NEET-2019] (d) Aspergillus (iv) Blood
(1) Streptokinase niger cholesterol
lowering
(2) Lipases
agent
(3) Cyclosporin A
(1) (a) → (i), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (iii)
(4) Statin
(2) (a) → (iv), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i)
20. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents: (3) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i)
[NEET-2019] (4) (a) → (ii), (b) → (i), (c) → (iv), (d) → (iii)

(1) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma 23. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic
(2) Nostoc, Azospirillum, Nucleopolyhedrovirus sludge digester for further sewage
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic treatment? [NEET-2020]
virus, Aphids (1) Effluents of primary treatment
(2) Activated sludge
(4) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus
(3) Primary sludge
Thuringiensis
(4) Floating debris
21. Match the following organisms with the
24. Match the following list of bacteria and their
products they produce : [NEET-2019] commercially important products-
Column-I Column-II [NEET-2021]
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese Bacterium Product
(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd (a) Aspergillus (i) Acetic acid
cerevisiae niger

(c) Aspergillus (iii) Citric acid (b) Acetobacter (ii) Lactic acid
aceti
niger
(c) Clostridium (iii) Citric acid
(d) Acetobacter (iv) Bread
butylicum
aceti (v) Acetic acid
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric
Select the correct option: - acid
Choose the correct match-
(1) a-(iii),b-(iv),c-(v),d-(i)
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-(ii),b-(i),c-(iii),d-(v)
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-(ii),b-(iv),c-(v),d-(iii)
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-(ii),b-(iv),c-(iii),d-(v) (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
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Microbes in Human Welfare Biology
25. Identify the microorganism which is responsible 28. Which of following-organisms cannot fix
for the production of an immunosuppressive nitrogen? [NEET-2025]
molecule cyclosporin A : [NEET-2022] A. Azotobacter B. Oscillatoria
(1) Clostridium butylicum C. Anabaena D. Volvox
(2) Aspergillus niger E. Nostoc
(3) Streptococcus cerevisiae Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) Trichoderma polysporum given below:
(1) B only (2) E only
26. Match List I with List II. [NEET-2024]
(3) A only (4) D only
List–I List–II
(A) Clostridium (i) Ethanol 29. Streptokinase produced by bacterium
butylicum Streptococcus is used for [NEET-2025]
(B) Saccharomyces (ii) Streptokinase (1) Liver disease treatment
cerevisiae (2) Removing clots from blood vessels
(C) Trichoderma (iii) Butyric acid (3) Curd production
polysporum (4) Ethanol production
(D) Streptococcus (iv) Cyclosporin– 30. Which of the following microbes is NOT
sp. A involved in the preparation of household
Choose the correct answer from the options products? [NEET-2025]
given below: A. Aspergillus niger
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II B. Lactobacillus
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II C. Trichoderma polysporum
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
27. Which of the following is an example of non- Choose the correct answer from the options
distilled alcoholic beverage produced by given below:
yeast? [NEET-2025] (1) C and D only
(1) Beer (2) Rum (2) C and E only
(3) Whisky (4) Brandy (3) A and B only
(4) A and C only

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ANSWER KEYS

Exercise 1.1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 2 2 1 4 1 1 3 1 3 2 3 4 1 4 2 1 1 3 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 4 3 2 2 3

Exercise 1.2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 4 3 4 2 2 2 3 4 2 2 2 1 4 1 4 4 2 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
Ans. 2 3 3 1 4 1 4 1 3 1 1

Exercise 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Ans. 2 3 3 1 2 2 4 2 1 1 1 3 1 3 2 3 1 1

Exercise 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
Ans. 1 2 1 3 1 1 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 3 2 4 3

Exercise 4 (Previous Year's Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 4 4 1 2 2 3 2 4 2 2 2 3 4 1 4 1 3 4 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 4 2 2 4 1 1 4 2 4

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Biotechnology : Principles and Processes Biology

Chapter
BIOTECHNOLOGY
3 : PRINCIPLE AND
PROCESSES

Chapter Overview Introduction

Biotechnology deals with techniques of using live organisms or
– Principles of Biotechnology
enzymes from organisms to produce products and processes useful
– Tools of Recombinant DNA to humans. It is use of micro-organism, animals, or plant cells or
their products to generate different products at industrial scale and
Technology
services useful to human beings." A powerful industry based on
– Processes of Recombinant microbes has been developed in recent time. A careful selection of
microbial strains, improved method of extraction and purification of
DNA Technology
the product, have resulted in enormous yields. The use of living
organisms in systems or process for the manufacturer of useful
products, It may involve algae, bacteria, fungi, yeast, cells of Higher
plants & animals or subsystems of any of these or Isolated
components from living matter.
Old biotechnology is based on the natural capabilities of micro
organisms. e.g. formation of Citric acid, production of penicillin
by Penicillium notatum
New biotechnology is based on Recombinant DNA technology.
e.g. Human gene producing Insulin has been transferred and
expressed in bacteria like [Link].
In its purest form, the term biotechnology refers to the use of
living organisms or their products to modify human health and
the human environment. However, it is used in a restricted
sense today, to refer to such of those processes which use
genetically modified organisms to achieve the same on a larger
scale. Further, many other processes/techniques are also
included under biotechnology. For example, in-vitro
fertilisation leading to a 'test-tube' baby, synthesising a gene
and using it, developing a DNA vaccine or correcting a defective
gene, are all part of biotechnology.
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The European federation of Biotechnology (EFB) has given a definition of biotechnology that
encompasses both traditional view and modern molecular biotechnology. The definition given by EFB
is as follows : 'The integration of natural science and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and molecular
analogues for products and services'.

Principles of biotechnology :
Among many, the two techniques that enabled birth of modern biotechnology are :
(i) Genetic engineering :
Techniques to alter the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and RNA), to introduce these into host
organisms and thus change the phenotype of the host organism.
(ii) Bioprocess engineering:
Maintenance of (microbial contamination-free) ambience in chemical engineering processes to enable
growth of only the desired microbe/eukaryotic cell in large quantities for the manufacture of
biotechnological products like antibiotics, vaccines, enzymes etc.

Genetic Engineering
• Genetic engineering also referred as ‘recombinant DNA technology’ or ‘gene splicing’ is one kind
of biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA.
• It deals with the isolation of useful genes from a variety of sources and the formation of new combinations
of DNA (recombinant DNA) for repair, improvement, perfection and matching of a genotype.
• Thus, genetic engineering may be defined ‘as a technique for artificial and deliberately modifying
DNA (gene) to suit human needs’.
• The concept of genetic engineering was the outcome of two very significant discoveries made in
bacterial research. These were –
(i) Presence of extrachromosomal DNA fragments called plasmids in the bacterial cell, which
replicate along with chromosomal DNA of the bacterium.
(ii) Presence of enzymes restriction endonucleases which cut DNA at specific sites. These enzyme are,
therefore, called 'molecular scissors'.
• In genetic engineering breakage of DNA molecule at two desired places is done with the help of
restriction endonuclease to isolate a specific DNA segment and then insert it in another DNA
molecule at a desired position.
• The new DNA molecule is recombinant DNA and the technique called genetic engineering. Genetic
engineering aims at adding, removing or repairing of a part of genetic material. Genetic engineering
can be used to improve the quality of human life.
You probably appreciate the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction. The
former provides opportunities for variations and formulation of unique combinations of genetic
setup, some of which may be beneficial to the organism as well as the population. Asexual
reproduction preserves the genetic information, while sexual reproduction permits variation.
Traditional hybridisation procedures used in plant and animal breeding, very often lead to inclusion
and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desired genes. The techniques of genetic
engineering which include creation of recombinant DNA, use of gene cloning and gene transfer,
overcome this limitation and allows us to isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable genes
without introducing undesirable genes into the target organism.
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Do you know the likely fate of a piece of DNA, which is somehow transferred into an alien organism?
Most likely, this piece of DNA would not be able to multiply itself in the progeny cells of the organism.
But, when it gets integrated into the genome of the recipient, it may multiply
and be inherited along with the host DNA. This is because the alien piece of DNA has become part of a
chromosome, which has the ability to replicate. In a chromosome there is a specific DNA sequence
called the origin of replication, which is responsible for initiating replication. Therefore, for the
multiplication of any alien piece of DNA in an organism it needs to be a part of a chromosome(s) which
has a specific sequence known as ‘origin of replication’. Thus, an alien DNA is linked with the
origin of replication, so that, this alien piece of DNA can replicate and multiply itself in the host
organism. This can also be called as cloning or making multiple identical copies of any template DNA.

Let us now focus on the first instance of the construction of an artificial recombinant DNA molecule.
The construction of the first recombinant DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene encoding
antibiotic resistance with a native plasmid (autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal
DNA) of Salmonella typhimurium. Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer accomplished this in 1972 by
isolating the antibiotic resistance gene by cutting out a piece of DNA from a plasmid which was
responsible for conferring antibiotic resistance. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became
possible with the discovery of the so-called ‘molecular scissors’– restriction enzymes. The cut piece
of DNA was then linked with the plasmid DNA. These plasmid DNA act as vectors to transfer the piece
of DNA attached to it. You probably know that mosquito acts as an insect vector to transfer the malarial
parasite into human body. In the same way, a plasmid can be used as vector to deliver an alien piece of
DNA into the host organism. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became
possible with the enzyme DNA ligase, which acts on cut DNA molecules and joins their ends. This
makes a new combination of circular autonomously replicating DNA created in vitro and is known as
recombinant DNA. When this DNA is transferred into Escherichia coli, a bacterium closely related to
Salmonella, it could replicate using the new host’s DNA polymerase enzyme and make multiple copies.
The ability to multiply copies of antibiotic resistance gene in E. coli was called cloning of antibiotic
resistance gene in E. coli.
You can hence infer that there are three basic steps in genetically modifying an organism —
(i) identification of DNA with desirable genes;
(ii) introduction of the identified DNA into the host;
(iii) maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.

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 Biology Biotechnology : Principles and Processes
Exercise 1.1
1. When the genotype of an organism is 7. Which of the following is the most accepted
improved by the addition of foreign gene, the definition of biotechnology by European
process is called
Federation of Biotechnology?
(1) Tissue culture
(2) Genetic diversity (1) Maintenance of sterile ambience for enabling
(3) Genetic engineering growth of desired microbe/euykaryotic
(4) Plastic surgery cell in large quantities
2. A kind of Biotechnology involving (2) Technique of using live organism or
manipulation of DNA is enzyme from organisms to produce
(1) DNA replication
products and processes useful to animals
(2) Genetic engineering
(3) Denaturation (3) Process which use genetically engineered
(4) Renaturation animals only on a large scale for benefit
3. A genetically manipulated organism containing of mankind
one or more inserted gene of another species (4) The integration of natural science and
in its genome is called : organisms, cells, parts thereof, and
(1) Transposon
molecular analogues for products and
(2) Gene expression
(3) Transgenic organism services
(4) Retroposons
8. Cohen and Boyer isolated an antibiotic
4. Who is given the credit for constructing first resistance gene, by cutting out a piece of
artificial recombinant molecule?
DNA from a plasmid which was responsible
(1) Hargobind Khorana
(2) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer for conferring antibiotic resistance, in the
(3) Linus Pauling year:-
(4) Arber and Nathans (1) 1962
5. Transgenic plants are the ones - (2) 1965
(1) Grown in artificial medium after (3) 1972
hybridization in the field
(4) 1982
(2) Produced by a somatic embryo in
artificial medium 9. Genetic engineering aims at :-
(3) Generated by introducing foreign DNA in
to a cell and regenerating a plant from (1) Destroying wild gene
that cell (2) Preserving defective gene
(4) Produced after protoplast fusion in (3) Curing human disease by introducing
artificial medium new gene
6. First artificial recombinant DNA molecule (4) All the above
was created by
(1) Linking of gene encoding antibiotic 10. Genetic engineering is possible because :-
resistance with a native plasmid of (1) We can cut DNA at specific sites by
Salmonella typhimurium
endonucleases like DNase
(2) Linking of gene encoding fertility factor
with a native plasmid of E. coli. (2) Restriction endonucleases purified from
(3) Linking of gene encoding -galactosidase bacteria can be used in vitro
with a native plasmid of Agrobacterium (3) The phenomenon of transduction in
tumefaciens bacteria is well understood
(4) Linking of gene encoding lactase with a
native plasmid of [Link]. (4) We can see DNA by electron microscope
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Biotechnology : Principles and Processes Biology
Tools of Genetic Engineering
Genetic engineering or recombinant DNA technology can be accomplished only if we have the key tools,
i.e., restriction enzymes, polymerase enzymes, ligases, vectors and the host organism.

1. Enzymes.
A number of specific kinds of enzymes are employed in genetic engineering.
These include lysing enzymes, cleaving enzymes, synthesising enzymes, joining enzymes and some
other enzymes.
(i) Lysing enzymes : These enzymes are used for opening the cells to get DNA for genetic experiment.
Bacterial cell wall is commonly dissolved with the help of lysozyme.
(ii) Cleaving enzymes : These enzymes are used for DNA molecules. Cleaving enzymes are of three types;
exonucleases, endonucleases and restriction endonucleases.
(a) Exonucleases cut off nucleotides from 5' or 3' ends of DNA molecule.
(b) Endonucleases break DNA duplex at any point except the end.
(c) Restriction endonucleases cleave DNA duplex at specific points in such a way that they come to
possess short single stranded free ends. For example, a restriction endonuclease ECOR-l (from
Escherichia coli) recognizes the base sequence GAATTC/CTTAAG in DNA duplex and cleaves its
strands between G and A.
In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in
Escherichia coli were isolated. One of these added methyl groups to DNA, while the other cut DNA. The
later was called restriction endonuclease.
The first restriction endonuclease-Hind II, whose functioning depended on a specific DNA nucleotide
sequence was isolated and characterised five years later. It was found that Hind II always cut DNA
molecules at a particular point by recognising a specific sequence of six base pairs. This specific base
sequence is known as the recognition sequence for Hind II. Besides Hind II, today we know more than
900 restriction enzymes that have been isolated from over 230 strains of bacteria each of which
recognise different recognition sequences.
Restriction enzymes are obtained from bacteria. They are useful to bacteria because the enzyme bring
about fragmentation of viral DNA without affecting the bacterial genome. This is an adaptation against
bacteriophages.
Restriction enzyme (Eco R-I) was discovered by Arber, Smith & Nathans (1978 Nobel prize). These
enzymes exist in many bacteria beside cleavage some restriction endonuclease, also have capability of
modification. Modification in the form of methylation, by methylation the bacterial DNA modifies and
therefore protects its own chromosomal DNA from cleavage by these restriction enzymes.
Restriction enzymes are used in recombinant DNA technology because they can be used in vitro to
recognize and cleave within specific DNA sequence typically consisting of 4 to 8 nucleotides. This
specific 4 to 8 nucleotide sequence is called restriction site and is usually palindromic, this means that
the DNA sequence is the same when read in a 5'-3' direction on both DNA strand.
⎯⎯⎯ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
AND MADAM DNA
As a result the DNA fragments produced by cleavage with these enzymes have short single stranded
overhang at each end these kinds of ends are called sticky or free ends because base pairing between
them can stick the DNA molecule back together again
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 Biology Biotechnology : Principles and Processes

5' G A A T T C 3' 5' G A A T T C 3'

3' C T T A A G 5' 3' C T T A A G 5'

Therefore by cutting two different DNA samples with the same restriction enzyme and mixing the
fragments together a recombinant DNA molecule can be generated.
Exceptionally, some enzymes cleave both strand of DNA at exactly the same nucleotide position,
typically in the centre of the recognition sequence resulting in blunt end.
Sma I (Serratia marcescens)
5' C C C G G G 3' 5' C C C G G G 3'

3' G G G C C C 5' 3' G G G C C C 3'

Nomenclature of enzyme – The convention for naming these enzymes is the first letter of the name
comes from the genes and the second two letters come from the species of the prokaryotic cell from
which they were isolated, e.g. EcoRI, the letter 'R' is derived from the name of Escherichia coli RY 13. In
EcoRI, the letter 'R' is derived from the name of strain. Roman numbers following the names indicate
the order in which the enzymes were isolated from the strain of bacteria

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Biotechnology : Principles and Processes Biology
(iii) Synthesizing enzymes : These enzymes are used to synthesize new strands of DNA, complementary to
existing DNA or RNA template. They are of two types; reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerases.
(a) Reverse transcriptase help in the synthesis of complementary DNA strands on RNA templates;
(b) DNA polymerases help in the synthesis of complementary DNA strands on DNA templates.
(iv) Joining enzymes : These enzymes help in joining the DNA fragments. For example DNA ligase from
Escherichia coli is used to join DNA fragments. Joining enzymes are, therefore, called molecular glues.

2. Vehicle DNA or Vector DNA. The DNA used as a carrier for transferring a fragment of foreign DNA
into a suitable host is called vehicle or vector DNA.
You know that plasmids and bacteriophages have the ability to replicate within bacterial cells
independent of the control of chromosomal DNA.
The following are the features that are required to facilitate cloning into a vector.
(i) Origin of replication (ori) : This is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA
when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate within the host cells. This sequence is also
responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA. So, if one wants to recover many
copies of the target DNA it should be cloned in a vector whose origin support high copy number.
(ii) Selectable marker : In addition to 'ori', the vector requires a selectable marker. Normally, the genes
encoding resistance to antibiotics such as ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or kanamycin,
etc., are considered useful selectable markers for E. coli.
(iii) Cloning sites : In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs, recognition sites for the commonly
used restriction enzymes. The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in one
of the two antibiotic resistance genes.

Examples of Vectors commonly used in RDT :

(A) Plasmids (0.5 – 8 kb insert size) :
These are extra chromosomal, circular, non-essential, double- stranded, autonomous, self-replicating
pieces of DNA in bacterial and some yeast cells. They may confer the property of antibiotic resistance
(bacteria) and virulence (Ti plasmid in Agrobacterium tumefaciens).

Fig. : [Link] cloning vector pBR322 showing restriction sites (Hind III, EcoR I, BamH I, Sal I, Pvu II,
Pst I, Cla I), ori and antibiotic resistance genes (ampR and tetR) Rop codes for the proteins involved in
the replication of the plasmid.

Following is the explanation of the name pBR322 :

p – Plasmid
BR – Boliver and Rodriguez
322 – Distinguishes this plasmid from others developed in the same laboratory.
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(B) Bacteriophage (9 – 23 kb insert size) :
It is a virus that infects bacteria and has the ability to replicate within bacterial cells independent of the
control of chromosomal DNA.
Bacteriophages, because of their high number per cell, have very high copy number of their genome
within the bacterial cell.
Several bacteriophages are being used as cloning vectors. E.g. :- Lambda () phage vector

(C) Artificial chromosome

BAC Vector (50 – 300 kb insert size) YAC Vector (1000 – 2500 kb insert size)
(D) Transposons : These are unit of DNA which can move from one DNA molecule to another.
(E) Retroviruses : These viruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into cancerous cells.
Similarly retroviruses have also been disarmed and are now used to deliver desirable genes into animal
cells. So, once a gene or a DNA fragment has been ligated into a suitable vector it is transferred into a
bacterial plant or animal host (where it multiplies).

Exercise 1.2
1. The tumour inducing capacity of Agrobacterium 6. Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering
tumefaciens is located in large extrachromosomal became possible due to the discovery of :−
plasmid and called : (1) Restriction endonuclease
(1) Ti - plasmid (2) Ri - plasmid
(2) DNA ligase
(3) Lambda phage (4) pBR322 Plasmid
(3) Transcriptase
2. Which of the following statements about (4) Primase
restriction endonucleases is not true ?
(1) The enzymes are natural products of bacteria 7. Hind II always cut DNA molecules at particular
(2) The enzymes cut DNA at defined sequences point by recognising a specific base sequence
(3) The enzymes cut only single-stranded of:
DNA molecules (1) 4 base pair
(4) The enzymes are named because they (2) 8 base pair
restrict the growth of bacteriophage
(3) 6 base pair
3. Which vector is commonly used in the (4) 2 base pair
transfer of gene in a crop plant -
(1) Plasmids of B. Subtilis 8. What is the source of the Ti (Tumor inducing)
(2) Bacteriophages plasmid which is modified and used as a
(3) Ti-plasmids cloning vector to deliver the desirable genes
(4) E. Coli Phages into plant cells ?
4. In EcoRI, R is stand for (1) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(1) Strain (2) Species (2) Thermophilus aquaticus
(3) Genus (4) Order (3) Pyrococcus furiosus
5. Restriction enzymes (4) Aedes aegypti
(1) Are endonucleases which cleave DNA at 9. In nature, the function of restriction enzymes
specific sites
is to :
(2) Make DNA complementary to an existing
(1) To cut plasmids
DNA or RNA
(3) Cut or join DNA fragments (2) Destroy bacteriophage DNA
(4) Are required in vector less direct gene (3) Join DNA in a cell
transfer. (4) Destroy foreign DNA in animal cells
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10. What is true for plasmid? 17. A suitable vector for gene cloning in higher
(1) Plasmids are widely used in gene transfer animals is
(2) These are found in viruses (1) Baculovirus
(3) Plasmid contains gene for vital activities (2) Retrovirus
(4) These are main part of chromosome (3) Salmonella typhimurium
11. In recombinant DNA technology, the term (4) Neurospora crassa
vectors refers to −
18. Restriction enzyme EcoR I cuts the DNA
(1) The enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction
fragments between bases G and A only when the
(2) The sticky end of a DNA fragment sequence in DNA is:-
(3) A plasmid used to transfer DNA into a (1) GATATC (2) GAATTC
living cell (3) GATTCC (4) GAACTT
(4) A DNA probe used to identify a particular
19. For a DNA to function as a cloning vector the
gene
most essential requirement is :-
12. Which of the following enzyme is used in (1) Multiple restriction sites
case of fungus to cause release of DNA along (2) Several selectable markers
with other macromolecules ?
(3) Circular nature
(1) Lysozyme (2) Cellulase
(4) 'ori' sequence
(3) Chitinase (4) Amylase
13. Restriction enzymes are :- 20. Second letter of the name of restriction
(1) Not always required in genetic engineering endonuclease came from the
(2) Essential tool in genetic engineering (1) Genus of organism
(3) Nucleases that cleave DNA at specific sites (2) Species of organism
(4) Both (2) and (3) (3) Family of organism
14. In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible (4) Class of organism
for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in 21. The restriction enzyme ECO RI has the
Esherichia coli were isolated. They were property of-
_________and ______and respectively
(1) Endonuclease activity
(1) Ligase, Restriction endonuclease
(2) Exonuclease activity
(2) Helicase, Restriction endonuclease
(3) Methylase, Restriction endonuclease (3) Ligation activity
(4) DNA polymerase, Restriction endonuclease (4) Correcting the topology of replicating DNA

15. A bacterium modifies its DNA by adding 22. The stickiness of DNA ends facilitates the
methyl groups to the DNA, it does so to: action of which enzyme −
(1) Clone its DNA (1) DNA polymerase
(2) Be able to transcribe many genes (2) DNA Ligase
simultaneously (3) Restriction endonuclease
(3) Turn its gene on
(4) Alkaline phosphatase
(4) Protect its DNA from its own restriction
enzyme 23. Restriction endonucleases are used in
16. Approximately how many restriction genetic engineering because :-
enzymes have been isolated from the (1) They can degrade harmful proteins
different (over 230) strains of bacteria? (2) They can join DNA fragments
(1) 300 (2) 600 (3) They can cut DNA at variable site
(3) 750 (4) 900 (4) They can cut DNA at specific base sequences
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24. The term "molecular scissors" generally 30. For a plasmid to be a cloning vector, the
refers to: minimum numbers of elements required are
(1) DNA polymerases (1) Origin of replication, multiple cloning
(2) RNA polymerases site and selectable marker
(3) Restriction endonucleases (2) Origin of replication, multiple cloning
(4) DNA ligases site, selectable marker and promoter
(3) Origin of replication, multiple cloning
25. Each restriction endonuclease functions by site, selectable marker and translational
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. It start site
cleaves _______ : (4) Origin of replication, multiple cloning
(1) Only the master strand to produce sticky site and promoter
end
31. Which of the following tools of recombinant
(2) Sense strand of DNA to produce sticky
DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its
ends
use−
(3) Each of the two strands of the double
(1) Restriction enzyme - Production of DNA
helix at specific points in their sugar
fragments
phosphate backbones
(2) DNA ligase-that cuts DNA, creating the
(4) Messenger RNA to remove exons
sticky ends
26. BACs and YACs are :- (3) DNA polymerase - used in a polymerase
(1) Natural DNA obtained from bacteria and chain reaction to amplify section of DNA
yeast (4) Reverse transcriptase - production of
(2) Useful vectors for eukaryotic gene transfer cDNA from mRNA
(3) Artificial DNA obtained from bacteria 32. ROP in plasmid pBR322 stands for ?
and yeast (1) Replication of mitochondria
(4) (2) & (3) both (2) Replication of plasmid
27. pBR-322 which is frequently used as a vector (3) Replication of protein
(4) Reservoir of protein
for cloning gene is −
(1) An original bacterial plasmid 33. The restriction enzyme(s) used in recombinant
(2) A modified bacterial plasmid DNA technology making staggered cuts in
(3) A viral genome DNA leaving sticky ends is/are :-
(4) A transposon (1) EcoRI
(2) HindIII
28. An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides
(3) BamHI
from the ends of DNA is - (4) All of the above
(1) Endonuclease (2) Exonuclease
(3) DNA ligase (4) Hind II 34. Restriction endonucleases :
(1) Are synthesized by bacteria as part of
29. Function of ‘ori’ site in a vector is to : their defense mechanism
(1) Initiate insertional inactivation (2) Are present in mammalian cells for
(2) Initiate replication degradation of DNA when the cell dies
(3) Codes for the proteins involved in (3) Are used in genetic engineering for
replication of the plasmid ligating two DNA molecules
(4) Initiate antibiotic resistance (4) Are used for invitro DNA synthesis
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35. Which of the following statements does not 40. Which of the following restriction endonuclease
hold true for restriction enzyme ? enzyme produces blunt ends -
(1) It recognises a palindromic nucleotide (1) Bam HI GGATCC
sequence CCTAGG

(2) It is an endonuclease
(3) It is isolated from bacteriophages (2) ECORI GAATTC
CTTAAG
(4) It produces the same kind of sticky ends
in different DNA molecules (3) Hae–III G G C C
CCGG
36. The role of DNA ligase in the construction of
a recombinant DNA molecule is (4) All of the above
(1) Formation of phosphodiester bond 41. Which of following feature is not necessary
between two DNA fragments for cloning vector−
(2) Formation of hydrogen bonds between (1) Origin of replication
sticky ends of DNA fragments (2) High copy number
(3) Selectable marker
(3) Ligation of all purine and pyrimidine
(4) Cloning sites
bases
42. ‘‘Restriction’’ in restriction enzymes refers to:
(4) None of the above
(1) Cleaving of phosphodiester bond in DNA
37. Main function of restriction endonuclease by the enzyme
(2) Cutting of DNA at terminal position only
enzyme is :-
(3) Prevention of the multiplication of
(1) Useful in genetic engineering bacteriophage in bacteria
(2) Protects the bacterial DNA against (4) All of the above
foreign DNA
43. Which of the following is not true for cloning
(3) Helpful in transcription vector plasmid :
(4) Helpful in protein synthesis (1) More than two origin site of replication
(2) Vector should have selectable marker gene
38. Agrobacterium tumefaciens used in Genetic (3) Single recognition site for the commonly
engineering for :- used restriction enzyme
(1) DNA-mapping (4) pBR-322 have tetracycline resistance
(2) DNA-modification 44. Which of the following is the example of
(3) Vector chemical scissors −
(4) DNA finger printing (1) Eco - RI (2) Hind - III
(3) BamH - I (4) All the above
39. Plasmid has been used as vector because− 45. Restriction enzymes cut the strands of DNA a
(1) It is circular DNA which have capacity to little away from the centre of the palindromic
join to eukaryotic DNA. site, but between the same two bases on the
(2) It can move between prokaryotic and opposite single stranded strands, these
overhanging stretches formed on each
eukaryotic cells.
strand, are called as.
(3) Both ends show replication. (1) Blunt end (2) Sticky end
(4) It has antibiotic resistance gene. (3) Free end (4) Both (2) and (3)
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Processes of Recombinant DNA Technology :
Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in specific sequence such as
(1) Isolation of desired gene
(a) Isolation of DNA
(b) Cutting of DNA at specific locations by Restriction Endonuclease
(c) Separation and isolation of a desired DNA fragment (Desired Gene)
(2) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
(3) Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector (rDNA formation)
(4) Transferring the recombinant DNA into the host
(5) Selection & screening of recombinant host cells or Genetically altered cell
(6) Culturing the host cells in a nutrient medium at a large scale

(1) Isolation of Desired Gene

(a) Isolation of the Genetic Material (DNA)
Recall that nucleic acid is the genetic material of all organisms without exception. In majority of
organisms this is deoxyribonucleic acid or DNA. In order to cut the DNA with restriction enzymes, it
needs to be in pure form, free from other macro-molecules. Since the DNA is enclosed within the
membranes, we have to break the cell open to release DNA along with other macromolecules such
as RNA, proteins, polysaccharides and also lipids.
This can be achieved by treating the bacterial cells/plant or animal tissue with enzymes such as lysozyme
(bacteria), cellulase (plant cells), chitinase (fungus). You know that genes are located on long molecules
of DNA interwined with proteins such as histones. The RNA can be removed by treatment with
ribonuclease whereas proteins can be removed by treatment with protease. Other molecules can be
removed by appropriate treatments and purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after the addition of
chilled ethanol. This can be seen as collection of fine threads in the suspension (Figure).
Let us examine the procedure in some details..

Fig. DNA that separates out can be removed by spooling

(b) Cutting of DNA at Specific Locations

Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindrome sites, but
between the same two bases on the opposite strands. This leaves single stranded portions at the ends.
There are overhanging stretches called sticky ends on each strand. These are named so because they form
hydrogen bonds with their complementary cut counterparts. This stickiness of the ends facilitates the
action of the enzyme DNA ligase Restriction enzyme digestions are performed by incubating purified DNA
molecules with the restriction enzyme, at the optimal conditions for that specific enzyme. Agarose gel
electrophoresis is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion.
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(c) Separation and isolation of DNA Fragments :
• The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA. These fragments
can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis.
• Since DNA fragments are negative charged molecules they can be separated by forcing them to
move towards the positive electrode anode under an electric field through medium/matrix.

A typical agarose gel electrophoresis showing

migration of undigested (1 ane 1) and digested
of DNA fragments lane 2 to 4

• Nowadays, the most commonly used matrix is agarose which is a natural polymer extracted from sea
weeds.
• The DNA fragments separate (resolve) according to their size through sieving effect provided by the
agarose gel. Hence, the smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves.
• Agarose gel electrophoresis is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion.
This process is repeated with the vector DNA also.
• DNA is a negatively charged molecule, hence it moves towards the positive electrode (anode). The
process is repeated with the vector DNA also.
• DNA is a negatively charged molecule, hence it moves towards the positive electrode (anode). The
process is repeated with the vector DNA also.
The separated DNA fragments can be visualised only after staining the DNA with a compound
known as ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation (you cannot see pure DNA
fragments in the visible light and without staining). You can see bright orange coloured bands of
DNA in a ethidium bromide stained gel exposed to UV light (shown in figure above).

The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. This
step is known as elution. The DNA fragments purified in this way are used in constructing
recombinant DNA by joining them with cloning vectors.

(2) Amplification of Gene of interest using PCR :

PCR stands for polymerase chain reaction. This technique was invented by Kary mullis (1983). In 1993 Karry
Mullis got nobel prize for PCR(for chemistry). PCR is a method for amplifying a specific region of DNA molecule
without the requirement for time consuming cloning procedures. PCR reaction takes place in Eppendrof tube.
Using PCR-technique very low content of DNA available from samples of blood or semen or any other tissue
or hair cell can be amplified many times and analysed. In this technique Taq-Polymerase is used. Taq
polymerase enzyme is used in PCR which is a special type of DNA polymerase enzyme which is resistant to
high temperature. Taq Polymerase is isolated from Thermus aquaticus bacterium.
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How PCR Works ?
Basically, PCR is DNA replication on a larger scale. The polymerase chain reaction relies on the use of
several essential chemical ingredients, including the following basic requirement:
(i) Small amount of DNA to serve as the initial template (nanograms.)
(ii) The four deoxyribonucleotides to serve as the substrates for the DNA polymerase and the
raw ingredients of the new DNA molecules.
(iii) A few necessary ions and salts.
(iv) A pair of primers (small chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to the
regions of DNA) with exposed 3'-OH groups that will bind to the particular sequence of interest in
the DNA template.
(v) The DNA polymerases, which can only add new nucleotides to the 3'–OH end of growing strand.
They, therefore, require the presence of a DNA primer to get started.
A major limitation of early PCR method was that fresh DNA polymerase had to be added during every
cycle. This repetitive step was not just tedious, but it also greatly increased the likelihood of error.
Mullis and colleagues addressed this deficiency just a year later when they demonstrated how a
particular type of thermostable DNA polymerase often referred to by its popular nickname' Taq
polymerase, a heat-resistant enzyme isolated from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus, eliminated the
need to add fresh polymerase during life cycle. Thermus aquaticus is a thermophilic bacterium that can
survive temperatures up to 95°C. In fact, its natural habitat is the hot spring ecosystem of Yellowstone
National Park. This innovation greatly improved the quantity and quality of PCR products.
Main steps in PCR :-
A single PCR reaction involves three temperature-dependent steps, described as follows :
(i) Denaturation (ii) Annealing (iii) Extension
(i) Denaturation : The starting solution is heated, usually to 94°C. The high temperatures break the hydrogen bonds
between the two strands of the original DNA double helix, providing the necessary single-stranded templates.
(ii) Annealing : After just a couple of minutes at that temperature, the reaction mixture is quickly cooled,
usually to somewhere between 50° and 60°C. It is then held for less than a minute at
this lower temperature – which is enough time for the primers to bind to their complementary
sequences on the single-stranded templates.
(iii) Primer extension (polymerisation) : The sample is next heated to 72°C for sometime, during which time
the DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the primer, synthesizing a new DNA strand using only the
template sequences that bind the primers (shown in figure below).

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If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of DNA can be amplified to
approximately billion times, i.e., 1 billion copies are made at the end of 30 PCR cycles. It is possible to
generate '2n' molecules after 'n' number of cycles.
The amplified fragment if desired can now be used to ligate with a vector for further cloning.
(3) Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vectors (rDNA formation)
The joining of DNA involves several processes. After having cut the source DNA as well as the vector
DNA with a specific restriction enzyme, the cut out ‘gene of interest’ from the source DNA and the cut
vector with space are mixed and ligase is added. This results in the preparation of recombinant DNA.

(4) Insertion of Recombinant DNA (Gene transfer) into the Host Cell/Organism
Transfer of desired genes from one organism into another is an important aspect of genetic engineering.
Gene transfer involves essentially three stages:
(i) Isolating a useful DNA segment from the donor organism.
(ii) Inserting it to a suitable vector.
(iii) Splicing of this altered DNAs into a recipient organism or host cell.
The cell to begin making the appropriate product and then device an economical method for it's
mass production.
Gene transfer is achieved by two kinds of transfer methods:
(i) Indirect method through vectors or carriers and
(ii) Direct or vector less transfer method.
(iii) Gene Transfer Through Vectors. Plasmids and viruses are commonly used vectors for the transfer
of desired genes. The desired genes are first made to join suitable plasmid or virus which are then
introduced into the target cells.
In Bacteria
There are several methods of introducing the ligated DNA into recipient cells. Recipient cells after
making them 'competent' to receive, take up DNA present in its surrounding.
Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes. In order to force bacteria
to take up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be made 'competent' to take up DNA. This is done
by treating them with a specific concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium, which increases
the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall. Possibly, calcium
chloride causes the DNA to precipitate onto the outside of the cells or it may improve DNA binding
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Transformation :
Recombinant DNA can then be forced into such cells by incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on
ice. Followed by placing them briefly at 42°C (heat shock), and then putting them back on ice. This
enables the bacteria to take up the recombinant DNA.

This method is transformation i.e. a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced into a host
bacterium.
So, if a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to an antibiotic (e.g. ampicillin) is transferred
into E. Coli cells, the host cells become transformed into ampicillin-resistant cells.
If we spread the transformed cells on agar plates containing ampicillin, only transformants will grow,
untransformed recipient cells will die. Since, one is able to select a transformed cell in the presence of
ampicillin, the ampicillin-resistance gene in this case is called as selectable marker.

In Plants
• A plant pathogenic bacterium-Agrobacterium tumefaciens produces crown galls or plant tumours
in almost all dicotyledonous plants. This bacterium infects all broad leaved agricultural crops such
as tomato, soyabean, sunflower and cotton but not cereales. Tumour formation is induced by it's
plasmid which is therefore called Ti plasmid (Ti for tumour inducing)
Agrobacterium tumefaciens naturally transfers some part of Ti-plasmid in to host plant DNA
without any human effort so it is called natural genetic engineer of plant.
Agrobacterium tumifaciens, a pathogen of several dicot plants deliver a piece of DNA known as 'T-DNA'
to transform normal plant cells into a tumour. Similarly, retroviruses in animals have the ability to
transform normal cells into cancerous cells. A better understanding of the art of delivering genes by
pathogens in their eukaryotic hosts has generated knowledge to transform these tools of pathogens into
useful vectors for delivering genes of interest to humans. The tumour inducing (Ti) plasmid of
Agrobacterium tumifaciens has now been modified into a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to
the plants but is still able to use the mechanisms to deliver genes (disarmed) and are now used to deliver
desirable genes into animal cells. So, once a gene or a DNA fragment has been ligated into a suitable
vector it is transferred into a bacterial, plant or animal host (where it multiplies).

Special Point
First transgenic plant was tobacco. It contains resistant gene against herbicide
(Glycophosate and sulphonyl urea).

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In Animals
• It's very complicated process.
• Mostly done in zygotic or embryonic cells.
• Commonly vector like retroviruses are used for Gene transfer.
In animals, the genes are transferred mostly through direct methods such as electroporation,
microinjection or using particle gun.
The desired foreign genes can be introduced into fertilised eggs or embryos through microinjection.
These transgenic eggs or embryos can be implanted into the uterus of another female, called
surrogate (foster) mother for their further development.
Special Point
First transgenic animal was mouse contain gene for growth hormone. This enlarged mouse
was known as Supermouse.

(ii) Vectorless Gene Transfer :

Foreign genes can also be transferred directly by the following methods:
(a) Electroporation- It creates transients (temporary pores) in the plasma membrane to facilitate
entry of foreign DNA.
(b) Microinjection- It is the introduction of foreign genes into plant or animal cells using micropipettes
or glass needles.
(c) Particle gun/Biolistic method- It is a technique in which tungsten or gold particles coated with
foreign DNA are bombarded into target cells to facilitate entry of the foreign genes.

(5) Selection or screening or identification of recombinants.

Selection using Antibiotic resistance : The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site
present in one of the two antibiotic resistance genes. For example, you can ligate a foreign DNA at the
BamH I site of tetracycline resistance gene in the vector pBR322. The recombinant plasmids will lose
tetracycline resistance due to insertion of foreign DNA but can still be selected out from non-
recombinant ones by plating the transformant on ampicillin-containing medium. The transformant
growing on ampicillin-containing medium are then transferred on a medium containing tetracycline.
The recombinants will grow in ampicillin-containing both medium but not on that containing
tetracycline. But, non-recombinants will grow on the medium containing both the antibiotics.

In this case, one antibiotic resistance gene helps in selecting the transformants, whereas the other
antibiotic resistance gene gets "inactivated due to insertion" of alien DNA and helps in selection of
recombinants.
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Disadvantage of pBR322 : Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is a cumbersome

procedure because it requires simultaneous plating on two plates having different antibiotics.
Overcoming the disadvantage of pBR322 by using another plasmid pUC18/19.
Advantage :
(1) Higher copy number (500-700)
(2) Identification of recombinant cells achieved by a single step i.e., plating cells onto agar medium
containing ampicillin and X-gal (chromogenic substrate for -galactosidase enzyme encoded by lac Z).
Blue/white selection :
Alternative selectable marker in pUC18 plasmid differentiates recombinants from non- recombinants
on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. In this, a
recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme, -galactosidase. This results
into inactivation of the enzyme. Which is referred to as insertional inactivation. The presence of a
chromogenic substrate gives blue- coloured colonies if the plasmid in the bacteria does not have an
insert. Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the -galactosidase and the colonies
do not produce any colour, these are identified as recombinant colonies.
(6) Culturing the Host Cells in a Nutrient Medium at a Large Scale for Obtaining the Foreign
Gene product
The ultimate aim of RDT is to produce a desirable protein in large quantities. For this, expression of
protein is essential and to enhance the production of desired protein, inducers are employed that can
increases the production of targeted protein or gene of interest.
If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host it is called a recombinant protein.
Expression of human insulin gene with a vector in [Link] is a suitable example when the bacteria serves
as a heterologous host. Moving from a laboratory scale to an industrial scale presents new problems
for biotechnologists. For any new biotechnological manufacturing processes, it must be tried out on a
laboratory scale. The cell harbouring cloned gene of interest may be grown on a small scale in the
laboratory. The culture may be used for extracting the desired protein and then purifying it by using
different separation techniques.
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Industrial utilization of biotechnology involve three steps :
[i] Laboratory scale process
[ii] Pilot plant scale
[iii] Manufacturing unit
The development from laboratory scale to manufacturing unit is "Scaling up to industrial production"

[i] Laboratory Scale :

In this process for the production of desirable product, proper micro organism searched and then
suitable strain is selected and multiplied. Proper medium also find out on which selected strain,
produce best and more amount of product.
Many number of experiments performed in lab for the analysis and selection of strains and medium. All
the equipment are utilized in lab i.e., glass apparatus.
All the parameters of the process worked out and precaution are also not down for the smooth running
of process such as – proper sterilization of nutrient and microbes strain, required - pH, suitable aerator,
disposal of CO2 if evolved, temperature, by product or product inhibition or stimulation, time of
optimum production, separation of product and its purification etc. Ultimately, the laboratory scale
process finalized and transfer at pilot plant scale.

[ii] Pilot plant Scale :

It is the intermediate stage where working of laboratory scale process is tested. At this stage cost and
quality of product throughly checked. Glass apparatus are replaced by stainless steel
equipment/containers is called "bio reactor" or "Fermenters".
To produce in large quantities, the development of bioreactors. where large volumes (100-1000 litres)
of culture can be processed, was required. Thus, bioreactors can be thought of as vessels in which raw
materials are biologically converted into specific products, individual enzymes, etc., using microbial
plant, animal or human cells. A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the desired
product by providing optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts, vitamins, oxygen).
The most commonly used bioreactors are of stirring type

Fig. (a) Simple stirred-tank bioreactor, (b) Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor through which sterile air
bubbles are sparged.
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A stirred-tank reactor is usually cylindrical or with a curved base to facilitate the mixing of the reactor
contents. The stirrer facilitates even mixing and oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.
Alternatively air can be bubbled through the reactor. The bioreactor has an agitator system, an oxygen
delivery system and a foam control system, a temperature control system, pH control system and
sampling parts so that small volumes of the culture can be withdrawn periodically.
The product is either the cells themselves (biomass) or some useful cell product. All preparation must
be carried out under sterile conditions to avoid contamination of the culture.
Types of Fermentation :
(i) Batch fermentation (Closed system)
(ii) Continuous culture (Open system)
In batch fermentation the conditions are set up and not changed from outside once the fermentation
starts; for example, no more nutrients are added. This is why the process is described as closed system.
The process is stopped once sufficient product has been formed. The contents of the fermenter are then
removed, the product isolated, the microorganism discarded and the fermenter is cleaned and set up
for a fresh batch.
In continuous culture system, the used medium is drained out from one side, while fresh medium is
added from other to maintain the cells in their physiologically most active log exponential phase. This
type of culture method produces a larger biomass leading to higher yields of desired protein.
Small volume cultures (in shake flasks) cannot yield appreciable quantities of products.
Continuous culture involves continuous, long-term operation over many weeks, during which nutrient
medium is added as fast as it is used, and the overflow is harvested.
• Maintaining aseptic conditions. It is easy to contaminate both inputs and outputs to the main
fermenter.
• Physical factors, such as mixing and aerating the media and getting rid of waste heat, create the
biggest problems in moving from one scale to another.
• To supply enough oxygen in large-scale cultures, air must be forced through the medium because
the simple agitation used at the laboratory scale is inadequate. Small bubbles are more effective
than large bubbles, so a sparger is used (a tube with small holes.). The mixture may also be stirred.
• Anti-foaming agents are required to reduce the foaming caused by stirring and aeration.
• Heat is produced by the activity of microorganisms and large-scale production. Cooling water
must be circulated around the fermenter.
• To keep conditions constant, such as supply of nutrients, pH and oxygen concentration,
throughout the medium on a large scale. Sophisticated monitoring devices and control
processes are needed Micro organisms can be grown in bioreactors in two ways :
(a) Support growth system – In this method microorganisms are growing as a thin layer or film
in the solid medium.
(b) Suspended growth system – By suspending cells or mycelia in the liquid medium is called
suspended growth system.
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[iii] Industrial Scale –
At this stage very large sized bioreactors are used and a permanent manufacturing unit is established.

Downstream Processing –
After completion of the biosynthetic stage, the product has to be subjected through a series of processes
before it is ready for marketing as a finished product. The processes include separation and purification,
which are collectively referred to as downstream processing. The product has to be formulated with suitable
preservatives. Such formulation has to undergo through clinical trials as in case of drugs. Strict quality
control testing for each product is also required. The downstream processing quality control testing vary
from product to product.
Exercise 1.3
1. Polymerase chain reaction technology (PCR- 3. Which of the following enzyme will get
technique) is used for : inactivated due to insertional inactivation
(1) DNA identification (1) Transacetylase
(2) DNA repair
(2) Permease
(3) DNA amplification
(4) Cleave DNA (3) β-galactosidase
(4) Taq-polymerase
2. What would happen if a recombinant DNA is
inserted within the coding sequence of an 4. Gel electrophoresis is used for :
enzyme, - galactosidase? (1) Isolation of DNA molecule
(1) This will result in the inactivation of the (2) Cutting of DNA into fragments
gene
(3) Separation of DNA fragments according
(2) The presence of chromogenic substrate
will give blue coloured colonies. to their size
(3) The colonies do not produce any colour (4) Construction of recombinant DNA by
(4) Both (1) & (3) are correct. joining with cloning vectors
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5. Two microbes found to be very useful in 11. Which of the following method can be used
genetic engineering are − for making the bacterial cell 'competent' ?
(1) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium (1) Treating with specific concentration of
tumefaciens divalent cation (Ca2+).
(2) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage (2) Treating with specific concentration of
(3) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp. monovalent cation (K+)
(4) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis (3) Heat shock
elegans (4) Both (1) and (3)
6. Which of the following is not correct about 12. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed
pBR322 vector? by temperature they are in order of:-
(1) It was constructed by using DNA derived (1) Denaturation, Annealing, Synthesis
from naturally occurring plasmids of E (2) Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation
coli. (3) Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation
(2) It has two drug resistance genes-tetR and (4) Denaturation, Synthesis, Annealing
ampR.
13. After completion of biosynthetic stage, the
(3) It was developed by Bolivar and Rodriguez.
separation and purification of product is called:-
(4) Selectable markers present in it can
(1) Upstream processing
differentiate recombinants from non-
recombinants on the basis of their inability (2) Downstream processing
to produce colour in the presence of (3) Modern biotechnology
chromogenic substrate. (4) Sterilization
14. Property of DNA by which it cannot pass
7. Insertional inactivation of a gene helps in
(1) Identification of recombinant clones through cell membranes.
(2) Identification of deletion mutants (1) Hydrophilic nature
(3) Identification of suppressor mutants (2) Hydrophobic nature
(4) Elimination of recombinant clones (3) Amphipathic nature
(4) Amphiphilic nature
8. Which of the following is the example of
direct gene transfer :- 15. DNA fragments are _(A)_ charged molecules.
(1) Microinjection (2) Electroporation They can be separated by forcing them to
(3) Particle gun (4) All the above move towards _(B)_ under an electric field
through a medium. This technique is known
9. For transformation with recombinant DNA, as _(C)_ -
the bacterial cells must first be made (1) A - +ve, B - cathode, C - gel electrophoresis
'competent' which means : (2) A - –ve, B - anode, C - gel electrophoresis
(1) Should increase their catalytic activity (3) A - – ve, B - cathode, C – gel electrophoresis
(2) Should decrease their metabolic reactions (4) A - +ve, B - anode, C - gel electrophoresis
(3) Increases efficiency with which DNA
enters the bacterium 16. Which one of the following has found
(4) Ability to divide fast extensive use in genetic engineering work in
plants :
10. Which of the given statements is correct in (1) Bacillus coagulens
the context of observing DNA separated by (2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
agarose gel electrophoresis? (3) Clostridium septicum
(1) DNA can be seen in visible light (4) Xanthomonas citri
(2) DNA can be seen without staining in
visible light 17. The microinjection of desired genes from other
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be organism into fertilized eggs of animals results
seen in visible light in ?
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be (1) Cloned animal (2) Free Martins
seen under exposure to UV light (3) Transgenic animals (4) Twins
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18. Biolistics is suitable for: 25. Electroporation procedure involves:
(1) DNA finger printing (1) Fast passage of food through sieve pores
(2) Transformation of plant cells in phloem elements with the help of
(3) Disarming pathogen vectors electric stimulation.
(4) Transformation of Animal cell (2) Opening of stomatal pores during night
by artificial light
19. In gel electrophoresis DNA fragments (3) Making transient pores in the cell wall to
separate according to their size through a introduce desired gene
effect provided by the agarose gel named as : (4) Purification of saline water with the help
(1) Spacing effect (2) Electric effect of a membrane system.
(3) Seiving effect (4) Conduction effect
26. In r-DNA technology or genetic engineering
20. The multiplication of any alien piece of DNA elution means −
in an organism needs to be a part of a (1) Remove the DNA from centrifuge tube
chromosome as these chromosomes : after centrifugation
(1) Provide protein factor for replication (2) The separated band of DNA are cut out
(2) Gives energy units for their survival from the gel and extracted from the gel
(3) Provide origin of replication (ori-site) piece
(3) Separation of the recombinant protein
(4) Provide protein for the protection of alien
from recombinant cell
piece of DNA
(4) Insertion of recombinant DNA into the
21. During heat shock to the bacterium, the host cell.
temperature used for giving thermal shock
27. How many copies of DNA sample are
as:
produced in PCR technique after 6−cycle:-
(1) 82°C (2) 109°C
(1) 4 (2) 32
(3) Liquid nitrogen (4) 42°C (3) 64 (4) 16
22. A piece of nucleic acid using to find out a 28. During gel electrophoresis for separation of
gene, by forming hybrid with it, is called as : DNA fragment
(1) c – DNA (1) Smallest fragment will move to the
(2) DNA probe farthest point towards cathode
(3) Sticky end (2) Smallest fragment will move to the
(4) Blunt end farthest point towards anode
(3) Largest fragment will move to the
23. Significance of 'heat shock' method in
farthest point towards cathode
bacterial transformation is to facilitate (4) Largest fragment will move to the
(1) Binding of DNA to the cell wall farthest point towards anode
(2) Uptake of DNA through membrane
transport proteins. 29. In the PCR technology the DNA segment is
replicated over a billion times. This repeated
(3) Uptake of DNA through transient pores in
replications catalyzed by the enzyme :
the bacterial cell wall
(1) DNA polymerase
(4) Expression of antibiotic resistance gene.
(2) Taq polymerase
24. Thermal cycle takes place in which technique (3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(1) Gel electrophoresis (4) Primase
(2) PCR-technique 30. Which of the following is not required in PCR–
(3) Centrifugation (1) DNA primer (2) DNA template
(4) Southern blotting (3) RNA primer (4) Taq polymerase
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31. If we ligate a foreign DNA at the Bam HI site 38. Production of a human protein in bacteria by
of tetracycline resistance gene in pBR322 the genetic engineering is possible because
recombinant plasmid will : (1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA
(1) Show ampicillin resistance only splicing reactions
(2) Show tetracycline resistance (2) The mechanism of gene regulation is
(3) Will grow well on tetracycline containing identical in humans and bacteria
medium (3) The human chromosome can replicate in
(4) Will not grow on ampicillin containing bacterial cell
medium (4) The genetic code is universal

32. Which of the following is not required in the 39. Which of the following represents an
preparation of a recombinant DNA molecule? advantage of growing cells in continuous
(1) Restriction endonuclease culture as compared to a shake flask ?
(2) DNA ligase (1) Cells can be maintained at a constant
(3) DNA fragments physiological state
(4) [Link] (2) Most downstream and upstream processes
33. After electrophoresis, the separated DNA are continuous in nature
fragment can be visualized in ethidium (3) Continuous reactors do not need to be
bromide gel exposed to UV light. These DNA shut down and cleaned regularly
fragments appear as what coloured bands ? (4) All of these
(1) Orange (2) Blue
(3) Silver (4) Green 40. Select the incorrect statement for
continuous culture system :
34. Which of the following has made possible the
(1) In this used medium is drained out from
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
one side while fresh medium is added
(1) Easy availability of DNA template
(2) Availability of synthetic primers from other side
(3) Availability of cheap deoxyribonucleotides (2) In this cells are maintained in their
(4) Availability of 'Thermostable' Taq polymerase physiologically most active lag phase of
growth
35. The thermostable enzymes, 'Taq' polymerase,
(3) It produces larger biomass
isolated from thermophilic bacteria are :
(1) RNA polymerases (4) It shows higher yields of desired product
(2) DNA polymerases 41. Which of the following should be chosen for
(3) Restriction endonucleases best yield if one were to produce a recombinant
(4) DNA ligases
protein in large amounts?
36. The most commonly used bioreactor is of (1) Laboratory flask of largest capacity
stirring type. The stirrer facilitates:- (2) A stirred-tank bioreactor without in-lets
(1) Temperature control and outlets
(2) pH control (3) A continuous culture system
(3) Oxygen availability
(4) Any of the above
(4) Product removal
42. Which technique is used to check the
37. While isolating DNA from bacteria, which of
progression of restriction enzyme digestion–
the following enzymes is not used ?
(1) Lysozyme (1) PCR
(2) Ribonuclease (2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Protease (3) Southern Blotting
(4) Deoxyribonuclease (4) Staining
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43. In recombinant DNA technology, a plasmid 49. In r-DNA technique which of the following
vector is cleaved by: technique is not used in introducing DNA into
(1) Modified DNA ligase host cell :-
(2) A heated alkaline solution (1) Transduction (2) Conjugation
(3) The same enzyme that cleaves donor DNA (3) Transformation (4) Electroporation
(4) Different enzyme that cleaved the donor DNA 50. PCR–technique is mostly used in :
44. In which type of bioreactor air bubbles (1) Production of transgenic microbes
(2) Production of genetically modified food
dramatically increases the oxygen transfer
(3) Forensic investigation
area?
(4) r-DNA technique
(1) Simple stirred tank bioreactor
(2) Sparged stirred tank bioreactor 51. Transformation is a procedure through which-
(3) Both 1 & 2 (1) A piece of DNA is introduced in a host
(4) None of these bacterium
(2) A piece of DNA is introduced in a vector
45. The almost pure DNA which gets precipitated
(3) A piece of DNA, which forms protein
by chilled ethanol is removed from solution
(4) All
by:
(1) Spooling 52. Term ‘Disarmed’ in disarmed vector represents :-
(2) Elution (1) Inactivation of Ti gene in Ti plasmid
(3) Agarose gel electrophoresis (2) Insertional inactivation of - galactosidase
(4) Scaling gene
(3) Insertional inactivation of antibiotic gene
46. Gene of interest was inserted at site Sal I in (4) Both (2) & (3)
pBR322. The recombinant plasmid will
53. An antibiotic resistance gene of plasmid
exhibit susceptibility to :
vector which get inactivated due to insertion
(1) Tetracycline
of alien DNA, helps in the selection of−
(2) Tetracycline and Ampicillin
(1) Transformants
(3) Ampicillin only
(2) Recombinants
(4) Broad spectrum of antibiotics
(3) Non-Transformants
47. In gel electrophoresis, at which end of the gel (4) (2) & (3) both
the sample is loaded?
54. Which of the following steps are catalysed by
(1) In the wells
Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction?
(2) Towards positive electrode
(1) Denaturation of template DNA
(3) Towards negative electrode (2) Annealing of primers to template DNA
(4) (1) & (3) both (3) Extension of primer end on the template
48. Which of the following step is not involved in DNA
basic steps in genetically modifying an (4) All of the above
organism– 55. After completing the transformation experiment
(1) Identification of DNA with desirable gene involving the coding sequence of enzyme -
(2) Introduction of the identified DNA into galactosidase, the recombinant colonies should:
the host (1) Give blue colour
(3) Amplification of DNA by using PCR (2) Not give blue colour
(4) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host (3) Have active α-galactosidase
and transfer of the DNA to its progeny (4) Both (2) & (3)
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Exercise 2
1. What is the fate of a piece of DNA, which is 4. Match Column-I with Column-II with respect
somehow transferred into an alien organism? to the nomenclature of restriction enzyme
(1) This piece of DNA would not be able to EcoRI and select the correct answer from
multiply itself in the progeny cells of the codes given below:
Column-I Column-II
organism if not integrated into the
(a) E (i) First in order of
genome of the organism.
isolation
(2) If the alien piece of DNA had become a
(b) CO (ii) Name of genus
part of the chromosome, it will replicate. (c) R (iii) Name of species
(3) If the alien piece of DNA is linked with (d) I (iv) Name of strain
origin of replication in chromosome it (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
will replicate. (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) All of the above (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
2. Match column-I with column-II and select
the correct option 5. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment
(gene) of interest, is transferred in the host
Column-I Column-II
cell through a vector. Consider the following
(a) Restriction (i) Hind II four agents (a – d) in this regard and select
endonuclease the correct option of which one or more of
(b) First (ii) Obtained from these can be used as a vector/vectors.
recombinant strain RY13 (a) A bacterium (b) Plasmid
DNA (c) Plasmodium (d) Bacteriophage
(c) First restriction (iii) Discovered in (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (b), and (d) (4) Only (a)
endonuclease 1963
(d) EcoRl (iv) Developed in 6. What are the properties of a good vector?
1972 (a) It should have more than one ‘ori’
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (b) It should be able to replicate autonomously
(c) It should have suitable marker genes
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(d) It should not be easy to isolate and purify
3. Match column I with column II, and choose (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
the correct combination from the options (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
given below. 7. Two purified DNA samples A and B contain
Column-I Column-II equal number of base pairs. Each of these
(a) Hind II (i) Recognition DNA samples has one site each for EcoRI and
sequence BamHI restriction enzymes. Complete digestion
with both the enzymes yielded 3 DNA bands
(b) pBR322 (ii) Restriction
and 2 DNA bands respectively for A and B upon
enzyme electrophoresis of the digestion products.
(c) GAATTC (iii) Antibiotic Which one of the following explains the
resistance gene observation ?
(d) ampR (iv) Cloning vector (1) A is circular DNA and B is linear
(2) B is circular DNA and A is linear
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) A is circular DNA and B could be linear or
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
circular
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (4) B is circular DNA and A could be linear or
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv circular
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8. Match the following: 11. Identify the correct set of statements:
(a) Cellulase (i) Fungi (a) Origin of replication is responsible for
(b) Chitinase (ii) Bacteria initiating replication.
(c) Lysozyme (iii) Plants (b) DNA ligase acts on cut DNA molecules
and joins their ends.
(d) Ribonuclease (iv) RNA
(c) Plasmid is autonomously replicating
(1) (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iv), (d-iii)
circular extra chromosomal DNA.
(2) (a-iii), (b-i), (c-iv), (d-ii)
(d) More than 900 restriction enzymes that
(3) (a-i), (b-ii), (c-iii), (d-iv)
have been isolated from over 230 strains
(4) (a-iii), (b-i), (c-ii), (d-iv) of bacteria.
9. Select the correct combination : Choose the correct answer from options
given below:
1
2 (1) a and c only
3
4
(2) b, c and d only
(3) a, c and d only
Well 1 DNA + EcoR-I (a)
(4) a, b, c and d all
Well 2 DNA + Sal-I (b)
Well 3 DNA + Hind III (c) 12. Identify the correct set of statements:
Well 4 DNA + Bam HI (d) (a) In gel electrophoresis, the most commonly
Highest Restriction Lack of restriction
maximum
used matrix is agarose.
site forassociated Minimum or no site for associated
restriction DNA Digestion restriction
restriction
(b) Plasmids and bacteriophages do not have
site are of
Endonuclease endonuclease
(1) Well-2 Well-3 Well-4 (a)
the ability to replicate within bacterial cells.
(2)
(3)
Well-2
Well-2
Well-3
Well-3
Well-3
Well-3
(b)
(c)
(c) Transformation is a procedure through
(4) Well-4 Well-3 Well-3 (d) which a piece of DNA is introduced in a
10. Read the following statements and select the host bacterium.
correct ones : Choose the correct answer from options
(i) Same kind of sticky ends are produced given below:
(1) a and b only
when a DNA has been cut by different
(2) a and c only
restriction enzymes.
(3) b and c only
(ii) Exonucleases makes cuts at specific
(4) a, b and c
position within the DNA.
(iii) Hind II was the first restriction 13. Identify the enzyme X and Y ?
endonuclease to be isolated.
(iv) A bacteriophage has the ability to
replicate within bacterial cells by
integrating its DNA with bacterial DNA.
(v) Presence of more than one types of
recognition sites within the vector
facilitates the gene cloning.
(1) (i), (iii) and (v) (1) X = Sma I, Y = DNA ligase
(2) (i) and (iv) (2) X = Bam HI, Y = RNA ligase
(3) (iv) and (v) (3) X = Eco RI, Y = DNA ligase
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) X = Hind III, Y = RNA ligase
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14. Match the following columns. 17. The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid has now
Column-I Column-II been modified into a cloning vector which is
(a) Biolistics (i) Animal cell no more pathogenic to the plants but is still
(b) Micro-injection (ii) Bacterial cell able to use the mechanisms to deliver genes
(c) T-DNA (iii) Plant cell of our interest into a variety of plants
(d) Electroporation (iv) Agrobacterium because Ti plasmid has been modified by:
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (1) Adding tumor forming genes
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) Inactivating tumor forming genes
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (3) Adding genes resistant to endonucleases
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (4) Deleting endonuclease

15. Match the following columns. 18. Match column - I with column - II and select
Column-I Column-II the correct option.
(a) Selectable marker (i) PCR Column-I Column-II
(b) Amplification of (ii) -galactosidase (a) Southern (i) Running of DNA
DNA blotting fragments in gel

(c) Insertional (iii) Transformation (b) Gel (ii) Cutting of DNA into
electrophoresis fragments
inactivation
(c) Cleavage (iii) Transfer of DNA
(d) Disarmed (iv) Antibiotic
fragment from gel to
pathogen resistance
nitrocellulose
gene membrane
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (d) DNA probing (iv) Searching for desired
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i DNA fragments
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (1) (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv)
16. Match the following columns. (3) (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii)
Column-I Column-II (4) (a)-(i); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)
(a) Thermostable (i) DNA ligase
19. Match Column-I with Column-II and select
DNA
the correct option.
polymerase
Column-I Column-II
(b) Joining the (ii) Bioreactors
DNA (a) PCR (i) Thermus
molecules aquaticus
(c) Large scale (iii) Heterologous (b) Taq DNA (ii) Plasmid
production of host polymerase
products (c) Extrachromosomal (iii) Amplification
(d) Recombinant (iv) Taq polymerase DNA
protein (d) Ethidium bromide (iv) DNA staining
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (1) (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iv)
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (2) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii)
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (3) (a)-(i); (b)-(iii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii)
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (4) (a)-(i); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)
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20. The characteristics of a molecular probe are 23. Identify the correct set of statements :
I. Very long molecule (a) When different DNAs are cut by same
II. Double-stranded restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA
fragments have the same kind of sticky ends.
III. DNA or RNA
(b) The separated bands of DNA are cut out
IV. Complementary to a part of desired gene
from the agarose gel and extracted from
The correct pair is the gel piece. This step is known as elution.
(1) I and II (c) The RNA can removed by treatment with
(2) II and III protease.
(3) III and IV (d) If any protein encoding gene is expressed
in a heterologous host it is called a
(4) IV and I
recombinant protein.
21. Which of the following is a key difference Choose the correct answer from options
between the production of transgenic given below:
(1) a and b only (2) b, c and d only
animals and transgenic plants ?
(3) a, b and d only (4) a and d only
(1) Transgenic animals have all of their cells
transformed, while transgenic plants 24. The basic procedure involved in the synthesis
of recombinant DNA molecule is depicted
have only a few of their cells transformed
below. The mistake in the procedure is :
(2) Transgenic animals have only a few of
their cells transformed, while transgenic
plants have all of their cells transformed
(3) Transgenic animals cannot be
regenerated from somatic cells, while
transgenic plants can be regenerated
(4) Transgenic animals can be regenerated
(1) Enzyme polymerase is not included
from somatic cells, while transgenic (2) The mammalian DNA is shown double
plants cannot stranded
(3) Only one fragment is inserted
22. What happens when DNA fragment is
(4) Two different restriction enzymes are used
inserted in to plasmid pBR322 using enzyme
25. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for
Pvu-I or Pst-I ?
ampicillin resistance is transferred into [Link]
(a) Inactivation of ampR gene
cells and the host cells are spread on agar
(b) Inactivation of tetR gene plates containing ampicillin then :
(c) Unable to grow in presence of ampicillin (1) Both transformed and untransformed
(d) Unable to grow in presence of tetracycline recipient cells will die
(e) Unable to replicate (2) Both transformed and untransformed
(1) b and d are correct cells will grow.
(3) Transformed recipient cell will grow and
(2) a and c are correct
untransformed recipient cell will die.
(3) a, c and e are correct (4) Transformed recipient cell will die and
(4) b, d and e are correct untransformed recipient cell will grow.
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26. A bacterial cell was transformed with a 29. Which of the following is an advantage of
recombinant DNA that was generated using a bioreactor which uses continuous culture
human gene. However, the transformed cells system rather than batch culture ?
did not produce the desired protein. Reasons (1) The transformed recombinant cells are
could be : allowed to grow in a large bioreactor till
(1) Human gene may have intron which the maximum amount of biochemical has
bacteria cannot process been formed
(2) Amino acid codons for humans and (2) The bioreactor has to be emptied, cleaved
bacteria are different and filled again with culture medium and
(3) Human protein is formed but degraded by
inoculum
bacteria
(3) There is regular drainage of the medium
(4) All of the above
and culture cells from one side and
27. Match the following columns additional fresh medium from the other
Column-I Column-II side leading to higher yield of desired
(a) Making multiple copies (i) Biotechnology product
of any template DNA
(4) It provides required growth conditions
(b) Technique to alter the (ii) Elution
(temperature, pH, substrate, salts,
chemistry of genetic
material vitamins and oxygen)
(c) Technique of using live (iii) Cloning 30. Identify the diagrams A and B:
organisms or enzymes
to produce products
(d) Separate bands of DNA (iv) Genetic
are cut from agarose engineering
gel
(1) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
28. Match the following columns.
Column-I Column-II
(a) Biosynthetic (i) Increased surface
stage area for oxygen
transfer
(b) Downstream (ii) Large-scale
processing production in the
fermenter
(c) Sparged (iii) With foam breaker (1) A = Sparged-tank bioreactor; B = Stirred
stirred tank and flat bladed tank bioreactor;
bioreactor impeller (2) A = Stirred-tank bioreactor; B = Stirred
(d) Simple (iv) Separation tank bioreactor;
stirred tank and purification (3) A = Sparged-tank bioreactor; B = Sparged
bioreactor tank bioreactor;
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii (4) A = Stirred-tank bioreactor; B = Sparged
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i stirred-tank bioreactor;
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31. Match Column-I with Column-II and select 34. Arrange the following process in the
the correct option- sequence it is used in rDNA technology
Column-I Column-II (a) Isolation of DNA
(a) Recombinant (i) Vector (b) Fragmentation of DNA by restriction enzyme
DNA (c) Isolation of desired DNA fragment
technology (d) Ligation of DNA fragment into vector
(b) Cloning vehicles (ii) Sealing enzyme (e) Transferring rDNA into host
(f) Culturing host cells in a medium at large scale
(c) Macromolecular (iii) Electrophoresis
(g) Extraction of the desired product
separation
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g)
(d) DNA ligase (iv) Genetic
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d), (f), (e), (g)
engineering
(3) (b), (a), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g)
(1) (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (e), (d), (f), (g)
(2) (a)-(i); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii) 35. Which steps are involved in genetically
(4) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii) modifying an organism?
(A) Identification of desirable DNA
32. Match Column-I with Column-II and select (B) Insertion of DNA into the host
the correct option. (C) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host
Column-I Column-II (D) Isolation of recombinant protein
(a) Primers (i) PCR (1) A and B (2) B and C
(b) Separation and (ii) C2H5OH (3) A, B, and C (4) A, B, C, and D
purification of
36. Downstream process includes :
products
I. Separation of the product from the reactor.
(c) Precipitation of (iii) Uptake of foreign
II. Purification of the product.
DNA DNA by bacterium
III. Formation of the product with suitable
(d) Transformation (iv) Downstream
preservatives.
processing
IV. Quality control testing and clinical trials
(1) (a)-(i); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(iii) in case of drugs processing
(2) (a)-(ii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(iii) Which of the statements given above are correct:
(3) (a)-(iv); (b)-(i); (c)-(iii); (d)-(ii) (1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV
(4) (a)-(iii); (b)-(i); (c)-(iv); (d)-(ii) (3) II, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
33. A plasmid that will express a eukaryotic
37. Which of the following statements are incorrect.
protein X in [Link] should contain
(i) Genetic engineering is also called recombinant
P. Origin of replication
DNA technology.
Q. Promoter (ii) Bacteriophage is not used as vector.
R. High copy number (iii) MALAYALAM is a palindrome.
S. Antibiotic-resistance gene (iv) Ethidium bromide cannot be used for
T. Genomic sequence of gene X staining DNA.
(1) P, Q, S and T (v) Restriction endonuclease functions by
(2) P, R, S and T inspecting the length of DNA sequence.
(3) P, R, S (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
(4) Q, S and T (3) All of these (4) None of these
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38. Study the given figure carefully and select 39. Which of the given statements (i-iv) are
the incorrect statements regarding this. correct about bioreactor?
(i) Bioreactor provides the optimal conditions
for obtaining the desired product.
(ii) Raw materials are biologically converted
into specific products.
(iii) Stirred-tank reactor is horizontal in shape.
(iv) Large volume of culture cannot be processed.
(i) It represents a typical agarose gel (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
electrophoresis in which lane 1 contains (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) All of these
undigested DNA.
40. Which of the following statements (i-iv) are
(ii) Smallest DNA bands are found at A and
correct.
largest DNA bands are found at B.
(i) In elution, the separated bands of DNA are
(iii) The separated DNA fragments can be
cut out from agarose gel and extracted
visualized after staining in the visible
from the gel piece.
light.
(ii) E. coli cloning vector pBR322 shows several
(iv) The separated DNA bands are cut out
restriction sites, Ori, antibiotic resistance
from the agarose gel and extracted from
genes and rop.
the gel piece. This step is known as
(iii) The downstream processing and quality
elution.
control testing vary from product to product.
(v) DNA fragments are negatively charged.
(iv) Competent bacterial cell cannot take up
(1) (i) and (ii)
the plasmid.
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(1) All of the above (2) None of the above
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), and (iii) (4) Only (lv)
(4) (i) and (iv)

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Exercise 3
1. Given below are two statements: 4. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : Restriction enzyme belong to a Statement-I : Downstream processing includes
larger class of enzymes called as nucleases. separation and purification of the product
Statement-II : Each restriction endonuclease
recognise a specific palindromic nucleotide after completion of biosynthetic stage.
sequence in the DNA. Statement-II : The downstream processing
In the light of the above statements, choose and quality control testing is same for all
the most appropriate answer from the kind of product.
options given below In the light of above statements, choose the
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
most appropriate answer from the options
incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is given below :
incorrect. (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II correct
is correct. (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
2. Given below are two statements: incorrect
Statement-I : DNA is a positively charged (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II
molecule move towards the negative electrode.
Statement-II : Amplification of DNA in PCR is is correct
achieved by use of a thermostable DNA
5. Statement I: Exonucleases are restriction
polymerase.
In the light of the above statements, choose enzymes, which cut DNA internally.
the most appropriate answer from the Statement II: Exonuclease can destroy both
options given below: DNA and RNA.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect. incorrect
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II incorrect
is correct. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are is correct
correct. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. Given below are two statements: correct
Statement-I : Agrobacterium tumefaciens a
pathogen of several monocot plants. 6. Statement I: Large amount of recombinant
Statement-II : Retroviruses in animals have protein can be produced by gene cloning.
the ability to transform cancerous cells into Statement II: pBR322 vector was constructed
normal cells. by using DNA derived naturally occuring
In the light of the above statements, choose
plasmid of E. coli.
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
incorrect. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
incorrect (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
is correct. is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct. correct
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7. Statement I: Selectable marker helps to 10. Statement-I – Since DNA is a hydrophobic
select the host cells which contain the vector molecule, it cannot pass through cell
and eliminate the non-transformants. membrane.
Statement II: Genes, encoding resistance to Statement- II – In order to force bacteria to
antibiotics like ampicillin, chloramphenicol, take up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must
tetracycline or kanamycin are useful selectable first be made 'competent' to take up DNA.
marker for [Link]. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
incorrect (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
incorrect (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
is correct (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
correct
11. Assertion :- The stickiness of ends produced
8. Statement I: Bioreactor provides optimum by restriction endonuclease facilitates the
temperature, pH, salt, vitamin and oxygen. action of DNA polymerase.
Statement II: Sparged stirred tank bioreactor Reason :- It helps in joining the two DNA
is a stirred type reactor in which air bubbled. strands.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
incorrect reason is the correct explanation of
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is assertion.
incorrect (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II reason is not the correct explanation of
is correct assertion.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
correct (4) If both assertion and reason are false.

9. Statement I: Restriction endonuclease enzyme 12. Assertion :- The DNA fragments can be
recognise a specific palindromic nucleotide separated by a technique known as Gel
sequence in the DNA. electrophoresis.
Statement II: Restriction endonuclease Reason :- The fragments separates according
enzymes are called as molecular scissors or to their shape through the sieving effect
biological scissors. provided by agarose gel.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
incorrect reason is the correct explanation of
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is assertion.
incorrect (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II reason is not the correct explanation of
is correct assertion.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
correct (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
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13. Assertion :- In Gel electrophoresis, "the 17. Assertion :- Ti-plasmids & retrovirus are used
smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves" as vectors in gene transfer process.
Reason :- The separation of DNA segments by Reason :- They have the natural art of
cutting out the gel is known as elution. delivering genes in their eukaryotic hosts.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
14. Assertion :- A good vector is that whose ori 18. Assertion :- In biolistics method, cells are
support high copy number. bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of
Reason :- It helps in identifying & eliminating gold or tungsten coated with DNA.
non transformants & permitting the growth Reason :- It is suitable for plant cells.
of transformants. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
assertion. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
19. Assertion :- A thermostable DNA polymerase
15. Assertion :- In gel electrophoresis DNA fragments is used in PCR for repeated amplification.
are separated. Reason :- It remain active during high
Reason :- DNA is negatively charged, so it temperature induced denaturation of ds DNA.
moves towards anode under electric field. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
assertion. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
16. Assertion : The first restriction endonuclease is 20. Assertion :- The ampicillin resistance gene is
Hind-II and cut specific sequence of six base called as selectable marker gene.
pairs. Reason :- If host cells are spreaded on agar
Reason : Exonuclease remove nucleotides plates containing ampicillin only untransformed
from the ends of DNA. cells will survive.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
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21. Assertion :- Polymerase chain reaction is 24. Assertion :- GM technique has been used to
nick named as people's choice reaction. create tailor made plants to supply alternative
Reason :- This technique is used to amplify a resources to industries.
specific desired DNA fragment. Reason :- Plants, bacteria, fungi & animals
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
whose genes have been altered by
reason is the correct explanation of
manipulation are called GMO.
assertion.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.

(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
22. Assertion :- Gene gun method is a direct gene
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
transfer method.
Reason :- In this method foreign gene (4) If both assertion and reason are false.

directly introduce in target cell without 25. Assertion :- The most commonly used
involving vector DNA
bioreactors are of stirring type.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
Reason :- The stirrer facilitates even mixing
reason is the correct explanation of
& oxygen availability throughout the bioreactor.
assertion.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of reason is the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
23. Assertion :- Insertional inactivation method
helps to differentiate recombinant from non- (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
recombinant. (4) If both assertion and reason are false
Reason :- Inactivation of any marker gene of 26. Assertion: Restriction enzymes recognise
vector due to insertion of desired gene is
palindromic sequence.
called insertional inactivation.
Reason: Palindromic sequences read the
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
same in both directions of the two strands.
reason is the correct explanation of
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but the correct explanation of (A)
reason is not the correct explanation of (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
assertion. (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. correct explanation of (A)
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27. Assertion: Restriction digestion is a process 29. Assertion: In gel electrophoresis, DNA
of cutting DNA by restriction enzyme. fragments are cut by endonuclease.
Reason: DNA ligase joins two DNAs. Reason: DNA is negatively charged, so it
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not moves towards cathode under electric field.
the correct explanation of (A) (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(3) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
28. Assertion: Restriction endonucleases are
correct explanation of (A)
also called 'molecular scissors'.
Reason: When fragments generated by 30. Assertion: Restriction endonuclease cut
restriction endonucleases are mixed, they DNA at specific sites.
join together due to their sticky ends without Reason: Endonucleases are found in viruses.
the use of DNA ligase. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
the correct explanation of (A) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
correct explanation of (A)

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Exercise 4 (Previous Year's Questions)
1. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes 6. Which one of the following techniques
which : [AIPMT – 2010] made it possible to genetically engineer
(1) Restrict the action of the enzyme DNA living organisms ? [AIPMT – 2011]
(1) Hybridization
polymerase
(2) Recombinant DNA techniques
(2) Remove nucleotides from the ends of (3) X-ray diffraction
the DNA molecule (4) Heavier isotope labelling
(3) Make cuts at specific positions within
7. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA
the DNA molecule strand giving the base sequence on the
(4) Recognize a specific nucleotide sequence opposite strands What is so special shown
for binding of DNA ligase in it? [AIPMT – 2011]
5'__________GAATTC___________3'
2. Which one of the following palindromic 3'___________CTTAAG__________5'
base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at (1) Replication completed
about the middle by some particular (2) Deletion mutation
restriction enzyme? [AIPMT – 2010] (3) Start codon at the 5 end ′
(1) 5’_______GAATTC_______3’ (4) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
3’_______CTTAAG_______5’ 8. For transformation, micro-particles coated
(2) 5’_______CACGTA_______3’ with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun
are made up of :- [AIPMT – 2012]
3’_______CTCAGT_______3’
(1) Silicon or Platinum
(3) 5’_______CGTTCG_______3’ (2) Gold or Tungsten
3’_______ATGGTA_______5’ (3) Silver or platinum
(4) 5’_______GATATG_______3’ (4) Platinum or zinc
3’_______CTACTA_______5’ 9. Which one of the following represents a
3. Which one of the following is used as vector palindromic sequence in DNA ?
[AIPMT – 2012]
for cloning genes into higher organisms?
(1) 5' - CATTAG - 3' 3' -GATAAC - 5'
[AIPMT – 2010] (2) 5' -GATACC - 3' 3' - CCTAAG - 5'
(1) Rhizopus nigricans (3) 5' - GAATTC - 3' 3' - CTTAAG - 5'
(2) Retrovirus (4) 5' - CCAATG - 3' 3' - GAATCC - 5'
(3) Baculovirus 10. The figure below is the diagrammatic
(4) Salmonella typhimurium representation of the [Link] vector pBR 322.
Which one of the given options correctly
4. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use identifies its certain component(s)?
in : [AIPMT – 2011] [AIPMT – 2012]
(1) Spectrophotometry
(2) Tissue Culture
(3) PCR
(4) Gel electrophoresis

5. There is a restriction endonuclease called

EcoRI. What does "co" part in it stand for ?
(1) Hind III, EcoRI-Selectable markers
[AIPMT – 2011] (2) AmpR, tetR-Antibiotic resistance genes
(1) Colon (2) Coelom (3) Ori-Original restriction enzyme
(3) Coenzyme (4) Coli (4) Rop-Reduced osmotic pressure
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11. Which one is a true statement regarding 15. Which one is used as vector for gene
DNA polymerase used in PCR? transfer cloning gene? [AIPMT – 2013]
[AIPMT – 2012] (1) Salmonella typhimurium DNA
(1) It is isolated from a virus (2) Ti plasmid
(2) It remains active at high temperature (3) Antibiotic resistance AmpR and TetR loci
(3) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in (4) Ori minus pBR322
recipient cells
(4) It serves as a selectable marker 16. Which of the following sequence is
palindromic? [AIPMT – 2013]
12. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for:
(1) GAATTCCTTAAG (2) ATGCAGTACGTC
[AIPMT – 2012]
(3) CTTAGCGAATCG (4) TGCATCACGTAG
(1) Constructing recombinant DNA by
joining with vectors 17. DNA fragments generated by the restriction
(2) DNA finger printing endonucleases in a chemical reaction can
(3) Disarming pathogen vectors be separated by [AIPMT – 2013]
(4) Transformation of plants cells (1) Restriction mapping
13. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are (2) Centrifugation
used :- [AIPMT – 2012] (3) Polymerase chain reaction
(1) As sequences from where replication (4) Electrophoresis
starts 18. The colonies of recombinant bacteria
(2) To keep the cultures free of infection appear white in contrast to blue colonies of
(3) As selectable markers
non-recombinant bacteria because of-
(4) To select healthy vectors
[AIPMT – 2013]
14. The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) (1) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in
of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select recombinant bacteria
the option giving correct identification (2) Non-recombinant bacteria containing
together with what it represents? –galactosidase
[AIPMT – 2012] (3) Insertional inactivation of –galactosidase
in non-recombinant bacteria
(4) Insertional inactivation of –galactosidase
in recombinant bacteria

19. Which vector can clone only a small

fragment of DNA? [AIPMT – 2014]
(1) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(2) Yeast artificial chromosome
(3) Plasmid
(4) Cosmid

20. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the

(1) C-Extension in the presence of heat
southern hybridization technique does not
stable DNA polymerase
use- [AIPMT – 2014]
(2) A-Annealing with two sets of primers
(1) Electrophoresis
(3) B-Denaturation at a temperature of
about 98°C separating the two DNA strands (2) Blotting
(4) A-Denaturation at a temperature of (3) Autoradiography
about 50°C (4) PCR
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21. The cutting of DNA at specific locations 28. What is the criterion for DNA fragments
became possible with the discovery of : movement on agarose gel during gel
[AIPMT – 2015] electrophoresis? [NEET – 2017]
(1) Ligases (1) The larger the fragment size, the
(2) Restriction enzymes farther it moves
(3) Probes (2) The smaller the fragment size, the
(4) Selectable markers farther it moves
(3) Positively charged fragments move to
22. The DNA molecule to which the gene of
farther end
interest is integrated for cloning is called:
(4) Negatively charged fragments do not
[AIPMT – 2015]
move
(1) Carrier (2) Transformer
(3) Vector (4) Template 29. A gene whose expression helps to identify
transformed cell is known as:
23. Which of the following is a restriction
[NEET – 2017]
endonuclease ? [NEET – 2016]
(1) Selectable marker (2) Vector
(1) Hind II (2) Protease
(3) Plasmid (4) Structural gene
(3) DNase I (4) RNase
30. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
24. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained
Chain reaction (PCR) is [NEET – 2018]
from- [NEET – 2016]
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(1) Thermus aquaticus
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(2) Thiobacillus ferroxidans
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(3) Bacillus subtilis
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(4) Pseudomonas putida
25. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same 31. Which of the following is commonly used as
restriction endonuclease can be joined to a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
form a recombinant plasmid using : human lymphocytes? [NEET – 2018]
[NEET – 2016] (1) Retrovirus (2) Ti plasmid
(1) Taq polymerase (2) Polymerase-III (3) λ-phage (4) pBR 322
(3) Ligase (4) Eco RI 32. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of
26. The DNA fragments separated on an biomolecules can be achieved by treatment
agarose gel can be visualised after staining with [NEET – 2019]
with : [NEET – 2017] (1) Methanol at room temperature
(1) Bromophenol blue (2) Chilled chloroform
(2) Acetocarmine (3) Isopropanol
(3) Aniline blue (4) Chilled ethanol
(4) Ethidium bromide
33. Which one of the following equipments is
27. The process of separation and purification essentially required for growing microbes
of expressed protein before marketing is on a large scale, for industrial production of
called [NEET – 2017] enzymes ? [NEET – 2019]
(1) Upstream Processing (1) Industrial oven
(2) Downstream Processing (2) Bioreactor
(3) Bioprocessing (3) BOD incubator
(4) Post Production Processing (4) Sludge digester
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34. Following statement describe the characteristics 39. Identify the wrong statement with regard
of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. to restriction enzymes- [NEET – 2020]
Identify the incorrect statement – (1) They are useful in genetic engineering.
[NEET – 2019] (2) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA
(1) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate ligases.
backbone at specific sites on each strand (3) Each restriction enzyme functions by
(2) The enzyme recognizes specific palindromic inspecting the length of a DNA
nucleotide sequence in the DNA sequence.
(3) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at (4) They cut the strand of DNA at
identified position within the DNA palindromic sites.
(4) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites
40. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium
and cuts only one of the two strands
bromide when viewed under UV radiation,
35. In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments appear as: [NEET – 2021]
can be visualized with the help of- (1) Bright blue bands
[NEET – 2020] (2) Yellow bands
(1) Acetocarmine in UV radiation (3) Bright orange bands
(2) Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation (4) Dark red bands
(3) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
(4) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation 41. A specific recognition sequence identified
by endonucleases to make cuts at specific
36. The specific palindromic sequence which is positions within the DNA is: [NEET – 2021]
recognized by EcoRI is : [NEET – 2020] (1) Poly (A) tail sequences
(1) 5’- CTTAAG -3’, 3’GAATTC - 5’
(2) Degenerate primer sequence
(2) 5’- GGATCC - 3’, 3’- CCTAGG - 5’
(3) Okazaki sequences
(3) 5’- GAATTC - 3’, 3’ -CTTAAG - 5’
(4) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
(4) 5’ - GGAACC - 3’, 3’ - CCTTGG - 5’
42. During the purification process for recombinant
37. Choose the correct pair from the following
DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol
[NEET – 2020]
precipitates out: [NEET – 2021]
(1) Nucleases - Separate the two strands of
(1) Polysaccharides
DNA
(2) RNA
(2) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
(3) DNA
positions within DNA
(4) Histones
(3) Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
(4) Polymerases - Break the DNA into 43. During the process of gene amplification
fragments using PCR, if very high temperature is not
38. The sequence that controls the copy maintained in the beginning, then which of
number of the linked DNA in the vector, is the following steps of PCR will be affected
termed [NEET – 2020] first? [NEET – 2021]
(1) Palindromic sequence (1) Ligation
(2) Recognition site (2) Annealing
(3) Selectable marker (3) Extension
(4) Ori site (4) Denaturation
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44. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction 47. Given below are two statements : one is
enzyme site within gene ampR that confers labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used labelled as Reason (R). [NEET – 2022]
for inserting a gene for -galactoside Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction
production and the recombinant plasmid is is used in DNA amplification
Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene
inserted in an [Link] strain- [NEET – 2021]
is used as a selectable marker to check
(1) It will be able to produce a novel protein
transformation
with dual ability.
In the light of the above statements, choose
(2) It will not be able to confer ampicillin
the correct answer from the options given
resistance to the host cell. below :
(3) The transformed cells will have the (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
ability to resist ampicillin as well as not the correct explanation of (A)
produce - galactoside. (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) It will lead to lysis of host cell. (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
45. Given below are two statements :
the correct explanation of (A)
[NEET – 2022]
Statement I : Restriction endonucleases 48. Which of the following is not a desirable
recognise specific sequence to cut DNA feature of a cloning vector? [NEET – 2022]
(1) Presence of a marker gene.
known as palindromic nucleotide
(2) Presence of single restriction enzyme
sequence.
site
Statement II : Restriction endonucleases
(3) Presence of two or more recognition
cut the DNA strand a little away from the
sites
centre of the palindromic site (4) Presence of origin of replication
In the light of the above statements, choose
49. Which one of the following statement is not
the most appropriate answer from the
true regarding gel electrophoresis
options given below :
technique? [NEET – 2022]
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
(1) The separated DNA fragments are
incorrect stained by using ethidium bromide.
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II (2) The presence of chromogenic substrate
is incorrect gives blue coloured DNA bands on the
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement gel.
II is correct (3) Bright orange coloured bands of DNA
(4) Both statement I and statement II are can be observed in the gel when
correct exposed to UV light.
(4) The process of extraction of separated
46. In the following palindromic base DNA strands from gel is called elution.
sequences of DNA, which one can be cut
50. In gene gun method used to introduce alien
easily by particular restriction enzyme?
DNA into host cells, microparticles of
[NEET – 2022]
_____ metal are used. [NEET – 2023]
(1) 5’ G A A T T C 3’ ; 3’ C T T A A G 5’
(1) Zinc
(2) 5’ C T C A G T 3’ ; 3’ G A G T C A 5’ (2) Tungsten or gold
(3) 5’ G T A T T C 3’ ; 3’ C A T A A G 5’ (3) Silver
(4) 5’ G A T A C T 3’ ; 3’ C T A T G A 5’ (4) Copper
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51. During the purification process for recombinant 56. Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a
DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol particular point called recognition sequence
precipitates out- [NEET – 2023] and it consists of : [NEET – 2024]
(1) DNA (2) Histones (1) 4 bp (2) 10 bp
(3) Polysaccharides (4) RNA (3) 8 bp (4) 6 bp
52. Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA
57. The “Ti plasmid” of Agrobacterium
stained with ethidium bromide will show
tumefaciens stands for [NEET – 2024]
[NEET – 2023]
(1) Tumor inducing plasmid
(1) Bright blue colour
(2) Temperature independent plasmid
(2) Bright yellow colour
(3) Tumor inhibiting plasmid
(3) Bright orange colour
(4) Bright red colour (4) Tumor independent plasmid

53. Which of the following is not a cloning 58. The following diagram showing restriction
vector? [NEET – 2023] sites in [Link] cloning vector pBR322. Find
(1) YAC (2) pBR322 the role of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ genes : [NEET – 2024]
(3) Probe (4) BAC
54. Main steps in the formation of Recombinant
DNA are given below. Arrange these steps
in a correct sequence. [NEET – 2023]
(A) Insertion of recombinant DNA into the
host cell.
(B) Cutting of DNA at specific location by
restriction enzyme. (1) The gene ‘X’ is for protein involved in
(C) Isolation of desired DNA fragment. replication of plasmid and ‘Y’ for
(D) Amplification of gene of interest using resistance to antibiotics.
PCR. (2) Gene ‘X’ is responsible for recognition
Choose the correct answer from the options sites and ‘Y’ is responsible for antibiotic
given below resistance.
(1) C, A, B, D (2) C, B, D, A (3) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for resistance
(3) B, D, A, C (4) B, C, D, A to antibiotics and ‘Y’ for protein involved in
55. What is the fate of a piece of DNA carrying the replication of Plasmid.
only gene of interest which is transferred (4) The gene ‘X’ is responsible for controlling
into an alien organism? [NEET – 2024] the copy number of the linked DNA and
A. The piece of DNA would be able to ‘Y’ for protein involved in the replication
multiply itself independently in the of plasmid.
progeny cells of the organism.
B. It may get integrated into the genome 59. Which of the following statements in
of the recipient. incorrect. [NEET – 2024]
C. It may multiply and be inherited along (1) Bio-reactors are used to produce small
with the host DNA. scale bacterial cultures.
D. The alien piece of DNA is not an integral (2) Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an
part of chromosome. oxygen delivery system and foam control
E. It shows ability to replicate. system.
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) A bio-reactor provides optimal growth
given below: conditions for achieving the desires product
(1) B and C only (2) A and E only (4) Most commonly used bio-reactors are
(3) A and B only (4) D and E only of stirring type.
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60. In a chromosome, there is a specific DNA 64. Following are the steps involved in the
sequence, responsible for initiating replication. process of PCR. [RENEET – 2024]
It is called as: [RENEET – 2024] A. Annealing
B. Amplification (~ 1 billion times)
(1) Recognition sequence
C. Denaturation
(2) Cloning site D. Treatment with Taq polymerase and
(3) Restriction site deoxynucleotides
(4) Ori site E. Extension
Choose the correct sequence of steps of
61. Identify the incorrect statement related to PCR from the options given below:
gel electrophoresis. [RENEET – 2024] (1) C → A → D → E → B
(1) Separated DNA fragments can be (2) A → B → E → D → C
directly seen under UV radiation (3) A → C → E → D → B
(2) Separated DNA can be extracted from (4) D → B → E → C → A

gel piece 65.

(3) Fragment of DNA moves toward anode
(4) Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in
separation of DNA fragments

62. Recombinant DNA molecule can be created

In the above represented plasmid an alien
normally by cutting the vector DNA and
piece of DNA is inserted at EcoRI site.
source DNA respectively with:-
Which of the following strategies will be
[RENEET – 2024] chosen to select the recombinant colonies?
(1) Hind II, Hind II [NEET – 2025]
(2) Hind II, Alu I (1) White color colonies will be selected.
(3) Hind II, EcoR I (2) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin
plates can be selected.
(4) Hind II, BamH I
(3) Using ampicillin & tetracyclin containing
63. Which of the following are correct about medium plate.
(4) Blue color colonies will be selected.
EcoRI? [RENEET – 2024]
A. Cut the DNA with blunt end 66. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies
B. Cut the DNA with sticky end DNA following the equation.[NEET – 2025]
(1) 2n + 1 (2) 2N2
C. Recognises a specific palindromic sequence
(3) N2 (4) 2n
D. Cut the DNA between the base Gand A 67. Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is
when encounters the DNA sequence used as a foam braker from the given figure.
‘GAATTC’ [NEET – 2025]
E. Exonuclease
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) B, C, E only
(2) A, D, E only
(3) A, C, D only
(1) D (2) C
(4) B, C, D only (3) A (4) B
128 Sarvam Career Institute
Biotechnology : Principles and Processes Biology
68. The blue and white selectable markers have 69. Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT
been developed which differentiate recombinant essential for gene cloning? [NEET – 2025]
A. Restriction enzymes
colonies from non-recombinant colonies on
B. DNA ligase
the basis of their ability to produce colour C. DNA mutase
in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. D. DNA recombinase
Given below are two statements about this E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options
method: [NEET – 2025]
given below:
Statement I : The blue coloured colonies (1) D and E only (2) B and C only
have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are (3) C and D only (4) A and B only
identified as recombinant colonies. 70. Given below are two statements :
Statement II : The colonies without blue Statement I : The DNA fragments extracted
from gel electrophoresis can be used in
colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and
construction of recombinant DNA.
are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments
In the light of the above statements, choose are observed near anode while larger
the most appropriate answer from the fragments are found near the wells in an
agarose gel.
options given below :
In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II the most appropriate answer from the
is incorrect options given below : [NEET – 2025]
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement
is incorrect
II is correct (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are II is correct
correct (3) Both statement I and statement II are
correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect incorrect

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ANSWER KEYS

Exercise 1.1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 3 3 2

Exercise 1.2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 3 1 1 1 3 1 2 1 3 3 4 3 4 4 2 2 4 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 2 4 3 3 4 2 2 2 1 2 2 4 1 3 1 2 3 1 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 3 1 4 4

Exercise 1.3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 4 3 3 1 4 1 4 3 4 4 1 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 2 3 1 4 1 4 2 3 4 4 4 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans. 3 2 3 2 1 1 4 3 2 3 1 1 2 3 2

Exercise 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 4 2 3 4 2 3 4 3 1 2 2 1 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 2 3 4 3 1 4 3 3 4 3 1 1 1 3 4 2 2 1 3

Exercise 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 1 3 1 3 4 4 4 3 4 3 2 3 1 2 1 2 1 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 3 2

Exercise 4 (Previous Year's Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 1 2 4 4 2 4 2 3 2 2 4 3 1 2 1 4 4 3 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 3 1 1 3 4 2 2 1 4 1 4 2 4 4 3 3 4 2 3
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 3 4 2 4 1 1 3 2 2 1 3 3 4 1 4 1 4 1 4
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. 1 1 4 1 1 4 2 2 3 3

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Biotechnology and Its Applications Biology

Chapter
BIOTECHNOLOGY
4 AND ITS
APPLICATIONS
Chapter Overview Applications of Biotechnology
– Biotechnological Applications Biotechnology, as you would have learnt from the previous
chapter, essentially deals with industrial scale production of
in Agriculture
biopharmaceuticals and biologicals using genetically modified
– Biotechnological Applications microbes, fungi, plants and animals. The applications of
in Medicine biotechnology include therapeutics, diagnostics, genetically
modified crops for agriculture, processed food, bioremediation,
– Transgenic Animals
waste treatment, and energy production. Three critical research
– Ethical Issues areas of biotechnology are :
(i) Providing the best catalyst in the form of improved
organism usually a microbe or pure enzyme.
(ii) Creating optimal conditions through engineering for a
catalyst to act, and
(iii) Downstream processing technologies to purify the
protein/organic compound.
Let us now learn how human beings have used biotechnology to
improve the quality of human life, especially in the field of food
production and health.

Biotechnological Application in Agriculture

Let us take a look at the three options that can be thought for
increasing food production
(i) agro-chemical based agriculture;
(ii) organic agriculture; and
(iii) genetically engineered crop-based agriculture.
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• The Green Revolution succeeded in tripling the food supply but yet it was not enough to feed the
growing human population. Increased yields have partly been due to the use of improved crop varieties,
but mainly due to the use of better management practices and use of agrochemicals (fertilisers and
pesticides). However, for farmers in the developing world, agrochemicals are often too expensive, and
further increases in yield with existing varieties are not possible using conventional breeding.
• As traditional breeding techniques failed to keep pace with demand and to provide sufficiently fast and
efficient systems for crop improvement, another technology called tissue culture got developed. It was
learnt by scientists, during 1950s, that whole plants could be regenerated from explants, i.e., any part
of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube, under sterile conditions in special nutrient media. This
capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/explant is called totipotency.
• It is important to stress here that the nutrient medium must provide a carbon source such as sucrose
and also inorganic salts, vitamins, amino acids and growth regulators like auxins, cytokinins etc. By
application of these methods it is possible to achieve propagation of a large number of plants in very
short durations. This method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called micro-
propagation. Each of these plants will be genetically identical to the original plant from which they
were grown, i.e., they are somaclones. Many important food plants like tomato, banana, apple, etc.,
have been produced on commercial scale using this method.
• Another important application of the method is the recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants.
Even if the plant is infected with a virus, the meristem (apical and axillary) is free of virus. Hence, one
can remove the meristem and grow it in vitro to obtain virus-free plants. Scientists have succeeded in
culturing meristems of banana, sugarcane, potato, etc.
• Scientists have even isolated single cells from plants and after digesting their cell walls have been able
to isolate naked protoplasts (surrounded by plasma membranes). Isolated protoplasts from two
different varieties of plants – each having a desirable character – can be fused to get hybrid protoplasts,
which can be further grown to form a new plant. These hybrids are called somatic hybrids while the
process is called somatic hybridisation. Imagine a situation when a protoplast of tomato is fused with
that of potato, and then they are grown – to form new hybrid plants combining tomato and potato
characteristics. Well, this has been achieved – resulting in formation of pomato; unfortunately this
plant did not have all the desired combination of characteristics for its commercial utilisation.
• Is there any alternative path that our understanding of genetics can show so that farmers may obtain
maximum yield from their fields? Is there a way to minimise the use of fertilisers and chemicals so that
their harmful effects on the environment are reduced? Use of genetically modified crops is a possible
solution. Genetially modified crop is a crop that contains and expresses a transgene.
• Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called
Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO). GM plants have been useful in many ways. Genetic
modification has:
(i) made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat).
(ii) reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops).
(iii) helped to reduce post harvest losses.
(iv) increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (this prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soil).
(v) enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., Vitamin ‘A’ enriched rice.
• In addition to these uses, GM has been used to create tailor-made plants to supply alternative resources
to industries, in the form of starches, fuels and pharmaceuticals.
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Some applications of genetically modified (GM) crops
(i) To enhance nutritional quality
• Carotene gene has been transferred to develop Golden rice (vitamin A rich).
• Carotene is the precursor of vitamin A
(ii) To develop crops more resistant to abiotic stresses.
• Abiotic stress (Flood, Drought, Salinity etc.) is one of the primary cause of crops losses worldwide.
To cope with the detrimental effects of stress, wild plants have evolved many biochemical and
molecular mechanisms. One of the well-documented stress responses in plants is accumulation of
osmolytes during stress. Ex. Salt tolerant transgenic tomato
(iii) To develop biopharmaceuticals.
• Ex. Hirudin is a protein that prevents blood clotting. The gene incoding hirudin was chemically
synthesized and transferred into Brassica napus. Where hirudin accumulates in seeds. The hirudin
is purified and used in medicine.
(iv) To reduce post harvest losses.
• Ex. Transgenic variety of Tomato – Flavr Savr. It has long shelf life due to delayed ripening. In this
the expression of gene of polygalacturonase enzyme is slow down by antisense technology.
(v) To develop pest resistant plant.
(a) Insect resistant plants
(b) Nematode resistant plants
(a) Insect resistant plants
• Ex. Bt crops like Bt-cotton
Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium called Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt for short). Bt toxin gene has
been cloned from the bacteria and been expressed in plants to provide resistance to insects without
the need for insecticides; in effect created a bio-pesticide.
Examples are Bt cotton, Bt corn, rice, tomato, potato and soyabean etc.
• Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill certain insects such as lepidopterans
(tobacco budworm, armyworm), coleopterans (beetles) and dipterans (flies, mosquitoes). B.
thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular phase of their growth. These crystals contain a
toxic insecticidal protein. The Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins but once an insect ingest the
inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut which
solubilise the crystals. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and create
pores that cause cell swelling and lysis and eventually cause death of the insect.
• Bacillus thuringiensis, produces crystal [Cry] protein. This Cry protein is toxic to Larvae of certain
insects. Each Cry protein is toxic to a different group of insects. The gene encoding cry protein is called
"cry gene". The choice of genes depends upon the crop and the targeted pest, as most Bt toxins are
insect-group specific.
• This Cry protein isolated and transferred into several crops. A crop expressing a cry gene is usually
resistant to the group of insects for which the concerned Cry protein is toxic. There are a number of
them, for example, the proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and cryllAb control the cotton
bollworms, that of cryIAb controls corn borer.
However, gene symbol italics, e.g., cry. The first letter or the protein symbol, on the other hand, is
always capital and the symbol is always written in roman letters, e.g., Cry.
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(b) Nematode resistant plant

• Several nematodes parasitise a wide variety of plants and animals including human beings. A nematode
Meloidogyne incognita infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield. A novel
strategy was adopted to prevent this infestation which was based on the process of RNA interference
(RNAi). RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence. This method
involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and
prevents translation of the mRNA (silencing).
• The source of this complementary RNA could be from an infection by viruses having RNA genomes or
mobile genetic elements (transposons) that replicate via an RNA intermediate. Using Agrobacterium
vectors, nematode specific genes were introduced into the host plant (Figure). The introduction of DNA
was such that it produced both sense and anti-sense RNA in the host cells. These two RNA's being
complementary to each other formed a double stranded (dsRNA) that initiated RNAi and thus, silenced
the specific mRNA of the nematode.
• The consequence was that the parasite could not survive in a transgenic host expressing specific
interfering RNA. The transgenic plant therefore got itself protected from the parasite (figure).

Host plant-generated dsRNA triggers protection against nematode infection : (a) Roots of a typical
control plants; (b) transgenic plant roots 5 days after deliberate infection of nematode but protected
through novel mechanism.
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Biotechnology and Its Applications Biology
Exercise 1.1
1. A transgenic rice (Golden rice) has been 8. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop.
developed for increased content of- When released for cultivation, it will help in
(1) Vitamin A (2) Viamin B1 (1) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin D (2) Pest resistance
(3) Herbicide tolerance
2. Genetic modification (GM) has been used to
(4) Producing a petrol-like fuel from rice
−
(1) Create tailor made plants 9. Which of the following statement is not true–
(2) Supply alternative resources to industries (1) In Bt-cotton Bt stands for bio technology
(3) Enhanced nutritional value of food. (2) Protein encoded by the genes CryIAc and
(4) All of the above Cry II Ab controls the cotton bollworms.
3. Important objective of biotechnology in (3) Protein encoded by the gene CryIAb
agriculture section is controls corn borer.
(1) To produce pest resistant varieties of (4) Both (2) and (3)
plants 10. What is true about Bt toxin?
(2) To increase the nitrogen constant (1) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins
(3) To decrease the seed number (2) The inactive protoxin gets converted into
(4) To increase the plant weight active form in the insect gut
4. Cry-gene which synthesize crystal protein (3) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the Bacillus
isolated from : (4) The activated toxin enters the ovaries of
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis the pest to sterilise it and thus prevent its
(2) Rhizobium multiplication
(3) Bacillus polymyxa 11. The protein products of the following Bt toxin
(4) Clostridium genes cryIAc and cryIIAb are responsible for
5. Bt−cotton is resistant for :- controlling:
(1) Round−worm (2) Fluke−worm (1) Bollworm (2) Roundworm
(3) Boll−worm (4) Pin−worm (3) Moth (4) Fruit fly

6. Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the 12. Which of the following is correct?
news. The prefix ''Bt'' means :− (1) The Green Revolution succeeded in tripling
(1) Barium − treated cotton seeds. the food supply
(2) Bigger thread variety of cotton with (2) The increased yield of crops have partly
better tensile strength. been due to the use of improved crop
(3) Produced by biotechnology using varieties, but mainly due to the use of
restriction enzymes and ligases. better management practisces and use of
(4) Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus agrochemicals
thuringiensis. (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Conventional breeding techniques results
7. Bt toxin protein crystals present in bacterium in more crop yield than the modern techniques
Bacillus thuringiensis, do not kill the
bacteria because- 13. The choice of Bt-gene for experiment
(1) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin depends upon −
(2) Bacteria enclose toxins in a special sac (1) The host plant/crop
(3) Toxins occurs as inactive protoxins in (2) Targeted pest/insect
bacteria (3) Bacillus strain
(4) None of the above (4) 1 & 2 both
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14. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been 21. RNA interference (RNAi):
used for designing novel (1) Takes place in all eukaryotic organisms
(1) Bioinsecticidal plants as a method of cellular defense.
(2) Bio-mineralization processes (2) involves silencing of a specific mRNA due
(3) Biofertilizers to a complementary dsRNA molecule
(4) Bio-metallurgical techniques that binds and prevents translation of the
mRNA (silencing)
15. In RNAi, genes are silenced using- (3) Involves RISC (RNA induced silencing
(1) dsDNA (2) dsRNA complex)
(3) ssDNA (4) ssRNA (4) All of the above

16. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is 22. The transgenic Brassica napus has been used
widely used in contemporary biology as- for the synthesis of:
(1) Source of industrial enzyme (1) Hirudin (2) Heparin
(2) Indicator of water pollution (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Galacturonases
(3) Insecticide 23. In ‘Flavr Savr’ tomato which of the following
(4) Agent for production of dairy products enzyme in less produced?
(1) Catalase (2) Hydrolases
17. Transgenic plants are the ones - (3) Polygalacturonase (4) RuBisCo
(1) Grown in artificial medium after
hybridization in the field 24. Noble prize winner (2006) for the work on
(2) Produced by a somatic embryo in RNAi in the nematode is/are-
artificial medium (1) Andrew Fire (2) Craig C. Mello
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Kary Mullis
(3) Generated by introducing foreign DNA in
to a cell and regenerating a plant from 25. What is antisense technology ?
that cell (1) RNA polymerase producing DNA
(4) Produced after protoplast fusion in (2) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used
artificial medium for synthesis of antigens
(3) Production of somaclonal variants in
18. Tobacco plant resistant to a nematode have tissue cultures
been developed by the introduction of DNA, (4) When a piece of RNA that is
which produces (in the host cells) :- complementary in sequence is used to
(1) An antifeedent stop expression of a specific gene
(2) Both sense and antisense RNA
26. Which gene isolated from Bacillus
(3) A particular hormone
thuringiensis has been known to control the
(4) Toxic protein insect population of corn borer?
19. Which of the following is true w.r.t. RNAi- (1) HLA-gene (2) Cry I Ab-gene
(1) Takes place in all organism as a method (3) Cry I Ac-gene (4) Cry II Ab-gene
of cellular defence. 27. Plant, bacteria, fungi and animals whose
(2) This method involves silencing of dsDNA genes have been altered by manipulation are
which results in no formation of m-RNA. called genetically modified organisms
(3) Cellular defence mechanism in Eukaryotes. (GMO). Which of the following statement is
(4) Involves silencing of Specific m-RNA due not applicable to GM plants?
to complementary ss RNA. (1) Reduced reliance on chemical pestisides
(2) Prevent early exhaustion of fertility of soil
20. First transgenic plant was :- (3) Crops less tolerant to abiotic stress (cold,
(1) Potato (2) Tomato drought, salt, heat)
(3) Tobacco (4) Maize (4) Enhanced nutritional value of food.
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28. Use of transgenic plants as biological 34. Two important plant hormones related to
factories for the production of special morphogenesis/organogenesis are :
chemicals is called- (1) Auxin and cytokinin
(1) Molecular farming (2) ABA and ethylene
(2) Molecular genetics (3) ABA and auxin
(3) Molecular mapping (4) Ethylene and cytokinin
(4) Dry farming
35. The most common source of carbon in plant
29. Which one of the following is a correct
tissue culture is :
statement?
(1) "Bt" in "Bt-cotton" indicates that it is a (1) Amino acids
genetically modified organism produced (2) Fatty acids
through biotechnology (3) Plant growth hormones
(2) Somatic hybridization involves fusion of (4) Sucrose
two complete plant cells carrying desired
36. Which one of the following is an example of
genes.
somatic hybridisation :
(3) The anticoagulant hirudin is being produced
from transgenic Brassica napus seeds. (1) Bt cotton
(4) "Flavr Savr" variety of tomato has enhanced (2) Pomato
the production of ethylene which improves (3) Golden rice
its taste (4) All of these

30. In nematode resistance by RNA interference, 37. In plant tissue culture, the progeny derived
some specific genes were introduced which from an explant are genetically identical and
form dsRNA. These were introduced in - called :
(1) Nematode (2) Host plant (1) Somaclones
(3) Agrobacterium (4) All of these (2) Embryoids
31. A protoplast is a cell (3) Zygotic embryo
(1) undergoing division (4) Somatic embryo
(2) without cell wall
38. Plant part, used for culture is called :
(3) without plasma membrane
(1) Scion
(4) without nucleus.
(2) Stock
32. To obtain virus - free healthy plants from a (3) Explant
diseased one by tissue culture technique,
(4) Callus
which part/parts of the diseased plant will be
taken? 39. The technique of obtaining large number of
(1) Apical meristem only plantlets by tissue culture method is called:
(2) Palisade parenchyma (1) Organ culture
(3) Both apical and axillary meristems (2) Micropropagation
(4) Epidermis only (3) Macropropagation
33. Choose the incorrect statement : (4) Plantlet culture
(1) Callus is an unorganised mass of cells
40. The term 'totipotency' refers to the capacity
(2) Growth of callus culture is faster than
of a :
suspension culture
(3) In callus, if high auxin to cytokinin ratio (1) Cell to generate whole plant
is maintained then roots are formed (2) Bud to generate whole plant
(4) In callus, if high cytokinin to auxin ratio (3) Seed to germinate
is maintained then shoots are formed (4) Cell to enlarge in size
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 Biology Biotechnology and Its Applications

Biotechnological Applications in Medicine

The recombinant DNA technological processes have made immerse impact in the area of healthcare by
enabling mass production of safe and more effective therapeutic drugs. Further, the recombinant
therapeutic do not induce unwanted immunological responses as is common in case of similar products
isolated from nonhuman sources. At present, about 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved
for human use the world over. In India, 12 of these are presently being marketed.
Some applications in medicines are as follows.

(1) Production of recombinant therapeutics (Genetically engineered Insulin) :

It is a proteinaceous hormone having 51 Amino acids arranged in two polypeptides A and B having 21
and 30 Amino Acids, respectively and joined by S-S disulphide bridges.
The first genetically engineered insulin obtained by recombinant DNA technique with the help of E-
Coli was produced by the American firms, Eli-Lilly on July 5, 1983. It has been given the trade name
humulin and has been approved for clinical use.

Maturation of pro-insulin into insulin

after removal of C–peptide (to be simplified)

• Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs. Insulin
from an animal source, though caused some patients to develop allergy or other types of reactions to
the foreign protein. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains: chain A and chain B, that are
linked together by disulphide bridges. In mammals, including humans, insulin is synthesised as a
prohormone (like a pro-enzyme, the pro-hormone also needs to be processed before it becomes a fully
mature and functional hormone) which contains an extra stretch called the C peptide. This C peptide
is not present in the mature insulin and is removed during maturation into insulin.
• The main challenge for production of insulin using rDNA techniques was getting insulin assembled into
a mature form. In 1983, Eli Lilly an American company prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to
A and B, chains of human insulin and introduced them in plasmids of E. coli to produce insulin chains.
Chains A and B were produced separately, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bonds to
form human insulin.

(2) Treatment of diseases by Gene Therapy :

• A new system of medicine gene therapy, may develop to treat some hereditary diseases such as SCID,
haemophilia etc,
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• Gene therapy is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene defect that has been diagnosed
in a child/embryo. Here genes are inserted into a person's cells and tissues to treat a disease.
Correction of genetic defect involves delivery of a normal gene into the individual or embryo to take
over the function of and compensate for the non-functional gene.
• The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA)
deficiency. This enzyme is crucial for the immune system to function. The disorder is caused due to the
deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase. In some children ADA deficiency can be cured by bone
narrow transplantation; in others it can be treated by enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional
ADA is given to the patient by injection. But the problem with both of these approaches that they are
not completely curative. As a first step towards gene therapy, lymphocytes from the blood of the patient
are grown in a culture outside the body. A functional ADA-cDNA (using a retroviral vector) is then
introduced into these lymphocytes, which are subsequently returned to the patient. However, as these
cells are not immortal, the patient requires periodic infusion of such genetically engineered
lymphocytes. However, if the gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at
early embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.

(3) Molecular Diagnosis of Disease

• For effective treatment of a disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very
important. Using conventional methods of diagnosis (serum and urine analysis, etc.) early detection is
not possible. Recombinant DNA technology, Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) and Enzyme Linked
Immuno-sorbent Assay (ELISA) are some of the techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis.
• Presence of a pathogen (bacteria, viruses, etc.) is normally suspected only when the pathogen has
produced a disease symptom. By this time the concentration of pathogen is already very high in the
body. However, very low concentration of a bacteria or virus (at a time when the symptoms of the
disease are not yet visible) can be detected by amplification of their nucleic acid by PCR. PCR is now
routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients. It is being used to detect mutations in genes
in suspected cancer patients too. It is a powerful techqnique to identify many other genetic disorders.
• Recombinant DNA technology is one of the important tool for the diagnosis of several diseases. The
diagnostic technique involves the construction of probes consisting of short segments of single
stranded DNA attached to a radioactive or fluorescent marker. Such probes are used to identify
infectious agents such as Salmonella (cause food poisoning), Staphylococcus (pus forming bacterium),
hepatitis virus, HIV; muscular dystrophy, cystic fibrosis and so on. Recombinant DNA technology can
also be employed to predict the inheritance of genetic disorders from carrier parents. The chances of
birth of an affected child can be predicted by testing DNA of repetitive prospective genetic disorder
carrier parents.
• A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule (probe) is allowed to hybridise to its
complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography. The clone having
the mutated gene will hence not appear on the photographic film, because the probe will not have
complementarity with the mutated gene.
• ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction. Infection by pathogen can be detected
by the presence of antigens (proteins, glycoproteins, etc.) or by detecting the antibodies synthesised
against the pathogen.
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Exercise 1.2
1. Genetically engineered human insulin is 6. The genetic defect-adenosine deaminase
called : (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently
(1) Humulin by
(2) Haematin (1) Enzyme replacement therapy.
(3) Hybridoma (2) Periodic infusion of genetically engineering
lymphocytes having functional ADA
(4) Hybrid
cDNA.
2. The first clinical gene therapy was given in (3) Administering adenosine deaminase
1990 to a 4-year old girl with which of the activators
following enzyme deficiency? (4) Introducing bone marrow cells producing
(1) ADA ADA into cells at early embryonic stages.
(2) Tyrosine oxidase 7. An example of gene therapy is :
(3) Monamine oxidase (1) Production of injectable Hepatitis B
(4) Glutamate dehydrogenase vaccine
(2) Production of vaccines in food crops like
3. ADA is an enzyme, when deficient causes
potatoes which can be eaten
genetic disorder SCID. What is the full form
(3) Introduction of gene for adenosine
of ADA ? deaminase in persons suffering from
(1) Adenosine Deoxy Aminase Severe Combined Immuno-Deficiency
(2) Adenosine Deaminase (SCID)
(3) Aspartate Deaminase (4) Production of test tube babies by
(4) Arginine Deaminase artificial insemination and implantation
of fertilized eggs
4. Select the correct statement for ADA gene
theory- 8. During the processing of the prohormone
(1) Lymphocytes are not immortal, the 'proinsulin' into the mature 'insulin' -
patient require periodic infusion of such (1) C-peptide is added to proinsulin
(2) C-peptide is removed from proinsulin
genetically engineered lymphocytes.
(3) B-peptide is added to proinsulin
(2) Enzyme is useful for maintenance of RBC
(4) B-peptide is removed from proinsulin
membranes.
(3) Gene isolated from bone marrow cells 9. Gene therapy first used in the treatment of :−
producing ADA introduced into cells at (1) Albinism (2) Haemophilia
early embryonic stage could be a (3) SCID (4) LIQID
temporary Cure. 10. Eli Lilly, an American company prepared two
(4) Both (1) and (3) DNA sequences corresponding to A and B,
chains of human insulin and introduced them
5. The C-peptide is -
in plasmids of [Link] to produce insulin chains.
(1) Not present in proinsulin
Chains A and B were produced separately,
(2) Present in mature insulin extracted and combined by creating:
(3) Removed during maturation of insulin (1) Peptide bonds (2) Ionic bonds
(4) Also present in artificial insulin (3) H-bonds (4) Disulphide bonds
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11. Human insulin is being commercially 16. Why is usually insulin not administered
produced from a transgenic species of :- orally to a diabetic patient?
(1) Mycobacterium (1) Insulin is bitter in taste
(2) Rhizobium (2) Insulin is a peptide.
(3) Saccharomyces (3) Insulin will lead to a sudden decrease in
(4) Escherichia blood sugar if given orally.
(4) Insulin leads to peptic ulcer if taken
12. Why were the first genetically engineered
human insulin genes split into separate A orally.
and B chain sequences and cloned in 17. DNA probe is used for :
separate E. coli strains? (1) DNA finger printing
(1) To control the proportions of A and B (2) Detection of pathogenic bacteria
chains produced (3) Medical genetics to find whether a
(2) To prevent an [Link] strain producing an person carries a particular gene or not
active insulin (4) All the above
(3) Because E. coli cannot form insulin from
proinsulin 18. You suspect your patient to be suffering from
(4) To prevent loss of insulin by secretion a bacterial disease, however the number of
bacteria in the patient’s body is very less.
13. The functional ADA cDNA can be introduced Which method can help you detect these
into the cells of the patient receiving gene pathogens in the laboratory?
therapy by using a vector constituted by:
(1) Hybridoma technology
(1) [Link]
(2) PCR
(2) Reovirus
(3) Somatic hybridization
(3) Retrovirus
(4) DNA fingerprinting
(4) Agrobacterium
19. For a nucleic acid probe to hybridize, which
14. Genetically engineered insulin (Humulin)
of the following must be true ?
consist of :
(1) Both the probe and the sequence to
(1) A chain, B-chain and C-chain peptide
which it hybridizes must be RNA
(2) A chain and B chain prepared by two DNA
(2) Both the probe and the sequence to
sequences corresponding to A and B.
which it hybridizes must be DNA
(3) A chain and C-chain joined together by
(3) The sequence to which it hybridizes must
means of disulphide bond.
be identical to that of the probe
(4) B chain and C-chain.
(4) The sequence to which it hybridizes must
15. Which of the following statement is an be complementary to that of the probe
advantage of recombinant therapeutics?
20. A probe which is a molecule used to locate
(1) Recombinant therapeutics are very easy
specific sequences in a mixture of DNA or
to produce
RNA molecules could be :
(2) Production of recombinant therapeutics
is a cheap process (1) A single stranded RNA
(3) Recombinant therapeutics do not induce (2) A single stranded DNA
unwanted immunological response (3) Either RNA or DNA
(4) None of the above (4) Can be ssDNA but not ssRNA
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Transgenic Animals
Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra (foreign) gene are known
as transgenic animals. Transgenic rats, rabbits, pigs, sheep, cows and fish have been produced,
although over 95 percent of all existing transgenic animals are mice.

(i) Normal physiology and development : Transgenic animals can be specifically designed to allow the
study of how genes are regulated, and how they affect the normal functions of the body and its
development, e.g., study of complex factors involved in growth such as insulin-like growth factor. By
introducing genes from other species that alter the formation of this factor and studying the biological
effects that result, information is obtained about the biological role of the factor in the body.

(ii) Study of disease : Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of how genes
contribute to the development of disease. These are specially made to serve as models for human diseases
so that investigation of new treatments for diseases is made possible. Today transgenic models exist for
many human diseases such as cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer's

(iii) Biological products : Medicines required to treat certain human diseases can contain biological products,
but such products are often expensive to make. Transgenic animals that produce useful biological products
can be created by the introduction of the portion of DNA (or genes) which codes for a particular product
such as human protein (-1-antitrypsin) used to treat emphysema. Similar attempts are being made for
treatment of phenylketonuria (PKU) and cystic fibrosis. In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced
human protein-enriched milk (2.4 grams per litre). The milk contained the human alphalactalbumin and
was nutritionally a more balanced product for human babies that natural cow-milk.

(iv) Vaccine safety : Transgenic mice are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before
they are used on humans. Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine. If
successful and found to be reliable, they could replace the use of monkeys to test the safety of batches
of the vaccine.

(v) Chemical safety testing : This is known as toxicity/safety testing. The procedure is the same as that used
for testing toxicity of drugs. Transgenic animals are made that carry genes which make them more sensitive
to toxic substances than non-transgenic animals. They are then exposed to the toxic substances and the
effects studied. Toxicity testing in such animals will allow us to obtain results in less time.

Special Points:–
In pollution control, microbes have been engineered to break up the crude oil spills.
Dr. Ananda Mohan chakrabarty introduced plasmid from different strains in to single cell of
pseudomonas putida. The result was new genetically engineered bacterium which would
cleaning oil spills called "Super bug" (oil eating bug.) He transferred four types of plasmid
in bacteria. These are OCT, XYL, CAM & NAH.

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Ethical Issues
• The manipulation of living organisms by the human race cannot go on any further, without regulation.
Some ethical standards are required to evaluate the morality of all human activities that might help or
harm living organisms.
• Going beyond the morality of such issues, the biological significance of such things is also important.
Genetic modification of organisms can have unpredictable results when such organisms are introduced
into the ecosystem.
• Therefore, the Indian Government has set up organisations such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering
Approval Committee), which will make decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the
safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services.
• The modification/usage of living organisms for public services (as food and medicine sources, for
example) has also created problems with patents granted for the same.
• There is growing public anger that certain companies are being granted patents for products and technologies
that make use of the genetic materials, plants and other biological resources that have long been identified,
developed and used by farmers and indigenous people of a specific region/country.
• Rice is an important food grain, the presence of which goes back thousands of years in Asia’s
agricultural history. There are an estimated 200,000 varieties of rice in India alone. The diversity of rice
in India is one of the richest in the world. Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavour and
27 documented varieties of Basmati are grown in India. There is reference to Basmati in ancient texts,
folklore and poetry, as it has been grown for centuries. In 1997, an American company got patent
rights on Basmati rice through the US Patent and Trademark Office.
• This allowed the company to sell a ‘new’ variety of Basmati, in the US and abroad. This ‘new’ variety of
Basmati had actually been derived from Indian farmer’s varieties. Indian Basmati was crossed with
semidwarf varieties and claimed as an invention or a novelty. The patent extends to functional
equivalents, implying that other people selling Basmati rice could be restricted by the patent. Several
attempts have also been made to patent uses, products and processes based on Indian traditional
herbal medicines, e.g., turmeric neem. If we are not vigilant and we do not immediately counter these
patent applications, other countries/individuals may encash on our rich legacy and we may not be able
to do anything about it.
• Bio-piracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other
organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without
compensatory payment. Most of the industrialised nations are rich financially but poor in biodiversity
and traditional knowledge. In contrast the developing and the underdeveloped world is rich in
biodiversity and traditional knowledge related to bio-resources. Traditional knowledge related to bio-
resources can be exploited to develop modern applications and can also be used to save time, effort
and expenditure during their commercialisation.
• There has been growing realisation of the injustice, inadequate compensation and benefit sharing
between developed and developing countries. Therefore, some nations are developing laws to prevent
such unauthorised exploitation of their bio-resources and traditional knowledge.
• The Indian Parliament has recently cleared the second amendment of the Indian Patents Bill, that takes
such issues into consideration, including patent terms emergency provisions and research and
development initiative.

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Exercise 1.3
1. The first transgenic cow called ____ produced 7. Transgenic animal has
human protein enriched milk. The milk (1) Foreign DNA is all its cells
(2) Foreign RNA is all its cells
contained the human protein called _____. (3) Foreign DNA is some of the cells
(1) Meagen, tissue plasminogen activator (4) Both 2 and 3
(2) Rosie, alphalactalbumin 8. The use of bio-resources by multinational
(3) Polly, clotting factor VIII companies & other organisation without
(4) Morgan, growth hormone proper authorization from the countries &
people concerned, is known as −
2. Which body of the Government of India (1) Biopatent (2) Biopiracy
regulates GM research and safety of introducing (3) Biowar (4) Biodiversity
GM organisms for public services ? 9. Exploitation of patent biological resources of
a country by another country is known as :
(1) Biosafety Committee
(1) biopatent (2) biopiracy
(2) Indian Council of Agricultural Research (3) biowar (4) all of these
(ICAR) 10. GEAC makes decisions regarding -
(3) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (1) The validity of GM research
(GEAC) (2) The safety of introducing GM organisms
(4) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation for public services
(3) The validity of biopatents
(RCGM) (4) More than one options are correct
3. In 1980, was granted a patent on the first 11. Which Indian plants have been either patented
living form of a micro-organism ‘superbug’ or attempts have been made to patent them
by western nations for their commercial use ?
that had been modified by : (1) Basmati rice
(1) Dr. Ananda Chakrabarty to clear oil spills (2) Turmeric
(2) Dr. Newman for prevention of frost damages (3) Neem
(3) Dr. H Khorana to produce endotoxins (4) All of the above have been targeted
used for insect control 12. The Indian parliament has recently cleared
which amendment of the Indian patents bill :
(4) Dr. Lalji Singh to produce Chitinases
(1) 1st (2) 2nd
enzymes (3) 3 rd
(4) 4th
4. Which of the following transgenic protein 13. Biopatent means-
(1) Right to use an invention
product has been used to treat emphysema ?
(2) Right to use biological resources
(1) α-1-antitrypsin (2) α- Lactalbumin (3) Right to use applications
(3) Cry protein (4) C-peptide (4) Right to use processes

5. A genetically engineered microorganism 14. Which step of Government of India has taken
to cater to the requirement of patent terms
used successfully in bioremediation of oil and other emergency provisions in this regard?
spills is a species of :- (1) Biopiracy act
(1) Pseudomonas (2) Trichoderma (2) Indian patents bill
(3) RTI act
(3) Xanthomonas (4) Bacillus
(4) Negotiable instruments act
6. Select the incorrect match − 15. Biopiracy is related to which of the
(1) Transgenic mice - Polio vaccine following?
(1) Traditional knowledge
(2) Rosie cow - α lactalbumin protein
(2) Biomolecules and regarding bioresources
(3) ssDNA/RNA probe - Gene therapy (3) Bioresources
(4) PCR - Molecular diagnosis (4) All of the above
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Exercise 2
1. In reference to genetically modified plants, 4. Find the correct match-
identify the correct uses of GM plant Column-I Column-II
(a) Crops less tolerant to abiotic stresses. (a) Army worms (i) Dipteran
(b) Reduce reliance on chemical pesticides. (b) Flies (ii) Lepidopteran
(c) Helps to increase post harvest losses. (c) Beetles (iii) Coleopterans
(d) Increased efficiency of mineral usage by (d) Mosquitoes
plants. (e) Tobacco
(e) Reduce nutritional value of food. budworm
Choose the correct answer from options (1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
given below: (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-i, e-i
(1) a, b and c only (2) a, c and e only (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iii, e-ii
(3) b and d only (4) a, d and e only (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
2. Read the following statements- 5. Match the following columns:
(i) Some Bacillus thuringeinsis produce Column-I Column-II
proteins that kill certain insects such as (A) Flavr savr (1) Vitamin-A
lepidopterans, colepterans and dipterans (B) Lepidopterans (2) High yield
(ii) Bacillus thuringiensis does not itself gets and pest
killed by Bt- toxin as it exists as inactive resistant
Protoxins (C) Bt cotton (3) Antisense
(iii) Once bollworms ingest the inactive Bt- technology
toxin (protoxin), it is converted to and (D) Golden rice (4) Tobacco
active form due to the acidic pH of the gut budworm
of insect
(1) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(iv) The active Bt-toxin in insect binds to the
(2) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
surface of midgut epithelial cells
(3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(v) The active Bt-toxin creates pore in insect
(4) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
gut and cause swelling lysis and finally
causes death of insect. 6. Arrange in sequence the steps of prevention
How many of the above statements are of namtode infection in transgenic host plant:
correct? I. The two RNAs being complementary to
(1) Four (2) Three each other forms a dsRNA that initiates
(3) Two (4) One RNAi which silences the specific mRNA of
nematode
3. Golden rice- II. The transgenic plant gets protected from
I. Is a transgenic variety of rice the nematode
II. Contains a good quality of - carotene III. The consequence is that the namatode
(provitamin-A). cannot survive in the transgenic host plant
III. -carotene is a principal source of which expresses specific interfering RNA
vitamin-C. IV. Using Agrobacterium vectors, nemotode
IV. The grains of the rice are red in colour specific genes were introduced into the
due to -carotene host plant. The introduction of DNA is
Which of the statement given above are such, that it produces both sense and
correct? antisense RNA in the host cells
(1) I and II (2) II, III and IV (1) IV → III → I → II (2) IV → I → II → III
(3) I, III and IV (4) All of these (3) IV → III → II → I (4) IV → I → III → II
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7. What does the diagram depicts? 10. Read the following statements:
(i) Very low concentration of bacteria or
Virus (at a time when the symptoms of
the disease are not yet visible) can be
detected by amplification of their nucleic
acid by PCR
(ii) PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV
in suspected AIDS patients
(iii) PCR is being used to detect mutations is
(1) Degradation of insulin
(2) Formation of proinsulin genes in suspected cancer patients
(3) Maturation of pro-insulin into insulin (iv) For many diseases, using conventional
(4) Addition of C-peptide to proinsulin method of diagnosis (serum and urine
8. Match the following columns. analysis), early detection is not possible
Column-I Column-II (v) ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent
(a) Bt toxin (i) Meloidogyne Assay) is based on the principle of
incognitia antigen antibody interaction.
(b) RNAi (ii) Insecticide
How many statements are correct :
(c) Gene therapy (iii) Routine test
(1) Five
for AIDS
(d) PCR (iv) ADA (2) Four
deficiency (3) Three
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (4) Two
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 11. Match the following columns-
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii Column-I Column-II

9. Arrange the steps of ADA-deficiency (a) First transgenic (i) m-RNA

treatment in sequence. cow silencing
I. The lymphocytes with ADA cDNA is (b) Safety test of (ii) Rice
returned to the patient. polio vaccine
II. The lymphocytes from the blood of the
(c) Resistance from (iii) Rosie
patient are grown in culture outside the
nematode
body.
III. A fucntional ADA cDNA (using retroviral (d) Vitamin ‘A’ (iv) Transgenic
vector) is introduced into the enriched crop mice
lymphocytes. (1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(1) I → III → II
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(2) I → II → III
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) II → I → III
(4) II → III → I (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

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12. The diagram below shows a diagrammatic 15. Match the following columns-
sketch of maturation of insulin. Select the Column-I Column-II
correct set of the names labelled A, B, C and D. (a) First clinical gene (i) 1990
therapy
(b) First transgenic cow (ii) 1997
produced
(c) Eli Lily form human (iii) 1983
insulin
(d) American company (iv) 1997
got patent rights on
basmati rice
(1) A–A-peptide, B–B-peptide, C–Proinsulin, (1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
D-Free C-peptide (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) A–Proinsulin, B–A-peptide, C–B-peptide,
16. Match the following columns.
D-Free C-peptide
(3) A–Free C-peptide, B–A-peptide, C–B- Column-I Column-II
peptide, D-Proinsulin (a) Conventional (i) Cystic
(4) A–A-peptide, B–B-peptide, C–Free C- method of fibrosis
peptide, D-Proinsulin diagnosis
13. Match the following columns: (b) Method of (ii) Serum
Column-I Column-II early diagnosis analysis
(a) Gene (i) Effort to fix functional (c) Treatment of (iii) ELISA
therapy gene emphysema
(b) Humulin (ii) A single stranded DNA (d) Transgenic (iv) -1
or RNA tagged with a models antitrypsin
radioactive molecule (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(c) Probe (iii) Diabetes (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(d) ELISA (iv) Diagnostic test (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
17. Which of the following is not true :
14. Match the following columns-
(a) GEAC makes decisions regarding validity
Column-I Column-II
of GM research.
(a) Cry-I Ab (i) Transgenic
(b) In 1997 American company got patent of
animal
basmati rice.
(b) Transgenic (ii) Corn borer
(c) Transgenic animals are used to
models
understand cancer.
(c) Rosie (iii) Cotton
(d) The first transgenic cow was named as
bollworms
Dolly.
(d) Cry-II Ab (iv) Rheumatoid
arthritis (e) C-peptide present in mature insulin.
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (1) d (2) d and e
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (3) b, d, e (4) b and c
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18. Match the following columns- 21. Transgenic animals are produced ?
Column-I Column-II i. To study-how gene are regulated and
(a) Rosie (i) Emphysema how they affect the normal functions of
(b) Biopiracy (ii) Right granted for body and its development
biological entities
ii. To study of diseases
(c) Biopatent (iii) Unauthorised use of
iii. To obtain useful biological product
biological products
and processes iv. To test vaccine safety and chemical safety
(d) -1- (iv) Transgenic cow (1) i, ii, iii and iv
antitrypsin (2) i and iv
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (3) ii and iv
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (4) Only i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii 22. Today, transgenic models exist for many
human disease which includes
19. Identify the correct set of statements :
(i) Cancer
(a) In 1997 the first transgenic cow Rosie
(ii) Cystic fibrosis
was developed.
(b) Rosie produced human protein enriched (iii) Rheumatoid arthritis
milk. (iv) Alzhiemer’s disease
(c) There are an estimated 20,000 varieties (1) (i) and (iii) only
of rice in India alone. (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(d) 27 Documented varieties of Basmati are (3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
grown in India.
(4) All of these
Choose the correct answer from options
given below: 23. Match the following columns and select the
(1) a, b and d only (2) a, c and d only correct option.
(3) b, c and d only (4) a, b, c and d
Column-I Column-II
20. Read the following statements and choose (A) Bt cotton (I) Gene
the correct statements therapy
(i) Gene therapy has been tested on a large (B) Adenosine (II) Cellular
number of patients with a wider variety of
deaminase defence
inherited genetic disorders, and in
deficiency
numerous cases it has produced a
complete cure. (C) RNAi (III) Detection of
(ii) Genetic engineering has been used to HIV infection
produced insulin for curing the diabetes. (D) PCR (IV) Bacillus
(iii) DNA hybridization is the base pairing of thuringiensis
DNA from two different sources.
(1) A-III; B-II; C-I; D-IV
(iv) Genetic engineering is a technique of
(2) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
plant breeding.
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) All of these (4) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
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24. Match the organism with its use in 27. Which one of the following is a case of wrong
biotechnology. matching?
Column-I Column-II (1) Micropropagation-Rapid clonal propagation
(A) Bacillus (I) Cloning (2) Callus-Unorganised mass of cells
thuringiensis vector produced in tissue culture
(B) Thermus (II) Construction (3) Somatic hybridization-Fusion of two
aquaticus of first rDNA diverse cells
molecule (4) Vector DNA-Site for t-RNA synthesis
(C) Agrobacterium (III) DNA
tumefaciens Polymerase 28. Given below are a few statements regarding
(D) Salmonella (IV) Cry proteins somatic hybridization. Choose the correct
typhimurium statements.
Select the correct option from the following: (i) Protoplasts of different cells of the same
(1) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II plant fused
(2) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-1 (ii) Protoplasts from cells of different
(3) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II species is fused
(4) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I (iii) Treatment of cells with cellulase and
25. When a patient with defective ADA was pectinase mandatory
treated, which of the following steps was (iv) The hybrid protoplast contains characters
performed for gene therapy? of parental protoplast
(i) Lymphocytes were obtained from the (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii)
patients. (3) (i) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii)
(ii) Lymphocytes are transferred to culture
29. In virus-infected plants the meristematic
dishes
tissues in both apical and axillary buds are
(iii) Lymphocytes were transfected with
free of virus because :
normal ADA genes.
(iv) The transfected cells are returned to the (1) The dividing cells are virus resistant
patients (2) Meristems have anti-viral compounds
(1) All of these (3) The cell division of meristems are faster
(2) (iii) and (iv) than the rate of viral multiplication
(3) Only (iv) (4) Viruses cannot multiply within meristem
(4) SCID cannot be treated cells
26. Match List-I with List-II. 30. Correct chronological order during callus
List-I List-II formation is :
(p) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency (1) Explant → Cell division → Callus →
(q) Plant tissue (ii) Pomato Addition of Cytokinin → Shoot initiation
culture (2) Callus → Explant → Cell division →
(r) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones
Addition of Cytokinin → Cells acquire
(s) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free
meristematic property
plants
(3) Callus → Cell division → Explant →
Choose the correct answer from the options
Addition of cytokinin → Cells acquire
given below.
(1) (p)- (iv), (q)- (iii), (r)-(ii), (s)- (i) meristematic property
(2) (p)- (iii), (q)- (iv), (r)-(ii), (s)- (i) (4) Explant → Callus → Cell division →
(3) (p)- (ii), (q)- (i), (r)-(iv), (s)- (iii) Addition of cytokinin → Cells acquire
(4) (p)- (iii), (q)- (iv), (r)-(i), (s)- (ii) meristematic property
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Exercise 3
1. Given below are two statements: 4. Statement I: Protein crystal of Bacillus
Statement-I : Bt toxin is produced by a thuringiensis contain toxic insecticidal protein.
bacterium called Bacillus thuringiensis Statement II: Bt toxin protein exist as active
Statement-II : Bt toxin exist in active form. protoxins.
In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: incorrect.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect. incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
incorrect. is correct.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
is correct. correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
5. Statement I: Transgenic animals are more
2. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : The first clinical gene therapy sensitive to the toxic substance than non-
was given in 1990 to a 4 year old girl with transgenic animals.
adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. Statement II: Useful biological products can
Statement-II : ELISA is based on the be produced by introducing the portion of
principle of antigen antibody interaction. DNA which codes for a particular product
In the light of the above statements, choose into transgenic animals.
the most appropriate answer from the
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
options given below:
incorrect.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect. (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
incorrect. (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
is correct. (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. correct.
3. Given below are two statements:
6. Statement I: Bioethics is an unauthorised use
Statement-I About 30 recombinant therapeutics
of bioresources and traditional knowledge
have been approved for human use the world
over. related to bioresources for commercial benefits.
Statement-II : In India, 12 of these are recently Statement II: In 1997 U.S. government has
being marketed. patented the Indian 'basmati' rice as "new
In the light of the above statements, choose variety of Basmati".
the most appropriate answer from the (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
options given below: incorrect.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect.
incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect. (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
is correct. (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. correct.
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Biotechnology and Its Applications Biology
7. Statement I: GMO reduces the nutritional 10. Statement I: Nematode resistant plants was
value of food. developed by RNA interference technology.
Statement II: Nematode-specific genes were
Statement II: GMO increases the post
introduced into host plant.
harvesting losses. (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
incorrect. (2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II
incorrect. is correct.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
is correct. correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 11. Assertion :- Bacillus thuringiensis produces
correct. protein that kills lepidopteran insect only.
Reason :- It forms active protein crystals
8. Statement I: Plants having gene from Bacillus during a particular phase of their growth.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
thuringiensis are resistant to insects.
reason is the correct explanation of
Statement II: These transgenic plants have assertion.
receptors which convert protoxin into active (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
toxin. reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
incorrect. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
12. Assertion :- The choice of cry-gene depends
incorrect. upon the crop & the targeted pest
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II Reason :- Gene cryIAc & cryIIAb control the
is correct. cotton bollworms while cryIAb controls corn
borer.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
correct. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
9. Statement I: Eli Lily prepared two DNA reason is not the correct explanation of
sequences corresponding to A and B chain of assertion.
human insulin. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
Statement II: Chains A and B were produced
separately, extracted and combined by creating 13. Assertion :- RNAi involves silencing of a
specific mRNA due to complementary dsRNA
disulphide bonds to form human insulin.
that binds to & prevents translation of the
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are mRNA.
incorrect. Reason :- RNAi takes place in all prokaryotic
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is organisms as a method of cellular defence.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
incorrect.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
is correct. reason is not the correct explanation of
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
correct.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
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14. Assertion :- The nematode parasite could not 18. Assertion :- The proinsulin contains an extra
survive in a transgenic plant expressing specific stretch called as C-peptide.
interfering RNA. Reason :- Insulin consists of two short
Reason :- The sense & anti-sense RNA in host
polypeptide chains A & B that are linked
are complementary & form a ds RNA, thus
silenced the specific mRNA of nematode. together by disulphide bridges.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is the correct explanation of
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but assertion.
reason is not the correct explanation of (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
assertion. reason is not the correct explanation of
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
assertion.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
15. Assertion (A) :- RNAi is a cellular defense (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
mechanism in eukaryotes.
Reason (R) :- RNAi is silencing of specific tRNA. 19. Assertion :- Eli Lilly prepared two DNA
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and sequences of A & B chains or insulin &
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. introduced them in the plasmids of one
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
[Link].
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. Reason :- Chains A & B produced by this E.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. coli is extracted & combined by creating
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. disulfide bonds to form insulin.
16. Assertion :- The protein encoded by cryIAb is (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
not effective in control of cotton bollworms. reason is the correct explanation of
Reason :- Most Bt toxins are insect group assertion.
specific. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. 20. Assertion :- ADA deficiency can not be cured
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
permanently by gene therapy.
17. Assertion :- Flavr Savr, a transgenic tomato Reason :- The genetically engineered
which remains fresh and retains their flavour lymphocytes are immortal only in culture
for long time.
conditions.
Reason:- Production of polygalactouronase
enzyme, which degrades pectin is reduced in (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
flavr Savr. reason is the correct explanation of
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and assertion.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
152 Sarvam Career Institute
Biotechnology and Its Applications Biology
21. Assertion :- In gene therapy of SClD, a 24. Assertion :- PCR is a powerful technique to
patient requires periodic infusion of identify many genetic disorders.
genetically engineered lymphocytes. Reason :- PCR is now routinely used to detect
HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
Reason :- If the ADA gene is introduced into
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
cells at early embryonic stage, it could be a
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
permanent cure. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
assertion. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
reason is not the correct explanation of 25. Assertion :- Transgenic animals are those
assertion. animals whose DNA is manipulated to
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. possess & express an extra / foreign gene.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. Reason :- About more than 95% of all
existing transgenic animals, are mice.
22. Assertion (A): PCR is now used for molecular (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
diagnosis. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Reason (R): It is being used to detect (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
mutations in genes in suspected cancer reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
patients too.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion. 26. Assertion : Transgenic mice are being
developed for use in testing the safety of
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
vaccines before they are used on human.
reason is not the correct explanation of Reason : Transgenic mice are being used to
assertion. test the safety of polio vaccine.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
23. Assertion :- ELISA is based on the principle reason is not the correct explanation of
of antigen antibody interaction. assertion.
Reason :- Infection by pathogen can be (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
detected by the presence of antigens or by (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
detecting antibodies synthesized against the 27. Assertion :- The milk of 1st transgenic cow,
pathogen. 'Rosie' is far better than natural cow milk.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and Reason :- It produces human protein - alpha
reason is the correct explanation of lactalbumin enriched milk.
assertion. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false.
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 Biology Biotechnology and Its Applications
28. Assertion :- Biopiracy refers to the use of 30. Assertion (A): Virus free plants can be
bioresources by multinational companies produced from meristem tissue culture.
without proper authorization from the
Reason (R): Viruses fail to cope up during the
countries.
Reason :- The Indian government has set up growth of meristem.
GEAC to prevent biopiracy. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct.
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion. (2) If both assertion and reason are true but
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct
reason is not the correct explanation of
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (4) If both assertion and reason are false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false. statements.

29. Assertion :- GEAC will make decision

regarding the validity of GM research and the
safety of introducing GM organisms for
public services
Reason :- Genetic modification of organism
can have unpredictable result when such
organisms are introduced into the ecosystem.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

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Exercise 4 (Previous Year's Questions)

1. An improved variety of transgenic basmati 7. The process of RNA interference has been
rice : [AIPMT-2010] used in the development of plants resistant
(1) Is completely resistant to all insect pests to :- [AIPMT-2011]
and diseases of paddy (1) Nematodes (2) Fungi
(2) Gives high yield but has no characteristic (3) Viruses (4) Insects
aroma
(3) Does not require chemical fertilizers and 8. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals
growth hormones which contain insecticidal protein. This
(4) Give high yield and is rich in vitamin A protein : [AIPMT-2011]
(1) Does not kill the carrier bacterium which
2. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in is itself resistant to this toxin
India has been developed for :[AIPMT-2010] (2) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut of
(1) Enhancing mineral content the insect pest ultimately killing it
(2) Drought-resistance (3) Is coded by several genes including the
(3) Insect-resistance
gene cry
(4) Enhancing shelf life
(4) Is activated by acidic pH of the foregut of
3. Genetic engineering has been successfully the insect pest
used for producing :- [AIPMT-2010]
9. Read the following four statements (A-D)
(1) Transgenic cow, Rosie, which produces
about certain mistakes in two of them-
high fat milk for making ghee
[AIPMT-2011]
(2) Animals like bulls for farm work as they
(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie
have super power.
produced milk which was human alpha-
(3) Transgenic mice for testing safety of
lactalbumin enriched.
polio vaccine before use in humans
(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation
(4) Transgenic models for studying new
treatments for certain cardiac disease of DNA from other macro molecules.
(C) Downstream processing is one of the
4. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are :- steps of r-DNA technology.
[AIPMT-2010] (D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used
(1) High yield and production of toxin in transfer of r-DNA into the host.
protein crystals which kill dipteran pests. Which are the two statements having
(2) High yield and resistance to bollworms mistakes?
(3) Long fibre and resistance to aphids
(1) Statements (A) and (B)
(4) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance
(2) Statements (B) and (C)
to beetle pests
(3) Statements (C) and (D)
5. Maximum number of existing transgenic (4) Statements (A) and (C)
animals is of : [AIPMT-2011] 10. Consumption of which one of the following
(1) Fish (2) Mice
foods can prevent the kind of blindness
(3) Cow (4) Pig
associated with vitamin 'A' deficiency ?
6. Silencing of mRNA has been used in [AIPMT-2012]
producing transgenic plants resistant to: (1) Golden rice
[AIPMT-2011] (2) Bt-Brinjal
(1) Bacterial blights (2) Bollworms (3) Flaver Savr tomato
(3) Nematodes (4) White rusts (4) Canolla
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 Biology Biotechnology and Its Applications
11. The first clinical gene therapy was given for 18. In Bt cotton, the Bt toxin present in plant
treating: [AIPMT-2012] tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis toxin due to : [AIPMT-2015]
(2) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (1) Acidic pH of the insect gut
(3) Diabetes mellitus (2) Action of gut micro-organisms
(4) Chicken pox (3) Presence of conversion factors in insect
gut
12. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a
(4) Alkaline pH of the insect gut
radioactive molecule is called :
[AIPMT-2012] 19. Which body of the Government of India regulates
(1) Clone (2) Plasmid GM research and safety of introducing GM
(3) Vector (4) Probe organisms for public services ?
[AIPMT-2015]
13. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have
(1) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
been developed by the introduction of DNA
(2) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
that produced (in the host cells) :-
(3) Research Committee on Genetic manipulation
[AIPMT-2012]
(4) Biosafety Committee
(1) An antifeedant
(2) A toxic protein 20. The introduction of t-DNA into plants
(3) Both sense and anti-sense RNA involves- [AIPMT-2015]
(4) A particular hormone (1) Allowing the plant roots to stand in water
(2) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium
14. Which one of the following technique is used
tumefaciens
to produce the GM crops ? [AIPMT-2013]
(3) Altering the pH of the soil, then heat
(1) Micropropogation
shocking the plants
(2) Somatic hybridization
(4) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief
(3) r − DNA technology
period
(4) Cross breeding
21. The crops engineered for glyphosate are
15. RNAi results in : [AIPMT-2013]
resistant/ tolerant to :- [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Silencing of m-RNA translation
(1) Bacteria (2) Insects
(2) Silencing of a specific m-RNA due to
(3) Herbicides (4) Fungi
complementary dsRNA molecule.
(3) Silencing of m-RNA molecule 22. A technique of micropropagation is
(4) Silencing of DNA for m-RNA transcription [AIPMT-2015]
(1) protoplast fusion
16. The first human hormone produced by
(2) embryo rescue
recombinant DNA technology is
(3) somatic hybridisation
[AIPMT-2014]
(4) somatic embryogenesis.
(1) Insulin (2) Estrogen
(3) Thyroxin (4) Progestrone
23. Which of the following enhances or induces
17. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop fusion of protoplasts? [AIPMT-2015]
plant where the incorporated gene is meant (1) IAA and kinetin
for biosynthesis of [AIPMT-2015] (2) IAA and gibberellins
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride
(3) Vitamin C (4) Omega 3 (4) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate
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Biotechnology and Its Applications Biology
24. In India, the organisation responsible for 29. Which of the following features of genetic
assessing the safety of introducing genetically code does allow bacteria to produce human
modified organisms for public use is : insulin by recombinant DNA technology?
[NEET-2018] [NEET-2019]
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (1) Genetic code is nearly universal
(ICMR) (2) Genetic code is specific
(2) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (3) Genetic code is not ambiguous
(CSIR)
(4) Genetic code is redundant
(3) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation
(RCGM) 30. Match the organism with its use in
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee biotechnology. [NEET-2020]
(GEAC) Column-I Column-II
25. A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a (a) Bacillus (i) Cloning
foreign company, though such varieties have Thuringiensis vector
been present in india for a long time. This is (b) Thermus (ii) Construction
related to- [NEET-2018] aquaticus of first rDNA
(1) Co-667 (2) Sharbati Sonora Molecule
(3) Lerma Rojo (4) Basmati (c) Agrobacterium (iii) DNA
26. Use of bioresources by multinational companies tumefaciens polymerase
and organisations without authorisation (d) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
from the concerned country and its people is typhimurium
called - [NEET-2018] Select the correct option from the following
(1) Bio-infringement (2) Biopiracy (1) (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i)
(3) Biodegradation (4) Bioexploitation (2) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii)
(3) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (iii), (d) → (i)
27. What triggers activation of protoxin to active
bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll (4) (a) → (iv), (b) → (iii), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii)
worm? [NEET-2019] 31. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Alkaline pH of gut
correct option. [NEET-2020]
(2) Acidic pH of stomach
Column-I Column-II
(3) Body temperature
(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
(4) Moist surface of midgut
(b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence
28. Which of the following is true for Golden deaminase
rice? [NEET-2019] deficiency
(1) It is drought tolerant, developed using
(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV
Agrobacterium vector.
infection
(2) It has yellow grains, because of a gene
(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus
introduced from a primitive variety of
thuringiensis
rice.
(3) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from (1) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i)
daffodil. (2) (a) → (i), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iii), (d) → (iv)
(4) It is pest resistant, with a gene from (3) (a) → (iv), (b) → (i), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iii)
Bacillus thuringiensis. (4) (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (i), (d) → (iv)
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32. Which of the following statements is not 36. When gene targetting involving gene
correct? [NEET-2020] amplification is attempted in an individual’s
tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
(1) The functional insulin has A and B chains
[NEET-2021]
linked together by hydrogen bonds. (1) Safety testing
(2) Genetically engineered insulin is (2) Biopiracy
produced in E-Coli. (3) Gene therapy
(3) In human insulin is synthesised as a (4) Molecular diagnosis
proinsulin. 37. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results
into [NEET-2021]
(4) The proinsulin has an extra peptide
(1) Addison’s disease
called C-peptide. (2) Dysfunction of Immune system
(3) Parkinson’s disease
33. Bt cotton variety that was developed by the
(4) Digestive disorder
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus
38. Which of the following is not an application
thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to :
of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
[NEET-2020] [NEET-2021]
(1) Plant nematodes (2) Insect predators (1) Detection of gene mutation
(3) Insect pests (4) Fungal diseases (2) Molecular diagnosis
(3) Gene amplification
34. With regard to insulin choose correct (4) Purification of isolated protein
options- [NEET-2021] 39. In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires
insulin. periodic infusion of genetically engineered
lymphocytes because- [NEET-2021]
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology
(1) Gene isolated from marrow cells
has C-peptide. producing ADA is introduced into cells at
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide. embryonic stages
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are (2) Lymphocytes from patient's blood are
interconnected by disulphide bridges. grown in culture, outside the body.
(3) Genetically engineered lymphocytes are
Choose the correct answer from the options
not immortal cells.
given below. (4) Retroviral vector is introduced into these
(1) (a) and (d) only lymphocytes.
(2) (b) and (d) only 40. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated
(3) (b) and (c) only gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a
clone of cells, followed by its detection using
35. For effective treatment of the disease, early autoradiography because: [NEET-2021]
diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology (1) Mutated gene does not appear on
photographic film as the probe has
is very important. Which of the following
complimentarity with it.
molecular diagnostic techniques is very (2) Mutated gene partially appears on a
useful for early detection? [NEET-2021] photographic film.
(1) Hybridization Technique (3) Mutated gene completely and clearly
(2) Western Blotting Technique Appears on a photographic film.
(4) Mutated gene does not appear on a
(3) Southern Blotting Technique
photographic film as the probe has no
(4) ELISA Technique complimentarity with it.
158 Sarvam Career Institute
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41. Transposons can be used during which one of 44. Given below are two statements:
the following? [NEET-2022] [NEET-2024]
(1) Gene silencing Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group
specific and coded by a gene cry IAc.
(2) Autoradiography
Statement II : Bt toxin exists as in active
(3) Gene sequencing
protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after
(4) Polymerase Chain Reaction ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin
42. Statements related to human insulin are gets converted into active form due to acidic
pH of the insect gut.
given below: Which statement (s) is/are correct
In the light of the above statements, choose
about genetically engineered Insulin?
the correct answer from the options given
[NEET-2022] below:
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is
stretch of C-peptide. false
(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is
were produced separately in [Link], true
extracted and combined by creating (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true
disulphide bond between them.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was
false
extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
45. Match List-I with List-II [NEET-2024]
(d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be
List -I List -II
processed for converting into a mature
(A) Α -1 antitrypsin (I) Cotton
and functional hormone.
bollworm
(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions (B) Cry IAb (II)
ADA deficiency
to the foreign insulin. (C) Cry IAc (III)
Emphysema
Choose the most appropriate answer from (D) Enzyme (IV)
Corn borer
the options given below : replacement
(1) (b) only therapy
(2) (c) and (d) only Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) (c), (d) and (e) only given below :
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) (a), (b) and (d) only
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
43. Which one of the following techniques does (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of a (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
disease for its early treatment? [NEET-2023]
46. The capacity to generate a whole plant from
(1) Serum and Urine analysis
any cell of the plant is called:
(2) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
[NEET-2024]
technique
(1) Differentiation
(3) Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay (2) Somatic hybridization
(ELISA) technique (3) Totipotency
(4) Recombinant DNA Technology (4) Micropropagation
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47. Which of the following are fused in somatic 50. The Bt toxin in genetically engineered Bt
hybridization involving two varieties of cotton kills the pest by: [RENEET-2024]
plants? [NEET-2024] (1) creating pores in the midgut
(1) Protoplasts (2) damaging the respiratory system
(2) Pollens (3) degenerating the nervous system
(3) Callus (4) altering the pH of body fluids
(4) Somatic embryos
51. Following are the steps involved inaction of
48. Given below are two statements: toxin in Bt. Cotton. [RENEET-2024]
[RENEET-2024] A. The inactive toxin converted into active
Statement I: The Indian Government has set form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect.
up GEAC, which will make decisions B. Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals
regarding the. validity of GM research. with toxic insecticidal proteins.
Statement II: Biopiracy is the term used to C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals.
refer to the use of bio-resources by native D. The activated toxin binds to the surface
people. of midgut cells, creates pores and causes
In the light of the above statements, choose death of the insect.
the correct answer from the options given E. The toxin proteins exist as in active
below: protoxins in bacteria.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is Choose the correct sequence of steps from
false the options given below:
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is (1) E→C→B→A→D
true (2) B→C→A→E→D
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) A→E→B→D→C
true (4) B→E→C→A→D
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false 52. Given below are two statements:-
[RENEET-2024]
49. Match List-I with List-II:- [RENEET-2024]
Statement I : RNA interference takes place in
List -I List -II
all Eukaryotic organisms as method of
(A) Genetically (I) Gene therapy cellular defense.
engineered Statement II : RNAi involves the silencing of
Human Insulin a specific mRNA due to a complementary
(B) GM Cotton (II) E. coli single stranded RNA molecule that bind and
(C) ADA Deficiency (III) Antigen- prevents translation of mRNA
antibody In the light of the above statements, choose
interaction the correct answer from the options given
(D) ELISA (IV) Bacillus below:-
thuringiensis (1) Statement I is true but statement II is
Choose the correct answer from the options false
given below: (2) Statement I is false but statement II is
(1) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I true
(2) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III (3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) A-IV, В-III, C-I, D-II (4) Both statement I and statement II are
(4) A-II, B-IV,C-I, D-III false
160 Sarvam Career Institute
Biotechnology and Its Applications Biology
53. Which of the following genetically 55. Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic
engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to patients? [NEET-2025]
prepare human insulin? [NEET-2025]
(1) Virus (2) Phage (1) Because of structural variation
(3) Bacterium (4) Yeast (2) Its bioavailability will be increased
54. Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via (3) Human body will elicit strong immune
RNAi because of– [NEET-2025] response
(1) Complementary tRNA
(2) Non–complementary ssRNA (4) It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal
(3) Complementary dsRNA (GI) tract
(4) Inhibitory ssRNA

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 Biology Biotechnology and Its Applications

ANSWER KEYS

Exercise 1.1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 1 1 3 4 3 1 1 2 1 3 4 1 2 3 3 2 3 3
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 1 3 3 4 2 3 1 3 2 2 3 2 1 4 2 1 3 2 1

Exercise 1.2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 1 2 1 3 4 3 2 3 4 4 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 4 3

Exercise 1.3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 2 2 2 4

Exercise 2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 1 1 4 1 4 3 2 4 1 4 2 1 2 4 1 2 1 1 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 4 1 1 3 4 4 3 1

Exercise 3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 4 2 4 4 1 2 4 4 4 2 3 1 3 1 1 2 4 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 3 2 1

Exercise 4 (Previous Year's Questions)

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 3 2 2 3 1 2 1 1 2 4 3 3 2 1 1 4 2 2
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 3 4 4 4 2 1 3 1 4 3 1 3 4 4 3 2 4 3 4
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans. 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 4 1 4 1 3 3 4

162 Sarvam Career Institute

 Notes

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 Notes

Sarvam Career Institute