31-08-2025

5301CMD303035250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) The engine of a motorcycle can produce a maximum acceleration 5 m/s2. Its brakes can produce a
maximum retardation 10 m/[Link] motorcyclist start from point A and reach at point B. What is the
minimum time in which it can cover if distance between A and B is 1.5 km :-
(Given : that motorcycle comes to rest at B)

(1) 30 sec
(2) 15 sec
(3) 10 sec
(4) 5 sec

2) A boy can swim in still water at 1 m/s. He swims across a river flowing at 0.6 m/s which is 336 m
wide. If he travels in shortest possible time, then what time he takes to cross the river.

(1) 250 s
(2) 420 s
(3) 340 s
(4) 336 s

3) If velocity of boat as seen from the ground is and velocity of river is then calculate
velocity of boat with respect to river :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) Two trains, each 50 m long, are travelling in opposite directions with velocity 10 m/s and 15 m/s,
The time of crossing is :

(1) 2s
(2) 4s
(3)
(4)

5) A particle is projected with speed 50 m/s at an angle 45°. What is the ratio of range and of
maximum height.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

6) A particle is projected from a tower as shown in figure, then the distance from the foot of the
tower where it will strike the ground will be :

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 4000/3 m
(2) 5000/3 m
(3) 2000 m
(4) 3000 m

7) A particle is projected at an angle of 45° from 8m before the foot of a wall, just touches the top of
the wall and falls on the ground on the opposite side at a distance 4 m from [Link] height of wall is
:–

(1)
m

(2)
m

(3)
m

(4)
m

8) Two projectiles of same mass and with same velocity are thrown at an angle 60° and 30° with the
horizontal, then which quantity will remain same :

(1) time of flight

(2) range of projectile
(3) max height acquired
(4) all of them

9) A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal, its kinetic
energy at the highest point of its flight will be :-

(1) E

(2)
(3)

(4) zero

10) A particle is fired with velocity u making an angle with the horizontal. What is the speed when
it is at the highest point ?

(1)
(2) u
(3)
(4)

11) Figure shows four paths for a kicked football. Ignoring the effects of air on the flight, rank the

paths according to initial horizontal velocity component, highest first :

(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 2, 3, 4, 1
(3) 3, 4, 1, 2
(4) 4, 3, 2, 1

12) A body of mass m is thrown upwards at an angle θ with the horizontal with velocity v. While
rising up the velocity of the mass after t seconds will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A number of bullets are fired in all possible directions with the same initial velocity u. The
maximum area of ground covered by bullets is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) Two cars seperated by 100 m are moving towards each other to meet with a speed 5 m/s and 20
m/s, after what time they will meet :

(1) 4 sec
(2) 5 sec
(3) 20 sec

(4)
sec

15) A ball having initial velocity as calculate time of flight?

(1) 4 sec
(2) 8 sec
(3) 16 sec
(4) 5 sec

16) A particle is thrown to its maximum range 160 m. Calculate its velocity of projection (g=10 m/s–2)

(1) 60 m/s
(2) 20 m/s
(3) 40 m/s
(4) 30 m/s

17) Three particles A, B and C are thrown from the top of a tower with the same speed. A is thrown
up, B is thrown down and C is horizontally. They hit the ground with speeds vA, vB and vC respectively
:

(1) vA = vB = vC
(2) vA = vB > vC
(3) vB > vC > vA
(4) vA > vB = vC

18) A body is released from the top of a tower of height H metres . It takes t time to reach the

ground. Where is the body time after the release :

(1)
At metres from ground

(2)
At metres from ground

(3)
At metres from the ground
(4)
At metres from the ground

19) A body falling from height 'h' takes t1 time to reach the ground. The time taken to cover the first

of the height is :

t2 =
(1)

t1 =
(2)

t2 =
(3)

(4) None of these

20) A stone is thrown vertically downward with an initial velocity of 40 m/s from the top of a
building. If it reaches the ground with velocity 60 m/s, then the height of the building is: (Take g =
10 m/s2)

(1) 140 m
(2) 80 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 120 m

21) A body is projected vertically upward with speed 40 m/s. The distance travelled by body in the
last second of upward journey is [take g = 9.8 m/s2 and neglect effect of air resistance]:-

(1) 4.9 m
(2) 9.8 m
(3) 12.4 m
(4) 19.6 m

22) A body is thrown vertically upwards and takes 5 seconds to reach maximum height. The distance
travelled by the body will be same in :-

(1) 1st and 10th second

(2) 2nd and 8th second
(3) 4st and 6th second
(4) Both (2) & (3)

23) For the given graph, find average speed of particle in time interval 0–3 second :-
(1) 5 m/s

(2)
m/s

(3)
m/s

(4)
m/s

24) For given v-t graph, find the average acceleration of the block from time t = 2 sec to t = 4 sec.

(1) 5 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) –5 m/s2
(4) –10 m/s2

25) The acceleration–time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is as shown in figure. At
what time the particle acquires its initial velocity ?

(1) 12 sec
(2) 5 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 16 sec

26) The velocity - time graph of a moving object is shown in figure. The corresponding acceleration –
time graph will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown below :-

Which one of the following represents its acceleration (A) time graph ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

28)

The given graph shows the variation of velocity with displacement. Which one of the graph given
below correctly represents the variation of acceleration with displacement.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29) Which of the following velocity versus time graph is not possible ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A car is moving along a straight road with a uniform acceleration. It passes through two points P
and Q separated by a distance with velocities 30 km/hr and 40 km/hr respectively. The velocity of
the car midway betweeen P and Q is :

(1) 33.3 km/hr

(2)
(3)
(4) 35 km/hr

31) Starting at time t= 0 from the origin with speed 1 ms-1, a particle follows a two-dimensional

trajectory in the x-y plane so that its coordinates are related by the equation . The x and y
components of its acceleration are denoted by ax and ay respectively. Then correct statements are :-
 (a) ax =1 ms-1 implies that when the particle is a the origin. a = 1 ms-1
(b) ax = 0 implies ay =1ms-2 at all times
(c) at t = 0, the particle’s velocity points in the x-direction
(d) ax = 0 implies that at t= Is, the angle between the particle’s velocity and the x axis is 45°

(1) a and b only

(2) b and c only
(3) c and d only
(4) All a, b, c and d

32) Assertion: If a body is projected vertically upward then the rate of change of its velocity is
constant during its flight.
Reason: The average acceleration of the body during its total journey is zero.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

33) The displacement- time graph of two moving particles makes angles of 30° and 45° with the x-

axis. The ratio of their velocities is :

(1)
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4)

34) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R),
Assertion (A): Area under velocity–time graph gives displacement.
Reason (R): Area under acceleration–time graph gives velocity.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
35) A body travels for 15 sec. starting from rest with constant acceleration. If it travels distance S1,
S2 and S3 in the first 5 sec., second 5 sec. and next 5 sec. respectively the relation between S1, S2 and
S3 is :-

(1) S1 = S2 = S3
(2) 5S1 = 3S2 = S3

S1 = =
(3)

S1 = =
(4)

36) A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is h below the top of the well. If v is
velocity of sound, the time T after which the splash is heard is given by

(1) T = 2h/v

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A car travels from A to B at a speed of 20 km h–1 and returns at a speed of 30 km h–1. The average
speed of the car for the whole journey is

(1) 5 km h–1
(2) 24 km h–1
(3) 25 km h–1
(4) 50 km h–1

38) A car travels a distance of 2000 m. If the first half distance is covered at 40 km/hour and the
second half at velocity v and if the average velocity is 48 km/hour, then the value of v is

(1) 56 km/hour
(2) 60 km/hour
(3) 50 km/hour
(4) 48 km/hour

39) A particle travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity . for a distance x and with
a uniform velocity for the next equal distance. The average velocity is given by :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

40) If a car covers of the total distance with speed and distance with then average
speed is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A 120 m long train is moving in a straight line path with speed 20 m/s. Another train moving
with 30 m/s in the opposite direction and 130 m long crosses the first train completely in a time :

(1) 6 sec
(2) 36 sec
(3) 38 sec
(4) 5 sec

42) A hall has the dimensions 10 m × 10 m × 10 m. A fly starting at one corner ends up at a farthest
comer. The magnitude of its displacement is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) A bird moves from point (1, –2, 3) to (4, 2, 3). If the speed of the bird is 10 m/s, then the velocity
vector of the bird is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

44) A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in
the nth second to that covered in n second is:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A stone dropped from a building of height h and it reaches after t seconds on earth. From the
same building if two stones are thrown (one upwards and other downwards) with the same velocity u
and they reach the earth surface after t1 and t2 seconds respectively, then :-

(1) t = t1 – t2

(2)
t=
(3) t =
t=
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) The set of configuration in which Hund's, Pauli's and Aufbau principle all are violated is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Calculate maximum and minimum number of electrons which may have magnetic quantum

number, m = 0 and spin quantum number in Na(Z = 11) :-

(1) 3, 2
(2) 4, 3
(3) 2, 1
(4) 3, 0

3) The quantum number of 20th electron of Zn (Z = 30) would be :

(1) 4, 2, – 2, – ½
(2) 3, 2, 0, ½
(3) 4, 0, 0, + ½
(4) 4, 1, 1, – ½

4) Spin magnetic moment of Xn+ (Z = 26) is B.M. Hence number of unpaired electrons and value
of n respectively are :

(1) 4, 2
(2) 2, 4
(3) 3, 1
(4) 0, 2

5) An electron is moving with the velocity equal to 10% of the velocity of light. Its de-Broglie wave
length will be -

(1) 2.4 × 10–12 cm

(2) 2.4 × 10–18 cm
(3) 2.4 × 10–9 cm
(4) None of these

6) Which of the following statement is correct -

(1) Number of angular nodes = n – ℓ –1

(2) Number of radial nodes = ℓ
(3) Total number of nodes = n –1
(4) All

7) How many of following statements are correct regarding chromium :

(a) Its electronic configuration is [Ar] 3d5 4s1
(b) total spin of chromium = +3 or –3
(c) Magnetic moment of chromium = BM
(d) It has 4 electrons in 3d and two electron in 4s-orbitals
(e) The principal quantum number of its valence electron is 4
(f) It has 6 electrons in p-subshells

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

8) If mass of neutron is doubled, mass of proton is halved and mass of electron is doubled, find out
the % change of atomic weight of C12

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 60%
(4) 75%

9) Which of the following statements is /are correct about the characteristics of cathode rays ?
(I) They start from the cathode and move towards the anode.
(II) They travel in straight line in the absence of an external electric or magnetic field.
(III) Characteristics of cathode rays do not depend upon the material of electrodes in cathode ray
tube.
(IV) Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of gas present in the cathode ray tube.
(V) These rays are not visible but their behaviour can be observed with the help of fluorescent or
phosphorescent materials.

(1) (I), (II), (III) and (V)

(2) (II), (III) and (IV)
(3) (I) and (IV)
(4) All of these

10) The specific charge for positive rays is X and that of cathodic rays is Y then

(1) X > Y
(2) Y > X
(3) X = Y
(4) X can be greater or less than Y.

11) Assertion (A) : An electron in an orbit will emit radiation, the energy carried by radiation comes
from electronic motion and in only 10–8 s, it will spiral into the nucleus.
Reason (R) : According to the electromagnetic theory of Maxwell, charged particles when
accelerated should emit radiation.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

12) Which one is incorrect statement according to Rutherfored's Model :-

(1) Most of α-particles passed through gold foil undeflected.

(2) All α-particales deflectd by small angles.
(3) Most of the space in atom is empty.
Radius of nucleus (r) = R0. A1/3.
(4)
were R0 = Rutherford constant

13) Sodium exists in two isotopic forms Na23 and Na24 in nature . If Na24 is present at the abundance
of 25% in the nature. The average atomic mass of the element is :-

(1) 23.40
(2) 23.70
(3) 23.25
(4) 23.50

14) Which of the following pairs is correctly mathed :

(1) Isotopes

(2) Isotones

(3) Isobars

(4) Isoelectronic

15) Choose correct statements :-

(a) For isodiaphers (n + p) value will same
(b) For isobars (n + p) value will same
(c) For isotones (A – Z) value will same
(d) For isodiaphers (A – 2Z) value will same.
Option :-

(1) Only a
(2) a, c, d
(3) only b & c
(4) b, c, d

16) Given below are some statements :

(A) Atoms of all elements are composed of two fundamental particles
(B) Mass of electron is 9.1 × 10–31 Kg.
(C) All the isotopes of a given element show same chemical properties.
(D) Protons and electrons are collectively known as nucleons.
(E) Atoms with identical atomic number but different mass number are known as isobars.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) All A, B, C, D and E statements are correct

(2) Only C is correct statement
(3) Only B, C and E are correct stateemnts
(4) Only B and C are correct statements

17) If the following transitions in hydrogen atoms, the one which gives an absorption line of highest
frequency is :-

(1) n = 1 to n = 2
(2) n = 3 to n = 8
(3) n = 2 to n = 1
(4) n = 8 to n = 2

18) The figure indicates the energy level diagram for the origin of 10 spectral lines in emission
spectrum. Which of the following spectral lines will occur in the absorption spectrum :-
(1) 1, 2, 3, 9
(2) 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10
(3) 1, 2, 3, 4
(4) 10, 9, 8

19) In hydrogen atom, if the energy of electron in the ground state is −x eV. then that in the 2nd
excited state of He+ is

(1) −x eV

(2)

(3) +2x eV

(4)

20) Which of these are isosters :

(i) CO2 (ii) OF2 (iii) N2O (iv) HCl

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iii)

21) A sodium lamp gives off yellow light that has wavelength of 600 nm. The incorrect statement is

(1) Frequency of light is 5×1015s–1

(2) Wave no. of the light is 1.66 × 106 m–1
(3) Energy of the photon is approximately 2.07 ev
(4) The velocity of light is 3×1010 cm/s

22) The Vividh Bharti station of All India Radio broadcasts on a frequency of 1368 kilo hertz.
Calculate the wavelength of the electromagnetic waves emitted by the transmitter.

(1) 217 m
(2) 102.1 m
(3) 219.3 m
(4) 217.7 m

23) The energy ratio of a photon of wavelength 3000 Å and 6000 Å

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 4

24)

The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between
their wavelength λ1 and λ2 will be:-

(1)

(2) λ1 = λ2
(3) λ1 = 2λ2
(4) λ1 = 4λ2

25) The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms of the Bohr radius, a0, in Li2+ is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Statement-I : For H-atom radius of the stationary orbits are expressed as :
rn = n2a0
Where a0 = Bohr radius of 1st orbit.
Statement-II : On increasing value of n for H-atom radius decreases.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

27) The ratio of velocity of electron of 2nd orbit of H, He+ and Li2+ would be :-

(1) 1 : 4 : 9
(2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 9 : 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 3

28) If the potential energy (PE) of electron of hydrogen atom is –3.02 eV then in which of the
following excited level is electron present :-

(1) 1st
(2) 2nd
(3) 3rd
(4) 4th

29) Going from K-shell to N-shell in case of H-atom :-

(1) Kinetic energy increases

(2) Total energy decreases
(3) Potential energy increases
(4) None of these

30) Which of the following transition will emit maximum energy in hydrogen atom ?

(1) 4f → 2s
(2) 4d → 2p
(3) 4p → 2s
(4) All have same energy emitted.

31) What is the shortest wavelength for Paschen series of Li2+ ion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The Balmer spectral line for H atom with lowest energy is located at (RH =
Rydberg constant)
Statement II : When the temperature of blackbody increases, the maxima of the curve (intensity vs
wavelength) shifts to shorter wavelength.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

33) Given Rydberg constant R = 105 cm–1. Supposing if the electron jumps from M–shell to K–shell in
a H-atom, then the frequency of the radiation emitted would be:-

(1) 819 × 105

(2)
× 1015

(3)
× 105

(4)
× 1015

34) The frequency of 1st Balmer line of H-atom is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Rc

35) A ball weigh 25 g moves with a velocity of 6.6 × 104 cm/sec. Find out the de-broglie wavelength
associated with it :-

(1) 4 × 10–33 cm
(2) 4 × 10–31 cm
(3) 4 × 10–35 cm
(4) None

36) Number of waves produced by an electron in one complete revolution in nth orbit is :

(1) n
(2) n2
(3) (n + 1)
(4) (2n + 1)

37) Uncertainity in the position of an electron (mass = 9.1 × 10–31 kg) moving with a velocity 300
ms–1, accurate upto 0.001% will be :

(1) 19.2 × 10–2 m

(2) 5.76 × 10–2 m
(3) 1.92 × 10–2 m
(4) 3.84 × 10–2 m

38) If uncertainities in measurement of position and momentum of an electron are equal, then the
uncertainity in measurement of its velocity is x × 1012 m/sec. The value of x (the closest whole
number value) is :-
(me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg and h = 6.626 × 10–34 J–s)

(1) 8 × 1012
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) None of these

39) Consider the following statement regarding probability density.

(I) It is denoted by |Ψ|2
(II) It is the probability of finding an electron at a point within an atom is proportional to the square
of the orbital wave function.
(III) From the value of |Ψ|2 at different points within an atom, it is possible to predict the region
around the nucleus where electrons will most probability be found.
Choose the correct option :

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) I and III
(4) All of these

40) Correct graph of ψ2(r) as a function of distance of electron from the nucleus (r) for 2s orbital is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Radial node, Angular node and Total node in 3d is (respectively) :-

(1) 0, 0, 0
(2) 1, 1, 2
(3) 0, 2, 2
(4) 1, 2, 3

42) Match the column

 Column-I Column-II

(a) Nodal plane absent (p) 5 dxy

(b) dumb-bell shaped (q) 4f

(c) 3 total nodes (r) 2p

(d) 2 angular nodes (s)

(1) a-q, b-p, c-r, d-s
(2) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s
(3) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-p
(4) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s

43) If orbit angular moment of electron is , then all possible values of Azimuthal quantum
number in that shell will be

(1) 4, 3, 2, 1, 0
(2) 3, 2, 1, 0
(3) 2, 1, 0
(4) 1, 0

44) Statement-1 : The angular momentum of d-orbitals is

Statement-2 : Angular momentum of electron in orbit is mvr =

(1) If both statements are correct and statement 2 is correct explanation of statement 1
(2) If both statements are correct but statement 2 is not correct explanation of statement 1
(3) If statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is wrong
(4) If statement 1 is wrong but statement 2 is correct

45) If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of electrons will be :

(1) ns → (n – 2)f → (n – 1)d → np

(2) ns → (n – 1)d → (n – 2)f → np
(3) ns → (n – 2)f → np → (n – 1)d
(4) ns → np(n – 1)d → (n – 2)f

BIOLOGY

1) In a diploid cell before S-phase quantity of DNA is 20 pico gram (pg) after meiosis I what will be
the quantity of DNA in each daughter cell ?

(1) 10 pg
(2) 20 pg
(3) 5 pg
(4) 40 pg

2) Maximum cell organelles are synthesize in which phase of cell cycle ?

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2
(4) Prophase

3) Which is the correct order of cell cycle ?

(1) G1 → S → G2 → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis

(2) G2 → G1 → S → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis
(3) S → G1 → G2 → Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis
(4) Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase → Cytokinesis → S → G2 → G1

4) If pollen grain (n) contains 30 chromosomes and 50pg DNA, then what will be the number of
chromosome and DNA amount in microspore/pollen mother cell (2n) in G2 phase and in product of
meiosis-I ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) About 95% time of cell cycle is taken by :-

(1) G1 – phase
(2) S–phase
(3) M–phase
(4) Interphase

6) In cells of higher plants, during the S-phase -

(1) DNA replication occurs in nucleus and centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm
(2) DNA replication occurs in nucleus
(3) Centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm
(4) Centrioles duplicates in the nucleus and DNA replication occurs in the cytoplasm.

7) During the metaphase of mitosis:-

(1) Chromosomal material start to condense and form compact mitotic chromosomes.
(2) Nuclear membrane, nucleolus, ER and golgi body start to disapper
All the chromosomes lie at the equator with one chromatid of each chromosome connected by
(3) its kinetochore to spindle fibres from one pole and its sister chromatid connected by its
kinetochore to spindle fibres from opposite pole.
(4) Centromere split and chromatid separate.

8)

Choose the incorrect option for essentiality for the cell to divide by mitosis :
A – Usually results in the productions of cells with identical genetic complement
B – Growth of unicellular organisms is due to mitosis and forms genetically different cell
C – Restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
D – Cell repair

Options :
(1) A, C, D
(2) B, C
(3) Only C
(4) Only B

9) The chromosomal material becomes untangled during the process of chromatin condensation.
This statement is correct for which stage :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

10) Which of the following structure is not reformed during telophase stage ?

(1) Nucleolus, ER
(2) Golgi complex, ER
(3) Nuclear envelope
(4) Chromosome

11) Structure of chromosome can be best seen at :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) G2 phase
(4) Telophase

12) In which phase of cell cycle, cells do not show golgi-complexes, endoplasmic reticulum,
nucleolus and the nuclear envelope? (a) Early prophase (b) End of prophase
(c) Metaphase (d) Anaphase

(1) a
(2) b
(3) b,c,d
(4) a, b

13) Spindle fibres attach to:

(1) Telomere of the chromosome.

(2) Kinetochore of the chromosome.
(3) Centromere of the chromosome.
(4) Chromatid of the chromosome.

14) Which of the following events take place during Zygotene of prophase I of meiosis ?

(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex

(2) Formation of recombination nodule
(3) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(4) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

15)

During cell division separation of centromere take place at :

(1) Anaphase
(2) Anaphase-II
(3) Anaphase-I
(4) (1) and (2) Both

16) The oocytes of some vertebrates get arrested for years or months in :

(1) Diplotene
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Telophase-I

17) The gap between meiosis-I and meiosis-II division is called as :-

(1) Synapsis
(2) Interphase
(3) Interkinesis
(4) G0 phase

18) If a bacteria divides in every two minutes. A cup is filled in one hour. Time taken to fill half the
cup is?

(1) 58 minutes
(2) 62 minutes
(3) 59 minutes
(4) 30 minutes

19) What is significance of meiosis division ?

(1) Formation of gametes

(2) Conservation of specific chromosome number in sexually reproducing organisms
(3) Introduction of variations
(4) All of the above

20) The microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle attach to the pair of homologous
chromosomes. This statement is correct for :

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Metaphase-I
(3) Metaphase
(4) Anaphase

21) Match the following and choose the correct answer.

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(4)

22) Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct sequence :-

(a) Recombination
(b) Synapsis
(c) Chiasmata clearly visible
(d) Segregation of homologous chromosomes

(1) (a), (b), (d), (c)

(2) (b), (c), (a), (d)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(4) (b), (a), (c), (d)

23) During meiosis how many cycles of nucleus division, DNA replication and division of centromere
takes place respectively :-

(1) Three, Two, One

(2) One, Two, Two
(3) Two, Two, One
(4) Two, One, One
24) Number of chromosomes in onion root cell is 16.
Then how many chromosomes are found in G1, S and G2 phases of its cell cycle respectively?

(1) 8,16,32
(2) 32, 16,8
(3) 16, 16, 16
(4) 8,8,8

25) What will be the number of bivalents at equator in metaphase-I of a diploid plant cell ?
(For this cell 2n = 20) ?

(1) 10 bivalents
40 bivalents
(2)

(3) 20 bivalents
(4) 80 bivalents

26) "G0" state of cells in eukaryotic cell cycle denotes :-

(1) Quiescent stage where cell cycle is suspended

(2) Pausing in the middle of a cycle to cope with a temporary delay
(3) Death of a cell
(4) Exit of cells from cell cycle permanently.

27) Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister
chromatids remain associated at their centromeres :-

(1) Anaphase I
(2) Anaphase II
(3) Metaphase I
(4) Metaphase II

28) The sequence of events, by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesises other
constituents and eventually divides into daughter cells, is termed as :-

(1) Interphase
(2) M-phase
(3) Karyokinesis & cytokinesis
(4) Cell cycle

29) Statement I : The plane of alignment of the chromosome at metaphase is referred to as the
metaphase plate.
Statement II : In anaphase centromeres split and chromatids separate.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

30) Dyad of cells condition occur in telophase I :-

(1) After cytokinesis

(2) before cytokinesis
(3) Before nuclear membrane reappearance
(4) After the chromosomes have fully elongated

31)
Choose the correct option for A to D in the given figure.

A-Cytoplasmic growth, C-DNA-synthesis, B-centriole duplication, D- condensation of

(1)
chromosome.
A-Metabolically active, B-DNA replication, C-tubulin protein synthesis, D-spindle fibres forms
(2)
mitotic apparatus
A-DNA polymerase activity, B-tubulin protein synthesis, C-DNA replication, D-decondensation of
(3)
chromosomes
A-DNA replication, B-condensation of chromosome, C-tubulin protein synthesis, D - spindle
(4)
fibres forms mitotic apparatus

32) Choose the correct option for the diagram given above :-

(1) Centromere splitting

(2) No. of chromosomes become half at each pole
(3) DNA become half in cell
(4) Number of chromosomes become double at each pole
33) A stage of cell division is shown in the figure. Select the correct match :-

(1) Metaphase Nuclear membrance disintegration

(2) Pachytene Crossing over in homologous chromosomes.

(3) Anaphase Splitting of centromere & movement of daughter chromosomes to poles

(4) Diakinesis Terminalisation of chiasmata

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) A stage of cell division is depicted in the given figure :-

Identify the stage

(1) Metaphase
(2) Transition to metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

35) A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct

identification of the stage with its characteristics.

(1) Telophase - Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex reforms

(2) Late anaphase - Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, Golgi complex not present
(3) Cytokinesis - Cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells
(4) Telophase - Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet

36)
Which of the following is correct about the above diagram ?

(1) Chromosome material condense

(2) Followed after interphase
(3) Centrioles move towards pole
(4) All of the above

37) If the number of bivalents are 8 in metaphase-I, what shall be the number of chromosomes in
daughter cells after
meiosis-I and meiosis -II respectively:-

(1) 8 and 4
(2) 4 and 4
(3) 8 and 8
(4) 16 and 8

38) Read the following statements and choose the option which is true for them.
Statement A : The steps of cell division are themselves under genetic control.
Statement B : Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

39) The diagram below shows the nuclear contents of a cell. Which line in the
following table refers correctly to this cell ?

Number of pairs of Number of Number of

homologous chromosomes chromatids centromeres

(1) 3 6 12

(2) 3 12 6
 (3) 6 6 12

(4) 6 12 6
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Assertion :- Cytokinesis in plant cell occur by cell plate method.

Reason :- In liquid endosperm of coconut, karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis which lead to
formation of syncytium.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

41) In which phase initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle takes place :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

42) Assertion : M phase is the most dramatic phase of the cell cycle.
Reason : M phase exhibits a major reorganisation of virtually all components of the cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

43) Assertion (A) :- Meiotic division occurs in sexually reproducing organisms.

Reason (R) :- Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of specific chromosome number of
each species is achieved across generations in sexually reproducing organisms.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

44) Assertion A: The synaptonemal complex is formed during the pairing of homologous
chromosomes in synapsis.
Reason R: The presence of the synaptonemal complex indicates the chromosomes are in the process
of crossing over.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

45) During meiotic division :

(1) Two sequential cycle of nuclear and cytoplasmic division occur

(2) Two turns of DNA replication occur
(3) Four diploid cells are formed at end of Meiosis-II
(4) Separation of homologous chromosomes occur at Anaphase-II

46) Which of the following statements about the immune system are correct?
1. B-lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
2. T-lymphocytes help in the destruction of infected cells.
3. Antibodies are produced by plasma cells derived from B-cells.
4. Vaccines provide active immunity.

(1) 1, 2 and 3 only

(2) 2, 3 and 4 only
(3) 1, 3 and 4 only
(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

47) Match the following diseases with their mode of transmission -

Column I (Disease) Column II (Mode of Transmission)

A. AIDS 1. Blood transfusion/sexual contact
B. Malaria 2. Bite of infected female Anopheles
C. Common Cold 3. Droplet infection
D. Ascariasis 4. Contaminated food and water
(1) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
(2) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(3) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
(4) A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1

48) Malaria is transmitted by:

(1) Male Anopheles mosquito

(2) Female Anopheles mosquito
(3) Culex mosquito
(4) Sandfly

49) Saliva of mouth and tears of eye are included under which barrier ?

(1) Physiological barrier

(2) Physical barrier
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Cytokine barrier

50) Which of following are the cells of cellular barrier of innate immunity ?

(1) PMNL
(2) Monocyte
(3) B-Lymphocyte
(4) Both (1) & (2)

51) Identify the A, B, C, D in the following life cycle.

Options :-

A B C D

Salivary
(1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites
gland

Salivary
(2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland

(4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte Salivary gland

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) Which of the following statement is correct about benign tumor ?

(1) It usually spreads to other parts of body

(2) It causes huge damage to the tissues concerned
(3) Normally remain confined to its original location
(4) It is characterised by metastasis
53) Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity ?

(1) Interferons
(2) Phagocytes
(3) Skin
(4) Antibodies

54) Hepatitis-B vaccine produced from :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Recombinant RNA technology
(3) Fungus (yeast)
(4) None

55) Widal test is used to diagnose the disorder :-

(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Dengue
(3) Cholera
(4) Typhoid

56) Which provide micro-environment for the development and maturation of B-lymphocytes?

(1) Bone-marrow
(2) Spleen
(3) Thymus
(4) Both (1) and (3)

57) Toxin which is responsible for chills and high fever during malaria :-

(1) Haematin
(2) Haemoglobin
(3) Haemozoin
(4) Haem

58) In case of snakebites, the injection which is given to the patients, contains preformed antibodies
against the snake venom. This type of immunization is :-

(1) Active aquired immunity

(2) Passive aquired immunity
(3) Innate immunity
(4) Non-specific immunity

59) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) Health is affected by genetic disorders, life-style and infections.
(b) Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good health.
(c) Health is only "absence of disease" or "physical fitness".
(d) In allergic reactions, adrenaline is the life-saving drug.

(1) a, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d

60) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about typhoid?

(a) Sustained high fever
(b) Weakness
(c) Stomach pain
(d) Constipation
(e) Headache and loss of appetite
(f) Coughing

(1) Only a, c, d
(2) Only d, e, f
(3) a, b, c, d and e
(4) a, b, c but d, e, f are not

61) How many of the following is/are not correct about pneumonia?
(a) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae
(b) Infects the alveoli of the lungs
(c) Symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills, cough and headache.
(d) In severe cases the lips and finger nails may turn pinkish

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) All are correct

62) Appearance of dry scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp,
intense itching are the main symptoms of ?

(1) Typhoid
(2) Chicken pox
(3) Ring worm
(4) 1 and 3 both

63) Which biological response modifier activates immune system and helps in destroying the tumor ?

(1) α-interferons
(2) Taxol drug
(3) Cytoleukins
(4) Vincristine drug

64) Humans have acquired immune system that produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still
innate immune system is present at the time of birth because it

(1) is very specific and uses different macrophages.

(2) produces memory cells for mounting fast secondary response.
(3) has natural killer cells which can phagocytose and destroy microbes.
(4) provides passive immunity.

65) Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases do not specifically affect reproductive
organs?

(1) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B

(2) Syphilis and Genital herpes
(3) AIDS and Hepatitis B
(4) Chlamydiasis and AIDS

66) In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen causes chronic inflammation of lymphatic
vessels ?

(1) Elephantiasis
(2) Ascariasis
(3) Ringworm disease
(4) Amoebiasis

67) Serum of any animal containing antibody for specific antigen is called :-

(1) Antibiotic
(2) Vaccine
(3) Anti-serum
(4) Agglutination

68) Assertion:- In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic proteins of pathogen

or inactivated/weakened pathogen are introduced into the body.
Reason:- The vaccines generate memory B and T cells that recognise the pathogen quickly on
subsequent exposure and overwhelms the invader with massive production of antibodies.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

69) Which of the following set of cells are affected by HIV?

(1) Macrophage and B-lymphocytes

(2) Macrophage and T-lymphocytes
(3) Eosinophils and mast cells
(4) T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes
70) Which is known as anamnestic response :-

(1) Primary immune response

(2) Secondary immune response
(3) Fever
(4) Phagocytosis by neutrophills

71) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of acquired immunity ?

(1) Diversity
(2) Discrimination between self and non self
(3) Memory
(4) Non-specific

72) Match the following column (A) & (B) ?

Column (A) Column (B)

(i) IgA (a) Surface Antibody

(ii) IgD (b) Allergic Antibody

(iii) IgG (c) Lightest Antibody

(iv) IgE (d) Secretory Antibody

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) a b c d
(2) d c a b
(3) a d c b
(4) d a c b
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) Consider the following four statements (I-IV) regarding kidney transplant and select the two
correct ones out of these.
I. Even if a kidney transplant is proper, the recipient may need to take immunosuppressants for a
long time
II. The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
III. The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.
IV. The acceptance or rejection of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons.

(1) II and III

(2) III and IV
(3) I and III
(4) I and II
74) The yellowish fluid....(i)....secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has
abundant....(ii)....antibodies to protect the infant.
Correct words to fill (i) and (ii) are:

(1) (i)–Cholesterol (ii)– IgA

(2) (i)–Colostrum (ii)– IgG

(3) (i)–Cholestrol (ii)– IgA

(4) (i)–Colostrum (ii)– IgA

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) How much percentage of our immune system is comprised by MALT?

(1) 100%
(2) 75%
(3) 50%
(4) 25%

76) How many of the following statements are correct?

(a) α-interferon activates immune system in tumor patients and helps in destroying the tumor.
(b) Chemotherapy for cancer has side effects like hair-loss and anemia.
(c) Most cancers are treated by combination of surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
(d) In leukemia, there is tremendous increase in the number of leucocytes.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

77) Choose the wrong statement

(1) Viral oncogenes are also called proto oncogenes

(2) Cellular oncogenes when activated could lead to oncogenic transformation of cells
(3) Cellular oncogenes are already present in normal non cancerous cells as protoncogenes
(4) X rays and gamma rays could cause cancer

78) Read the following statements (A–D)

(A) The use of vaccines and immunisation programmes have enabled us to completelly eradicate a
deadly disease like small pox.
(B) Cancer is one of the most dreaded diseases of human beings.
(C) Metastasis is the most feared property of the malignant tumors.
(D) Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition.
How many of the above statements are true ?
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

79) Assertion : Cancereous cells just continue to divide giving rise to masses of cells called tumors.
Reason : Cancer cells appears to have lost property of contact inhibition.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

80)

Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is caused by -

(1) Virus
(2) gram positive bacterium
(3) gram negative bacterium
(4) Protozoan

81) Assertion: Saliva in mouth is antibacterial.

Reason: Interferon kills virus infected cell.

(1) The assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) The assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

82) Assertion : Symptoms of allergic reaction include sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and
difficulty in breathing.
Reason : During allergy mast cell release chemicals like histamine and serotonin.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

83) Which out of the following groups represent auto-immune disorders ?

(1) SCID and diphtheria

(2) Diabetes mellitus (type I) and rheumatoid arthritis
(3) AIDS and cholera
(4) Hepatitis ad leukaemia

84) In which of the following disease maturation of RBC does not take place ?
(1) Myasthenia gravis
(2) Hashimoto disease
(3) Pernicious anemia
(4) Multiple sclerosis

85) Assertion A : Practicing yoga can contribute to achieving good physical and mental health.
Reason R : Yoga help in the prevention of infectious diseases by directly stimulating the immune
system.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

86) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of the body such as skin, nails and scalp is due
to -

(1) Microsporum
(2) Trichophyton
(3) Epidermophyton
(4) All of these

87) Symptoms of which disease include constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, stools with excess
mucus and blood clots ?

(1) Amoebiasis
(2) Malaria
(3) Typhoid
(4) Ascariasis

88) Which of the following is a viral disease?

(1) Dysentery
(2) Plague
(3) Diphtheria
(4) Chicken pox

89) The figure below shows steps A, B & C of replication of retrovirus. Select the option giving
correct identification.

(1) B–Incorporation of viral DNA into host genome with intregase enzyme
(2) C–Production of new viral DNA by infected cell
(3) A–Replication of viral RNA by protease enzyme
(4) C–Viral RNA replication by reverse transcriptase enzyme

90) Choose the correct statement :

(i) HIV/AIDS is spread by mere touch or physical contact.
(ii) There is always a time–lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms
(iii) HIV enter into helper T–lymphocyte, replicate and produce progeny virus.

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (i), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 2 3 1 3 2 3 1 4 3 4 1 2 3 1 3 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 1 3 3 1 1 1 4 3 4 3 4 2 3 2 2 2 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 4 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 1 3 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 2 3 2 2 4 2 3 4 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 3 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 1 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 1 1 4 2 3 4 1 4 2 3 2 1 4 1 3 1 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 4 3 1 1 1 4 1 1 2 2 3 2 1 4 3 3 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 2 1 4 3 3 4 3 4 1 3 2 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 4 4 3 4 1 1 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 2 3 3 4 1 4 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
t = 30 s

2)

3)

4)

5)

Ans. 4

∵ ∴

6)

⇒
So, t = 10 sec
Horizontal distance

= m

7)

Y = Xtanθ
8)
(complementary angles) → Range same.

9)

E= mv2

E' = m (ucos45°)2 = m

E' =

10)

Change in velocity

11)

Vertical component of velocity of all the projectiles is same because their maximum heights
are same as a result, time of flight of all the projectiles is same.

12) Instantaneous velocity of rising mass after t sec will be

where Horizontal component of velocity
Vertical component of velocity

13)
 14)

15)

∴T= = 8 sec

16)

Rmax = ∴ 160 = ∴ 40 m/s

17)

let the height of the lower is 'h'

For particle 'A' :

⇒
For particle 'B' :

⇒
For particle 'C' :

⇒
∴ vA = vB = vC

18)

Explain : A body is dropped from a height H and takes time t to reach the ground. We need to
find its height from the ground at time t/3.
Concept : motion under gravity
Formula : s = ut + 1/2at2
Calculation :

H=

from releasing point

so distance from the ground
= H – H/9 = 8H/9

19)

⇒
⇒

20) v2 – u2 = 2gh

⇒h=

= = 100 m

21) Distance covered in last second of upward journey = distance covered in 1st sec. of
downward journey.

d= g[1]2 = 4.9 m

22)
So answer will be option (1)

23) <speed> = = = 5 m/s

24) aau = = –5m/s2

25)

vf = vi ⇒ Δv = 0

= Area = Δv = 0
Positive area = negative area, 0 to 4 sec area is positive & 4 to 8 sec same area is negative.

26)

0 → t1 a ⇒ + ve constant
t1 → t2 a = 0
t2 → t3 a ⇒ – ve constant

27)
v ∝ t ⇒ A ∝ t°
A = constant

28)

V = 20 – 2x

a = 4x – 40
a – x graph is straight line with slope = 4
intercept = – 40

29)

Conceptual.

30) km/hr

31)

Ans.-(4)

32)

Conceptual.

33)

34)

∴ Area under
v-t curve = displacement
and area under a-t
curve = change in velocity

35)

From Galileo law of odd numbers, if particle starts from rest and moves with constant
acceleration then in successive equal interval of time the ratio of distance covered by it will be
1:3:5:7:.............(2n-1)
S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5
36)
Suppose, t1 = time taken by stone to reach the level of water
t2 = time taken by sound to reach the top of well
so, T = t1 + t2
For t1 : u = 0

h = ut + gt2 h = 0 + gt12 t1 =
For t2 : As the velocity of sound is constant

h = Vt2 ⇒ t2 =

Therefore, T =

37)

38)

39) Average velocity

 40) Average speed =

41) Total distance = 130 + 120 = 250 m

Relative velocity = 30 – (–20) = 50 m/s

Hence

42) Dimension of hall, length of any side = 10 m = a (say)

Magnitude of displacement = Length of diagonal

43)

44) …(1)

…(2)

45)

h= …(1)

CHEMISTRY

46)
Ans.-(4)

47)

48)

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49)

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50)

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51)

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52)

a, b, c, e are correct

53)

Proton 6 M →
Neutron 6 M → 6 × 2 M = 12 M
= 12 M + 3 M = 15 M = 15 amu

% Change

54)

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55)

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56)
Ans.-(1)

57)

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58) Average at mass = (23 × 0.75) + (24 × 0.25)

= 23.25

59)

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60)

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61)

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62)

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63)

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64)

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65)

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66) = 600 nm = 600 × 10–9 m = 6×10–7 m

Frequency u = = = 5 × 1014 s–1

wave No =1.66 × 106 m–1

Energy of photon E =
 = 2.07 ev

67) As we know velocity of light (c) = 3 × 108 m/s

Given ν (frequency) = 1368 kHz = 1368 × 103 Hz = 1368 × 103 s–1

= 219.3 m

68)

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69)

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70)

71) NCERT Pg. # 47

72)

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73)

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74)

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75)

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76)

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77) A: Question Explanation

 The question presents two statements: one about the Balmer series in the hydrogen spectrum
and the other about blackbody radiation. We need to determine the truthfulness of each
statement and choose the correct option.

B: Given Data

A. Statement I: The Balmer spectral line for H atom with lowest energy is located at 5/36 RH cm–1
(RH = Rydberg constant)
B. Statement II: When the temperature of a blackbody increases, the maxima of the curve
(intensity vs wavelength) shifts to shorter wavelength.

C: Concept

A. Balmer Series: The Balmer series corresponds to electron transitions in a hydrogen atom
where the electron falls to the n = 2 energy level. The lowest energy transition in the Balmer
series is from n = 3 to n = 2. The Rydberg formula gives the wavenumber (inverse wavelength)
of the emitted photon:
1/λ = RH (1/n12 - 1/n22)
where n1 = 2 for the Balmer series, n2 is the higher energy level (3, 4, 5, ...), and RH is the
Rydberg constant.
B. Blackbody Radiation: A blackbody is an idealized object that absorbs and emits all
electromagnetic radiation. The intensity of the radiation emitted by a blackbody depends on its
temperature. Wien's displacement law describes the relationship between the peak
wavelength (λmax) of the emitted radiation and the temperature (T) of the blackbody:
λmax T = constant
This law states that as the temperature increases, the peak wavelength shifts to shorter
wavelengths.

D: Mathematical Calculation

A. Statement I: For the lowest energy Balmer transition, n1 = 2 and n2 = 3. Using the Rydberg
formula:
2 2
1/λ = RH (1/2 - 1/3 ) = RH (1/4 - 1/9) = RH (5/36)
So, the wavenumber of the lowest energy Balmer line is indeed (5/36)RH cm-1.
B. Statement II: Wien's displacement law (λmax T = constant) directly supports this statement. As
T increases, λmax decreases, meaning the peak of the intensity vs. wavelength curve shifts to
shorter wavelengths.

E: Final Answer
Both statements are correct. Therefore, the correct option is (3).

78)

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79)

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80)
= 4 × 10–35m
= 4 × 10–33 cm

81) Number of wave in one complete revolution = shell number.

82) Δx.mΔV ≥ ⇒ Δx ≥
–2
Δx ≥ 1.9 × 10 m

Δv = 300 × = 0.003 m/sec

83)

[Δx = Δp]

⇒
14
Δv = 0.0797 × 10
Δv = 7.9 × 1012 m/sec = 8 × 1012 m/sec
comparing with x × 1012 m/sec
We get x = 8

84)

NCERT Pg # 51

85)

Ans.-(2)

86) NCERT Page No. 54

Radial Node = n – ℓ – 1
=3–2–1
=0
Angular Node = ℓ
=2
 Total Node = n – 1
=2

87)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 57

88)

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89)

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90)

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BIOLOGY

91)

92)

The synthesis of cell organelles primarily occurs in the G1 phase of the cell cycle.
• G1 phase (Gap 1 phase): The cell grows in size and actively synthesizes proteins, enzymes,
and most organelles required for the next phases. This is the main phase for organelle
biosynthesis.
Final Answer:
Option 1: G1 phase.

93)

Ans.-(1)

94) NCERT Pg. # 163

95)

Explain Question : You are asked: Which phase takes up about 95% of the cell cycle?

Concept : This question is based on Cell Cycle and cell division : Interphase

Solution :
Interphase (G1 + S + G2) is the longest phase.
–Cell grows, DNA replicates, and prepares for division
–Takes ~95% of the total time

Final Answer : option (4) Interphase

96)

Explain Question : The question asks what occurs during the S-phase (Synthesis phase) in
higher plant cells.

Concept : This question is based on Cell Cycle and cell division: Interphase

Solution :
In higher plants:
–DNA replicates in the nucleus during S-phase
–Centrioles are absent, so centriole duplication does not occur

Final Answer : option (2) DNA replication occurs in nucleus

97)

Explain Question : The question asks what happens during metaphase of mitosis.

Concept : This question is based on Cell Cycle and cell division : Mitosis

Solution :
1. Incorrect, Chromosomes start to condense → Happens during prophase, not metaphase.
2. Incorrect, Disappearance of nuclear membrane, nucleolus, ER, Golgi → Happens during
prophase, not metaphase.
3. Correct, All chromosomes align at the equator; sister chromatids attached to opposite poles
via spindle fibres → Correct description of metaphase.
4. Incorrect, Centromere splits and chromatids separate → Happens in anaphase, not
metaphase.

Final Answer : option (3) All the chromosomes lie at the equator with one chromatid of each
chromosome connected by its kinetochore to spindle fibres from one pole and its sister
chromatid connected by its kinetochore to spindle fibres from opposite pole.

98)

Explain Question : You are asked to choose the incorrect statement related to the
essentiality of mitosis (why cells divide by mitosis).
Concept : This question is based on Significance of Mitosis.

Solution :
A – Usually results in the productions of cells with identical genetic complement
Correct — Mitosis produces genetically identical daughter cells.
B – Growth of unicellular organisms is due to mitosis and forms genetically different cell
Incorrect — Mitosis in unicellular organisms (like Amoeba) leads to growth by producing
genetically identical cells, not different ones.
C – Restore the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
Correct — As the cytoplasm increases during cell growth, mitosis restores the optimal nucleus-
to-cytoplasm balance.
D – Cell repair
Correct — Mitosis helps replace damaged or dead cells, aiding in repair.

Final Answer : option (4) Only B

99) Question Explanation :

The question is asking during which stage of mitosis does the chromatin (loose DNA) condense
and become untangled, forming visible chromosomes ready for proper segregatioon.

Concept :
Cell cycle and cell division : Mitosis.

Solution :
In prophase, the chromatin fibers condense into discrete, visible chromosomes.
During this condensation, the chromosomal material untangles and organizes, which is
essential for accurate chromosome separation later in mitosis.

Final Answer:
Option (1)

100) NCERT XI, Pg # 166

101) Question Explanation :

The question is asking at which stage of the cell cycle or mitosis the structure of a
chromosome is most clearly visible under a microscope.

Concept :
Cell cycle and cell division : Mitosis

Solution :
The correct answer is 2. Metaphase
In metaphase, chromosomes are highly condensed, aligned at the equator and most distinctly
visible under a microscope.
This is the stage where karyotyping (chromosome analysis) is typically done by to the clear
visibility of individual chromosomes.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

102) In end of prophase, metaphase and anaphase of cell cycle, cells do not show golgi-
complex, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and the nuclear envelope.

103) Question Explanation :

The question is asking "To which part of the chromosome do the spindle fibres attach during
cell division"

Concept :
Cell cycle and cell division : Mitosis

Solution :
The correct answer is 2. Kinetochore of the chromosome
Explanation :
During cell division, spindle fibres attach to the kinetochore, a proteinaceous disc like
structure present on the centromere of each chromosome.
This connection is essential for the proper movement and segregation of chromosomes during
anaphase.

Final Answer :
Option (2) Kinetochore of the chromosome.

104) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 168

105) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 164

106)

The oocytes of some vertebrates female get arrested for year or months in diplotene.

107) Question Explanation :

The question asks : what is the name of the brief resting or transitional phase between meiosis
I and meiosis II?

Concept:
Cell cycle and cell division : Meiosis.

Solution :
The correct answer is 3. Interkinesis
Explanation :
Interkinesis is the short gap between meiosis I and II.
Unlike interphase, no DNA replication occurs during this stage.
It allows the cell to reorganize before entering meiosis II.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

108)

Ans.-(1)

109)
Explanation

A. Formation of gametes ✅

A. Meiosis produces haploid gametes (sperm and egg cells) in sexually reproducing
organisms.

B. Conservation of specific chromosome number in sexually reproducing organisms ✅

A. Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half, ensuring that the diploid
number is restored after fertilization.

C. Introduction of variations ✅

A. Crossing over during pachytene and independent assortment introduce genetic

variations, which are important for evolution.

Correct answer: ✅ 4. All of the above

110) NCERT XI Pg.#168 (last line)

111)

Ans.-(1)

112) Question Explanation :

The question asks you to arrange key events of meiosis in the correct chronological order as
they happen during prophase I and meiosis I.

Solution :
The correct answer is 4. (b), (a), (c), (d)
Explanation :
(b) Synapsis – Homologous chromosomes pair (Zygotene)
(a) Recombination – Crossing over occurs (Pachytene)
(c) Chiasmata visible – After crossing over, chiasmata remain (Diplotene)
(d) Homologous chromosome separate (Anaphase I)
 Final Answer :
Option (4)

113)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 125

114)

NCERT Page 126

115)

Ans.-(1)

116) NCERT Pg. # 164

117)

NCERT XI Pg. 169

118) The sequence of events, by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesises other
constituents and eventually divides into daughter cells, is termed as cell cycle.

119)

NCERT 11th pg no.168

120)

SOLUTION—

The dyad of cells condition, where two separate cells each containing a set of
sister chromatids (a dyad), occurs after cytokinesis is complete in Telophase I of
meiosis.

The correct answer is: OPTION (1) After cytokinesis

121) Question Explanation : The question asks to correctly identify the phases of the cell
cycle represented by these labels
Concept:
This question is based on phases of the cell cycle.

Explanation:
Phase A represents the G1 phase (Gap 1), a period of cell growth and normal metabolic roles,
preceding DNA replication.

Phase B represents the S phase (Synthesis), where DNA replication occurs, leading to the
duplication of chromosomes.

Phase C represents the G2 phase (Gap 2), a period of further growth and preparation for cell
division, following DNA replication.

Phase D represents the M phase (Mitosis), the process of nuclear division, followed by
cytokinesis (cell division).

Final answer : 2

122) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 169

123) Explaining the Question – You are given a stage of cell division (image-based) and
asked to select the correctly matched statement from the following options.
Concept – This Question is based on Anaphase in mitosis
Solution – Anaphase – Splitting of centromere and movement of daughter chromosomes to
opposite polesThis is a defining event of anaphase in mitosis Centromeres split, and the now-
separated chromatids move to opposite poles.
Final Answer - 3

126) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 165, Fig.10.2 (a)

127)

NCERT XI pg no.169

128) Ncert page 123.

129) Misceleneous

131) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 164, IInd last line form bottom.

132) NCERT Pg. # 164

133)

NCERT Pg. # 128

134) The assertion is true as the synaptonemal complex is indeed formed during the pairing of
homologous chromosomes, which is known as synapsis. However, the reason is false because
the synaptonemal complex's presence is not an indicator of crossing over. Crossing over
 occurs later, and while the synaptonemal complex is essential for the process, its formation
alone does not indicate that crossing over is taking place at that moment. Therefore, A is true,
but R is false.

135) Question Explanation :

The question is asking : Which of the following statements is true about the process of meiotic
division?

Concept :
Cell cycle and cell division : Meiosis

Solution :
The correct answer is 1. Two sequential cycles of nuclear and cytoplasmic division occur.
Explanation : Meiosis consists of two back-to-back divisions :
– Meiosis I and Meiosis II
– Each includes both nuclear (karyokinesis) and cytoplasmic (cytokinesis) division. But DNA
replicates only once, during interphase before meiosis I.
End result : Four haploid (not diploid) cells.
Homologous chromosomes separate in Anaphase I, not Anaphase II (which separates sister
chromatids).

Final Answer :
Option (1)

136)

A. Statement 1 is incorrect: B-cells are involved in humoral immunity, not cell-mediated.

B. Statement 2 is correct: T-cells attack infected cells directly.
C. Statement 3 is correct: Plasma cells (from B-cells) secrete antibodies.
D. Statement 4 is correct: Vaccines stimulate the immune system → active immunity.

137)

AIDS → through blood/sexual contact

Malaria → mosquito bite
Common cold → droplet infection (airborne)
Ascariasis → fecal-oral route (contaminated food/water)

138) Only female Anopheles transmits the Plasmodium parasite.

139)

Explain Question :
Saliva of mouth and tears of eyes are included under which barrier?

Concept :
Saliva and tears act as physiological barriers that protect the body by killing or washing away
microbes.
Solution :
Saliva and tears contain antimicrobial substances like lysozyme, which break down bacterial
cell walls–making them part of the physiological barrier of innate immunity.

Final Answer :
Option (1) Physiological barrier

140)

NCERT-XII, Hint Pg. # 150

141) Question Explanation: identify A, B, C, D.

Concept : Protozoal disease

Solution :
(A) → Sporozoit
(B) → Liver
(C) → Salivary gland
(D) → Gametocyte

Final Answer : option (3).

142) Explain Question :

Which of the following statements is correct about a benign tumor?

Concept :
This question based on Cancet.

Solution :
Benign tumors grow slowly and stay confined to their site of origin, without invading
neighboring tissues or spreading (no metastasis). This distinguishes them from malignant
tumors.

Final Answer :
Option (3) : Normally remain confined to its original location

143)

Explain Question :
Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity?

Concept :
This question is based on Innate immunity.

Solution : The correct answer is option (4)

• Skin: Physical barrier – innate immunity
• Phagocytes: Cellular barrier – innate immunity
• Interferons: Cytokine barrier – innate immunity
• Antibodies: Produced by B-lymphocytes during an immune response – adaptive immunity

Final Answer :
Option (4) : Antibodies

144)

NCERT Pg. # 136

145) Explanation: The Widal test is a serological test used to diagnose typhoid fever, also
known as enteric fever. It detects antibodies against Salmonella typhi, the bacteria that causes
typhoid.

Correct Answer: 4. Typhoid

146) Explanation: B-lymphocytes, or B cells, develop and mature in the bone marrow. This is
where they acquire their ability to recognize specific antigens and produce antibodies.

Correct Answer: 1. Bone-marrow

147)

Explain Question :
Which toxin is responsible for chills and high fever during malaria?

Concept :
This question is based on Protozoan disease.

Solution :
When the malarial parasite (Plasmodium) ruptures red blood cells, it releases a pigment called
haemozoin into the bloodstream. This toxin is responsible for the cyclic chills and high fever
seen in malaria.

Final Answer :
Option (3) : Haemozoin

148) NCERT Pg. 152

149) Correct Answer:

3. a, b, d
Explanation:
(a) Health is affected by genetic disorders, lifestyle, and infections: This is true. All
three factors play a significant role in determining an individual's health status.
(b) Balanced diet, personal hygiene, and regular exercise are very important to
maintain good health: This is also true. These practices contribute to physical and mental
well-being.
(d) In allergic reactions, adrenaline is the life-saving drug: This is true. Adrenaline
(epinephrine) is used to treat severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) as it helps to open
airways and reverse other dangerous symptoms.
• Why (c) is incorrect:
(c) Health is only "absence of disease" or "physical fitness": This is a limited and
incorrect view of health.
Health is defined by the World Health Organization as "a state of complete physical, mental
and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." It encompasses more
than just the absence of illness or physical fitness.

150)

Explain Question : to identify correct about typhoid

Concept : bacterial disease

Explanation : Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation,
headache and loss of appetite are some of the common symptoms of this [Link] answer
:3

151)

NCERT Pg. No. 147

152) Explanation :
Dry, scaly lesions with itching on skin, nails, and scalp are most likely symptoms of Ringworm.

Answer : (3)

153)

Explain Question : to identify the biological response modifier that activates immune system
and helps in destroying the tumor

Concept : This question is based on Cancer

Solution : α–interferon is a biological response modifier that activates immune system and
helps in destroying the tumor.

Final Answer : option (1)

154)

The correct answer is Option 3 (has natural killer cells which can phagocytose and destroy
microbes).

The innate immune system, which is present at birth, serves as the first line of defense against
pathogens. It is nonspecific and includes components like natural killer cells and macrophages
 that can attack and destroy microbes through phagocytosis or direct cell lysis. These
mechanisms are crucial for immediate protection.

Specificity: The innate immune system is nonspecific—it does not target particular pathogens.

Memory cells: Memory cells are produced by the acquired immune system (adaptive
immunity), not the innate system, for secondary responses. Passive immunity: This refers to
immunity transferred from another source, such as maternal antibodies, not the innate
immune system.

155)

The correct answer is Option 3 (AIDS and Hepatitis B).

A. AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by the HIV virus, which primarily
affects the immune system, particularly the CD4+ T cells, and not specifically the reproductive
organs. Hepatitis B is caused by the Hepatitis B virus, which primarily targets the liver,
causing inflammation, and is not restricted to reproductive organs.

156)

The correct answer is Option 1 (Elephantiasis).

Elephantiasis, also known as lymphatic filariasis, is caused by mosquito-transmitted parasites,

primarily Wuchereria bancrofti. The pathogen affects the lymphatic vessels, leading to chronic
inflammation, severe swelling, and hardening of tissues (most commonly in the legs and
genitals). The disease is transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes, which act as
vectors for the filarial larvae.

A. Ascariasis: Caused by the roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides and transmitted via contaminated
food or water, not mosquitoes.
B. Ringworm disease: A fungal infection caused by dermatophytes, not related to mosquitoes.
C. Amoebiasis: Caused by the protozoan Entamoeba histolytica, transmitted through
contaminated food or water, not via mosquitoes.

159) NCERT Pg. No. 156

161) Explanation:
Acquired immunity, also known as adaptive immunity, is characterized by the following traits:
1. Diversity: It can recognize a vast array of antigens.

2. Discrimination between self and non-self: It distinguishes between the body's own cells and
foreign invaders.

3. Memory: Once exposed to a pathogen, acquired immunity "remembers" it, allowing for a
faster and stronger response upon subsequent exposures.

Non-specific immunity, on the other hand, refers to innate immunity, which is the body's first
line of defense and does not target specific pathogens. Acquired immunity, in contrast, is
highly specific to the particular pathogen. Therefore, non-specific is not a characteristic of
 acquired immunity.

The correct answer is : 4 : Non-specific.

166) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 157

168)

Ans.-(1)

169)

The correct answer is Option1

Assertion: Cancerous cells just continue to divide giving rise to masses of cells called tumors. This
statement is true. Cancer cells exhibit uncontrolled cell growth and division, leading to the
formation of tumors. Reason: Cancer cells appear to have lost the property of contact inhibition.
This statement is also true. Normal cells exhibit contact inhibition, meaning they stop dividing when
they come into contact with neighboring cells. Cancer cells lose this ability, allowing them to
continue dividing and forming tumors

170) NCERT Pg#147

171)

Ans.-(3)

172) NCERT Pg. # 137

173) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 137

174)

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175)

NCERT-XII Pg#133

176)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 149

177)
 Ans.-(1)

178)

Question Explanation :
Identify the viral disease among the given options.

Concept :
This question is based on Causative agents.

Solution :
The correct answer is option 4.

A. Chickenpox → is viral disease→Caused by the Varicella-zoster virus .

B. Dysentery,Plague and Diphtheria are bacterial disease.

Hence,
Option (4) is correct : Chicken pox

179) NCERT Pg. 155

180)

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