Science (Questions 1-100)

Question 1: The best method to obtain plants free from bacteria

and viruses through tissue culture is-
(A) Micropropagation
(B) Germination of seeds after gamma radiation
(C) Embryo culture
(D) Germinating seeds in germ-free conditions
Correct Answer: (A) Micropropagation
Question 2: To which class do Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and
Potassium belong?
(A) Macro Nutrients
(B) Micro Nutrients
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Macro Nutrients
Question 3: Which of the following worms/insects is used to make
vermicompost?
(A) Shoal worm
(B) Hookworm
(C) Earthworm
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Earthworm
Question 4: In some places, fish farming is done in paddy fields,
so that fish can grow in the water available in the paddy fields.
This method of fish farming is called-
(A) Composite fish culture
(B) Sericulture
(C) Horticulture
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Composite fish culture
Question 5: Early Blight disease in potatoes is caused by-
(A) Alternaria Solani
(B) Phytophthora infestans
(C) Synchytrium endobioticum
(D) Pythium aphanidermatum
Correct Answer: (A) Alternaria Solani
Question 6: A solution turns red litmus blue, what will its pH be?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 10
Correct Answer: (D) 10
Question 7: Who discovered the pH scale?
(A) Arrhenius
(B) Sørensen
(C) Lewis
(D) Brønsted-Lowry
Correct Answer: (B) Sørensen
Question 8: The chemical formula for sulfurous acid is-
(A) H_{2}SO_{4}
(B) H_{2}SO_{3}
(C) H_{3}SO_{4}
(D) H_{4}SO_{4}
Correct Answer: (B) H_{2}SO_{3}
Question 9: What happens in the reduction process?
(A) Removal of hydrogen
(B) Addition of hydrogen
(C) Both
(D) None
Correct Answer: (B) Addition of hydrogen
Question 10: The oxidation of fats and oils is called-
(A) Rusting
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Rancidity
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Rancidity
Question 11: Which of the following is the balanced equation for
the formation of water?
(A) 2H_{2} + O_{2} \rightarrow 2H_{2}O
(B) 2H_{2} + O_{2} \rightarrow H_{2}O
(C) 2H_{2} + 2O_{2} \rightarrow 2H_{2}O
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) 2H_{2} + O_{2} \rightarrow 2H_{2}O
Question 12: Which is the element whose atomic number is 12?
(A) Na
(B) Ca
(C) Mg
(D) K
Correct Answer: (C) Mg
Question 13: What is the valency of the element whose atomic
number is 12?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 2
Question 14: What kind of bond does the element Magnesium
form when it reacts with Sulfur?
(A) Ionic bond
(B) Covalent bond
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Ionic bond
Question 15: If an element 'X' reacts with oxygen to form an oxide
of 'X' which turns red litmus paper blue, then element 'X' is a-
(A) Non-metal
(B) Metal
(C) Plastic
(D) A or B
Correct Answer: (B) Metal
Question 16: Which of these is an alkane?
(A) C_{2}H_{6}
(B) C_{3}H_{8} (Assuming typo correction from C_{3}H)
(C) C_{4}H_{10}
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
Question 17: Which of the following is used for ripening fruits?
(A) C_{5}H_{10}
(B) C_{2}H_{4}
(C) C_{3}H_{8}
(D) C_{2}H_{6}
Correct Answer: (B) C_{2}H_{4}
Question 18: What property of carbon allows it to form long chains
of carbon?
(A) Acidity
(B) Catenation
(C) All of the above
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Catenation
Question 19: Covalent compounds are generally-
(A) Soluble in water
(B) Insoluble in water
(C) Ionized in water
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Insoluble in water
Question 20: Evaporation of a liquid occurs at a temperature...
(A) Above the boiling point
(B) Above the freezing point
(C) Below the freezing point
(D) Below the boiling point
Correct Answer: (D) Below the boiling point
Question 21: Evaporation occurs on the surface of a liquid
because the particles present on the surface-
(A) Have enough energy to add the force of attraction between
each other
(B) Surface particles are much lighter than bottom particles
(C) Are pulled with more force by air particles
(D) Have sufficient kinetic energy to overcome intermolecular
forces (Note: This correct option is not provided in the question)
Correct Answer: The question is flawed as none of the options are
scientifically correct.
Question 22: The force that holds the particles of a substance
together is...
(A) Nuclear force
(B) Intermolecular force
(C) Frictional force
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Intermolecular force
Question 23: The particles of a gas...
(A) Change shape
(B) Are far from each other
(C) Are close to each other
(D) Move slowly
Correct Answer: (B) Are far from each other
Question 24: Which of the following is not a liquid-
(A) Smoke
(B) Water
(C) Humidity
(D) Feeling of heat
Correct Answer: (A) Smoke
Question 25: Thermal energy is -
(A) Equal to 1 Kelvin temperature of water
(B) Equal to 100 Celsius
(C) Equal to the latent heat of vaporization absorbed by the body
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: The question is flawed as none of the options
correctly define thermal energy.
Question 26: Which of the following is a sublime substance?
(A) Sugar
(B) Potassium Iodate
(C) Iodine
(D) Salt
Correct Answer: (C) Iodine
Question 27: The boiling point of water is-
(A) 0° at atmospheric pressure
(B) 100°C
(C) 273 K at atmospheric pressure
(D) 0 K at atmospheric pressure
Correct Answer: (B) 100°C
Question 28: Which of the following shows the Tyndall effect?
(A) Homogeneous mixture
(B) Colloidal mixture
(C) Suspension
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Colloidal mixture
Question 29: The value of Avogadro's constant is-
(A) 6.022 \times 10^{24}
(B) 60.22 \times 10^{23}
(C) 6.022 \times 10^{22}
(D) 6.022 \times 10^{23}
Correct Answer: (D) 6.022 \times 10^{23}
Question 30: Which of the following is monoatomic?
(A) Helium
(B) Neon
(C) Argon
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
Question 31: The atomic number of an element is-
(A) Number of electrons
(B) Number of protons
(C) Number of neutrons
(D) Number of electrons and protons
Correct Answer: (B) Number of protons
Question 32: Which of the following is not an element?
(A) Marble
(B) Oxygen
(C) Zinc
(D) Bromine
Correct Answer: (A) Marble
Question 33: The valency of nitrogen in NH_{3} is-
(A) 2
(B) 0
(C) 3
(D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 3
Question 34: What is common among bacteria, algae and fungi?
(A) Their mode of nutrition
(B) Presence of a cell wall
(C) Autotrophic
(D) Body organization
Correct Answer: (B) Presence of a cell wall
Question 35: Air pollution indicator plants are-
(A) Mycorrhiza
(B) Lichen
(C) Rose
(D) Marigold
Correct Answer: (B) Lichen
Question 36: Kingdom Monera includes-
(A) Bacteria
(B) Dinoflagellates
(C) Slime molds
(D) Euglenoids
Correct Answer: (A) Bacteria
Question 37: Organ system level of organization is not found in...
(A) Annelida
(B) Arthropoda
(C) Mollusca
(D) Platyhelminthes
Correct Answer: (D) Platyhelminthes
Question 38: Prokaryotic genome consists of......
(A) DNA without histones
(B) RNA
(C) DNA with histones
(D) Only histones
Correct Answer: (A) DNA without histones
Question 39: Plasma membrane is made of....
(A) Protein
(B) Phospholipid and protein
(C) Proteins, carbohydrates and phospholipids
(D) Proteins and nucleotides
Correct Answer: (B) Phospholipid and protein
Question 40: The membrane surrounding the vacuole is called....
(A) Plasmalemma
(B) Tonoplast
(C) Cell membrane
(D) Middle lamella
Correct Answer: (B) Tonoplast
Question 41: Cells which have more than two complete sets of
chromosomes are called....
(A) Haploid
(B) Diploid
(C) Polyploid
(D) Polyhybrid
Correct Answer: (C) Polyploid
Question 42: Stratum germinativum is an example of which type
of epithelium?
(A) Cuboidal epithelium
(B) Ciliated epithelium
(C) Columnar epithelium
(D) Squamous epithelium
Correct Answer: (A) Cuboidal epithelium
Question 43: Which of the following is a group of bacterial
diseases?
(A) Malaria, Polio, Mumps
(B) Mumps, Cholera, Typhoid
(C) Plague, Leprosy, Diphtheria
(D) Measles, T.B., Tetanus
Correct Answer: (C) Plague, Leprosy, Diphtheria
Question 44: What is the incubation period of Kala-azar disease-
(A) 24 hours
(B) one month
(C) 2 - 4 months
(D) seven days
Correct Answer: (C) 2 - 4 months
Question 45: The drooping of the leaves of the touch-me-not plant
is due to -
(A) Change in turgor pressure
(B) Imbibition
(C) Plasmolysis
(D) Diffusion
Correct Answer: (A) Change in turgor pressure
Question 46: The opening and closing of stomata are controlled
by-
(A) Epidermal cells
(B) Mesophyll cells
(C) Guard cells
(D) Both A and B
Correct Answer: (C) Guard cells
Question 47: By which process does atmospheric CO_{2} enter
the leaf -
(A) Osmosis
(B) Imbibition
(C) Diffusion
(D) Active transport
Correct Answer: (C) Diffusion
Question 48: In which region of the atmosphere is the ozone layer
found-
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Lithosphere
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Stratosphere
Question 49: The Chipko movement was first led by whom?
(A) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Ramdeo Misra
(D) Indira Gandhi
Correct Answer: (A) Sunderlal Bahuguna
Question 50: Where is the headquarters of the Central Pollution
Control Board located?
(A) Bhopal
(B) Lucknow
(C) New Delhi
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) New Delhi
Question 51: Nutrition in which an organism takes food inside the
body and digests it using enzymes is called-
(A) Parasitism
(B) Carnivorous
(C) Saprophytic
(D) Holozoic
Correct Answer: (D) Holozoic
Question 52: Which of the following are respiratory roots?
(A) Epiphytic roots
(B) Stilt roots
(C) Prop roots
(D) Pneumatophores
Correct Answer: (D) Pneumatophores
Question 53: Which of the following plant hormones is responsible
for the ripening of fruits?
(A) Ethylene
(B) Auxin
(C) Gibberellin
(D) Cytokinins
Correct Answer: (A) Ethylene
Question 54: Which of the following is a contraceptive-
(A) Copper T
(B) Condom
(C) Diaphragm
(D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
Question 55: In which of the following is a triploid nucleus found -
(A) Fruit
(B) Seed
(C) Zygote
(D) Endosperm
Correct Answer: (D) Endosperm
Question 56: What is India's global position in population?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Correct Answer: (A) First
Question 57: The normal gestation period in humans is-
(A) 270 days
(B) 290 days
(C) 280 days
(D) 295 days
Correct Answer: (C) 280 days
Question 58: Which of the following is not included in Darwin's
theory?
(A) Natural selection
(B) Evolution through inheritance
(C) Survival of the fittest
(D) Struggle for the existence of life
Correct Answer: (B) Evolution through inheritance (Darwin
proposed this but couldn't explain the mechanism)
Question 59: Which of the following is used to study human
evolution?
(A) Excavation
(B) Time dating
(C) DNA sequence determination
(D) All
Correct Answer: (D) All
Question 60: Which of the following graphs represents an object
at rest?
(A) Graph of v vs t (curved up)
(B) Graph of s vs t (horizontal line)
(C) Graph of v vs t (horizontal line)
(D) Graph of v vs t (diagonal line)
Correct Answer: (B) Graph of s vs t (horizontal line)
Question 61: A bus moving on a straight path at a speed of 20
m/s has an acceleration of 4 \ m/s^{2}. Its speed after 2 seconds
will be-
(A) 8 m/s
(B) 12 m/s
(C) 16 m/s
(D) 28 m/s
Correct Answer: (D) 28 m/s
Question 62: What does a car's odometer measure?
(A) Distance traveled by the car
(B) Displacement
(C) Average velocity
(D) Acceleration
Correct Answer: (A) Distance traveled by the car
Question 63: SI unit of momentum is -
(A) kg
(B) kg \ ms^{-1}
(C) kg \ ms
(D) kg \ ms^{-2}
Correct Answer: (B) kg \ ms^{-1}
Question 64: The value of gravitational acceleration g on the
surface of the moon-
(A) Changes every day
(B) Is less than the value on the surface of the Earth
(C) Is more than the value on the surface of the Earth
(D) Is equal to the value on the surface of the Earth
Correct Answer: (B) Is less than the value on the surface of the
Earth
Question 65: The _______ of an object is measured by a spring
balance in air-
(A) Actual weight
(B) Apparent weight
(C) Both mass and weight
(D) Mass
Correct Answer: (A) Actual weight
Question 66: An object's mass is 20 kilograms. This weight is
equal to-
(A) 19.6 N
(B) 196 N
(C) 19 \times 10^{5} dyne
(D) 1960 N
Correct Answer: (B) 196 N (Assuming the question meant mass is
20 kg)
Question 67: The work done on an object does not depend on -
(A) Displacement
(B) The initial velocity of the object
(C) The angle between force and displacement
(D) The applied force
Correct Answer: (B) The initial velocity of the object
Question 68: A metal in which even iron can float is -
(A) Sodium
(B) Magnesium
(C) Manganese
(D) Mercury
Correct Answer: (D) Mercury
Question 69: Due to an increase or decrease in the rotation of the
Earth on its axis, the value of 'g' at which place on the Earth will
remain unchanged?
(A) Tropic of Cancer
(B) Tropic of Capricorn
(C) Poles
(D) Equator
Correct Answer: (C) Poles
Question 70: The relative densities of four liquids A, B, C and D
are 1.26, 1.0, 0.8, and 13.5 respectively. An object is immersed in
all these liquids one by one. In which of these liquids will the
maximum part of the object be submerged?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Correct Answer: (C) C
Question 71: The pressure exerted by a liquid at the bottom of the
container holding the liquid...
(A) Depends on the density of the liquid
(B) Is the same in every direction
(C) Does not depend on the surface area of the container
(D) All of the above are true
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above are true
Question 72: The velocity of sound in a gas at 27^\circ C is 30
m/s. The velocity of sound in the same gas at 127^\circ C will be?
(A) 60 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 30√2 m/s
(D) 20√3 m/s
Correct Answer: (D) 20√3 m/s
Question 73: Sound waves travel fastest in...
(A) Solids
(B) Liquids
(C) Gases
(D) Vacuum
Correct Answer: (A) Solids
Question 74: Sonar is a device in which ______ are used.
(A) Infrasonic waves
(B) Ultrasonic waves
(C) Audible waves
(D) Radio waves
Correct Answer: (B) Ultrasonic waves
Question 75: What is the main reason for the rainfall in the
coastal areas of South India during the winter days?
(A) South-West Monsoon
(B) Western Disturbance
(C) Northeast Monsoon (Note: This correct option is not provided)
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: The question is flawed as the correct answer,
Northeast Monsoon, is not an option.
Question 76: What type of resource is tidal energy?
(A) Renewable
(B) Abiotic
(C) Man-made
(D) Biotic
Correct Answer: (A) Renewable
Question 77: Which of the following is the main cause of soil
erosion?
(A) Forest
(B) Terrace farming
(C) Water
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Water
Question 78: Which of the following is the main cause of soil
pollution?
(A) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers
(B) Use of organic fertilizers
(C) Irrigation
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers
Question 79: What is the amount of oxygen gas in the Earth's
atmosphere?
(A) 21%
(B) 18%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%
Correct Answer: (A) 21%
Question 80: Which of the following is the most effective measure
to prevent soil erosion?
(A) Afforestation
(B) Irrigation
(C) Flood
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Afforestation
Question 81: What was the main objective of the Chipko
movement?
(A) To save trees
(B) Deforestation
(C) Irrigation
(D) Literacy
Correct Answer: (A) To save trees
Question 82: Manas Sanctuary is located in which state of India?
(A) Bihar
(B) Punjab
(C) Gujarat
(D) Assam
Correct Answer: (D) Assam
Question 83: Which is the best type of coal?
(A) Bituminous
(B) Anthracite
(C) Lignite
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Anthracite
Question 84: Which of the following is a fossil fuel?
(A) Coal
(B) Solar energy
(C) Thermal energy
(D) Biogas
Correct Answer: (A) Coal
Question 85: Hirakud hydroelectric project is located in which
state of India?
(A) Bihar
(B) Odisha
(C) Assam
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Odisha
Question 86: In which rocks is petroleum found?
(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) In none
Correct Answer: (B) Sedimentary
Question 87: What is the S.I. unit of electric charge?
(A) Volt
(B) Ohm
(C) Ampere
(D) Coulomb
Correct Answer: (D) Coulomb
Question 88: The formula for resistance is?
(A) R = I/V
(B) R = V \times I
(C) R = V/I
(D) R = I \times V
Correct Answer: (C) R = V/I
Question 89: The instrument for measuring potential difference is
called?
(A) Ammeter
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Galvanometer
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Voltmeter
Question 90: Of which element is the coil wire in an electric
heater made?
(A) Nichrome
(B) Platinum
(C) Iron
(D) Copper
Correct Answer: (A) Nichrome
Question 91: Which is a good conductor of electricity?
(A) Wood
(B) Plastic
(C) Carbon
(D) Silver
Correct Answer: (D) Silver
Question 92: What will be the value of the equivalent resistance
when resistors of 3 ohms and 6 ohms are connected in parallel?
(A) 9 Ω
(B) 6 Ω
(C) 2 Ω
(D) 3 Ω
Correct Answer: (C) 2 Ω
Question 93: The instrument used to measure the value of current
flowing in an electric circuit is-
(A) Galvanometer
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Ammeter
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Ammeter
Question 94: At what temperature does tungsten melt?
(A) 3422°C
(B) 1520°C
(C) 3025°C
(D) 2000°C
Correct Answer: (A) 3422°C
Question 95: What is the frequency of alternating current (AC) in
India?
(A) 20 Hz
(B) 60 Hz
(C) 30 Hz
(D) 50 Hz
Correct Answer: (D) 50 Hz
Question 96: In which of the following media is the speed of light
maximum?
(A) Air
(B) Water
(C) Glass
(D) Diamond
Correct Answer: (A) Air
Question 97: What type of mirror is used for shaving?
(A) Concave mirror
(B) Convex mirror
(C) Plane
(D) None
Correct Answer: (A) Concave mirror
Question 98: Eyes with hypermetropia (far-sightedness) can see
clearly?
(A) Far objects
(B) Near objects
(C) Large objects
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Far objects
Question 99: Where does most of the refraction of light rays
entering the eye occur?
(A) On the outer surface of the cornea
(B) On the eye lens
(C) In the aqueous humor
(D) On the retina
Correct Answer: (A) On the outer surface of the cornea
Question 100: Which is the mathematical form of Snell's law?
(A) \mu = \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}
(B) \mu = \frac{\sin ir}{\sin ri}
(C) \mu = \sin r . \sin i
(D) \mu = \sin i = \sin r
Correct Answer: (A) \mu = \frac{\sin i}{\sin r}
Art of Teaching & Other Skills (Questions 101-150)
(The answers for Art of Teaching are based on standard
pedagogical principles.)
Question 101: The pillars of teaching are-
(A) Curriculum
(B) Instruction
(C) Assessment
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Question 102: The result of teaching is-
(A) Behavior change
(B) Self-esteem
(C) Self-confidence
(D) Self-worth
Correct Answer: (A) Behavior change
Question 103: 5E model is based on-
(A) Constructivist theory of teaching
(B) Behaviorist theory
(C) Interactive theory
(D) Cognitive theory
Correct Answer: (A) Constructivist theory of teaching
Question 104: The importance of aims and objectives in school is-
(A) For identification of subject matter
(B) For identification of teacher's tasks
(C) For identification of headmaster's tasks
(D) None
Correct Answer: (A) For identification of subject matter
Question 105: Bloom's system is-
(A) A classification system
(B) A demarcation system
(C) A delegation system
(D) A centralized system
Correct Answer: (A) A classification system
Question 106: The proponent of 'learning by doing' was-
(A) Montessori
(B) Dewey
(C) Rousseau
(D) Froebel
Correct Answer: (B) Dewey
Question 107: The flaw of the deductive method is-
(A) Unsuitable for improving logical ability
(B) Promotes rote learning
(C) Tends to be forgotten
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Question 108: Who said "Workload method is an important step in
the teaching-learning process"?
(A) Douglas
(B) Dewey
(C) Piaget
(D) Morris
Correct Answer: (A) Douglas
Question 109: The lesson planning process is-
(A) Planning of the chapter
(B) Planning of subject activity
(C) Planning of teaching strategy
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Question 110: A step in the Herbartian approach is-
(A) Differentiation
(B) Classification
(C) Association
(D) Guideline
Correct Answer: (C) Association
Question 111: Microteaching is based on-
(A) Teaching material
(B) Teaching method
(C) Teaching skill
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Teaching skill
Question 112: Which objectives are achieved by instruction?
(A) Cognitive
(B) Creative
(C) Affective
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Cognitive
Question 113: Reinforcement skill is used for-
(A) Encouraging students
(B) Making learning interesting
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Both A and B
Question 114: The classroom ecosystem should be based on-
(A) Natural elements
(B) Artificial elements
(C) Technical elements
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Natural elements
Question 115: The role in enhancing the physical environment of
the classroom belongs to-
(A) Teachers
(B) Students
(C) Headmaster
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Students
Question 116: The importance of a textbook is-
(A) To introduce students to the outside world
(B) To provide knowledge of the outside world
(C) To improve reading, writing and speaking skills
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
Question 117: A library plays a major role in-
(A) Personality development
(B) Educational development
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Educational development

Art of Teaching & Other Skills (Continued)

Question 118: Which of the following is not a quality of a teacher?
(A) Patience
(B) Humble
(C) Tolerance
(D) Superstitious
Correct Answer: (D) Superstitious
Question 119: What is essential for a good teacher?
(A) Commitment to teaching
(B) Loyalty to their organization
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Both A and B
Question 120: To develop 21st-century skills in students, which of
the following should be developed by a teacher?
(A) Creativity
(B) Both A and C
(C) Critical thinking
(D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Both A and C (Note: Option B in the source is
"A and B both" which is a typo; it should refer to A and C)
Question 121: An achievement test is a-
(A) Standardized test
(B) Psychological test
(C) Teacher-made test
(D) Intelligence test
Correct Answer: (C) Teacher-made test
Question 122: A unit test is-
(A) Formative assessment
(B) Summative assessment
(C) External assessment
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (A) Formative assessment
Question 123: A rating scale is a-
(A) Qualitative technique
(B) Writing technique
(C) Quantitative technique
(D) Oral technique
Correct Answer: (A) Qualitative technique
Question 124: Which is not related to the co-curricular area-
(A) Moral development
(B) Physical development
(C) Mental development
(D) Interest development
Correct Answer: This question is flawed. All the given options are
objectives of co-curricular activities.
Question 125: Whose culture does the curriculum reflect?
(A) Society
(B) Home
(C) School
(D) Family life
Correct Answer: (A) Society
Question 126: Which element is not involved in the process of
concept formation-
(A) Experience
(B) Generalization
(C) Analysis
(D) Concrete
Correct Answer: (D) Concrete
Question 127: A plateau of learning is -
(A) A decrease in learning
(B) An obstacle in learning
(C) No progress in learning
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (C) No progress in learning
Question 128: Which of these is not a phase of the teaching-
learning process?
(A) Learning to do something new
(B) Functional stages
(C) Flow
(D) Acquisition
Correct Answer: (C) Flow
Question 129: Radio is a type of teaching material-
(A) Visual
(B) Audio
(C) Audio-visual
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Audio
Question 130: A good textbook is-
(A) Audio material
(B) Audio-visual material
(C) Visual material
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Visual material
Question 131: Who was the commander of the 1857 revolt in
Rohilkhand?
(A) Ahmadullah
(B) Begum Hazrat Mahal
(C) Jung Bahadur Rana
(D) Tatya Tope
Correct Answer: This question is flawed. The correct answer, Khan
Bahadur Khan, is not provided as an option.
Question 132: Doddabetta peak is situated in which of the
following hill ranges?
(A) Annamalai
(B) Mahendragiri
(C) Nilgiri
(D) Shevaroys
Correct Answer: (C) Nilgiri
Question 133: What is the contribution of agriculture to export
income?
(A) 10%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) 25%
Correct Answer: (A) 10%
Question 134: Kunwar Singh fought his last battle against which
English captain?
(A) Douglas
(B) Lugard
(C) Le Grand
(D) Eyre
Correct Answer: (C) Le Grand
Question 135: Bandhan Express and Maitree Express, seen in the
news, run between India and which country?
(A) Nepal
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Myanmar
Correct Answer: (C) Bangladesh
Question 136: DDT and aluminum cans are examples of-
(A) Primary pollutants
(B) Secondary pollutants
(C) Biodegradable pollutants
(D) Non-biodegradable pollutants
Correct Answer: (D) Non-biodegradable pollutants
Question 137: Which of the following statements is false for
plastic waste?
(A) It is used for making compost
(B) It lasts for a long time
(C) Produces toxic fumes on burning
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (A) It is used for making compost
Question 138: The biggest driver of deforestation is-
(A) Agriculture
(B) Forest fires
(C) Volcanic activities
(D) Soil erosion
Correct Answer: (A) Agriculture
Question 139: Global warming is a century-scale rise in the ______
of the Earth's climate system.
(A) Maximum temperature
(B) Minimum temperature
(C) Average temperature
(D) Temperature
Correct Answer: (C) Average temperature
Question 140: Blackbuck belongs to which of the following
categories of organisms?
(A) Extinct species
(B) Rare species
(C) Endemic species
(D) Endangered species
Correct Answer: (D) Endangered species
Question 141: The average age of 5 people is 42 years. In another
group, there are 8 people whose average age is 81 years. When
both groups are combined, what is the average age of all the
people?
(A) 64 years
(B) 66 years
(C) 61.5 years
(D) 70 years
Correct Answer: (B) 66 years
Question 142: Calculate the compound interest on Rs. 16000 for 2
years at 10% per annum when compounded half-yearly.
(A) 18600
(B) 17640
(C) 18640
(D) 17600
Correct Answer: This question is flawed. The calculated compound
interest is Rs. 3448.10, which is not among the options.
Question 143: The product of 0.09 and 0.007 is-
(A) 0.00063
(B) 0.0063
(C) 0.63
(D) 0.000063
Correct Answer: (A) 0.00063
Question 144: The HCF of two numbers is 8 while their LCM is
144. If one number is 16, then find the other number.
(A) 108
(B) 96
(C) 72
(D) 36
Correct Answer: (C) 72
Question 145: Two houses are opposite each other. There are
chimneys on top of both. The line joining the chimneys makes an
angle of 45° with the ground. If the height of one house is 25
meters and the other is 10 meters, how far are the houses from
each other?
(A) 18 m
(B) 12 m
(C) 7.5 m
(D) 15 m
Correct Answer: (D) 15 m
Question 146: Radish : Root :: Rose : ?
(A) Garden
(B) Thorn
(C) Fragrance
(D) Flower
Correct Answer: (D) Flower
Question 147: Choose the word which is different from the rest.
(A) Cap
(B) Turban
(C) Helmet
(D) Veil (आवरण)
Correct Answer: (D) Veil (आवरण)
Question 148: 8 12 9 13 10 14 11 __ __
(A) 14 11
(B) 15 12
(C) 8 15
(D) 15 19
Correct Answer: (B) 15 12
Question 149: If PUNCTUAL can be written as 47819765, how can
LUNA be written in the same code language?
(A) 7586
(B) 5678
(C) 5786
(D) 5867
Correct Answer: (C) 5786
Question 150: Pointing to a woman in a picture, Rajesh said, "Her
grandfather's only daughter is my wife". How is Rajesh related to
that woman?
(A) Uncle
(B) Father
(C) Maternal uncle
(D) Brother
Correct Answer: (B) Father