21-05-2025

2302CMD303031250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) If s = 3t3 – 2t2 + 2t – 7 then at t = 3, =

(1) 71
(2) 72
(3) 73
(4) 74

2) Maximum value of 5 sinθ – 12 cosθ is:-

(1) 13
(2) 5
(3) 12
(4) None

3) Given that . Minimum value of y is

(1) zero
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 10/ (1+3)

4) Find the value of x1, if

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

5) Choose correct value of sin 2º :-

(1)
(2)

(3) 1

(4)

6)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The radius of circle x2 + y2 = 4 is –

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 16

8) If y = sin x and x = 3t then will be :-

(1) 3 cos t
(2) cos 3t
(3) 3 cos 3t
(4) – cos t

9) The graph of equation y = 2x – 4x2 is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

10) The angle between the two vectors and will be :-

(1) 90°
(2) 0°
(3) 60°
(4) 45°

11) If a vector is perpendicular to the vector . Then the value of α is :-

(1) –1

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

12)

The magnitude of vectors and are respectively 6, 8 and 10 units where than angle
between will be :

(1) 0°
(2) 45°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°

13) If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then the magnitude of their difference is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) The vector sum of the forces 10 N and 6 N can be:

(1) 2 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 18 N
(4) 20 N

15)

If a unit vector is represented by , then the value of ‘c’ is

(1) 1
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) If coordinates of A point is (r, θ) then it's position vector is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) The algebraic sum of two vectors is 16 units. Their magnitude of vector sum is 8 units and
the resultant of the vectors is perpendicular to the smaller vector. Then the magnitudes of the two
vectors are -

(1) 2 unit and 14 unit

(2) 4 unit and 12 unit
(3) 6 unit and 10 unit
(4) 8 unit and 8 unit

18) What is the component of along ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
19) If then is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

20) The vector representation of force in terms of unit vector and is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The resultant of and is . On reversing the vector , the resultant becomes . What is the
value of

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

22)

Angle between and is θ. What is the value of ?

(1) P2Qcos θ
(2) Zero
(3) P2Qsin θ cos θ
(4) P2Qsin θ
23) Which is a vector quantity :-

(1) Angular acceleration

(2) Electric potential
(3) Electric current
(4) Refractive index

24) If is a unit vector in the direction of the vector , then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A physical quantity which has a direction :-

(1) must be a vector

(2) may be a vector
(3) must be scalar
(4) none of the above

26) If two vectors and are parallel to each other then value of λ be :-

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Out of the following set of forces, the resultant of which cannot be zero :-

(1) 10, 10, 10

(2) 10, 10, 20
(3) 10, 20, 20
(4) 10, 20, 40

28) The unit vector along is:

(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)

29) If is a vector of magnitude 5 units due east. What is the magnitude and direction of a vector
?

(1) 5 units due east

(2) 25 units due east
(3) 5 units due west
(4) 25 units due west

30) Which of the following equation can be correct for given straight line?

(1) x + y = 5
(2) x – y + 5 = 0
(3) x – y = 5
(4) x + y + 5 = 0

31) Which of the following is an axial vector ?

(1) Velocity
(2) Displacement
(3) Torque
(4) Force

32) What happens when we multiply a vector by – 2 ?

(1) Direction reverses and magnitude is doubled

(2) direction reverses and unit changes
(3) Direction remains unchanged but unit changes
(4) Neither direction reverses nor unit changes, only the magnitude is doubled

33) The figure shows ABCDEF as a regular hexagon. What is the value of
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) The component of the vector along vector is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

35) Find :

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

36) Find rate of change of volume of a cube w.r.t side, when side = 2m.

(1) 8 m3/m
(2) 12 m3/m
(3) 24 m3/m
(4) zero

37)

Find average value of f(x) = x2 + 3x in interval [0, 6].

(1) 21
(2) 24
(3) 18
(4) 36
38) Value of (1.002)3 = .....

(1) 1.008
(2) 1.004
(3) 1.006
(4) 1.005

39)

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) Can't be determined

40)

Calculate slope of shown line :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

41) radian = ...........?

(1) 60°
(2) 18°
(3) 36°
(4) 108°
42) For given graph of straight line. Which statement is correct :-

(1) Slope angle is 143°

(2) Intercept on y-axis is 10
(3) Slope is negative
(4) All above

43) (sin x3) is equal to :-

(1) cos x3
(2) 3x2 cos x2
(3) 6x2 cos x3
(4) 3x2 cos x3

44) For given y-x curve value of at point P will be :

(1) 1
(2) 45°

(3)

(4)

45) If y = 4x2 , then graph between and x is:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) 2.5 mol of calcium has mass of :-

(1) 100g
(2) 10g
(3) 5g
(4) 1g

2)

Which and what amount will remain unreacted after the reaction between 3g carbon and 2g oxygen
to produce CO.

(1) 1.5 g C
(2) 0.5 g O2
(3) 1 g O2
(4) 0.5 g C

3)

The chloride of metal has the formula MCl3. The formula of its phosphate will be:

(1) M2PO4
(2) MPO4
(3) M3PO4
(4) M(PO4)2

4) 3.011 × 1022 atoms of an element weigh 1.15 g. The atomic mass of the element is :-
(1) 10 amu
(2) 2.3 amu
(3) 35.5 amu
(4) 23 amu

5) The actual mass of oxygen molecule is :-

(1) 53.44 × 10–24 Kg

(2) 26.72 × 10–24 g
(3) 26.72 × 10–24 Kg
(4) 53.44 × 10–24 g

6) Mass of one molecule of CO2 is

(1) 44 g
(2) 44 × 1.67 × 10–28 g
(3) 44 amu
(4) 32 g

7) The vapour density of a gaseous hydrocarbon is 36. If hydrocarbon is CnH2n+2 then n is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

8) A gas is found to have the formula (CH2)x and Its V.D. is 56 then value of x must be :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 10

9) 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is :

(1) NO
(2) N2O
(3) CO
(4) CO2

10) What is number of atoms present in 2.24 dm3 NH3(g) at STP ?

(1) 6.022 × 1022

(2) 2.4088 × 1023
(3) 1.8066 × 1022
(4) 6.022 × 1023

11) Caffine has a molecular weight of 194. It contains 28.9% by mass of nitrogen. Number of atoms
of nitrogen in one molecule of it is –

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

12) The percentage of oxygen in NaOH is :-

(1) 16%
(2) 4%
(3) 40%
(4) 8%

13) 50 gm CaCO3 react with how many gm of 20% HCl by weight :-

CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2 + CO2

(1) 36.5
(2) 73
(3) 109.5
(4) 182.5

14) In a hydrocarbon, 92.3% C is present. Its molecular weight is 78. The molecular formula of
compound will be :-

(1) C2H2
(2) C5H18
(3) C6H6
(4) C4H8

15) Two element X (at. mass = 75) and Y (at. mass = 16) combine to give a compound having 75.8%
of X. The formula of the compound is :-

(1) XY
(2) X2Y
(3) X2Y2
(4) X2Y3

16) Volume occupied by one molecule of water ( = 1gm/ml) is

(1) 3 × 10–23 cm3

(2) 5.5 × 10–23 cm3
(3) 9 × 10–23 cm3
(4) 6 × 10–23 cm3

17) For the complete combustion of 280 kg C4H8, required amount of O2(g) is :

(1) 480 kg
(2) 960 kg
(3) 240 kg
(4) 720 kg

18) According to following reaction

A + BO3 → A3O4 + B2O3
The number of moles of A3O4 produced if 1 mole of A is mixed with 1 mole of BO3 is

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 1/3
(4) 2/3

19)

Column-I Column-II
(No. of moles) (Amount)

(A) 0.1 mole (p) 4480 mL of CO2 at STP

(B) 0.2 mole (q) 0.1 g atom of iron

(C) 0.25 mole (r) 1.5 × 1023 molecules of oxygen gas

(D) 0.5 mole (s) 9 mL of water

(1) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s
(2) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
(3) A-q, B-p, C-s, D-r
(4) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p

20) x gram of CaCO3 was completely decomposed. The mass of the solid residue formed is 28 g.
What is the value of ‘x’ in gram?

(1) 44
(2) 200
(3) 150
(4) 50

21) The equivalent weight of an element is 4. It's chloride has a V.D. 59.25. Then the valency of the
element is –

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

22)

Molecular weight of tribasic acid is W. Its equivalent weight will be :

(1) W

(2)

(3)

(4) 3W

23) If 10 volumes of dihydrogen gas reacts with five volumes of dioxygen gas, how many volumes of
water vapour would be produced ?

(1) 5
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 10

24) Phosphine (PH3) is a poisonous gas which decompose to form molecular phosphorous (P4) and
hydrogen gas. If 200 mL of PH3 is decomposed then the observed change in volume is : (4PH3(g) →
P4(s) + 6H2(g)).

(1) 100 mL increase in volume

(2) 100 mL decrease in volume
(3) 200 mL increase in volume
(4) 200 mL decrease in volume

25) In the reaction 4A + 2B + 3C → A4B2C3 what will be the number of moles of product formed?
Starting from 2 moles of A, 1.2 moles of B and 1.44 moles of C.

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 4.64
(4) 0.48

26) 0.5 mole of H2SO4 is mixed with 0.2 mole of Ca(OH)2. The maximum number of moles of CaSO4
formed is:

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.4
(4) 1.5
27) How many grams of 10% pure sulphur will produce 5.6 L SO2 at NTP ?

(1) 8g
(2) 80 g
(3) 0.8 g
(4) 800 g

28) How many maximum moles of water will be formed from a reaction between 6 g of H2 and 64 g
of O2?

(1) 3 mol
(2) 2.5 mol
(3) 2 mol
(4) 3.5 mol

29) The mass of CO2 produced by heating 50g of 50% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40)

(1) 25g
(2) 11g
(3) 22g
(4) 5.5g

30) 10 L of N2 gas and 10 L of gas x at same temperature and pressure contain same weights of
gases. The gas x is :-

(1) CO2
(2) NO
(3) CO
(4) H2

31) The amount of zinc required to produce 1.12 ml of H2​ at STP on treatment with dilute HCl will
be:

(1) 65 g
(2) 0.065 g
(3)
(4) 6.5 g

32) The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the reaction,

NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O is :-

(1) 59
(2) 49
(3) 25
(4) 98

33) In a metal oxide 32% oxygen is present. What will be equivalent mass of metal :-

(1) 34
(2) 17
(3) 32
(4) 52

34) Equal volumes of H2 and Cl2 are mixed. How will the volume of the mixture changes after the
reaction at same T and P ?

(1) Unchanged
(2) Reduced to half
(3) Increases two fold
(4) None of these

35) At same temperature and pressure, calculate the ratio of moles of CO2 and CH4 in same volume :-

(1) 3 : 5
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

36) The No. of oxygen atoms in 4.4 gm of CO2 is approx

(1) 1.2 × 1023

(2) 6 × 1022
(3) 6 × 1023
(4) 12 × 1023

37) 1 gm -atom of nitrogen may represent :

23
(1) 6.02 × 10 N2 molecules
(2) 22.4 lit. of N2 at 1 atm and 273 K
(3) 11.2 lit. of N2 at 1 atm and 0° C
(4) 28 g of nigrogen

38) The molarity of the solution containing 2.8% (mass/volume) solution of KOH is : (Given atomic
mass of K =39)

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 0.5 M
(3) 0.2 M
(4) 1 M
39) Vapour density of a gas is 5.6, volume of 5.6 gm of it at STP is–

(1) 5.6 L
(2) 11.2 L
(3) 22.4 L
(4) 2.8 L

40) 13 g of a gaseous hydrocarbon occupy 11.2 L of volume at NTP. Its vapour density is :-

(1) 26
(2) 13
(3) 52
(4) 24

41) Mole fraction of urea in its 0.5 molal aqueous solution is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Four 1-1 litre flasks are separately filled with the gases H2, He, O2, and O3 at the same
temperature and pressure. The ratio of total number of atoms of these gases present in different
flask would be :

(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 3
(3) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 2 : 2 : 1

43) In the reaction : A + B2 → AB2

2 mol of A is mixed with 3 mol B2 in suitable conditions which one is limiting reactant and what
amount of AB2 will formed ?

(1) No one is limiting reactant

(2) A is limiting and 2 mol AB2 is formed
(3) B2 is limiting and 3 mol AB2 is formed
(4) A is limiting and 3 mol AB2 is formed

44) An organic compound has an empirical formula (CH2O). Its vapour density is 45. The molecular
formula of the compound is:

(1) CH2O
(2) C2H5O
(3) C2H2O
(4) C3H6O3

45) 4.8 g of KClO3 when heated produced 1.9 g of oxygen and the residue (KCl) left behind 2.9 g.
Which law of chemical combination is illustrated.

(1) Law of mass conservation

(2) Law of definite proportion
(3) Law of reciprocal proportion
(4) Law of gaseous volume

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statement is true for mitochondria?

(1) Inner membrane forms number of infoldings known as cisternae.

(2) Matrix possess single, circular and single stranded DNA molecule.
(3) Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP.
(4) Are the sites of anaerobic respiration.

2) Bacterial flagellum is composed of:-

(1) Centriole, hook and axoneme

(2) Axoneme, basal body and tubulin protein
(3) Basal body, hook and filament
(4) Basal body, axoneme and centrosome

3) Aleuroplast contains:-

(1) Proteins and fats

(2) Fats and oils
(3) Proteins & starch
(4) Protein only

4) In a plant cell, vacuole can occupy up to _______% space of the cell.

(1) 70
(2) 80
(3) 90
(4) 50

5) Statement-I:- Plant cells differ from animals cells.

Statement-II:- The plant cell possess cell walls, plastids & a large vacuole which are absent in
animal cell.
(1) Both statements are correct.
(2) Both statement are incorrect.
(3) Statement - I is correct but statement - II is incorrect.
(4) Statement - I is incorrect but statement - II is correct.

6) A polysome is :-

(1) Several mRNA bound to a single Ribosome.

(2) Several subunits of ribosomes attached to each other.
(3) Several ribosomes attached to a single strand of mRNA
(4) Several mRNA attached to each other.

7) Select correct option with respect to nucleolus.

(1) Non membranous

(2) Site for active rRNA synthesis
(3) Larger and more numerous in active protein synthesizing cells
(4) All of the above

8) Match List–I with List–II.

List-I List-II

A. RER i. Important site of formation of glycoprotein

B. SER ii. Rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes

Continuous with the outer membrane of the

C. Lysosomes iii.
nucleus

D. Golgi bodies iv. Synthesis of steroidal hormones

(1) A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i

(2) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
(3) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(4) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv

9) Which phase corresponds to the interval between the mitosis and initiation of DNA replication ?

(1) S phase
(2) M phase
(3) G1 Phase
(4) G2 Phase
10) Identify structure A, B and C in given diagram :-

(1) A – SER, B – Cytosol, C – RER

(2) A – RER, B – Nuclear pore, C – SER
(3) A – SER, B – Nuclear pore, C – RER
(4) A – RER, B – Ribosome, C – SER

11) Which of the given cell organelles is found in both prokaryotic as well as eukaryotic cells?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Microbodies
(3) Vacuoles
(4) Ribosome

12) "Omnis cellula-e cellula" means:-

(1) Cell is the structural unit of life.

(2) Cell is the fundamental unit of life.
(3) New cells are formed from pre-existing cells.
(4) Functions differ from cell to cell.

13) Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?

(1) Cyanophycean granules

(2) Phosphate granules
(3) Glycogen granules
(4) Lysosome

14) Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the given section of cilia/flagella showing
different parts. Choose the option which shows the correct labelling of parts.
(1) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke
(2) A – Plasma membrane, B – Arm, C – Central microtubule, D – Radial spoke
(3) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C – Hub, D – Radial spoke
(4) A – Plasma membrane, B – Interdoublet bridge, C– Hub, D – Arm

15) Identify the A, B, C and D in the given figure.

(1) A–WBC, B–Mesophyll cell, C–RBC, D–Columnar Epithelial cells

(2) A–Columnar epithelial cells, B–Mesophyll cell, C–WBC, D–RBC
(3) A–Mesophyll cell, B–WBC, C–Columnar epithelial cells, D–WBC
(4) A–RBC, B–Columnar epithelial cells, C–Mesophyll Cell, D–WBC

16) Assertion :- Content of nucleolus remain continuous with rest of nucleoplasm.

Reason :- Nucleolus is membraneless.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

17) Assertion :- Cytoplasmic compartmentalization is not observed in blue green algae.

Reason :- Membrane bound cell organelles are absent in prokaryotes.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

18) According to fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane the quasifluid nature of :-

(1) Protein enables lateral movement of lipids within the overall bilayer.
(2) Lipid and protein enable the lateral movement of carbohydrates.
(3) Lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer.
(4) Lipid enables the flip-flop movement of proteins.

19) Prokaryotic mesosomes do not help in:

(1) DNA replication

(2) Cell wall formation
(3) Respiration
(4) Photosynthesis

20) Plastids differ from mitochondria on the basis of which of the following features?

(1) Presence of two layers of membrane

(2) Presence of ribosome
(3) Presence of thylakoids
(4) Presence of DNA

21) Which of the following is not true for a eukaryotic cell?

(1) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria.

(2) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm.
(3) Mitochondria contain circular DNA.
(4) Membrane bound organelles are present.

22) Important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is:-

(1) Golgi complex

(2) RER
(3) Mitochondria
(4) SER

23) The two centrioles in centrosome lie at an angle of:-

(1) 45°
(2) 90°
(3) 30°
(4) 180°
24) Vacuole :

(1) Is consisting of all hydrolytic enzyme.

(2) Performs the function of packaging material.
(3) Is double membranous structure.
(4) Contains water, sap, excretory product and other material which is not useful for cell.

25) Match the column I and column II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Active transport (i) Movement of water by diffusion

(b) Passive transport (ii) Na+/K+ pump

(c) Osmosis (iii) Movement of neutral solutes

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)

26) Select the correct statements.

(a) Cell wall is nonliving in nature.
(b) Cell wall give shape to the cell.
(c) Cell wall do not protect cell from infection.
(d) Cell wall helps in cell to cell interaction.

(1) (a), (b), (d)

(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) Only (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)

27) Statement-I : Golgi apparatus remains in the close association with the endoplasmic reticulum.
Statement-II : Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the cis face of
the golgi apparatus.

(1) Only statement I is correct.

(2) Only statement II is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

28) RER, Ribosome, Lysosome, Plasmodesmata, Chloroplast, Peroxisome

How many components from the above list are related with the process of protein synthesis ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
29) Which side in a cell does luminal and extra luminal compartments are situated respectively:-

(1) Cytoplasm, Inside ER

(2) Inside ER, Cytoplasm
(3) Cytoplasm, Plasma membrane
(4) Nucleus, Cytoplasm

30) ds DNA is found in :-

(1) Nucleus
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Chloroplast
(4) All of these

31) Which of the following cell organelles is not considered as a part of the endomembrane system?

(1) Peroxisome
(2) Vacuole
(3) Lysosome
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

32) Match the following:

List-I List-II

A Cytoskeleton I) Lipid synthesis

B Ribosomes II) Protein synthesis

C Lysosomes III) Digesting biomolecules

Smooth endoplasmic
D IV) Mechanical support
reticulum

(1) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV

(2) A - III, B - II, C - I, D - IV
(3) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
(4) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV

33) Ribosomes are made up of:-

(1) DNA and protein

(2) DNA and lipid
(3) RNA and protein
(4) RNA and DNA

34) Two statements are given below :

Statement-1 :- The inner and outer nuclear membranes remain continuous with rough endoplasmic
reticulum.
Statement-2 :- The nucleus is enclosed by nuclear envelope a double membrane structure with
nuclear pores.

(1) Statement-1 is true while 2 is false.

(2) Statement-2 is true while 1 is false.
(3) Both statement 1 and 2 are true.
(4) Both statement 1 and 2 are false.

35) The term chromatin was coined by :-

(1) Robert Brown

(2) Flemming
(3) Camillo Golgi
(4) Rudolf Virchow

36) Which of the following option is correct regarding given structure of chromosome ?

Chromatid Kinetochore Centromere

(1) 2 2 4

(2) 2 2 1

(3) 4 1 2

(4) 4 2 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Which layer of the cell envelope prevents the bacterium from bursting or collapsing ?

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Glycocalyx
(3) Cell wall
(4) Capsule

38) Different cells have different sizes. Arrange the following cells in an ascending order of their size
and select the correct option.
(i) Mycoplasma (ii) Ostrich eggs
(iii) Human RBCs (iv) Bacteria

(1) (i) → (iv) → (iii) → (ii)

(2) (i) → (iii) → (iv) → (ii)
(3) (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv)
(4) (iii) → (ii) → (i) → (iv)

39) Study the given diagrammatic view of cell cycle and mark the correct option :-

(1) Interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle.
(2) M-phase starts with cytokinesis.
(3) Yeast cell can progress through the cell cycle in about 90 seconds.
(4) Cell cycle is divided into two basic phases interkinesis and karyokinesis.

40) In which of the following state, cells remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless
called on to do so depending on the requirement of the organism?

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2
(4) G0

41) DNA synthesis occurs in which phase ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Interphase
(4) Telophase

42) The phase between two successive M phases is:-

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2
(4) Interphase

43) Read the following statement and choose option which is true for them.
Statement A: The steps of cell division themselves are under genetic control.
Statement B: Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process.

(1) Only Statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

44) G2 phase is not associated with :-

(1) Synthesis of some non-histone proteins.

(2) Synthesis of tubulin proteins for spindle fibres.
(3) DNA synthesis.
(4) Cell growth continues.

45) In which stage of the cell cycle histone proteins are synthesized in a eukaryotic cell?

(1) During G2 stage of prophase

(2) During S-phase
(3) During entire prophase
(4) During telophase

46) Which of the following is incorrect for epithelium ?

(1) Cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix

(2) It is highly vascularised
(3) It provides a covering or a lining for some parts of the body
(4) It helps in secretion and absorption

47)

Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the option which include all correct ones
only :-
A. Compound epithelium is made up of layer of cell and has role in secretion, absorption.
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium commonly found in ducts of glands and tubular part of nephron
C. Main function of simple squamous epithelium is forming a diffusion boundary.

D. Epithelial cells are loosely packed with intercellular matrix.

(1) A, B, C & D
(2) A & B
(3) B & C
(4) A, C & D

48) Tendon is an example of :-

(1) Dense regular connective tissue connecting muscle to skin
(2) Dense regular connective tissue connecting bone to bone
(3) Dense regular connective tissue connecting muscle to bone
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue connecting muscle to bone

49) Most abundant and widely distributed tissue of body is :-

(1) Epithelium tissue

(2) Nervous tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Connective tissue

50) Epithelium of PCT is composed of ?

(1) Columnar epithelium

(2) Ciliated epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Brush bordered columnar epithelium

51) In all connective tissues except ........, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called
collagen or elastin :-

(1) blood
(2) bone
(3) cartilage
(4) areolar tissue

52) Which one of the intercellular junction will check the flow of material from epithelial surface ?

(1) Tight junction

(2) Desmosome
(3) Interdigitation
(4) Gap junction

53) Assertion :- Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like
bronchioles and fallopian tubes.
Reason :- The function of microvilli is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction across the
epithelium.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

54) Assertion : Endocrine gland do not have duct's

Reason : Endocrine gland produce hormone that are secreated directly into the fluid bathing the
glands.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

55) Choose the correct location of tissue w.r.t. given diagram :-

(1) PCT of nephron

(2) Blood vessels
(3) Air sacs of lungs
(4) Covers the dry surface of skin

56) The diagrams given below represent :-

(1) A-Ligament B-Tendon

(2) A-Tendon B-Ligament

(3) A-Bone B-Cartilage

(4) A-Cartilage B-Bone

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

57) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.
(1) a–Mast cells, d–Macrophages, b–Fibroblast, c–Collagen fibre
(2) d–Mast cells, a–Macrophages, b–Fibroblast, c–Collagen fibres
(3) d–Mast cells, a–macrophages, c–Fibroblast, b–Collagen fibres
(4) b-Mast cells, d–Macrophages, a–Fibroblast, c–Collagen fibres

58) Which of the given statements is false?

(1) Epithelial cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.
(2) Cardiac muscle fibres are branched and taper at both ends (fusiform).
(3) Neurons are called excitable cells.
(4) Stratified epithelial cells have limited role in secretion.

59) Consider the following statements:

a) All involuntary muscles are smooth in appearance.
b) All striated muscles are voluntary muscles.
Select the correct option

(1) a) is true, b) is false

(2) Both a) and b) are true
(3) a) is False, b) is true
(4) Both a) and b) are false

60) Assertion (A): It is usually not possible to make the smooth muscles contract merely by
thinking about them.
Reason (R): Smooth muscles are regulated by autonomous nervous system.
In the light of above statements, select the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true

61) Ciliated epithelium is found in :-

(1) Buccal cavity and trachea

(2) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes
(3) Larynx and nephron
(4) Pharynx and fallopian tubes

62) The site of production of blood cells is present within

(1) Adult liver

(2) Adult spleen
(3) Bones
(4) Cartilage
63)

Which of the following muscle is striated, branched and involuntary?

(1) Skeletal muscle

(2) Smooth muscle
(3) Cardiac muscle
(4) Both skeletal and smooth muscle

64) Find out the correct statement with regarding to muscle fibres :-

(1) Cardiac muscle fibres are multinucleated, unbranched and striated

(2) Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated, unbranched and striated.
(3) Smooth muscle fibres are uninucleated, unbranched and unstriated
(4) Skeletal muscle fibres are short, multinucleated and branched.

65) Skeletal muscle fibres differ from cardiac muscle fibres

(1) As they are striped in appearance

(2) As they are cylindrical in shape
(3) Because they lack gap junctions
(4) As they are involuntary in nature

66) The characterstics of smooth muscles fibres :-

(1) Spindle shaped

(2) Unbranched and involuntary
(3) Uninucleated
(4) All of above

67) Myelin sheath is made up of :-

(1) Carbohydrate
(2) Protein
(3) Lipid
(4) Salts

68)

Neuroglial cells are involved in-

(1) Protection of neuron

(2) Support the neuron
(3) Conduction of impulse
(4) Both 1 and 2

69) Nissl's granules are found in ............ and helps in ............ :-

(1) Cyton only, lipid synthesis respectively
(2) Cyton and Axon, Protein synthesis respectively
(3) Dendron and Axon, Protein synthesis respectively
(4) Dendron and Cyton, Protein synthesis respectively

70) Alveoli of the lungs are lined by

(1) Pseudostratified epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium

71) Intercalated discs are found :

(1) Between neurons

(2) In cardiac muscles
(3) In striped muscles
(4) At the junction of muscles and nerves

72) Functionally heart muscle is similar to ?

(1) Skeletal muscle

(2) Smooth muscle
(3) White muscle
(4) Voluntary muscle

73) Lecithin is a :-

(1) Sterol
(2) Glycolipid
(3) Phospholipid
(4) Sphingolipid

74) A dried leaf is burnt to ash. This ash will be having:

(1) Nothing
(2) Organic fraction
(3) Inorganic fraction
(4) Both organic and inorganic fraction

75) Lipid come under acid insoluble fraction during analysis of chemical composition of tissues. Why
?

(1) It has low molecular weight

(2) It has high molecular weight
(3) It is polymer.
(4) On grinding, the biomembranes are broken into pieces and form insoluble vesicles.

76) Name the four elements called 'big four' which make 95% of all elements found in a living
system :-

(1) C,H,O,P
(2) C,H,O,N
(3) C,N,O,K
(4) C,H,O,S

77) Find out the correct match from following table:-

Column
Column II Column III
I

Acid insoluble Biomacro

(i) Protein
fraction molecule

Nucleic Acid insoluble Biomacro

(ii)
acid fraction molecule

Acid insoluble Biomacro

(iii) Lipids
fraction molecule
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

78)

Which one of the following give positive test with iodine solution?

(1) Starch
(2) Sucrose
(3) Cellulose
(4) Glucose

79) The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed by the polymerization of

(1) lipoglycans
(2) keratin sulphate and chondrotin sulphate
(3) D-glucosamine
(4) N-acetyl glucosamine

80) Inulin is a polymer of :-

(1) Glucose
(2) Galactose
(3) Fructose
(4) Arabinose

81) Statement I:- Cellulose does not contain complex helices and hence can not hold 12
Statemetn II :- Starch forms helical structure

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

82) Cellulose a polymeric polysaccharide is made up of repeated units of :-

(1) Glucose
(2) Fructose
(3) Inulin
(4) Chitin

83)

CH3(CH2)14 –COOH is the formula of :-

(1) Glutamic acid

(2) Palmitic acid
(3) Stearic acid
(4) Valine

84) In the given structure R1, R2 and R3 represents ?

(1) Amino acid

(2) Fatty acid
(3) Lecithin
(4) Carbohydrate

85) The given below is the structural formula of ?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Ribose
(3) Glucose
(4) Deoxyribose

86) Most abundant element in human body is :-

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Carbon

87) Which tissue is a reservoir of stored energy in the form of lipid ?

(1) Blood
(2) Muscle
(3) Adipose tissue
(4) Liver

88) On the basis of compound analysis of living tissue, the component that constitute minimum
percentage of total cellular mass are

(1) Proteins
(2) Ions
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Nucleic acids

89) Structure of a typical neuron is shown in the diagram. Which of the following is not correctly

identified ?

(1) C – Schwann cells

(2) D – Node of Ranvier
(3) A – Telodendria
(4) B – Nissl’s granules
90) Nissl's granules are found in :

(1) Cell body and Axon

(2) Dendrites and Axon
(3) Dendrites and Mid part of Axon
(4) Dendrites and Cell body
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 3 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 4 3 4 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 1 1 2 2 4 3 4 1 3 1 4 2 3 2 1 3 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 4 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 2 4 4 3 3 2 1 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 2 3 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 1 4 1 2 1 2 3 3 4 2 1 3 1 3 2 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 2 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 4 3 1 3 4 1 3 3 4 3 4 1 4 1 1 3 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 2 4 3 1 3 2 2 4 1 3 3 2 2 2 3 1 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 3 3 2 2 3 3 4 3 1 1 3 1 4 4 2 2 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 4 3 2 2 3 3 4 2 2 1 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) S = 3t3 – 2t2 + 2t – 7

2)

Let y = 5sinθ – 12 cosθ

Compare with asinθ + bcosθ,
Maximum value =

= =13

3) y =
Assume t = sinx+
for ymin, t should be maximum

tMAX =
tMAX = 2

ymin = ⇒ ymin = 5

4)
means area under the curve should be 5

Area (1) = 5
so
Area (2) = Area (3) ⇒ x1 = 3

5)

sin (2°) = sin = sin

=

6)

7)

x2 + y2 = 22
radius = 2

8)

= 3 cos x = 3 cos (3t)

9) y = 2x – 4x2 = 2x (1 – 2x), for x = 0 and x =

we get y = 0

= 0 then x =

so for x = , ymax =

10)

= cosq = 0,
∴ θ = 90°

11) Given vectors can be rewritten as and

Dot product of these vectors should be equal to zero because they are perpendicular.
∴ =0
⇒ 8α = –4
⇒ α = –1/2

12)

cos θ = 0
θ = 90°

13)

R = 2acos

1 = 2 × 1 cos
θ = 120°

R1 = 2a sin = 2 × 1 sin60° =

14) 10 – 6 ≤ FR ≤ 10 + 6

15)

16)

17) P + Q = 16 ..(i)
P2 + Q2 + 2PQ cosθ = 64 …(ii)

[R = 8]
Let is perpendicular to ,
 P + Q cosθ = 0

From eq. (ii)

P2 + Q2 + 2PQ cosθ = 64

P2 + Q2 + 2PQ = 64
2 2
–P + Q = 64
(Q + P)(Q – P) = 64
As Q + P = 16
16 (Q – P) = 64
Q–P=4
On solving we get 2Q = 20
Q = 10 unit, P = 6 unit

18) Let ,
Component of along

19)

20) Resolution of vector

21)

22) ⇒

23) (1) Asking About

We are asked to identify the vector quantity among the given options.

(2) Concept:

A. A vector quantity has both magnitude and direction.

 B. A scalar quantity, on the other hand, has only magnitude without any associated direction.

Let's analyze each option:

1. Angular acceleration: It is a measure of the rate of change of angular velocity and has both
magnitude and direction. Hence, it is a vector quantity.
2. Electric potential: It is a scalar quantity because it only has magnitude and no direction.
3. Electric current: While it has a direction, it is considered a scalar quantity because it does not
obey vector addition laws.
4. Refractive index: It is a scalar quantity as it is simply a ratio of speeds (speed of light in vacuum
to speed in the medium) and has no direction.
(3) Formula:
For Angular Acceleration (α):

where:

A. = Change in angular velocity

B. = Change in time

This confirms angular acceleration is a vector, as it depends on the direction of angular velocity.

(4) Solution/Explanation:
From the analysis above:

A. Angular acceleration (1) is a vector quantity because it has magnitude and direction.
B. The other options (2, 3, 4) are scalar quantities because they lack direction or do not obey
vector addition rules.

(5) Final Answer:

Option 1: Angular acceleration

24) Unit vector of is →

25) A vector quantity should have direction and it must abeys the laws of vector algebra.

26) For parallel vectors,

27) For the resultant of some vectors to be zero, they should form a closed figure taken in
same order.

28)
29)

= 5 units due east

= –5(5 units due east)

= –25 units due east = 25 units due west

30)

Slope is negative
y – intercept is positive

31) Which of the following is an axial vector ?

32) Direction reverses magnitude is doubled

33)

34)

and

Component of in direction of

35)
= 1 – (–1) = 2

36)

v = a3

37)

Avg value of

⇒ 21

38) (1.002)3 = (1 + 0.002)3

By binomial theorem
= [1 + 3(0.002)]
= 1.006

39)

40)

Slope =

m = slope =

41) Question Explanation:

We are asked to convert radians to degrees. This requires applying the standard conversion
factor between radians and degrees.
Concept Based'
This question deals with Radian to Degree Conversion. The conversion formula is:

Degrees = Radians
Formula Used'
To convert from radians to degrees, the formula is:

Degrees Radians
Calculation (in brief):

Substitute radians into the conversion formula:

Degrees =

Degrees =
Final Answer:
The correct answer is
Option 4:108°.

42)

Let α = 37º

Slope angle ⇒ θ = 180º – α

θ = 180º – 37º
θ = 143º
Intercept on y-axis = 10
Slope = tan θ = tan 143º
= tan (180º – 37º)
slope = – tan 37º

slope =

43) (sin x3) = [cosx3] × 3x2

44)

Slope of tangent at P
 45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

mass = 2.5 × 40
= 100 g

49)

50)

O2 = 32u
Actual Mass = 32 × 1.67 × 10–24g
= 53 . 44 × 10–24 g

51)

mass of one molecule of CO2 = 44 amu

= 44 × 1.67 × 10–27 g

52) V.D. = 36 ∴ MM = 72
∴ 12n + (2n + 2) = 72
⇒14n = 70 ⇒ n = 5

53) Question Calculation :- To determine value of x in (CH2)x

Given Data :- V.D. = 56
Concept :- Molecular weight = 2.V.D.
Calculation :- 14x = 2 × 56
 x = 28

Final Answer :- option (2)

Level :- Easy

54)
Mw = 30

55)

Moles of NH3 at STP = = 0.1

No. of atoms = 0.1 × 4 × 6.02 × 1023
= 2.4088 × 1023

56)

mass % =

28.9 % =
Atomicity = 4

57)

%O= × 100 = 40%

58)

= 0.5 mole
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
Moles of HCl reacted with 0.5 mole of CaCO3
= 2 × 0.5
= 1 mole
Mass of HCl reacted = 1 × 36.5 = 36.5 g
In 100 g sample → 20 g HCl

For 36.5 of HCl → × 36.5 g of sample = 182.5 g

59) % %/A
 C 92.3 92.3/12 = 7.7
H 7.7 7.7/1 = 7.7
MF = 6 × (CH)=C6H6

60)

X Y

1 3/2

2 3 ⇒ X2Y3

62) C4H8 + 6O2 → 4CO2 + 4H2O

mol

mol of O2 required = 5 × 103 × 6

weight of O2 required = 30 × 103 × 32
= 960 × 103 g
= 960 kg

63)

Atoms of A in A3O4 = Atoms of A

3 × number of moles of A=3O4 = 1

Number of moles of A3O4 = .

65)
56 g residue (CaO) = 100 g CaCO3
∴ 28 g CaO = 50 g CaCO3

66)

Given:
E.W = 4
V.D = 59.25
2 × V.D = Valency (E.W + 35.5)
⇒ 2 × 59.25 = Valency (4 + 35.5)

⇒ Valency = =3

67)
Given, the acid is tribase. Let its formula be H3A

Equivalent weight =

68) NCERT - XI, Pg.# 27 (Part 1) 2022

69) 4PH3(g) → P4(s) + 6H2(g)

4 mol volume 6 mol
will not 6 volume
4 volume be considered 300 mL
200 mL as it is solid
Change in volume = 300 – 200
= 100 mL(increased)

70)

Concept of L.R

71)

H2SO4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaSO4 + 2H2O

0.5 0.2 – –
LR 0.2

72) Question
Determine 10% pure S mass in following

given data

Calculation

1mol SO2 → 1mol S

let x be the mass of 10% pure sulphur

0.10x =8gm ⇒ x = 80gm
Ans. (2)

Conclusion
Hence, option (2) is correct
 73)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-I, Page No.20

74) Mass of CaCO3 in 50% of 50g limestone

Now,
100g of CaCO3 produces 44g CO2

∴ 25g of CaCO3 produces

75) NCERT Pg. # 12

76)

When zinc reacts with dilute HCl, the formation of zinc chloride with hydrogen gas takes
place.

Therefore, 1 mole of Zn = 1 mole of H2

At STP, 22, 400 ml of H2 = 1 mole of H2
1.12 ml of
Mole of
Amount of

77)

A. Question
The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄) in the reaction,
NaOH + H₃PO₄ → NaH₂PO₄ + H₂O, is:

B. Given Data

A. Reaction: NaOH + H₃PO₄ → NaH₂PO₄ + H₂O

B. Phosphoric acid (H₃PO₄) is a triprotic acid, but in this reaction, only one proton is neutralized
(as indicated by the formation of NaH₂PO₄).

C. Concept

A. Equivalent Weight: It is the mass of the acid that supplies one mole of replaceable hydrogen
ions (H⁺) in a reaction.
B. For an acid, equivalent weight = (Molar mass) / (Number of H⁺ ions replaced in the reaction).
C. Although H₃PO₄ has three acidic hydrogen atoms, the reaction provided shows only one proton
reacting with NaOH.
 D. Mathematical Calculation

A. Determine the molar mass of H₃PO₄:

A. Hydrogen (H): 1 g/mol, there are 3 atoms → 3 × 1 = 3 g/mol
B. Phosphorus (P): 31 g/mol
C. Oxygen (O): 16 g/mol, there are 4 atoms → 4 × 16 = 64 g/mol
D. Total molar mass = 3 + 31 + 64 = 98 g/mol
B. Calculate the equivalent weight:
A. Since only 1 hydrogen ion is replaced, the equivalent weight = 98 g/mol ÷ 1 = 98
g/equiv

E. Final Answer
The equivalent weight of H₃PO₄ in this reaction is 98.
(Option 4)

F. Question Level
Easy

78) Equivalent mass of metal =

= 17

79)

H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
t=0 1 1 –
t = completion – – 2

When equal volumes of H2 and Cl2 are mixed, the volume of mixture does not change after the
reaction as the number of moles are constant.

80)

According to Avogadro's Law : Equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and
pressure, have the same number of molecules.

81) mole of CO2 =

No. of 'O' atom = atomicity × mole × NA
= 2 × 0.1 × 6 ×1023
= 1.2 × 1023

82) Wt. of 1 gm atom of nitrogen = 14 gm

Wt. of 11.2 L N2 at 1 atm and 273 K =

⇒ 14 gm
 83)

84)

A. Question
Vapour density of a gas is 5.6, the volume of 5.6 g of it at STP is:

B. Given Data

A. Vapour density = 5.6

B. Mass of the gas given = 5.6 g

Conditions: STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure) where 1 mole of any ideal gas occupies 22.4
L

C. Concept

• Vapour Density: For gases, vapour density (relative to hydrogen) is defined such that the molecular
weight = 2 x (vapour density).

• Molecular Weight Calculation:

Molecular Weight = Vapour Density × 2

• Volume at STP: The volume occupied by 1 mole of any ideal gas at STP is 22.4 L.
•To find the volume occupied by a given mass of gas, first calculate the number of moles using:
Moles = Mass / Molecular Weight
then multiply by 22.4 L/mol.

D. Mathematical Calculation
1. Determine Molecular Weight:
Molecular Weight = 5.6 x 2 = 11.2 g/mol

2. Calculate the Number of Moles:

Moles = 5.6 g / 11.2 g/mol = 0.5 mole

3. Calculate Volume at STP:

Volume = 0.5 mole x 22.4 L/mol = 11.2 L

E. Final Answer (Option 2)....

F. Question Level Easy

85) MM = = 26 gmol–1
∴ V.D. = 13

86)
 87) at same T and P
∴ No. of atoms → 2 : 1 : 2 : 3

88)

A + B2 → AB2
2 3
L.R.

89)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

Vapour density is given and molecular formula is to be found.

Given Data:
Vapour Density = 45

Key Concept:

Vapour density =

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Molecular weight = 2 × Vapour density = 2 × 45 = 90
C3H6O3 ⇒ molecular weight = 90

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

BIOLOGY

93) NCERT Page No. 136

94) NCERT Page No. 134

95) NCERT Page No. 129

96) NCERT Page No. 129

105) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 89

122) Ncert Pg No: 136 _ 2021-22

136)
NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

137) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101, 102

138) NCERT XI Pg # 103

140) NCERT (XIth) Pg # 101 (E)

143) R : In NCERT 'over' is given in place of "across" hence meaning is changed and reason is
wrong.

144) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 102

146) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 104, Fig- 7.6 (a, b)

158) NCERT Pg # NA

159) NCERT 316

162) Module, Pg. # 163

163)

The correct answer is= 3. Phospholipid

Lecithin is a generic term for a group of phospholipids, the most common being
phosphatidylcholine

165)

NCERT Pg. # 146

166)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 143

167) NCERT Pg # 147

168) NCERT Pg.#148

170) NCERT Pg. # 148

172) NCERT-XI Pg. # 110

173)

NCERT XI Pg.# 145, figure 9.1

174)

NCERT Page No. # 145

175) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 145, Fig. 9.1

176) Explanation:
Oxygen makes up about 65% of our body mass, primarily as part of water (H₂O).Therefore,
the answer is Oxygen.

The correct answer is 2.

177) NCERT XI, Pg # 120 (Summary)

178)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 147

179)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 232