07-01-2026

2302CMD303031250018 MD

PHYSICS

1) A mass m is suspended from a weightless spring and it has time-period 'T'. The spring is now
divided into four equal parts and the same mass is suspended from one of these parts. The now time
period will be :-

(1) T
(2) T/2
(3) 2T
(4) T/4

2) When a particle oscillates simple harmonically, its kinetic energy varies periodically. If frequency
of the particle is f, the frequency of the kinetic energy is

(1) f/2
(2) f
(3) 2f
(4) 4f

3) A particle of mass 4kg moves simple harmonically such that its PE (U) varies with position x, as

shown. The period of oscillations is :-

(1)
s

(2)
s

(3)
s

(4)
s

4) The vibrations of four air columns of same length are represented in figure. The ratio of
frequencies np : nq : nr : ns is :
(1) 12 : 6 : 3 : 4
(2) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
(3) 4 : 2 : 3 : 1
(4) 6 : 2 : 3 : 4

5) At node in stationary waves :

(1) Change in pressure and density are maximum

(2) Change in pressure and density are minimum
(3) Strain is zero
(4) Energy is maximum

6) Oxygen is 16 times heavier than hydrogen. The equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen are mixed.
The ratio of speed of sound in the mixture to that in hydrogen is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A transverse periodic wave on a string with a linear mass density of 0.200 kg/m is described by
the following equation y = 0.05 sin (420t – 21.0x) where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds.
The tension in the string is equal to :

(1) 32 N
(2) 42 N
(3) 66 N
(4) 80 N

8) A uniform rope of length L and mass 5 kg hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass 4
kg is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the
lower end of the rope. The wave length of the pulse, when it reaches the top of the rope, is λ2 .The
ratio of λ2/λ1 is :-

(1) 5 : 4
(2) 4 : 5
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 2 : 3

9) Two identical conducting spheres M and N has charges qm and qn respectively. A third identical
neutral sphere P is brought in contact with M and then seperated. Now sphere P is brought in
contact with N. Then final charge on sphere P is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Two point charges repel each other with a force of 100N. One of the charges is increased by
10% and the other is reduced by 10%. The new force of repulsion at the same distance would be

(1) 100 N
(2) 121 N
(3) 99 N
(4) None of these

11) Two point charge of 100 µC and –4 µC are positioned at points (–2 , 3 , –4) and
(4 , –5 , 6) respectively of a Cartesian coordinate system. Find the force vector on the –4 µC
charge? All the coordinates are in meters.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by : V = 5x + 4y – 6z. What is the electric field at
that point ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal
length, the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the
height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A circular disc of radius m is placed in electric field v/m in x-y plane then
electric flux through the disc will be :-

(1) 2V - m
(2) 4V - m
(3) 0.5V - m
(4) 1 V-m

15)

An electric dipole of dipole moment is lying along a uniform electric field . The work done in
rotating the dipole by 90° is :

(1) 2pE
(2) pE
(3)

(4)

16) A capacitor is connected to battery if distance between two plates increases then :

(1) Charge on plates remains same.

(2) Potential difference increases.
(3) Stored energy decreases.
(4) Electric field remains same.

17) The charge supplied by the battery in the circuit shown in figure :-

(1)

(2) 60µC
(3) 50µC
(4) 110µC
18) A parallel plate capacitor filled with a material of dielectric constant K is charged to a certain
voltage. First the battery is removed then the dielectric material is removed. Then which of the
following is true :-
(i) Capacitance decrease by factor K
(ii) Electric field reduced by factor K
(iii) Voltage across capacitor increases by factor K
(iv) Charge stored in capacitor increases by factor K

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

19) The charge on a capacitor of capacitance 10μF connected as shown in the figure is

(1) 20 μC
(2) 15 μC
(3) 10 μC
(4) zero

20) Find time constant of following circuit.

(1) RC

(2)

(3)

(4)

21)

When the key is pressed at time t = 0, then which of the following statements about the current i in
the resistor AB of the given circuit is true ?
(1) at t = 0, i = 2 mA and it reduces to 1 mA at t = ∞.
(2) i oscillates between 1 mA and 2 mA.
(3) i = 2 mA at all time.
(4) i = 1 mA at all time.

22) Minimum number of 8 μF and breakdown voltage 250 V capacitors required to make a
combination of 8 μF and 1000 V are :

(1) 32
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 4

23) Value of current i in the following circuit is :

(1) 20A
(2) 21A
(3) 18A
(4) 16A

24) In the network shown find the resistance across AB :

(1) R
(2) 2R

(3)

(4) 4R
25) For what value of unknown resistance X, the potential difference between B and D will be zero in

the circuit shown in the figure :-

(1) 4 Ω
(2) 6 Ω
(3) 2 Ω
(4) 5 Ω

26) The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in
diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be :

(1) 300%
(2) 200%
(3) 100%
(4) 50%

27) Currents upto 100 A are to be measured with the help of an ammeter designed for a maximum
current of 10 A and having resistance of 0.1 Ω. The resistance of additional shunt must be

(1) 0.1 Ω

(2)
Ω

(3)
Ω
(4) None of these

28) Magnetic field due to semi infinite length wire at point P :-

(1)
Bp = [sinθ + 1]
(2)
Bp = [sinθ]

(3)
Bp = [sinθ + sinθ]

(4)
Bp = [sin 90 + sin 90]

29) A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries a current of A.
What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre of the coil :

(1) 1 gauss
(2) 2 gauss
(3) 3 gauss
(4) 4 gauss

30)

All straight wires are very long. Both AB and CD are arcs of the same circle, both subtending right
angles at the centre O. Then the magnetic field at O is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Rank the value of for the closed paths shown in figure from the smallest to largest.
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d, b
(3) a, d, c, b
(4) a, c, b, d

32) A long straight thick wire carries a current I and its radius is R then find out magnetic field at a
point which is located R/3 distance from the surface of the wire and inside the wire :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Three wires are carrying same constant current i in different directions. Four loops enclosing
the wires in different manners are shown in figure. The direction of is shown in the figure.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Along close Loop-1 (p)

(b) Along close Loop-2 (q)

(c) Along close Loop-3 (r)

(d) Along close Loop-4 (s)

(1) a – q, b – p, c – r, d – r
(2) a – p, b – r, c – s, d – s
(3) a – r, b – p, c – s, d – p
(4) a – r, b – q, c – q, d – q

34) A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is made up of 500 turns. It carries a current
of 5A. What is the magnetic field inside the solenoid ?

(1) 6.28 × 10–3 T

(2) 6.28 × 103 T
(3) 6.28 × 10–5 T
(4) 6.28 × 105 T

35) Mean radius of a toroid is 10 cm and number of turns are 500. If current flowing through it is 0.1
ampere then value of magnetic induction (in tesla) for toroid :-

(1) 10–2
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–3
(4) 10–4

36) There is a magnetic field acting in a plane perpendicular to thin sheet of paper upwards into the
paper. Particles in vaccum move in the plane of the paper from left to right as shown. The path

indicated by the arrow could be due to :-

(1) proton
(2) neutron
(3) e–
(4) alpha particle

37) In the product

For q = 1 and and what will be complete expression for ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) An electron moving in a circular orbital of radius 'r' makes n rotation per two second. The
magnetic field produced at the centre has magnitude ?

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)
39) A particle with charge q, moving with a momentum p, enters a uniform magnetic field normally.

The magnetic field has magnitude B and is confined to a region of width d, where , The

particle is deflected by an angle θ in crossing the field :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A charge particle goes undeflected in region containing electric and magnetic field. It is possible
that :-
(a) and
(b) is not parallel to
(c) but is not parallel to
(d) but is not parallel to

(1) only a
(2) only b
(3) c, d
(4) a, b

41) A proton and an α-particle enter a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly with the same speed.
If proton takes 25 μ sec to make 5 revolutions, then the periodic time for the α-particle would be

(1) 50 μ sec
(2) 25 μ sec
(3) 10 μ sec
(4) 5 μ sec

42) A proton (mass m and charge +e) and an alpha-particle (mass 4m and charge +2e) are projected
with the same kinetic energy at right angles to a uniform magnetic field. Which one of the following
statements will be true ?

(1) The alpha-particle will be bent in a circular path with a smaller radius than that of the proton.
(2) The radius of the path of the alpha-particle will be greater than that of the proton.
(3) The alpha-particle and the proton will be bent in a circular path with the same radius.
(4) The alpha-particle and the proton will go through the field in a straight line.

43) At very close point on the axis of a current carrying circular coil (x <<< R) of radius 'R' the
value of magnetic field decrease by a fraction of 5% with respect to centre value. The position 'x' of
the point from the centre of the coil is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The magnetic susceptibility does not depend upon the temperature in :-

(1) Ferrite substances

(2) Ferromagnetic substances
(3) Diamagnetic substances
(4) Paramagnetic substances

45) At curie point, a ferro magnetic material becomes:-

(1) Non magnetic

(2) Diamagnetic
(3) Paramagnetic
(4) Strongly ferromagnetic

CHEMISTRY

1) For reaction A + 2B → C, r = k[A] [B]2

if concentration of A is taken in large excess then order of reaction will be

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 0

2) Increasing order of stability of following resonationg structure.

(I) (II) (III)

(1) I < II < III
(2) I < III < II
(3) II < III < I
(4) III < II < I

3) Stability order of the following species is:

(a) (b) C2H5–Oϴ
(c) HC≡Cϴ (d) H3C–C≡Cϴ

(1) d > c > b > a

(2) a > b > c > d
(3) c > d > a > b
(4) d > c > a > b

4)

In chemical kinetics, only a small fraction of collisions lead to reactions. This is because :

The colliding molecules may not be appropriately oriented to one another and the collisions are
(1)
not energetic.
The colliding molecules are properly oriented to one another and the collisions are highly
(2)
energetic.
The colliding molecules are properly oriented to one another and the collisions are not highly
(3)
energetic.
The colliding molecules may not be appropriately oriented to one another and the collisions are
(4)
very energetic.

5) For the reaction A + B C, it is found that doubling the concentration of A increases the rate by
4 times, and doubling the concentration of B doubles the reaction rate. What is the overall order of
the reaction ?

(1) 4

(2)

(3) 3
(4) 1

6) In the formation of HBr from H2 and Br2 following mechanism is observed :

I. Br2 ⇌ 2Br• (Equilibrium step)
II. H2 + Br• → HBr + H• (Slow step)
III. H• + Br2 → HBr + H• (fast step)
The rate law for the above reaction is :

(1) r = k'[H2] [Br2]

1/2
(2) r = k'[H2] [Br2]
1/2
(3) r = k'[H2] [Br2]
1/2 1/2
(4) r = k'[H2] [Br2]
7) For the reaction 2A → B + 3C; if ; ; the correct relation
between k1, k2 and k3 is:

(1) k1 = k2 = k3
(2) 2k1 = k2 = 3k3
(3) 4k1 = k2 = 3k3

(4)

8) No. of 2° carbon are present in given compound:-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 2

9) Which of the following compound has only one type of carbon ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) correct IUPAC name is :-

(1) 2-Cis-5-transhexa-2,5-diene
(2) 2-Tans-5-cis hexa–2,5-diene
(3) 3-Cis-4-transhexa-3,4-diene
(4) 4-Cis-3-transhexa-3,4-diene

11) The correct statement for Isooctane is –

(1) It has seven carbons in its principal carbon chain.

(2) It has five secondary carbons.
(3) It has one quarternary carbon and one tertiary carbon.
(4) It has ten primary hydrogens.

12) The correct IUPAC name of the compound is:-

(1) 2-Cyano-3-oxopentanal
(2) 2-Formyl-3-oxopentanenitrile
(3) 2-Cyano-1-oxopentan-3-one
(4) 2-Cyano-1, 3-dioxopentane

13)

(1) I and II are identical

(2) II and III are chain isomers
(3) I and III are positional isomers
(4) II and III are identical

14) The minimum no of carbon atom requires for an aldehyde to show functional isomerism with
ketone is :-

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 2

15) Which of the following form only one monochloro derivative ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

16) Which of the following compound has DBE equal to benzene ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

17)

Out the following which is chiral :-

(A) (B) (C)

(1) B, C
(2) A, B
(3) A, C
(4) only C

18) What is bond angle between starmarked (*) carbon atoms

(1) 120°
(2) 60°
(3) 109°28'
(4) Can not determine

19) Choose the correct option(s)

(1) If a compound does not have chiral centre then it must be achiral.

(2)
is chiral compound due to amine flipping.
(3) If a container contains 60%d and 40% l, then optical purity is 40%.
(4) Meso isomers does not rotate PPL due to internal compensation.

20) The IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) (2R,4E)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methylhexanal
(2) (2R, 4Z)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal
(3) (2Z, 5R)-3-bromo-5-chloro-5-formyl-2-hexene
(2S, 4E)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal
(4)

21) Correct order of E/Z designation of the following compound is :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(1) a-(Z), b-(E), c-(Z)

(2) a-(E), b-(Z), c-(Z)
(3) a-(E), b-(E), c-(E)
(4) a-(Z), b-(Z), c-(Z)

22) Which of the following will show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Which of the following can not show geometrical isomerism :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) Statement-I :- Penta-2,3-diene is optically active due to perpendicular plane

because of p-orbitals (perpendicular orbitals).

Statement-II :- Given O-substituted Biphenyls is optically active due to

perpendicular plane because of repulsion factor caused by bulky groups.
Identify correct option :-

(1) Both statement-I & statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I & statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-I is correct

25) Consider-
(A) All optical isomers are optically active.
(B) Meso compounds are optical isomer but optically inactive.
(C) Compound containing one chiral carbon essentially shows optical isomerism.
(D) Presence of chiral centre is essential condition for chiral compound.
Which of above statements are correct ?

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) B, C

26) Which of the following cannot act as electrophile?

(1) :CCl2

(2)

(3) CO2
(4) CH2 = CH2

27) Which of the following carbocation is most stable ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The correct basic strength order is:

(CH3)2 NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3 N > NH3;

(1)
(in aqueous phase)
(CH3)3 N > (CH3)2 NH > CH3—NH2 > NH3 ;
(2)
(in gaseous phase)
(C2H5)2 NH > (CH3CH2)3 N > CH3CH2NH2 > NH3 ;
(3)
(in aqueous phase)
(4) All of these

29)

Tautomerism is shown by which of the following compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Arrange the following alkene in decreasing order of their heat of hydrogenation :-

I. II. III.

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) III > I > II
31) How many structural isomer with five carbon chain form by C7H16 are -

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 9

32) Benzenoid aromatic compound is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The correct order of acidic strength of the following acids will be :
(I) NC – CH2 – COOH
(II) HCOOH
(III) Cl – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
(IV) Br – CH2 – COOH

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) I > III > IV > II
(4) I > IV > II > III

34) Which of the given compounds can exhibit tautomerism.

(I) (II) (III)

(1) I & II
(2) I & III
(3) II & III
(4) I, II & III (All)

35) Which of the following is the correct order for bond energy of C—H bonds in these compounds?

(1) Y > Z > X

(2) X > Z > Y
(3) X > Y > Z
(4) Z > X > Y

36) Assertion :– CHCl3 is more acidic than CHF3.

Reason :– Electronegativity of Fluorine is more than chlorine.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

37) Assertion :– Styrene on reaction with HBr gives 1-bromo-1-phenylethane.

Reason :– Benzyl radical is more stable than alkyl radical.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

38)

The reagent needed to convert 2-butyne to cis-2-butene is :-

(1) H2/Pt
(2) H2/Lindlar's catalyst
(3) Li/NH3
(4) None of these

39) Product :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Most reactive hydrogen in free radical substitution is :-

(1) HC
(2) Hb
(3) Ha
(4) Hd

41) (A) ; Product (A) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Dehydrobromination of the following in decreasing order :-

(1) III > II > I
(2) I > II > III
(3) III > I > II
(4) I > III > II

43)
Reactions R1, R2 and R3 follows mechanism :

(1) E2, E1, SN1

(2) E2, SN2, SN1
(3) E2, SN1, SN1
(4) E1, SN2, SN1

44) Least reactive chlorine toward NaOH(aq) is :-

(1) CH2 = CH – Cl
(2) CH3–Cl
(3) CH2=CH–CH2–Cl

(4)

45) :-
Choose the correct option ?

(1) (P) is toluene

(2) (Q) is benzoic acid
(3) Formation of (P) is electroplilic substitution
(4) All of these

BOTANY
1) Assertion (A): Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed sets.
Reason (R): They remain closed and facilitate only cross-pollination.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does NOT explain A.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) Both are false.

2) The given figure shows the L.S. of a monocot embryo. Choose the correct labelling for A, B, C and

D marked in the figure from the options given below.

(1) A-Coleoptile; B - Scutellum; C - Epiblast; D- Coleorhiza

(2) A-Scutellum; B-Coleoptile; C-Coleorhiza; D- Epiblast
(3) A- Scutellum; B- Epiblast; C- Coleoptile; D-Coleorhiza
(4) A- Scutellum; B - Coleoptile; C - Epiblast; D- Coleorhiza

3) In an emasculation experiment, the anthers of a bisexual flower were removed before

dehiscence.
Later, the stigma was bagged and cross-pollinated manually. Which statement is TRUE?

(1) This prevents xenogamy and encourages geitonogamy

(2) This ensures only desired pollen reaches the stigma
(3) This allows triple fusion to be avoided
(4) This prevents seed formation due to lack of pollen

4) Choose incorrect match:

Column-I Column-II

(1) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil - Papaver

(2) Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium - Michelia

(3) Geitanogamy - Maize, Castor

 (4) Autogamy - Date palm, papaya
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Choose incorrect one statement–

(1) Apomixes is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction

Diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division and develops into the embryo without
(2)
fertilization in many Citrus and Mango varieties.
(3) The transformation of ovules into seeds and ovary into fruit proceeds simultaneously
(4) Embryo develops at the chalazal end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated.

6) Which of the following statement is not correct.

(1) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients

(2) Parthenium or carrot grass in cause of allergy.
(3) Pollen grain lose their viabicity with in 30 min in Rosaceae, leguminosae solanaceae.
(4) Pollen grains are stored at –196°C in liquid Nitrogen.

7) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

The seed of lupinus arcticus excavated from arctic tundra germinated and flowered after an
(1)
estimated record of 10,000 yrs. of dormancy
(2) Wheat, maize & Barley seeds are non albuminous
In some seeds such as Black pepper and beet remnants of nucellus are persistent known as
(3)
perisperm
(4) Tiny seeds are found in orchid & ficus.

8) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Cleistogamous flowers never opens

Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is known
(2)
as geitonogamy.
Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure called as
(3)
coleorrhiza
(4) Perisperm is present in beet.

9) Identify the polidy of A,B,C if the endosperm is 3n of this plant.

(1) 2n, 2n, 3n
(2) n, 2n, 3n
(3) 2n, 2n, 2n
(4) 3n, 3n, 3n

10) Inbreeding depression in flowering plants is caused due to

(1) Continued cross-pollination

(2) Continued self-pollination
(3) Continued hybridization
(4) More than one option is correct

11) Assertion: One of the problems of hybrids is that hybrid seeds have to be produced every year,
farmers cannot use them year after year.
Reason: If the seeds collected from hybrids are sown, the plants in the progeny will segregate and
do not maintain hybrid characters.

(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) In following three diagram identify A, B, C and D respectively and find out the correct match
among the following set of options :-

A B C D
 Shoot apical
(1) Hypocotyl Scutellum Endosperm
meristem

Shoot apical
(2) Hypocotyl Scutellum Endosperm
meristem

Shoot apical
(3) Scutellum Hypocotyl Endosperm
meristem

Shoot apical
(4) Endosperm Scutellum Hypocotyl
meristem
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Read the following four statements (A - D) :-

(A) The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of antipodal cell.
(B) The central cell after triple fusion becomes the primary endosperm cell (PEC).
(C) PEC develops into embryo.
(D) Endosperm development preceds embryo development.
How many of the above statements are wrong?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

14) Assertion (A) :- Most zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed.
Reason (R) :- This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to developing embryosac.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) & (R) both are incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

15) Which one of the following statement can be correct for Dicot embryo ?

(1) Early stages of embryogeny is different than monocots

(2) Typical dicot embryo contains embryonal axis and a cotyledon
(3) Above part of embryonal axis is Hypocotyl
(4) Hypocotyl terminates at its lower end in the radicle

16) Pollen-pistil interaction

(1) A dynamic process

(2) Involves pollen recognition followed by promotion or inhibition of the pollen
(3) In incompatible pollination, pollen grain germinate on the stigma to produce pollen tube
(4) More than one option is correct

17) Choose the correct sequence, for the development of embryo :-

(1) Zygote → Heart shaped → Mature embryo → Globular

(2) Zygote → Globular → Heart shaped → mature embryo
(3) Zygote → Heart shaped → Globular → mature embryo
(4) Zygote → Mature embryo → Heart shaped → Globular

18) Which statement is not true for wind pollinated plants?

(1) Invariably autogamous

(2) Have exposed stigma and anther
(3) Pollen grains are light weight
(4) Have one or a few ovules in each ovary

19) How many alleles, phenotypes and genotypes are present in ABO system of blood group ?

(1) 3, 4, 6
(2) 6, 4, 3
(3) 3, 3, 4
(4) 4, 6, 3

20) Read the following statement :-

(i) Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for about seven year.
(ii) Green seed colour in pea plant is dominant character.
(iii) Mendel observed that all F1 progeny plants were tall.
(iv) In Mendel experiment, both parental traits were expressed in F1 generation.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Which one of the following statement is not true regarding fruit flies, Drosophila melanogaster ?

(1) They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory.

(2) They complete their life cycle in about two weeks.
There was a clear differentiation of the sexes – the male and female flies are easily
(3)
distinguishable
(4) They have many types of hereditary variations that can be seen with electron microscopes only.

22) Mendel’s work and results pointed to general rules of inheritance rather than being
unsubstantiated(unconfirmed) ideas due to

(1) Statistical analysis and mathematical logic

(2) Large sampling size
(3) Experiments on successive generations
(4) Mendel investigated characters in the garden pea plant

23) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A single gene product may produce more than one phenotype
Statement II: Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has
information for. It depends as much on the gene product and the production of a particular
phenotype from this product that we choose to examine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

24) A dihybrid cross produces 6 phenotype in F2 generation then which statement is correct :-

(1) Both genes show dominance

(2) Both genes show incomplete dominance
(3) One show dominance and another show incomplete dominance
(4) Both genes show codominance

25) The figure given below in of experimental technique of Mendel. Select the option giving correct

identification of A, B & C :-

(1) A-Artificial cross pollination; B-Hybrid offsprings; C-Emasculation.

(2) A-Emasculation; B-Bagging & tagging; C-Hybrid offsprings.
(3) A-Emasculation; B-Artificial cross pollination; C-Hybrid offsprings
(4) A-Bagging & tagging; B-Emasculation; C-Hybrid offsprings.

26) A man and a woman each carry allele for phenylketonuria ; an in born error of metabolism, while
neither of them has disease themself, what is the percentage that their child will have the disease.

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

27) Consider following genetic disorders-

Haemophilia, Sickle Cell Anaemia, Cystic fibrosis, Thalassemia, Phenyl Ketonuria, Down syndrome,
Klinefelter's syndrome, Turner's syndrome
How many of the above disorder are Mendelian disorder?

(1) 5
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 3

28) Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter's Syndrome?
A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866).
B. Such an individual has overall masculine development.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.

(1) A, C and D only

(2) B and E only
(3) A and E only
(4) A and B only

29) Read the statements marked as Assertion and Reason and select the correct options -
Assertion : Multiples alleles can be studied in a population.
Reason : Multiple alleles are present on same locus.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

30) Assertion (A) :- The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare.
Reason (R) :- Mother of a haemophilic female has to be at least carrier and the father should be
haemophilic.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
31) Mendel’s work remain unrecognized for long time due to :-

(1) Communication was not easy in those days

(2) Mendel’s approach of using mathematics to explain biological phenomenon
(3) Mendel not provide any physical proof of factor
(4) All of these

32) Sickle cell anaemia is an example of all except :-

(1) Codominance
(2) Autosomal recessive trait
(3) Single base substitution
(4) Incomplete dominance

33) Mendelian disorders are

A. Determined by alteration or mutation in the genes.
B. Transmission of character to the offsprings is on as per Mendelian principles
C. The pattern of inheritance can be traced by pedigree.

(1) A is incorrect
(2) B is incorrect
(3) C is incorrect
(4) All are correct

34) Colour blindness occurs about –% in males and –% in females respectively

(1) 0.8, 0.4

(2) 8, 0.4
(3) 0.6, 0.5
(4) 0.2, 0.8

35) Heterozygous tall and violet flowered pea plants were selfed and total 512 seeds are collected.
What will be total number of seeds containing both genes in heterozygous condition ?

(1) 128
(2) 256
(3) 384
(4) 64

36) Sahiwal cow is developed through

(1) Change in environment and habitat of wild cows.

(2) Incorporating DNA segments from other organisms
(3) Creating genetic changes by using mutagens.
(4) Artificial selection and domestication.
37) Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal linked recessive trait that can be transmitted from parents to
the offspring when both the partners are carrier or heterozygous. The disease is controlled by a
single pair of allele, HbA and HbS. Identify X, Y and Z:-

(1) GTG, GAG,Val

(2) CAC, GTG, Val
(3) CAC, GTG, Glu
(4) GTC, GAC, Val

38) Assertion (A): The segregation of alleles is a random process and so there is a 50% chance of a
gamete containing either allele.
Reason (R) : By the process of mitosis, the alleles of the parental pair separate from each other &
only one allele in transmitted to a gamete.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

39) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the code given below

Column-I Column-II

P Multiple allelism i Tt tt

Q Back cross ii Tt TT

Human blood
R Test cross iii
group

Non-parental
S Crossing over iv
gene combination

Non-sister chromatids
T Recombinant v of homologus
chromosomes
(1) P-iii, Q-i, R-ii, S-v, T-iv
(2) P-iii, Q-ii, R-i, S-v, T-iv
(3) P-iii, Q-ii, R-i, S-iv, T-v
(4) P-iv, Q-ii, R-i, S-v, T-iii

40)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only :-
(a) Haemophilia is sex linked recessive disease.
(b) The possibility of a male becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare.
(c) It can be transmitted from an affected haemophilic male to his male progeny.

(d) In haemophilia, a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins involved in the clotting of
blood is affected.
(1) Statements b, c and d
(2) Statements a and b
(3) Statements a, c and d
(4) Statements a and d

41) Study the given pedigree carefully and find out which of the following trait is indicated by the

pedigree :-

(1) Colourblindness
(2) Myotonic dystrophy
(3) Pseudorickets
(4) Sickle cell anaemia

42) Mark the incorrect match

- Controlled by a single gene HBB

(1) α-thalassemia
on chromosome 11

(2) β-thalassemia - Production of β-globin chain is affected

(3) Phenylketonuria - An autosomal recessive disorder

- Transmits from unaffected carrier female to

(4) Haemophilia
some of the male progeny.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
43) Assertion : The modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified allele when it produces normal
enzyme.
Reason : Modified allele is formed by mutation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

44) Assertion : Sickle cell anemia is a classical example of point mutation.

Reason : Sickle cell anemia arises due to change in single base pair of DNA.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

45) The figure below shows three types of sex determination. Select the option giving correct

identification.

(1) C- ZZ males, ZW females

(2) A - XO Males, XX females
(3) B - XY females, XX males
(4) C - ZZ females, XX males

ZOOLOGY

1) Which of the following character is not related with chordates ?

(1) Ventral nerve cord

(2) Ventral heart
(3) Dorsal notochord
(4) Post anal tail

2) Which is not a character of cartilaginous fishes?

(1) 2- Chambered heart

(2) Paired fins
(3) Air or swim bladder
(4) Gills without operculum

3) The characteristic feature of birds which makes them different from reptiles is -

(1) Homoeothermic nature

(2) Post anal tail
(3) Vertebral column
(4) Viviparity

4) Which one is the correct group of animals from following that bears the all following features?
(a) Homeothermal animals
(b) Dicondylic skull
(c) Having 12 pairs of cranial nerves
Option :-

(1) Rana, Naja, Pteropus and Rattus

(2) Rattus, Camelus, Felis and Canis
(3) Canis, Felis, Bufo and Betta
(4) Pavo, Rattus, Crocodilus and Clarias

5) Claspers are :-

(1) Respiratory and present in reptilia

(2) Present on pelvic fins in cartilaginous fishes
(3) Olfactory and present in amphibia
(4) Respiratory and present in amphibia

6) Give the correct match in the following :-

Scientific Name Common Name

(A) Balenoptera (I) Tortoise

(B) Pteropus (II) Angel fish

(C) Testudo (III) Flying fox

(D) Pterophyllum (IV) Blue whale

A B C D

(1) II III I IV
 (2) IV III I II

(3) IV I II III

(4) I II III IV
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) The characteristic of class Reptilia are :-

Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by tympanum,
(1)
alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tract open into a common cloaca.
(2) Fresh water, animals with bony endoskeleton, air bladder to regulate buoyancy.
(3) Marine animals with cartilagineous endoskeleton.
(4) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, with epidermal scales or scutes

8) Identify A, B, C and D labelling :

(1) A-Pharynx ; B-Gizzard ; C-Hepatic caeca ; D-Ileum

(2) A-Oesophagous ; B-Gizzard ; C-Hepatic caeca ; D-Ileum
(3) A-Pharynx ; B-Crop ; C-Malpighian tubules ; D-Rectum
(4) A-Salivary gland ; B-Crop ; C-Malpighian tubules ; D-Colon

9) Given below is a diagramatic representation of female reproductive system of frog labelled A, B, C

and D : Find out incorrect one :-

(1) There is functional connection between C and kidney.

(2) B is small, median chamber that is used to pass faecal matter, urine and ova to the exterior.
(3) D is one pair arising from the ovaries opens into the cloaca separately.
(4) A is thin walled urinary bladder is present ventral to rectum which also opens in cloaea.
10) Release of sperms from testis is called as :-

(1) capacitation
(2) spermiation
(3) spermiogenesis
(4) ejaculation

11) Which of the following hormone is produced in a woman only during pregnancy ?

(1) hCG
(2) hPL
(3) Relaxin
(4) All of these

12) The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for -

(1) Artificial insemination

(2) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate mother
(3) Detecting any genetic abnormality
(4) Detecting sex ofthe unborn foetus

13) Which of the following contraceptive also provides protection from contacting STDs and AIDS ?

(1) Diaphragms
(2) Spermicidal foams
(3) Condoms
(4) Lactational amenorrhoea

14) Fill up the blanks in the following four statements (A to D):

(A) Each testis has about (i) compartments called testicular lobules. Each lobule contains (ii)
highly coiled seminiferous tubules. (B) The spermatids are transformed into sperms by the process
called (iii) .
(C) The male accessory gland include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired (iv) glands.
(D) (v) cells provide nutrition to the male germ cells. (vi) cells synthesis and secrete
testicular hormones called androgens.

(A) - (i) 250, (ii) 1-3

(1) (B) - (iii) spermiation
(C) - (iv) bulbourethral
(B) - (iii) spermiogenesis
(2) (C) - (iv) bulbourethral
(D) - (v) leydig, (vi) sertoli
(A) - (i) 250, (ii) 1-3
(3) (B) - (iii) spermiogenesis
(D) - (v) sertoli, (vi) leydig
(4) Both (1) and (2)

15) Which is the correct path for the secretion and transport of milk in mammary gland?
 Alveoli → Cavity of alveoli → Mammary tubule → Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla →
(1)
Lactiferous duct
Mammary duct → Mammary tubule → Alveoli → Lactiferous duct → Mammary ampulla → Cavity
(2)
of alveoli
Mammary duct → Cavity of alveoli → Lactiferous duct → Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubule
(3)
→ Alveoli
Alveoli → Mammary tubule → Mammary ampulla → Cavity of alveoli → Mammary duct →
(4)
Lactiferous duct

16) Correct order of spermatogenesis is:

(1) Spermatocytes, Spermatogonia, Spermatid, Sperm

(2) Spermatogonia, Spermatid, Spermatocytes, Sperm
(3) Spermatid, Spermatogonia, Spermatocytes, Sperm
(4) Spermatogonia, Primary spermatocytes, Secondary spermatocytes, Spermatid, Sperm

17) Placenta acts as an endocrine structure and produce several harmones like :-
(a) Human chorionics gonadotropin (hCG)
(b) Human placental lactogen (hPL)
(c) Estrogen
(d) Progesterone
(e) LH
Select the correct option

(1) a and b only

(2) b only
(3) a, b, c and e
(4) a, b, c and d

18) Assertion (A):- The presence or absence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.
Reason (R):- In some women, the hymen persists even after coitus and it can also be broken by a
sudden fall or jolt.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

19) In the given figure identify the parts labelled as A,B,C and D and select correct option :-
 A B C D

(1) Cervix Infundibulum Isthmus Fundus

(2) Ovary Ampulla Isthmus Fimbriae

(3) Ovary Infundibulum Ampulla Fundus

(4) Cervix Isthmus Ampulla Fimbriae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Given diagram is of female reproductive system. Identify the structures which are marked as A,

B, C, D

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Vaginal
(1) Urethra Vagina Uterus
orifice

Vaginal
(2) Vagina Urethra Uterus
orifice

Vaginal
(3) Vagina Urethra Uterus
orifice

Vaginal
(4) Uterus Vagina Urethra
orifice
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
21) Identify the procedure shown in the figure given below:

(1) Tubectomy
(2) Vasectomy
(3) Ovarian cancer
(4) Uterine cancer

22) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its

implantation into a woman and select the correct option together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Copper–T Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Oviduct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Which of the following are natural contraceptive methods?

(A) Periodic abstinence
(B) Coitus interruptus
(C) Lactational amenorrhoea
(D) M.T.P.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) B, D

24) Which may be a complication problem of STD, when it is not timely detected–

(1) PID
(2) Still Birth
(3) Infertility
(4) All of these

25) Which of the following statements is correct about the origin and evolution of men ?.

(1) Agriculture came around 50,000 years back.

(2) The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus primates existing 15 million years ago, walked like men.
(3) Homo habilis probably ate meat.
(4) Neanderthal men lived in Asia betweeen 1,00,000 and 40,000 years back.

26) Genetic drift in mendelian population takes place in :-

(1) Small population

(2) Large population
(3) Never occurs
(4) Oceanic population

27) Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to
changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action?
(a) Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands.
(b) Herbicide resistant weeds.
(c) Drug resistant eukaryotes.
(d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.

(1) Only (d)

(2) Only (a)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

28) The phenomenon of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a
point and spreading to other habitats is called :-

(1) Saltation
(2) Co-evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Natural selection

29) A Hominid fossil discovered in Java in 1891, now extinct, having cranial capacity of about 900 cc
was:

(1) Homo erectus

(2) Neanderthal man
(3) Homo sapiens
(4) Australopithecus

30) The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is:

(1) Natural selection

(2) Genetic recombination
(3) Mutation
(4) Genetic drift

31) Cranial capacity of Cro-magnon man was:

(1) 900 cc
(2) 1075 cc
(3) 1450 cc
(4) 1600 cc

32) In the Stanley millers experiment identify the correct combination of gases & temperature ?

Gases Temperature

(1) CH4, NH3, CO2 400ºC

NH3, HCN, H2O,

(2) 1800ºC
vapour, H2

CH4, H2, NH3,

(3) 800ºC
H2O vapour

(4) CH4, HCN, CO2 8000ºC

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Identify the correct match from column-I and column-II

Column-I Column-II

Invertebrates
A. (i) 350 mya
formed

Sea weed
B. (ii) 65 mya
plants existed

Jawless fish
C. (iii) 500 mya
evolved

Extinction of
D. (iv) 320 mya
Dinosaurs
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i,D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

34) Identify the correct match from column I and column II :–

Column–I Column–II

(A) Origin of Universe (i) 4 bya

(B) Origin of earth (ii) 4.5 bya

(C) Origin of first cellular form of life (iii) 3 bya

(D) Origin of first non-cellular form of life (iv) 13.8 bya

(E) Life appeared (v) 2 bya

(1) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii, E – v
(2) A – iv, B – i, C – v, D – ii, E – iii
(3) A – iv, B – ii, C – v, D – iii, E – i
(4) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – v, E – i

35) This diagrammatic representation shows which type of natural

selection.

(1) Directional selection

(2) Stabilising selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) None of these

36) A family tree of dinosaurs is given below in the figure. Select the correct statement regarding it.
(1) Pteranodon was a flying bird
(2) Stegosaurus were the ancestor of Tyrannosaurus
(3) Tyrannosaurs was biggest carnivores dinosaurs among them
(4) Archaeopteryx were the flying Mammals

37) The diagram given below is of marsupials of Australia, provides an example of :-

(1) Adaptive convergence

(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Adaptive radiation

38)

Picture showing below represents-

(1) Convergent evolution of mole and mouse
(2) Divergent evolution of mole and marsupial mole
(3) Adaptive radiation of wolf and Tasmanian wolf
(4) Convergent evolution of anteater and numbat

39) Identify A,B and C from above figure :-

(1) A-sauropsid, B-therapsid, C-pelycosaurs

(2) A-sauropsid, B-pelycosaurs, C-therapsid
(3) A-sauropsid, B-thecodonts, C-pelycosaurs
(4) A-synapsids, B-pelycosaurs, C-thecodonts

40) Assertion :- Due to continental drift pouched mammals of Australia survived.

Reason :- There is lack of competition from any other mammal.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

41) Which of the following is correct?

(1) Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between birds and mammals.

(2) Wings of butterfly and wings of birds are an example of homologous organs.
(3) Eyes of octopus and eyes of mammals are examples of analogous organs.
(4) Australian marsupials are an example of adaptive convergence.

42) Which type of selection is depicted by the graph if the solid line represent the original population
and dashed line is the population after selection :-

(1) Directional selection

(2) Disruptive selection
(3) Stabilizing selection
(4) Sexual selection

43) According to Darwin, the term fitness refers to :

(1) Social fitness

(2) Mental fitness
(3) Physical fitness
(4) Reproductive fitness

44) The theory of spontaneous generation stated that:

(1) Life arose from living forms only

(2) Life can arise from both living and non-living
(3) Life can arise from non-living things only
(4) Life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living
45) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist worked on which island ?

(1) Srilanka
(2) Galapagos
(3) South America
(4) Malay Archipelago
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 3 2 1 4 1 2 3 4 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 2 2 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 1 1 4 3 2 3 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 2 1 3 2 4 3 2 1 3 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 3 1 4 4 2 4 4 2 1 3 4 4 3 2 2 2 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 1 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 2 4 4 3 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 2 1 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 4 3 3 1 1 2 2 1 4 4 4 2 1 4 2 3 2 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 2 1 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 3 1 2 2 2 4 4 1 2 4 3 3 3 1 4 4 1 3 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 1 3 3 4 4 1 4 3 1 4 4 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 1. Explanation:

A spring is cut into four equal parts; each part becomes stiffer, changing the time period.

2. Concept:

Cutting a spring into n parts makes the new spring constant k' = nk
Time period

3. Solution:
Original time period:

T = 2π
Cut into 4 equal parts: k' = 4k

new time period T' = 2π = =

4. Final Answer:
Option (2)

2)

Question Asking About:

The question asks about the frequency of the kinetic energy of a particle undergoing simple
harmonic motion (SHM) with frequency f. We need to find the frequency at which the kinetic
energy oscillates.

Key Concept:
This involves understanding the relationship between velocity and kinetic energy in SHM. The
velocity varies sinusoidally with the same frequency as the displacement. Since kinetic energy
depends on the square of the velocity. Its frequency will be twice that of the displacement.

Formula
• Velocity in SHM

where A is the amplitude ω is the angular frequency t is time and ϕ is the phase constant
kinetic energy

where m is the mass of the particle and v is its velocity

Angular Frequency
ω = 2πf
Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
First subsitute the expression for velocity into the kinetic energy formula

Simplifying

Using the trigonometric identify sin2 θ we get

this shows that the kinetic energy oscillates with a frequency of 2ω which is 2 ×2πf = 4πf thus
the frequency of the kinetic energy is 2f

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

3)

K=
ω=

4) np = , nq =

nr = , ns =
∴ np : nq : nr : ns = 1 : 2 : 4 : 3

5)

6) = =

7)

8)
f same

9)

When P and M come in contact then charge of sphere P =

When P and N come in contact then charge of sphere P =

10)
After q1 increase by 10% & q2 decreased by 10%

F=100 × (0.99) = 99 N

11)

12)

13) Let m be mass of each ball and q be charge on each ball.

Force of repulsion,

In equilibrium
T cosθ = mg ...(i)
T sinθ = F ...(ii)
Divide (ii) by (i), we get,

tanθ=
From figure (a),
 ...........(iii)

From figure (b)

....... (iv)
Divide (iv) by (iii), we get

14) .

15)

U = –pE cosθ
Ui = –pE Uf = 0 W = ΔU ⇒ W = pE

16)

Explain Question : The battery remains connected to the capacitor, when separation between
plates in increased, we need to comment, what happens to, q, v, u and E.

Concept : This question is based on parallel plate capacitor (q, c, v, u, E)

Solution :

(v) ; v is constant as battery is still connected.

(v2)
Final Answer : option (3) Stored energy decreases.

17) Q = 110µC

18)

(1)
Q = (KC)V

(2)
as battery is removed so charge will remain constant

(3)
After removing dielectric
Q = Q' = KCV
New voltage

{C → capacitance without dielectric}

19)

V. drop across capacitor = 2V

So q = CV = 10×2 = 20μC

20)

Time constant τ = Req C where Req is equivalent resistance of circuit about terminal of
capacitor.

21) At t = 0

Req = 1000 Ω ⇒ i =
at t = ∞ ⇒ Req = 2000 Ω ⇒ i = 1mA

22) Ceq = 2µF

So, we need such 4 rows to make 8µF
Total capacitance required = 4 × 4 = 16

23) Explanation:
To find current (i) in given circuit

Concept:
kirchoff's junction law

Formula
Total incoming current at a junction = total out going current from the junction.

Visual aid:

Calculation:
At junction (I)
Iincoming = Ioutgoing
6 + 10 = 8 +I2
I2 = 8
at junction (3) Ioutgoing = Iincoming
I3 = 8 + 2 = 10 Amp
at juncton (2) Ioutgoing = Iincoming
I4 = 11 A
at junction (4) Ioutgoing = Iincoming
 i = I3 + I4 = 11 + 10 = 21 Ampere

24)

Ans. 2R

25) For balanced Wheatstone bridge

⇒ ⇒ x = 6Ω

26) Volume remains same ⇒ AL = A'(2L)

A' = ; Ri =

Rf = = 4Ri

%change = = 300%

27) VAB = VCA

10 × 0.1 = 90 × Rs

∴ Rs = Ω

28) = [sinθ + sin90°] ⊗

29)

Explaining the Question : We have to find the magnetizing magnetic field not center of

circular coil if wire consisting 100 terms each of radius 8:0cm carries current

Concept : This question is based on biot - savart law

Solution : Farmula B =

B=
B = 10–4 T
∴ 10–4T = 1gauss
B = 1 gauss

Final answer : Option (1)

30)

31) Question Explanation :

According to Ampere's law, the line integral of magnetic field around a closed loop depends on

the net current enclosed. Larger enclosed current → lager . Asking about the

increasing order of given path in diagram.

Concept:
This question is based on

0
= μ I _ enclosed. The line integral is directly proportional to the magnitude of
current enclosed by the path.
Solution:

For path "a" :

For path "b" :

For path "c" :

For path "d" :

The increase order will be, path (a) < path (c) < path (d) < path (b)

Final answer : option (2)

32)

Explain the Question : We are finding the magnetic field inside a thick, current-carrying
wire at a point located R/3 distance from its surface. The field depends on enclosed current
using Ampere's law.
Concept : This question is based on inside the wire, magnetic fields varies linearly with
radius:

Solution :
Given distance from surface = R/3, hence r = R – R/3 = 2R/3.
Now, Substituting in formula.

Final answer : Option (3)

33) Use ACL and solve

= μ (–i)
0
for loop (1)

=μi
0
for loop (2)

for loop (3) =0

for loop (4) =0

34) The number of turns per unit length is

The length (l) = 0.5 m and radius (r) = 0.01 m.

Thus, l/a = 50 i.e., i >> a.
Hence, we can use the long solenoid formula,
namely, B = μ0nI = 4π × 10–7 × 103 × 5
= 6.28 × 10–3 T

35)

B = µonI = µo × ×I

= 4π × 10–7 ×
= 10–4 T

36)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which type of particle (proton, neutron, electron,
or alpha particle) moves in the observed curved path when it enters a magnetic field directed
into the plane of a paper. The particle is initially moving from left to right in the plane of the
paper, and the path curve needs to be explained based on the magnetic field's effects.
Underlying Concept: The core concept is the magnetic force acting on a charged particle
moving in a magnetic field. According to Lorentz force law, a charged particle moving in a
magnetic field experiences a force perpendicular to both its velocity and the magnetic field.
This force causes the particle to move in a circular or curved path. The direction of curvature
depends on the charge sign and the magnetic field direction. Neutrons have no charge and
thus are not deflected.

Relevant Formulas: The magnetic force on a charged particle is given by:

\[ \vec{F} = q(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}) \]
where: - is the magnetic force, - is the charge of the particle, - is the velocity of the
particle, - is the magnetic field vector.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: For positive charges, use the right-hand rule to find force
direction. For negative charges, the force direction is opposite. Neutral particles (like
neutrons) don't experience magnetic deflection.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the direction of force by not applying the right-hand rule
correctly. Assuming neutrons are deflected when they have no charge. Mixing up the direction
of curvature for positive versus negative charges.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Protons and alpha particles are positively charged, so
their path curves counterclockwise here, not matching the shown path. Neutrons have no
charge and so don't curve. Only electrons, which are negatively charged, curve clockwise as
shown.

37)

⇒B=–3 & B0 = –4

38)

⇒B=

39) From figure it is clear that

also r =

∴
40) (a)

Fe ≠ 0
u1 > u
but path : straight line
(b) If then undeflected
Here

41) Time period of proton

By using

42)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which statement is true about the path radius of a
proton and an alpha-particle when both are projected with the same kinetic energy
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field. It wants to know whether their circular path radii
differ or are the same due to differences in mass and charge.

Underlying Concept: When a charged particle moves perpendicular to a magnetic field, it

experiences a magnetic force that makes it move in a circular path. The radius of this circular
path depends on the particle's mass, charge, velocity, and the magnetic field strength. The key
concept here is the radius of curvature of charged particles in a magnetic field, which depends
on how these factors combine.

Relevant Formulas: The radius of the circular path of a charged particle in a magnetic field
is given by: \[ r = \frac{mv}{qB} \] where: - = radius of the circular path - = mass of the
particle - = speed of the particle - = charge of the particle - = magnetic field strength
Since kinetic energy is given by: \[ E = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \implies v = \sqrt{\frac{2E}{m}}
\] Substituting into radius formula: \[ r = \frac{m}{qB} \sqrt{\frac{2E}{m}} =
\frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{qB} \] This shows that radius is proportional to .
Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. For the proton: - Mass = - Charge = \[ r_p \propto
\frac{\sqrt{m}}{e}\]
2. For the alpha particle: - Mass = - Charge = \[ r_\alpha \propto
\frac{\sqrt{4m}}{2e} = \frac{2\sqrt{m}}{2e} = \frac{\sqrt{m}}{e}\]
Since both ratios are equal, . This means both particles have the same radius of
curvature under the given conditions.

Tips and Tricks: Focus on expressing radius in terms of and by substituting velocity
from the kinetic energy formula rather than directly comparing .

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to assume the heavier alpha particle must have a
larger radius simply because it is heavier, or the higher charge always means a smaller radius.
Without considering velocity differences, these assumptions are incorrect.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices stating that the alpha-particle has a smaller or
larger radius neglect the fact that its higher charge and mass affect velocity and radius
proportionally. The choice that both particles travel straight is incorrect because a charged
particle moving perpendicular to a magnetic field always moves in a circular path.

43)

44)

Question Explanation :
Question ask about magnetic susceptibility does not depend temperature.

Concept :
This question is based on Magnetics susceptibility.

Solution :
Theory :
Diamagnetic materials have no permanent magnetic moments.

Their magnetism arise from induced magnetic moment that oppose an external magnetic field.
It's independent of temperature.

Hence,
 Option (3) is correct : Diamagnetic substances

45) Question Explanation : The Curie point (or Curie temperature) is the temperature at
which a ferromagnetic material loses its ferromagnetic properties. We need to determine the
nature of the material above this temperature.
Concept :
This question is based on curie point (temp.)

Solution :

A. Ferromagnetic materials (like iron, cobalt, and nickel) exhibit strong magnetization due to
aligned magnetic domains.
B. At the Curie temperature, thermal agitation disrupts this alignment, and the material
transitions from ferromagnetic to paramagnetic.
C. Paramagnetic materials have randomly oriented dipoles but still show weak attraction to an
external magnetic field.

Correct Answer
At the Curie point, a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Paramagnetic

CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation:
A is in large excess, the reaction behaves as a second -order reaction with respect to B.

Given data:
Reaction: A + 2B → C
Rate Law: r = k[A] [B]2
Condition: [A] is in large excess

Concept:
order of reaction

Solution:
• The order of a reaction is the sum of the exponents of concentration terms in the rate law.
• When a reactant is in large excess, its concentration remains nearly constant throughout the
reaction.
• The effective rate law then depends only on the other reactants (s) treating the excess
reactant as a constant factor.
Given rate law: r = k[A] [B]
Since [A] is in large excess, it is nearly constant . Let k' = k[A], where k' is a new constant
Thus the rate equation simplifies to r = k ;[B]

Correct option: (1)

47)

Question Explanation: Ordering the stability of resonating structures.

Concept: Resonance Stability
Solution: The stability of a resonance structure is determined by the octet rule, charge
separation, and electronegativity of charged atoms. The structure with no charge separation
and all atoms having a complete octet is the most stable. The structure in option III is the most
stable. The structure in option II has charge separation, and the structure in option I has a
positive charge on an oxygen atom, making it the least stable. The correct order is III > II >
I. Calculation: N/A Final Answer: 4

48) Question Explanation: Ordering the stability of species.

Concept: Stability of anions
Solution: The stability of an anion is related to the s-character of the carbon atom. The order
is sp>sp2>sp3. The correct order is d > c > a > b. Calculation: N/A Final Answer: 1

49) For effective collision molecules must have sufficient energy and proper orientation.

50)

Rate

total order 2 + 1 = 3

51) r = K [H2] [Br•]

Keq.= , [Br•] = Keq.1/2 [Br2]1/2

r = K[H2] Keq.1/2 [Br2]1/2
= [Link].1/2 [H2]1[Br2]1/2

52) Rate of reaction

53)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
∴ Number of 2º carbon are 8

54)

Fact

55)

Fact

56)

57)
2-formyl-3-oxopentanenitrile

58)

CH3–CHD–CH2T, CH2D–CHT–CH3, CHDT–CH2–CH3

1 2 3
1 ∝ 2 → Positional isomers
2 & 3 → Positional isomers

59)

CH3CH2CHO &

60)

All the given option have only one type of 'H' atom.

61)
 DBE of benzene = 4

62) A Question Explanation:

The question asks us to identify which of the given molecules are chiral.

B Given Data:

(A) (B) (C)

C Concept:

A. Chirality: A molecule is chiral if it is non-superimposable on its mirror image. This typically

occurs when a carbon atom is bonded to four different groups. Such a carbon is called a chiral
center or stereocenter. OR
B. Asymmetric molecules are known as chiral molecules. If plane of symmetry and center of
symmetry both are absent then the molecule is called chiral. So to find that molecule is chiral
or not, check the plane of symmetry and center of symmetry.

D Answer Explanation:

(A) POS & COS Present (Achiral)

(B) POS & COS Absent (chiral)

(C) POS & COS Absent (chiral)

E Final Answer: Option 1

F Question Level: Medium
63)

64)

Meso compound is optically inactive due to internal compensation.

65)

66)

67) will show G.I.

68) Can not show G.I

69) Given Data:

Statement I : Penta-2,3-diene is optically active due to perpendicular

planes because of p-orbitals.

Statement II : Given o-substituted biphenyls are optically active due to

the perpendicular plane because of the repulsion factor caused by bulky groups.

Concept :
Asymmetric molecules are known as chiral molecules. If plane of symmetry and center of
chiral or not, check the plane of symmetry and center of symmetry..

Chiral molecules are optically active :

Answer Explanation :

Statement I : Penta-2,3-diene is chiral due to the perpendicular arrangement of the two

double bonds. This perpendicularity prevents the molecule from having a plane of symmetry,
which is a requirement for chirality. The p-orbitals are involved in the pi bonding of the double
bonds and are essential for this perpendicular arrangement. Therefore, Statement I is correct.
Statement II : o-Substituted biphenyls can be chiral due to restricted rotation about the
single bond connecting the two rings. Bulky groups at the ortho positions cause steric
hindrance, forcing the rings into a perpendicular arrangement. This lack of free rotation and
the resulting fixed perpendicular arrangement makes the molecule chiral. Therefore,
Statement Il is correct.

Final Answer :

Option 1 (Both statement-I & statement-Il are correct)

Question Level : Medium

70)

⇒ (B) Meso compounds are optically inactive compounds having atleast two chiral carbon. ∴
they are optical isomerism but are optically inactive.
(c) If molecule has one chiral carbon then it is always optically active.

71) CH2 = CH2 act as nucleophile (it can donate π electrons to electrophile such as H⊕)
72) is most stable because '+' charge involved in resonance.

is least stable among all because '+' is on unsaturated carbon and not involved in
resonance.

73)

NCERT, Amine Page No.# 391

74)

75)

Question Explanation: Ordering the heat of hydrogenation.

Concept: Heat of Hydrogenation and Stability of Alkenes
Solution: The heat of hydrogenation is inversely proportional to the stability of the alkene.
The stability of an alkene is determined by the number of alkyl substituents. The most
substituted alkene has the lowest heat of hydrogenation. Calculation: N/A Final Answer: 2

76)

NCERT 11th Page No. 376

77) Question Explanation: Identifying the benzenoid aromatic compound.

Concept: Aromaticity
Solution: A benzenoid aromatic compound is one that contains at least one benzene ring. The
compound in option A, a naphthalene, is a benzenoid aromatic compound.
Calculation: N/A
Final Answer: 1

78) Question Explanation: Ordering the acidic strength.

Concept: Acidic Strength
Solution: The acidity of a carboxylic acid is enhanced by electron-withdrawing groups. The
cyano group (CN) and the bromine atom are electron-withdrawing. The correct order is I > IV
> III > II. Calculation: N/A
Final Answer: 4
79)
⇒ Acidic hydrogen

80)

81) Question Explanation: Evaluating statements about acidic strength.

Concept: Acidic strength and inductive effect
Solution: The assertion is incorrect: chloroform is less acidic than fluoroform. The reason is
correct: the electronegativity of fluorine is greater than that of chlorine. The correct answer is
D. Calculation: N/A
Final Answer: 4

82)

In EAR carbocation is formed as an intermediate.

Rate of EAR ∝ Stability of C⊕.

83)

84)

85) Reactivity of free radical substitution µ Stability of intermediate free radical

86)

Explaining the Question :- Question is asking about the product (A)

Concept :- This Question is based wurtz reaction
Solution :- wurtz reaction is best method for preparation of symmetrical alkane
Final Answer :- (2)

87)

Explaining the Question :-

Question is asking about the dehydrobromenation reaction decreasing oder
Concept:-
This question is based on E-2 reaction
Solution :-
Rate of dehydrobremination ∝ stability alkene

(I)
hyperconjugative H-atom = 9

(II)
hyperconjugative H-atom = 5

(III)
hyperconjugative H-atom = 2
I > II > III
Final Answer :- (2)

88)

Explanation Question: On the basis of reagent used we have to identify mechanism of the
reaction
Concept: This question is based on substitution and elimination reactions
Solution:

Final Answer option : (1)

89)

Explaining the Question :- To select least reactive reactant.

Concept :- This question is based on Nucleophilic substitution reaction.
Solution :-
Option (1) Vinyl chloride
 Due to Resonance C-Cl bond has got double bond character. So it is difficult to break Making it
less reactive towards NaOH.
Final Answer :- Option (1)

90) Explain the question :

Concept : This question is based on friedel craft reaction, side chain oxidation.
Solution :

Formation of toluene (P) is electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction of benzene.

Electrophile is .
Final answer : Option(4)

BOTANY

91) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Cleistogamous flowers never open, ensuring only self-pollination (not cross-
pollination). This guarantees seed production even without pollinators, but reduces genetic
diversity.
Final Answer : (3)

92) A- Scutellum; B - Coleoptile; C - Epiblast; D- Coleorhiza

93) This ensures only desired pollen reaches the stigma

94) Option (4)

95) Embryo develops at the chalazal end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated.

96) NCERT Pg # 8
97) NCERT Pg. # 20-22

98) NCERT Pg. # 12,20

99) NCERT Page # 19

100) NCERT Page Number : 15

101)

XII NCERT pg no.23

102) NCERT - XII, Pg. # 37

103) NCERT XII Pg 34(E), 35-37(H)

104)

NCERT XII Pg No. # 19

105) Ncert Pg No: 19

106) NCERT Pg. no. 17

107) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 35

108) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 29

109) Explanation: In the ABO blood group system, there are 3 alleles (IA, IB, and i), 4
phenotypes (A, B, AB, and O), and 6 genotypes (IAIA, IAi, IBIB, IBi, IAIB, and ii).

110)

Pg. No. 70 - XII NCERT

111) They have many types of hereditary variations that can be seen with electron
microscopes only.

112) NCERT 12th Class: 4.1 MENDEL’S LAWS OF INHERITANCE

113) NCERT 12th Class (Chapter-4) [Link] Co-dominance

114)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which genetic inheritance pattern is indicated when a
dihybrid cross results in six different phenotypes in the F2 generation. You need to identify
whether the genes show dominance, incomplete dominance, codominance, or a mix.

Underlying Concept: A dihybrid cross involves two genes, each with two alleles. Depending
on how alleles interact (dominance, incomplete dominance, codominance), the number of
distinct phenotypes in offspring varies. Classical dominance produces 4 phenotypes;
incomplete or codominance affects this number. Here, 6 phenotypes suggest one gene shows
complete dominance, while the other shows incomplete dominance, creating more phenotype
combinations.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: - Both genes dominant → typically 4 phenotypes - Both
incomplete dominance → 9 phenotypes - Both codominance → 9 phenotypes - Mixed
dominance and incomplete dominance → intermediate number, such as 6 phenotypes.

Common Mistakes: Assuming both genes always show the same type of dominance and not
considering mixtures of dominance types.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: "Both genes show dominance" usually results in 4
phenotypes, not 6. "Both genes show incomplete dominance" or "both genes show
codominance" typically produce 9 phenotypes due to more varied allele interactions.
Therefore, these options are inconsistent with six observed phenotypes.

115) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 71-72

116) NCERT Pg. # 90

Hindi Pg. # 98

117)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 88

118)

The correct answer is: 2. B and E only

Explanation: Klinefelter's Syndrome is a genetic condition where males have an extra X-

chromosome (XXY). Individuals with Klinefelter's syndrome typically exhibit overall masculine
development (B), but they are sterile (E) due to impaired spermatogenesis.
119)

NCERT Page No. : 78

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 89

121) NCERT (XIIth)Pg. # 81

122) NCERT XIIth Page-90

123) Ncert Pg No: 88

124) Ncert Pg No: 89

125) Ncert Pg No: 79

126) NCERT Page no. 54

127)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 89

128) Ncert Pg No: 57

129) Ncert Pg No: 58, 59

130) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 89

131) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 88

132)

NCERT Pg No. - 91

133) NCERT-(XIIth) Pg # 60, 61

134) NCERT Pg. # 87

135)
 NCERT-XII, Pg. # 70

ZOOLOGY

136) Question Explanation: Identify the feature that is not characteristic of chordates.
Concept: Chordata - Fundamental features
Solution: The central nervous system in chordates is dorsal, hollow, and single. A ventral
nerve cord is characteristic of non-chordates.
Final Answer: 1

137) NCERT (XI) Pg# 56 Para: [Link]

138) Question Explanation: The characteristic feature of birds which makes them different
from reptiles is:

Concept : This question is based on comparison of reptiles and aves

Explanation : The homoeothermic (warm-blooded) nature is a unique feature that

differentiates birds from reptiles.

Final answer : Homoeothermic nature

139)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 56,57,58,59

140)

Pg. No. 57 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

141)

Ncert page 48 to 51.

142) Question Explanation: Identify the characteristics of class Reptilia

Concept: Reptilia characteristics: skin and scales

Solution: Reptiles are characterized by a body covered with dry and cornified skin with
epidermal scales or scutes, an adaptation for terrestrial life.
Other options describe amphibians, bony fish, and cartilaginous fish.

Final Answer: Option-4

143)
 Question Explanation: Identifying parts of cockroach alimentary canal.
Concept: Digestive system of cockroach
Solution: A is the salivary gland, which secretes saliva. B is the crop, which stores food. C is
the Malpighian tubules, which are for excretion. D is the colon, which is part of the hindgut.
Final Answer: A-Salivary gland ; B-Crop ; C-Malpighian tubules ; D-Colon

144) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 83

145)

Final Answer: option (2)

146) NCERT Page No. 53

147) NCERT Page No. 58

148) NCERT Page No. 60

149) NCERT pg- 50

150) NCERT Page # 30

151) NCERT pg- 47

152) NCERT Page # 37

153)

Question Explanation : identify correctness of assertion and reason about hymen as an

indicator of virginity.
Concept : This question is based on Female external genitalia.
Solution : The correct answer is option 1.

A. Assertion is correct because hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.

B. Reason is also correct. Hymen may persist after coitus and can tear due to non-sexual
activities like sports, exercise, or sudden fall.
C. (R) is correct explanation of (A) because if hymen can persist even after sex or break without
sex, its condition cannot reliably prove virginity, directly supporting the assertion.

Final Answer : option (1)

154) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 45

155)

Solution:
A) Vagina: This is the muscular tube that connects the uterus to the outside of the body.
B) Urethra: This is the tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.
C) Uterus: This is the muscular organ that holds and nourishes a developing fetus.
D) Vaginal orifice: This is the opening of the vagina to the outside of the body.
Final Answer: The correct option 2.

156) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 61

157) NCERT XII Pg. # 60 (E) 67 (H) Fig. 4.2

158)

Question Explanation:
The question asks which of the listed methods are natural contraceptive methods.

Concept:
Natural contraceptive methods.

Solution:

Periodic abstinence (A) involves avoiding intercourse during the fertile period,which
is a natural method
Coitus interruptus (B) is withdrawal before ejaculation, which is a natural method but
less reliable.
Lactational amenorrhoea (C) is a natural method where breastfeeding prevents
ovulation and menstruation postpartum.

Final Answer:3

159)

Question explanation
The question is asking which complications can arise from sexually transmitted
diseases (STDs) if they are not diagnosed and treated in time.

Concept
Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART).

Solution
Untreated STDs can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), infertility, ectopic
pregnancy, and may cause stillbirth or congenital diseases in newborns. Hence, all
listed conditions can result from untreated [Link] answer
All of these

Question explanation
The question is asking which complications can arise from sexually transmitted
 diseases (STDs) if they are not diagnosed and treated in time.

Concept
Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART).

Solution
Untreated STDs can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), infertility, ectopic
pregnancy, and may cause stillbirth or congenital diseases in newborns. Hence, all
listed conditions can result from untreated [Link] answer
All of these

160) Question Explanation: to identify correct statement

Concept: evolution of man
Solution:
Neanderthal men lived in Asia between 1,00,000 and 40,000 years back. (CORRECT)
Final Answer: option (4)

161) Question Explanation: Location of genetic drift.

Concept: Genetic Drift
Solution: Genetic drift is a random change in allele frequencies that occurs due to chance
events. This process is most impactful in a small population, where the random loss or
fixation of alleles can have a significant effect on the overall gene pool.
Final Answer: Small population

162) Question Explanation : Identify examples of evolution caused by human-induced

environmental changes.

Concept : The question is based on anthropogenic impact on evolution.

Solution :

A. Statement (a) is incorrect: Darwin’s finches evolved due to natural environmental pressures,
not human actions.
B. Statement (b) is correct: Herbicide use by humans led to the evolution of resistant weeds.
C. Statement (c) is correct: Drug-resistant eukaryotes evolved due to human use of medications.
D. Statement (d) is correct: Selective breeding by humans created new breeds of domesticated
animals.

Final answer : Option 3.

163) The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a
point and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called adaptive radiation.

164) Question Asking About:

Asks to identify a specific extinct hominid species based on its discovery location (Java, 1891)
and cranial capacity (around 900 cc)

Solution :
The hominid fossil discovered in Java in 1891 with a cranial capacity of about 900 cc is widely
recognized as belonging to Homo erectus. Therefore, the hominid fossil described in the
question is Homo erectus.

Final Answer:
Option (1)

165) Question Explanation : The question asks which factor causes the founder effect in a
population.
Concept : FOUNDER EFFECT
Solution : Genetic drift → random fluctuation in allele frequencies in small populations,
responsible for founder effect.
Final Answer : Option (4)

166)

Question Explanation :to identify Cranial capacity of Cro-magnon man

Concept: human evolution

Solution:
Cranial capacity of Cro-magnon man was 1600cc.

Final Answer: option (4)

167) Explain Question : In Stanley Miller’s experiment identify the correct combination of
gases & temperature.
Concept : This question is based on stanley Miller’s experiment
Explanation : The correct combination is CH₄, H₂, NH₃, H₂O vapour at 800°C.
Final answer : (3) CH₄, H₂, NH₃, H₂O vapour — 800°C

168) Explain Question:

Identify the correct match from Column-I and Column-II

Concept:
This question is based on Evolution - geological time scale.

Explanation:
Invertebrates formed → 500 mya (iii)
Scaweed plants existed → mya (iv)
Jawless fish evolved → mya (i)
Extinction of dinosaurs → mya (ii)

Final answer : 3
 169)

A. Query successful

Question Explanation: Matching major events to their [Link]: Timeline of Evolution

Solution: Here's the correct timeline matching:

A. (A) The Origin of the Universe (Big Bang) occurred approximately 20 billion years ago (iv).
B. (B) The Origin of Earth occurred about 4.5 billion years ago (ii).
C. (C) The first cellular forms of life appeared around 2 billion years ago (v).
D. (D) The first non-cellular forms of life (e.g., RNA, proteins) appeared around 3 billion
years ago (iii).
E. (E) Life appeared about 4 billion years ago (i), as non-cellular forms.

Final Answer: A - iv, B - ii, C - v, D - iii, E - i

170)

NCERT Pg no 120

171) NCERT Pg. # 114(E)

172) NCERT Pg # 133, para 7.4, fig. 7.6

173) NCERT-XII, Pg # 134, Fig. 7.7

174)

Question Explanation : Identify lineages in the provided phylogenetic tree.

Concept : Brief Account Of Evolution.
Solution :
• A is the earliest branch (ancestor to mammals) → Synapsids.
• B (from synapsid line, before mammals) → Pelycosaurs.
• C (from the sauropsid line, leading towards dinosaurs/birds) → Thecodonts.
Thus, the correct identification is : A = Synapsids, B = Pelycosaurs, C = Thecodonts.
Final Answer : Option (4) The correct identification is A-synapsids, B-pelycosaurs, and C-
thecodonts.

175)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 124

176) NCERT(XII) Pg#131/141(H) Para:7.3

177) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 136

178)

The correct answer is option 4.

Reproductive fitness According to Darwin, fitness refers to an organism's ability to survive and
reproduce, thereby passing on its genes to the next generation — known as reproductive
fitness.

179)

Correct answer: Option 3 – Life can arise from non-living things only.

Solution/Explanation:
The theory of spontaneous generation stated that life originated spontaneously from non-living
matter like mud and straw. This idea was later disproved by Louis Pasteur, who showed that
life comes only from pre-existing life (biogenesis).

Hence, option (3) is correct.

180) Question Explanation : Alfred Wallace's study location.

Concept : Biogeographical distribution.

Solution : Alfred Russel Wallace worked in the Malay Archipelago. His extensive
fieldwork there led him to independently formulate a theory of evolution similar to Darwin's.
He also observed a sharp divide in the fauna, now known as the Wallace Line.

Final Answer : Option (4) Malay Archepelago