BRIGHTWOOD INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL
CANDIDATE NAME
Grade 10
Physics 5054/12
Pre mock test 1
Paper 1 Multiple choice 1 hour
You must answer on the multiple-choice answer sheet.
You will need:
Multiple choice answer sheet
Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)
INSTRUCTIONS
There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil
on the multiple-choice answer sheet.
Follow the instructions on the multiple-choice answer sheet.
Write in soft pencil.
Write your name, center number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the spaces provided unless this has been
done for you.
Do not use correction fluid.
Do not write on any bar codes.
You may use a calculator.
Take the weight of 1.0 kg to be 9.8 N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m/s²).
INFORMATION
The total mark for this paper is 40.
Each correct answer will score one mark.
Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
This document has 15 number of pages
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1 Which piece of equipment is used to measure mass?
A balance
B manometer
C measuring cylinder
D newton meter
2 The graph shows extension-load curves for four fibres.
Which fibre is the most difficult to stretch over the range of loads shown?
3. Which statement about electromagnetic waves is correct?
A All electromagnetic waves have speeds in air of approximately 3 108 m / s.
B In air, some electromagnetic waves travel faster than light.
C The electromagnetic waves with the largest wavelength are in the infra-red region.
D The electromagnetic waves with the smallest wavelength are in the X-ray region.
4. A student wishes to measure directly the circumference of a football.
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Which is the most suitable instrument to use?
A calipers
B a measuring tape
C a micrometer
D a ruler
5. The diagram shows a satellite S travelling at a constant speed in a circular orbit around a
planet P.
B S D P
Which statement is correct?
A The resultant force on the satellite is zero.
B The resultant force on the satellite is in direction B.
C The resultant force on the satellite is in direction C.
D The resultant force on the satellite is in direction D.
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6. Which speed-time graph represents the motion of a railway train making a short stop at a station?
7. The minimum braking distance for a car is tested on a dry [Link] test is then repeated on a wet
road.
What happens to the braking distance and to the frictional force between the tyres and the road?
braking distance frictional force
A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases
8. A body of mass 10 kg falling freely in the gravitational field close to the Moon’s surface has an
acceleration of 1.6 m / s2.
What is the gravitational field strength on the Moon?
A 0 N / kg B 1.6 N / kg C 10 N / kg D 16 N / kg
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9. The diagram shows a muscle and bones in a person’s arm. The hand holds a load of weight 40 N.
The elbow acts as a pivot and the tension in the muscle keeps the lower part of the arm
horizontal.
What is the tension in the muscle due to the load?
A 200 N B 240 N C 280 N D 1400 N
10. Four objects of equal mass rest on a table. The centre of mass of each object is labelled G. Which object is
the least stable?
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11. Forces of 4.0 N and 2.0 N act at a point.
Which scale diagram shows the forces that have a resultant of 2.0 N?
12. A student calculates his power in running up a flight of stairs. He measures the vertical height of
the stairs, the time taken to run up the stairs and his weight. How does he calculate his power?
13. How does an oil-fired power station differ from a nuclear power station?
A Gases emitted by hot fuel are emitted into the atmosphere.
B Steam is produced in a boiler using hot fuel.
C The hot steam is used to turn a turbine.
D Turbines are used to drive an electric generator
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14. Five blocks have the same mass but different base areas. They all rest on a horizontal table.
A graph is plotted to show the relationship between the pressure exerted on the table and the
base area of the block.
Which graph shows this relationship?
15. Each tyre of a car has an area of 100 cm2 in contact with the ground.
The car has a mass of 1600 kg. The weight of the car is equally distributed amongst the four tyres.
The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg. What is the pressure exerted on the ground?
A 4.0 N / cm2 B 16 N / cm2 C 40 N / cm2 D 160 N / cm2
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16. The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.
Which height is a measure of the atmospheric pressure?
17. What is described as ‘the escape of more energetic molecules from the surface of a liquid’?
A condensation
B evaporation
C melting
D radiation
18. The diagrams represent four thermometers
Which thermometer has the greatest
sensitivity and which thermometer has
the greatest range?
greatest greatest
sensitivity range
A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S
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19. What happens when a solid is heated and expands?
A The molecules do not change size and the spaces between the molecules become larger.
B The molecules expand and the spaces between the molecules become larger.
C The molecules expand and the spaces between the molecules become smaller.
D The molecules expand and the spaces between the molecules do not change size.
20. When a piece of smouldering rope is held at the opening of the box in the diagram, smoke moves
in the direction indicated.
What is responsible for the movement of the smoke?
A convection
B movement of free electrons
C radiation
D vibration of molecules
21. The diagrams show four identical cans with their outside surfaces either polished silver or painted
dull black. Each can contains the same volume of water, initially at 80 C.
After five minutes in a cool room, which can contains the coolest water?
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22. The diagram shows two divergent rays of light from an object O being reflected from a plane
mirror. At which position is the image formed?
23. Which statement is correct?
A Total internal reflection only occurs when light travels from air into glass.
B The larger the refractive index of glass, the larger is the critical angle.
C When total internal reflection occurs, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
reflection.
D When total internal reflection occurs, the angle of incidence is less than the critical angle.
24. The diagram shows the paths of two rays from the top of an object through a lens.
The object is viewed from the opposite side of the lens to the object. How does the image compare
with the object?
A larger and inverted
B larger and the same way up
C smaller and inverted
D smaller and the same way up
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25. A young person with healthy ears can hear a range of frequencies.
What is the approximate range of frequencies?
A 2 Hz to 2000 Hz only
B 2 Hz to 20 000 Hz only
C 20 Hz to 2000 Hz only
D 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz only
26. The diagram shows a loudspeaker that is producing a continuous sound wave of frequency 200
Hz in air.
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27. The diagram shows an alarm system.
What happens when battery P is disconnected?
iron armature bell
A falls rings
B falls stops ringing
C moves up rings
D moves up stops ringing
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28. An electric current in a wire is into the page.
Which diagram shows the shape and direction of the magnetic field around the wire?
29. A copper wire X has resistance R. Another copper wire Y has twice the length and half the cross-
sectional area of X.
What is the resistance of Y?
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30. In the circuit shown, the temperature of the room and the amount of light affect the current.
Under which conditions is the current in the circuit the largest?
temperature amount of
light
A high in bright light
B high in the dark
C low in bright light
D low in the dark
31. An electrical appliance is plugged into a socket in the wall. The plug contains a fuse.
What is the main purpose of the fuse?
A to earth the appliance
B to earth the plug
C to protect the user from electric shock
D to protect the wiring from overheating
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32. A horizontal beam of electrons passes between the two poles of a magnet
In which direction is the beam deflected?
A into the page
B out of the page
C towards the north pole
D towards the south pole
33. Which of alpha, beta and gamma radiations are waves?
A alpha only
B beta only
C gamma only
D alpha and beta
34. A radioactive isotope of hydrogen has a half-life of 12 years.
A sample contains 40 million atoms of this isotope. How
many atoms of this isotope are left after 24 years?
A 20 million
B 10 million
C 5 million
D zero
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35. Two stars A and B are at the same distance from Earth.
Star A appears brighter than star B.
Which conclusion is correct?
A Star A must be hotter than star B
B Star A must be larger than star B
C Star A has a greater luminosity than star B
D Star A is closer to Earth than star B
36. A star appears red when observed from Earth.
Which statement best explains this observation?
A A The star is moving away from Earth at high speed
B B The star has a low surface temperature
C C The star is at a very large distance from Earth
D D The star contains more hydrogen than helium
37. The Sun will eventually become a red giant because
A its surface temperature increases rapidly
B hydrogen fusion in the core stops
C helium fusion begins in the core
D gravitational forces disappear
38. Which change would increase the apparent brightness of a star when viewed from Earth?
A Decreasing the star’s surface temperature
B Increasing the star’s distance from Earth
C Increasing the rate of nuclear fusion in the star
D Changing the star’s colour from blue to red
39. What is the nuclear reaction that powers the Sun?
A the fission of hydrogen into helium
B the fission of helium into hydrogen
C the fusion of hydrogen into helium
D the fusion of helium into hydrogen
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40. Light from a distant star takes many years to reach Earth.
Which conclusion can be drawn from this fact?
A The star no longer exists
B The light travels faster in space than in air
C The distance to the star is extremely large
D The star emits light intermittently
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