DEBRE TABOR UNIVERSITY

FACULTY OF TECHNOLOGY
DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRICAL AND COMPUTER ENGINEERING

Model Exit Exam

5th years regular student Date: Senie, 2015 E.C
Industrial Control Engineering
Program: Electrical & Computer Engineering Time allowed: 100 minutes
Admission: Undergraduate degree Total Mark: 100%

Name:_____________________________________________ID.No._____________________

Instructions

✓ Write your name and ID No. on the top ✓ Any kind of cheating leads score penalty
of the answer sheet. ✓ Switch off your cell phone.
✓ Write your answer only in the answer
sheet
✓ Attempt all the questions.

For instructor use only

Total mark (100%)

Good Luck!
 Fundamentals of Electrical Engineering
1. How many cycles will an AC signal make in 2 seconds if its frequency is 100 Hz?
A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200

2. What will be the current density of metal if a current of 30A is passed through a cross-
sectional area of 0.5m2?
A. 7.5 A/m2 B. 15 A/m2 C. 60 A/m2 D. 120 A/m2
3. What is constant for a charged spherical shell according to basic electrical energy?
A. Electrical potential outside the spherical shell
B. Electrical potential inside the spherical shell
C. Electrical field outside the spherical shell
D. Electrical field inside the spherical shell
4. What does positive power in an electrical element indicate?
A. Element is absorbing power
B. Element is supplying power
C. Element may absorb or supply power
D. Element is neither absorbing nor supplying power
5. What happens to the quality factor when the bandwidth increases?
A. Increases B. Decreases C. Remains the same D. Becomes zero
6. When is tan  positive on a given AC circuit?
A. When inductive reactance is less than capacitive reactance
B. When inductive reactance is greater than capacitive reactance
C. When inductive reactance is equal to capacitive reactance
D. When inductive reactance is zero
7. Find Vx due to the 3A source for the following figure using super-position method.
A. 56V B. 78V C. 38V D. 48V
8. For a coil having a magnetic circuit of constant reluctance, the flux is ____ to the current.
A. Directly proportional B. Not related
C. Inversely proportional D. Very large compared to
9. What happens to the magnetic field in the solenoid when the length of the solenoid
increases?
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Remains constant D. Becomes zero
 Electronics
10. The voltage after which the diode current exponentially increases with forward bias is
NOT known as ________
A. Offset voltage B. Threshold potential
C. Firing potential D. Peak forward voltage
11. What happens to cut-in voltage of diode when the temperature increases?
A. Cut-in voltage increases
B. Cut-in voltage decreases
C. Cut-in voltage either increases or decreases
D. Cut-in voltage doesn’t depend on temperature
12. Reverse saturation current of a common emitter transistor is __________
A. Collector current when emitter is open circuited and base-collector junction is
reverse biased
B. Emitter current when collector is open circuited and base-collector junction is
reverse biased
C. Base current when emitter circuit is open circuited and emitter-collector junction is
reverse biased
D. Collector current when base circuit is open circuited
13. Which of the following configuration is used as input stage of the multistage amplifier?
A. Common base configuration
B. Common emitter configuration
C. Common collector configuration
D. All configurations are equally suited
14. Consider the biasing circuit shown. The β for the circuit is large. R3 = 1kΩ, R4 = 2kΩ.
The stability factor varies between 10 and 11. Find the maximum and minimum values of
R2.

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 A. Minimum = 16.36kΩ, Maximum = 18kΩ B. Minimum = 10 kΩ, Maximum = 20kΩ
C. Minimum = 16.36kΩ, Maximum = 20kΩ D. Minimum = 6 kΩ, Maximum = 10kΩ
15. Which of the following is true for the cut-off region in an npn transistor?
A. Potential difference between the emitter and the base is smaller than 0.5V
B. Potential difference between the emitter and the base is smaller than 0.4V
C. The collector current increases with the increase in the base current
D. The collector current is always zero and the base current is always non zero
16. At saturation, which of these is not true for a BJT?
A. The collector current IC cannot increase further
B. The base current IB, cannot increase further
C. The collector-to-emitter voltage, VCE is due to the non-zero internal resistance of
BJT
D. VCE(saturation) is the minimum voltage drop between C and E
17. Which of the following statements is most correct to explain role of biasing circuit in the
implementation of a transistor circuit?
A. It is used provide proper voltage to every component in the circuit
B. It is used to ensure maximum power is obtained out of the circuit
C. It is used to provide the quiescent collector current
D. It is used to provide proper and stable functional environment to all quiescent
point parameters
18. What is the role of input capacitance in the transistor amplifying circuit?
A. To prevent input variation from reaching output
B. To prevent DC content in the input from reaching transistor
C. There isn’t any role for input capacitance
D. To increase input impedance

Signal and System

19. Which are the only waves that correspond/ support the measurement of phase angle in the
line spectra?
a) Sine waves b) Cosine waves
c) Triangular waves d) Square waves
20. Double-sided phase & amplitude spectra__________
a) Possess an odd & even symmetry respectively
b) Possess an even & odd symmetry respectively
c) Both possess an odd symmetry
d) Both possess an even symmetry

5
21. Which kind of frequency spectrum/spectra is/are obtained from the line spectrum of a
continuous signal on the basis of the Polar Fourier Series Method?
a) Continuous in nature c) Sampled in nature
b) Discrete in nature d) All of the above
22. Which type/s of Fourier series allow/s to represent of the negative frequencies by plotting
the double-sided spectrum for the analysis of periodic signals?
a) Trigonometric Fourier Series
b) Polar Fourier Series
c) Exponential Fourier Series
d) All of the above
23. What does the signaling rate in the digital communication system imply?
a) Number of digital pulses transmitted per second
b) Number of digital pulses transmitted per minute
c) Number of digital pulses received per second
d) Number of digital pulses received per minute
24. As the signaling rate increases, __________
a. Width of each pulse increases
b. Width of each pulse decreases
c. Width of each pulse remains unaffected
d. None of the above
25. Which phenomenon occurs due to an increase in the channel bandwidth during the
transmission of narrow pulses in order to avoid any intervention of signal distortion?
a. Compression in the time domain
b. Expansion in the time domain
c. Compression in the frequency domain
d. Expansion in the frequency domain
26. Why are the negative & positive phase shifts introduced for positive & negative
frequencies respectively in amplitude and phase spectra?
a. To change the symmetry of the phase spectrum
b. To maintain the symmetry of the phase spectrum
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

6
 Network analysis & synthesis
27. Which of the following are active components used in network analysis?
a) Hub b) Router
c) Switch d) All the above
28. What is the purpose of active components in network circuits?
a) Divert signal b) Convert signal
c) Amplify signal d) Amputate signal
29. The reciprocal of reactance is _______.
a) Admittance b) Susceptance
c) Capacitance d) Impedance
30. The transfer function Z(s) of a capacitor for 3 passive types 2 terminal components in an
electrical network is
1 1
a) 𝑍(𝑆) = 𝑠𝐶 b) 𝑍(𝑆) = 𝑅

c) 𝑍(𝑆) = 𝑅 d) 𝑍(𝑆) = 𝑠𝐿
31. In V-I characteristic of the linear element, if the voltage and current values are negative then
the impedance obtained is ___value
a) Negative b) Positive
c) 0 d) Both a and b
32. From two port conversations which one of the following is incorrect?
𝐴𝐷−𝐵𝐶 1
a) 𝐻12 = b) 𝐻21 = 𝐷
𝐷
𝐶 𝐵
c) 𝐻22 = 𝐷 d) 𝐻11 = 𝐷

33. Which one of the following filter rejects all frequencies within a specified band and passes
all those outside this band?
a) Bandpass filter b) Band stop filter
c) Low pass filter d) High pass filter
34. Which one of the following systems is both unstable and causal?
a) 𝑦[𝑛] − 2𝑦[𝑛 − 1] = 𝑥[𝑛] b) 𝑦[𝑛] + 2𝑦[𝑛 − 1] = 𝑥[𝑛]
c) 2𝑦[𝑛] − 𝑦[𝑛 − 1] = 2𝑥[𝑛] d) 𝑦[𝑛] = 𝑥[𝑛] + 𝑥[𝑛 − 1] + 𝑥[𝑛 − 1]

7
e) 𝐵𝑜𝑡ℎ 𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏

8
 Introduction to Computing
35. Which one of the following is a keyword?
A. Size C. Jump
B. Key D. Switch
36. What is a constant that contains a single character enclosed within single
quotes?
A. Character C. Fixed
B. Numeric D. Floating point
37. More than one function had to access data ___ variables were used.
A. Local C. Global
B. Automatic D. Static
38. ___ is a Program representation of some real-world thing.
A. Object C. Attributes
B. Class D. Function
39. ___ can be defined as data structures that allow storing a group of data of the same datatype.
A. Array C. Union
B. Structure D. String
40. The index number starts with ___ and the last index number of an array of size n will be ___
A. 0, n-1 C. 0, n+1
B. 1,n D. 0,n
41. String stores an extra ___ character for every string to mark the end of the string
A. Null C. /0
B. ‘\0’ D. None of these
42. More than one user-defined function can have the same name and perform different
operations. This feature of c++ is known as ___.
A. Function overloading C. overloading
B. operator overloading D. None of these.
Digital Logic design
43. How many bits must each word have in one-to-four line de-multiplexer to be
implemented using a memory?
A. 8 bit C. 2 bits
B. 4 bits D. 1 bits
44. _____________ can be determined the Instability condition.
A. Table C. map
B. logic diagram D. graph
45. If we add an inverter at the output of AND gate, what function is produced?
A. NAND C. OR
B. XOR D. NOR
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46. For every possible combination of logical states in the inputs, which table
shows the logical state of a digital circuit output?
A. Function table C. Truth table
B. ASCII table D. Routing table
47. Sum of two octal numbers “71” and “36” = __________________
A. 123 C. 213
B. 127 D. 345
48. Time delay device is memory element of______________
A. asynchronous circuits C. clocked flip-flops
B. synchronous circuits D. Unlocked flip-flops
49. Boolean function must be brought into________ To perform product of max
terms
A. OR terms C. NOT terms
B. AND terms D. NAND terms
50. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to the decimal number _____________
A. 12
B. 19
C. 21
D. 27
Modern control systems
51. which one is not an advantage to put equations into state space form?
ẋ = 𝐴𝑥 + 𝐵𝑢
𝑦 = 𝐶𝑥 + 𝐷𝑢
A. Stability analysis
B. Nonlinear equations are more easily analyzed.
C. It is a compact way to express systems with multiple inputs and multiple outputs.
D. The model is in time-domain that is more intuitive than other forms such as Laplace domain.
52. For the state equation 𝑥 ′ = 𝐴𝑥 + 𝐵𝑢, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑌 = 𝐶𝑥, the transfer matrix is:
A. 𝐶(𝑠𝐼 − 𝐴)−1 𝐵 C. 𝐴(𝑠𝐼 − 𝐴)−1 𝐶
−1
B. 𝐵(𝑠𝐼 − 𝐴) 𝐴 D. 𝐶(𝑠𝐼 − 𝐴)−1 𝐴
53. A system is said to be _________ if every state X can exactly be determined from the measurement of
the output Y over a finite interval of time.
A. Controllable

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 B. Observable
C. Non causal
D. Unstable
54. Consider the following properties attributed to state model of a system:
I. State model is unique.
II. Transfer function for the system is unique.
III. State model can be derived from transfer function of the system.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A. i, ii and iii
B. i and ii only
C. ii and iii only
D. i and iii only
55. When a transfer function model is converted into state-space model, the order of the system
may be reduced during which one of the following conditions?
A. The order of the system will never get changed.
B. Pole, zero cancellation takes place.
C. Some of the variables are hidden.
D. Some of the variables are not considered.
56. Consider the following statements with respect to a system represented by its state-space
model.
𝑥 ′ = 𝐴𝑥 + 𝐵𝑢, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑌 = 𝐶𝑥

[Link] static vector x of the system is unique.

[Link] eigen values of A are the poles of the system transfer function.
[Link] minimum number of state variables required is equal to the number of
independent energy storage elements in the system.
Which of these statements are correct?

A. i and ii C. i and iii

B. ii and iii D. i, ii and iii
57. which of the following equations is equivalent to the state space model with 𝐴 = −5, 𝐵 = 2, 𝐶 =
1, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐷 = 0?
ẋ = 𝐴𝑥 + 𝐵𝑢
𝑦 = 𝐶𝑥 + 𝐷𝑢
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦
A. 5 𝑑𝑡 = 𝑦 + 2𝑢 C. 𝑑𝑡
= −5𝑦 + 2𝑢
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦
B. 5 𝑑𝑡 = 25𝑦 + 10𝑢 D. 5 𝑑𝑡 + 5𝑦 = 2𝑢
58. For the system state space representation is given by
ẋ1 = 𝑥2
ẋ2 = −2𝑥1 − 0.7𝑥2 + 𝑢
𝑦 = 𝑥1

i. What is the state feedback gain matrix 𝑘 that produces a set of desired closed loop poles 𝑠 =
−3 ± 𝑗3.

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 ii. observers gain matrix 𝑘𝑒 for a full order state observer that produces a set of desired closed
loop poles 𝑠 = −16 ± 𝑗16.
5.3
A. [16 5.3] 𝑎𝑛𝑑 [[ ]]
12.29
16
B. [[ ]] 𝑎𝑛𝑑 [5.3 12.29]
5.3
C. [16 5.3] 𝑎𝑛𝑑 [5.3 12.29]
5.3 5.3
D. [[ ]] 𝑎𝑛𝑑 [[ ]]
12.29 12.29
Introduction to instrumentation
59. The study of relationship between the input and output, when the input is invariant with respect
to time is called as:
A. Static characteristics of instrument
B. Variable characteristics of instruments
C. Dynamic characteristics of instruments
D. None of the above

60. Which one of the following errors is caused by reversal of measured property
A. Hysteresis C. Noise
B. Digitization error D. Quantization error
61. Sensors used to detect metallic parts only:
A. Capacitive sensor C. Inductive sensors
B. Thermocouple sensor D. Photoelectric sensor
62. Which type of sensor is used to measure the distance between the vehicle and other objects in
its environment.
A. Ultrasonic sensor C. Motion sensor
B. Tactile sensor D. None of these
63. ____________ An error due to PARALLAX.
A. Systematic error C. random error
B. observational error D. instrumental error
64. Which one of the following is a not Static characteristic?

A. accuracy C. resolution
B. precision D. fidelity
65. Which one of the following is an active transducer?

12
A. PV cells
B. thermistors
C. potentiometer
D. strain gage

13
66. Under balanced condition of a bridge for measuring unknown impedance, if the detector is suddenly
taken out.
A. Measured value of the impedance will be lower.
B. Measured value of the impedance will be higher.
C. Measured value of the impedance will not change.
D. The impedance cannot be measured.

Introduction to control systems

67. Consider a linear time invariant system whose input r(t) and output y(t) are related by the
following differential equation:
𝑑2 𝑦(𝑡)
+ 4𝑦(𝑡) = 6𝑟(𝑡)
𝑑𝑡 2
The pole of this system are at

A. -2,+2
B. +2j,-2j
C. -4,+4
D. +4,-4
68. which of the following methods is the strongest tool to determine the stability of and the
transient response of the system?
A. Routh-hurwitz criterion
B. Bode plot
C. Nyquist plot
D. Root locus
69. Slow response of an over damped system can be made faster with the help of ------
controller.
A. P
B. PD
C. PI
D. Remote
70. An open loop system represented by the transfer function.
𝑠−1
𝐺(𝑠) =
(𝑠 + 2)(𝑠 + 3)

A. Stable and minimum phase type

14
 B. Unstable and minimum phase type
C. Unstable and non-minimum phase type
D. Stable and non-minimum phase type
71. What is the characteristic of a good control system?
A. Sensitive to parameter variation
B. Insensitive to input commands
C. Neither sensitive to parameter variation nor sensitive to input commands
D. Insensitive to parameter variation nor sensitive to input commands
72. Feedback control systems are.
A. Insensitive to both forward and feedback path parameter changes
B. Less sensitive to feedback path parameter changes than to forward path parameter
changes.
C. Less sensitive to forward path parameter changes than to feedback path parameter
changes
D. Equally sensitive to forward and feedback path parameter changes.
73. In a control system the use of negative feedback
A. Eliminates the chances of instability.
B. Reduces the effects of disturbance and noise signals in the forward path.
C. Increases the reliability.
D. Increases the influence of variations of component parameter on the system
performance.
74. Addition of zeros in transfer function causes which of the following?
A. Lead-compensation
B. Lag-compensation
C. Lead-lag compensation
D. None of the above
75. What is the advantage of a Lag-lead compensator?
A. Whenever steady-state performance is required, the combination of these two may be
used (lag-lead compensator).
B. Whenever a fast response is required, the combination of these two may be used (lag-
lead compensator).
C. Whenever fast response and steady-state performance are required, the combination
of these two may be used (lag-lead compensator).
D. Whenever fast response and steady-state performance are not required, the
combination of these two may be used (lag-lead compensator)

Electrical machines

15
76. Which of the following could be lamina-proximately the thickness of laminations of a D.C.
machine?
A. 0.005 mm C. 0.5 m
B. 0.05 mm D. 5 m
77. In case-the conditions for maximum power for a D.C. motor are established, the efficiency
of the motor will be
A. 100%
B. around 90%
C. anywhere between 75% and 90%
D. less than 50%
78. Which of the following law/rule can he used to determine the direction of rotation of D.C.
motor ?
A. Lenz’s law C. Coulomb’s law
B. Faraday’s law D. Fleming’s left-hand rule
79. The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when
A. copper losses = hysteresis losses
B. hysteresis losses = eddy current losses
C. eddy current losses = copper losses
D. copper losses = iron losses
80. The transformer ratings are usually expressed in terms of
A. volts C. kW
B. amperes D. kVA

81. Minimum voltage regulation occurs when the power factor of the load is
A. Unity C. leading
B. lagging D. zero
82. Synchronous motors are generally not self-starting because.
A. The direction of rotation is not fixed.
B. The direction of instantaneous torque reverses after half cycle
C. Starting cannot be used on these machines.
D. starting winding is not provided on the machines.
83. When V is the applied voltage, then the breakdown torque of a synchronous motor varies
as

16
 A. V C. 𝑉 2
B. 𝑉 3 D. 1/V
84. Synchronous motors are

17
 A. not-self starting
B. self-starting
C. essentially self-starting
D. none of the above

Electrical Installation
85. The insulating material in electrical installation should have:
A. Low permittivity C. High electrical strength
B. High resistivity D. All the above
86. What is maximum power recommended to the light and fan sub circuit as per IEE regulation?
A. 750 watts C. 1500 watts
B. 800 watts D. 3000 watts
87. Which of the following is not an example of discharge lamp type?
A. Neon gas lamp C. Tungsten filament lamp
B. Mercury vapor lamp D. Fluorescent lamp
88. In which of the following lighting systems, more than 90% of the total light flux is made to
fall directly on the working plane with the help of deep reflectors?
A. Direct lighting C. General lighting
B. Indirect lighting D. Semi-indirect lighting
89. While measuring the insulation resistance of complete wiring installation to earth using
Megger, the resistance measured must not be less than:
A. (500 MΩ) / (number of points)
B. (50 kΩ) / (number of points)
C. (50 MΩ) / (number of points)
D. (25 MΩ) / (number of points)
90. What is the main purpose of providing earthing to electrical equipment?
A. To increase the life of equipment
B. To protect the equipment from excess current
C. To maintain the line current constant
D. To maintain the supply voltage constant

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91. A firm of qualified and experienced team of various professionals responsible for design,
supervise and inspect the correct implementation of a certain project are called:
A. Owner C. Client
B. Contactor D. Consultant
92. The maximum current which a protective device can sustain without blowing is:
A. Nominal current
B. Tabulated current.
C. Design current
D. None of the above

Power electronics and drives

93. Which one of the following is correct about an ideal rectifier:
A) η = 100%, Vac = 1, RF = 1, HF = 1, and PF = 0.
B) η = 100%, Vac = 0, RF = 0, HF = 0, and PF = 1.
C) η = 100%, Vac = 1, RF = 0, HF = 1, and PF = 0.
D) η = 100%, Vac = 0, RF = 1, HF = 0, and PF = 1.
94. The differences between diode rectifiers and phase-controlled rectifiers are.
A) Diode rectifiers are referred to as uncontrolled rectifiers.
B) Diode rectifiers give a variable dc output voltage.
C) Each diode conducts for one full cycle.
D) All
95. Which one of the following is true about power electronics converters?
A. Variable output voltage can be obtained from diode rectifier.
B. Three phase full wave uncontrolled rectifier is six pulse rectifiers.
C. In Three phase full wave fully controlled rectifier, a pair of diode conducts for 600
D. in 1200 conduction mode of three phase inverter, each switch conducts for 1800
96. The freewheeling diode is not required in _____________________ rectifier?
A. Controlled with resistive inductive load.
B. Uncontrolled with resistive load
C. Both a and b

19
 D. None of the above
97. A single-phase half wave voltage controller consists of
A. One SCR in parallel with one diode
B. One SCR in anti-parallel with one diode
C. Two SCRs in parallel
D. Two SCRs in anti-parallel
98. What is an electric drive?
A. a machine that converts electrical energy into kinetic energy
B. a machine that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
C. a machine that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
D. machine that converts kinetic energy into electrical energy
99. Which braking method is the best method for obtaining high braking torque?
A. Plugging
B. Regenerative braking
C. Rheostatic braking.
D. Dynamic braking
100. Which of the following phase is supplied to microprocessor-based DC motor driver?
A. AC to AC-DC converter
B. AC to DC-DC converter
C. DC to AC-DC converter
D. DC to DC-DC converter

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 Answer
No.
1 D 26 B 51 B 76 C
2 C 27 D 52 A 77 D
3 B 28 C 53 B 78 D
4 A 29 B 54 C 79 D
5 B 30 A 55 A 80 D
6 B 31 B 56 B 81 C
7 D 32 B 57 C 82 B
8 A 33 B 58 A 83 A
9 B 34 E 59 A 84 A
10 D 35 D 60 A 85 D
11 B 36 A 61 C 86 B
12 A 37 C 62 A 87 C
13 A 38 A 63 B 88 A

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14 C 39 A 64 D 89 C
15 D 40 A 65 A 90 B
16 B 41 A 66 B 91 D
17 D 42 A 67 B 92 A
18 B 43 D 68 D 93 B
19 C 44 B 69 A 94 A
20 A 45 A 70 D 95 A
21 B 46 C 71 D 96 C
22 C 47 B 72 C 97 B
23 A 48 A 73 B 98 C
24 B 49 A 74 B 99 A
25 D 50 C 75 C 100 A

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