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NS - P2 - ENJOY
Nursing (Southwestern University PHINMA)
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BSN 4
NURSING SEMINAR
P2 EXAMINATION
1. Which of the following is the most common symptom of myocardial Infarction (My.
• Chest pain
• Dyspnea
• Edema
• Palpitations
2. The nurse is preparing to administer ding [Link] a patient with heart failure In preparation, laboratory results
are reviewed with the following findings: sodium 139 mEg/L, potassium 5.6 mEg/L, chlOride 103 mEa/1, and
glucose 106 mg/dL. What should the nurse do next?
● Withhold the daily dose until the following day.
● Withhold the dose and report the potassium level.
● Give the digoxin with a salty snack, such as crackers.
● Give the digoxin with extra fluids to dilute the sodium level.-
3. Situation: The WHO is concerned of the unnecessary deaths of children below 5 years old in the developing
countries. IMCI is trying to fight these unnecessary deaths. According to WHO, the most common cause of
death among these under 5 children is:
• Malnutrition
• Malaria
• Diarrhea
• Pneumonia
4. Which of the following blood tests is most indicative of cardiac damage?
● Lactate dehydrogenase
● Complete blood count (CBC)
● Troponin
● Creatine kinase (CK)
5. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with an MI?
● To sedate the client
● To decrease the client's pain
● To decrease the client's anxiety
● To decrease oxygen demand on the client's heart
6. Mickey a 3-year-old client was brought to the health center with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and
the passage of "rice water" stools. The client is most probably suffering from which condition?
● Giardiasis
● Cholera
● Amebiasis
● Dysentery
7. What is the priority assessment by the nurse caring for a patient receiving IV nesiritide (Natrecor) to treat
heart failure?
a. Urine output
b. Lung sounds
C. Blood pressure
d. Respiratory rate
8. She may present with fast breathing if her respiration is
● 40 bpm and above
● 50 bpm and above
● C. 60 bpm and above
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● 70 bpm and above
9. Which of the following conditions is most commonly responsible for MI?
● Aneurysm
● Heart failure
● Coronary artery thrombosis
● Renal failure
10. The client is admitted to the telemetry unit diagnosed with acute exacerbation of CHF. Which signs and
symptoms would the nurse expect to find when assessing this client?
a. Apical pulse rate of 110 and 4+ pitting edema of feet.
b. Thick white sputum and crackles that clear with cough
c. The client sleeping with no pillow and eupnea.
d. Radial pulse rate of 90 and CRT less than three (3) seconds.
11. A mosquito- borne disease caused by a parasite called "plasmodia"
● Malaria
● Measles
● Pneumonia
● Dysentery
12. What is the first intervention for a client experiencing MI?
● Administer morphine
● Administer oxygen
● Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
● Obtain an ECG
13. Color for needs specific treatment and advice
• Pink row
• Yellow card
• Green card
• All of the above
14. The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. A nursing
diagnosis of "decreased cardiac output related to inability of the heart to pump effectively" is written. Which
short-term goal would be best for the client?
• The client will be able to ambulate in the hall by date of discharge.
• The client will have an audible $1 and $2 with no S3 heard by end of shift.
• The client will turn, cough, and deep breath every two (2) hours.
• The client will have a Sa02 reading of 98% by day two (2) of care
15. Which of the following classes of medications protects the ischemic myocardium by blocking
catecholamines & sympathetic nerve stimulation?
a. Beta-adrenergic blockers
b. Calcium channel blockers
c. Narcotic
d. Nitrates
16. The nurse is implementing interventions to prevent stressors for a 9-year-old child receiving chemotherapy
in the hospital. What is an example of using atraumatic care for this child?
● Use restraint or 'holding down' of the child during the procedure to prevent injury.
● Have the parent stand near and/or rub the child's feet during the procedure.
● Insert a saline lock if the child will require multiple doses of parenteral medications.
● Avoid using numbing techniques for multiple blood draws or IV insertion.
17. The nurse enters the room of the client diagnosed with CHF. The client is lying in bed gasping for breath,
is cool and clammy and has buccal cyanosis. Which intervention would the nurse implement first?
• Sponge the client's forehead.
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• Obtain a pulse oximetry reading.
• Take the client's vital signs.
• Assist the client to a sitting position
18. What is the most common complication of an Mi?
a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Heart failure
c. Arrhythmias
d. Pericarditis
19. With which of the following disorders is jugular vein distention-most prominent?
● Abdominal aortic aneurysm"
● Heart failure
● MI
● Pneumothorax
20. In the year 1980, the World Health Organization declared the Philippines, together with some other
countries in the Western Pacific Region, "free" of which disease?
• Pneumonic plaque
• Poliomyelitis
• Small pox
• Anthrax
21. Which of the following symptoms is most commonly associated with left-sided heart failure?
● Crackles
● Arrhythmias
● Hepatic engorgement
● Hypotension
22. Which of the following types of angina is most closely related with an impending MI?
a. Angina decubitus
b. Chronic stable angina
C. Nocturnal angina
d. Unstable angina
23. Nurse Ryan is aware that the best initial approach when trying to take a crying toddler's temperature is:
● Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler.
• Bring extra help so it can be done quickly.
• Encourage the mother to hold the child.
• Ignore the crying and screaming.
24. Along with persistent, crushing chest pain, which signs/symptoms would make the nurse suspect that the
client is experiencing a myocardial infarction?
• Midepigastric pain and pyrosis
• Diaphoresis and cool clammy skin
• Intermittent claudication and pallor
• Jugular vein distention and dependent edema
25. The nurse is assessing the client diagnosed with CHF. Which laboratory data would indicate that the client
is in severe CHF?
● An elevated B-type nariuretic peptide (BNP)
● An elevated creatine kinase (CK-MB).
● A positive D-dimer.
● A positive ventilation/perfusion (V/O) scan.
26. The client diagnosed with rule-out myocardial infarction is experiencing chest pain while walking to the
bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement first?
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● Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
● Obtain a stat 12 Lead ECG
● Have the client sit down immediately
● Assess the client's vital signs
27. The client who has had a myocardial infarction is admitted to the telemetry unit from intensive care. Which
referral would be most appropriate for the client?
● Social worker
● Physical therapy
● Cardiac rehabilitation
● Occupation therapy
28. Which client would most likely be misdiagnosed for having a myocardial infarction?
● A 55-year-old Caucasian male with crushing chest pain and diaphoresis
● A 60-year-old Native American male with an elevated troponin level
● A 40-year-old Hispanic female with a normal ECG
● [Link] 80-year-old Peruvian female with normal CK-MB at 12 hours
29. A nurse is conducting a health history with a client with a primary diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the
following disorders reported by the client is unlikely iu play a role in exacerbating the heart failure?
• Recent URI
• Nutritional anemia
• Peptic ulcer disease
• A-Fib
30. Which disease was declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a target for, eradication in the
Philippines?
• Poliomyelitis
• Measles
• Rabies
• Neonatal Tetanus
31. A patient who has tested positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) arrives at the clinic with a
report of fever, non - productive cough, and fatigue. The patient's CD4 count is 184 cells/mcL. How should the
healthcare provider interpret these findings?.
A. The patient is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS.-
• The patient is now in the latent stages of HIV infection
• These findings provide evidence that the patient has seroconverted.
• This is an expected finding because the patient has tested positive for HIV.
32. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has a nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition:
less than body requirements. The nurse plans which of the following goals with this
• consume foods and beverages that are high in glucose
• plan large menus and cook meals in advance
• eat low-calorie snacks between meals
eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
33 A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is experiencing Shortness of breath related to
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Which measure should the nurse include in the plan of care to assist the
client in performing activities of daily living?
a. provide meals and snacks with high-Protein, high calorie, and High nutritional value
b. provide small, frequent meals
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c. Provide supportive care with hygiene needs
d. Provide stringent timetable for meals and hygiene
34. A client who was tested for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) after a recent exposure had a negative
result. During the post-test counseling session the nurse tells the client which of the following?
a. This ensures that the client is not infected with the HIV virus
b. the test should be repeated in 6 months
c. the client no longer needs to protect himself from sexual partners
d. the client probably has immunity to the acquired immunodeficiency virus
35. A client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. The nurse prepares a care plan
for the client, knowing that HIV is primarily a condition in which:
• immunosuppression occurs and is indicated by a T4 lymphocyte count of less than 200/mm3
• bacterial infection occurs, causing weakness
• fungal infection occurs, causing a rash and pruritus
• protozoan infection occurs, causing a fever and nonproductive cough
36. A 16-year-old patient comes to the free clinic and is diagnosed with primary syphilis. The patient states that
she contracted this disease by holding hands with someone who has syphilis. What is the most appropriate
nursing diagnosis for this patient?
• Alteration in comfort related to impaired skin integrity
• Fear related to complications
• Noncompliance with treatment regimen related to age
• Knowledge deficit related to modes of transmission
37. A client is being treated for gonorrhea. Which agent would the nurse expect the physician to prescribe?
-a. Tetracycline
• Ceftriaxone
• Penicillin
• Levofloxacin
38. A male client reports urethral pain and a creamy yellow, bloody discharge from the penis. The nurse
associates these characteristics with which of the following sexually transmitted infections?
• Gonorrhea
• Candidiasis -
• Chancroid
• Trichomoniasis
39. After teaching a group of students about sexually transmitted infections (STis), the instructor determines
that additional teaching is necessary when the students identify which STl as curable
with treatment?
• Syphillis
• Gonorrhea
• Chlamydia
• Genital herpes
40. The nurse is gathering data from a male client who is suspected of having gonorrhea. Which of the
following would the nurse most likely find?
• Testicular pain
• Purulent rectal discharge
• Pain on urination
• Skin rash
41. How is Dengue Fever transmitted?
• Bite of an infected male Aedes mosquito
• Bite of an infected mosquito
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• Bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito
• Bite of an infected female Aedes mosquito
42. Which of the following is a diagnostic method for dengue Fever
• RT - PCR
• Nucleic acid amplification test
• Enzyme - linked immunosorbent assay
• All of the above
43. What are the 3 phases of Dengue Fever?
• Coalescing, trivial and serious
• Staging, growing, spreading
• Febrile, critical, convalescing
• None of the above
44. Which of the following is important for Dengue Fever prevention?
a. Using mosquito repellent
• Going outside only during the evening
• Keeping the windows and doors open
• All of the above
45. Dengue Fever incubation period ranges from:
• 1 to 12 days
• 3 to 14 days B?
• 14 to 28 days
• 10 to 2G days
46. Main preventive mechanism for Measles among the target population is through:
• Immunization
• Antibiotics
• Anti - viral drugs
• Cleanliness and hygiene
47. Measles is caused by which particular virus:
• Myxovirus
• Paramyxovirus
• Rhabdo virus
• Corona virus
48. Average incubation period for Measles is at:
• 12 to 14 days
• 15 to 20 days
A?
• 10 to 12 days
• 5 to 7 days
49. How Is Measles transmitted from person to person»
• sexual contact
• random touch/direct contact
• airborne spores
d. coughing and sneezing
50. Which vitamin administered is beneficial to children diagnosed with Measles to reduce the severity of
symptoms?
• Vitamin B 12
• Vitamin C
• Vitamin A
• Vitamin D
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51. Which statement MOST accurately describes the pharmacodynamics of vaccines?
• Vaccines work by stimulating the humoral immune system.
• Vaccines provide I G antibodies to protect against infection.
• Vaccines prevent the formation of antibodies against a specific antigen.
• Vaccines work by suppressing the amino acid immunoglobulin sequence.
52. What is the priority nursing assessment to monitor when administering vaccinations?
• Myalgias
• Anaphylaxis
• Symptoms of infection
• Pain at the injection site
53. Administration of which substance provides passive immunity?
• Vaccines
• Toxoids
• Antitoxins
• Immunoglobulins
54. What teaching would the nurse provide to a client receiving tetanus toxoid?
A."You will have lifetime immunity from this injection."
B."Soreness at the injection site is a common reaction."
C "This medication must be repeated weekly for 4 weeks."
D."Increase fluid and fiber in your diet to prevent constipation."
55. An allergy to which substance is a contraindication to the administration of an immunizing drug?
• Soy
• Egg
• Corn
• Wheat
56. Which vaccination was developed to prevent bacterial meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae?
• Preener
• Gardasil
• Hepatitis B vaccine
• Hib conjugate vaccine
57. Which vaccination is marketed and recommended in the prevention of a virus that is known to cause
cervical cancer?
[Link] zoster vaccine (Zostavax)
B. Papillomavirus vaccine (Gardasil)
C. Pneumococcal vaccine (Prevnar 13)
D. Hepatitis B virus vaccine (Recombivax HB)
58. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community health nursing is a developmental service. Which of the
following best illustrates this statement?
The community health nurse continuously develops himself personally and professionally.
Health education and community organizing are necessary in providing community health services.
Community health nursing is intended primarily for health promotion and prevention and treatment of disease.
The goal of community health nursing is to provide nursing services to people in their own places of residence.
59. Which disease was declared through Presidential Proclamation No. 4 as a target for eradication in the
Philippines?
[Link]
[Link]
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• Rabies
• Neonatal tetanus
60. The public health nurse is responsible for presenting the municipal health statistics using graphs and
tables. To Compare the frequency of the leading causes of mortality in the municipality, which graph will you
prepare?
• Line
• Bar
• Pie
• Scatter diagram
61. Which step in community organizing involves training of potential leaders in the community?
• Integration
• Community organization
• Community study
• Core group formation
62. In which step are plans formulated for solving community problems?
A. Mobilization
. B. Community organization
• Follow-up/extension
• Core group formation
63. The public health nurse takes an active role in community participation. What is the primary goal of
community organizing?
• To educate the people regarding community health problems
• To mobilize the people to resolve community health problems
To maximize the community's resources in dealing with health problems
To maximize the community's resources in dealing with health problems
64. An indicator of success in community organizing is when people are able to
• Participate in community activities for the solution of a community problem
• Implement activities for the solution of the community problem
• Plan activities for the solution of the community problem
• Identify the health problem as a common concern
65. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease?
• Pre-pathogenesis
• Pathogenesis
[Link]
D. Terminal
66 Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what level of prevention.
• Primary
• Secondary
• Intermediate
• Tertiary
67. On the other hand, Operation Timbang Is What type of prevention?
• Primary
• Secondary
• Intermediate
• Tertiary
68. Which type of family nurse contact will provide you with the best opportunity to observe family
dynamics?
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• Clinic consultation
• Group conference
• Home visit
• Written communication
69. The typology of family nursing problems is used in the statement of nursing diagnosis in the care of
families. Theyoungest child of the de los Reyes family has been diagnosed as mentally retarded. This is
classified as a
• Health threat
• Health deficit
• Foreseeable crisis
• Stress point
70. The de los Reyes couple have a 6-year old child entering school for the first time. The de los Reyes family
has a
• Health threat
• Health deficit
• Foreseeable crisis
• Stress point
71. Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit?
• It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a greater number of people.
• It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation.
c. It allows sharing of experiences among people with similar health problems.
D. It develops the family's initiative in providing for health needs of its members.
72. Which is CONTRARY to the principles in planning a home visit?
• A home visit should have a purpose or objective.
• The plan should revolve around family health needs.
• A home visit should be conducted in the manner prescribed by the RHU:
• Planning of continuing care should involve a responsible family member.
73. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing nursing care during a home visit. The most important
principle of bagtechnique states that it
A. Should save time and effort.
BShould minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection.
• Should not overshadow concern for the patient and his family.
• May be done in a variety of ways depending on the home situation, etc.
74. To maintain the cleanliness of the bag and its contents, which of the following must the nurse do?
a. Wast tis/her hands before and after providing nursing care to the family members
b. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and rogbie, if he fight stade out before putting it back into the
bag.
c. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which the bag was placed, ensuring that the contaminated side
is on the outside.
75 The public health nurse conducts a study on the factors contributing to the high mortality rate due to the
heart disease in the municipality where she works. Which branch of epidemiology does the nurse practice in
this situation
A. Descriptive
[Link]
• Therapeutic
• Evaluation
76. Which of the following is a function of epidemiology?
a. Identifying the disease condition based on manifestations presented by a client
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b. Determining factors that contributed to the occurrence of pneumonia in a 3 year old
c. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used in the treatment of the 3 year old client with pneumonia
d. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
77. Which of the following is an epidemiologic function of the nurse during an epidemic?
• Conducting assessment of suspected cases to detect the communicable disease
• Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by the communicable disease
Participating in the investigation to determine the source of the epidemic
D. Teaching the community on preventive measures against the disease
78. You will gather data for nutritional assessment of a purok. You will gather information only from families with
members who belong to the target population for PEM. What method of data gathering is best for this
purpose?
A. Census
[Link]
• Record review
• Review of civil registry
79. In the conduct of a census, the method of population assignment based on the actual physical location of
the people is termed
• De jure
• De locus
• De facto
• De novo
80. The Field Health Services and Information System (FHSIS) is the recording and reporting system in public
healthcare in the Philippines. The Monthly Field Health Service Activity Report is a form used in which of the
components of the FHSIS?
• Tally report
• Output report
• Target/client list
• Individual health record
81. To monitor clients registered in long term regimens, such as the Multi-Drug Therapy? Which component will
be most useful?
• Tally report
• Output report
• Target/client list
• Individual health record
82. Civil registries are important sources of data. Which law requires registration of births within 30 days from
the occurrence of the birth?
A.P.D. 651
• Act 3573
• R.A. 3753
• R.A. 3375
83. A 78-year-old client arrives at the hospital and is suspected of having pneumonia.
Which laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate the physician ordering to confirm rm the diagnosis?
• Complete blood count (CBC) and chest X-ray
• Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• Pulmonary function tests and lung biopsy
• Electrolytes and lung computed tomography scan
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84. A client is admitted for pneumonia. The nurse instructs the client to change positions every two hours. The
client asks the nurse why this is important. The nurse explains that turning:
• prevents Actelectasis of the lungs.
• promotes drainage from the lung lobes by gravity.
• changes the portion of the lung thatis splinted by the bed.
• keeps uninvolved portions of the lungs from becoming infected.
85. A client is admitted to the nursing unit with a diagnosis of mycoplasma pneumonia. The admitting physician
did not order the client to be placed on any form of precautions. Which isolation precautions would be best for
the client to be on?
• Transmission-based precautions
• Universal precautions
• Sterile precautions
• Standard precautions
86. Which client would be most at risk for developing aspiration pneumonia?
• An infant with a tracheoesophageal defect repair
• An alert 10-year old with cystic fibrosis
D?
• A 50-year old with fractured ribs and a fractured leg from a MVA
• A confused 75-year old with a CVA
87. Which nursing action is most appropriate when planning to obtain the ordered sputum specimen?
• Provide the client with a generous fluid intake.
• Encourage the client to change positions regularly.
• Ask the dietitian to send the client a clear liquid diet.
a or b?
• Administer an antitussive before collecting the specimen
88. A patient is presenting with mild symptoms of pneumonia. The doctor diagnoses the patient with "walking
pneumonia". From your nursing knowledge, you know this type of pneumonia is caused by what type of
infectious agent?
A. Fungi
8. Streptococcus pneumonia
• Mycoplasma pneumoniae
• Influenza
89. A client with bacterial pneumonia is to be started on IV antibiotics. Which of the following diagnostic tests
must be completed before antibiotic therapy begins?
A. Urinalysis.
B. Sputum culture.
C. Chest radiograph.
D. Red blood cell count.
90. The time of day is best for the nurse to obtain a sputum specimen from the client?
• Before bedtime
• After a meal
• Between meals
• On awakening
91. Which statement best suggests that the client understands the the nurse's instruction on how to handle the
sputum specimen container?
A. " should put gloves on before opening the container."
B." should wipe the container with an alcohol swab."
C. " cannot put the lid on the container until the container is fairly full!"
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B. "I must not touch the inside of the container."
92. Which type of precautions would be used when caring for a client with tuberculosis?
• Standard precautions
• Airborne precautions
• Droplet precautions
• Contact precautions
93. A child has been diagnosed with tubercule (tuberculosis) meningitis and is admitted to the hospital.
The child should be placed on:
• contact isolation.
• droplet isolation.
• respiratory isolation.
• standard precautions.
94. Which statement is correct regarding mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A this bacterium is an anaerobic type of bacteria
• it is an alkali bacterium that stains bright red curing an acid fast smear test
• it is known as being an aerobic type of bacteria
• it is an acid fast bacterium that stains bright green during an acid fast smear test
95. Your patient with a diagnosis of latent tuberculosis infection needs a bronchoscopy. during transport to
endoscopy, the patient will need to wear?
• N95 mask
• surgical mask
• no special PPE is needed
• face mask with shield
96. A client has active TB. Which of the following symptoms will he exhibit?
A. Chest and lower back pain
[Link], fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis
• Fever of more than 104*F and nausea
• Headache and photophobia
07. A man is hospitalized with probable bacterial pneumonia. The physician has ordered sputum specimen for
culture and sensitivity. What should the nurse do to obtain a good specimen?
A. Teach the client deep breathing and coughing techniques..
• Use nasotracheal suction.
• Obtain the specimen after starting antiblotics.
• Keep client NPO until sputum specimen Obtained. -
98. Which of the following diagnostic tests is definitive for TB?
• Chest x-ray
• Mantoux test
[Link] culture
D. Tuberculin test
99. The health care provider writes an order for bacteriologic testing for a patient who has a positive
tuberculosis skin test. Which action will the nurse take?
• Repeat the tuberculin skin testing.
• Teach about the reason for the blood tests.
• Obtain consecutive sputum specimens from the patient for 3 days.
• Instruct the patient to expectorate three specimens as soon as possible.
100. Which information about a patient who has a recent history of tuberculosis (TB) indicates that the nurse
can discontinue airborne isolation precautions?
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• Chest x-ray shows no upper lobe infiltrates.
• TB medications have been taken for 6 months.
• Mantoux testing shows an induration of 10 mm.
• Three sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli are negative.
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