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Terms in this set (300)

D 1. The following are found in the cell wall of certain bacteria.

Which of the following is exclusively found among fungi?
A. Teichoic acid
B. Diaminopimelic acid
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Chitin

D 2. The endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria is associated with

A. Mesosome
B. Cytoplasmic membrane
C. Capsule
D. Cell wall

A 3. This is a specific staining method for spirochetes

A. Giemsa's stain
B. Ziehl-neilsen stain
C. Acid-fast stain
D. Gram's stain

B 4. Eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in that eukaryotes

A. Generally lack sterols in their cell membrane
B. Contain more than one chromosome
C. Lack 80's ribosome
D. Have peptidoglycan
C 5. These are straight filaments arising from the bacterial cell
wall, making the bacterium look like porcupine
A. Capsules
B. Endospores
C. Fimbriae
D. Flagella

D 6. The tolerance of facultative anaerobic bacteria to lethal

superoxide when they are exposed to air is due to
A. The lack of CYP C oxidase
B. Presence of CYP C oxidase
C. Inability to form the superoxide radical
D. Presence of superoxide dismutase and catalase

B 7. Lipopolysaccharides are correctly described as

I. Found in both Gram(-) and Gram(+) bacteria
II. Contains lipid A as part of its structure
III. Infection of which are treated by antitoxin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II, and III

A 8. A structural component of the cell that may enhance

virulence of bacterium include
A. Capsule
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Flagella
D. Lecithinase

A 9. The source of H antigen

A. Flagella
B. Cell wall
C. Pilus
D. Plasmid
B 10. The process in which DNA is released by lysis of one
bacterium, leading to a change in phenotype of that another
bacterium is called
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition

D 11. Transfer of genetic materials involving the so called "jumping

genes"
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition

A 12. A process of gene transfer which involves bacteriophages in

the transfer of DNA material from one bacterium to another
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition

C 13. Transfer of genetic materials which involves sex pilus

A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Transposition
D 14. Microbial mutations are due to which of the following
cause(s)
I. Inversion
II. Additions (insertions)
III. Substitutions (transversions)
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

E 15. Endospores have a multi-layered protective coat consisting

of
I. Cell membrane
II. Peptidoglycan mesh
III. Exosporium
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A 16. Which of the following statement(s) about plasmids is/are

true
I. Carry resistance genes for antibiotics called R plasmids
II. Don't control genes regulating enzymes capable of
destroying antimicrobial drugs
III. Can't be transferred by conjugation due to their size and
shape
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
C 17. The most likely cells to be lysed when treated with anti-CD4
antibody and complement are
A. Cytotoxic t cells
B. Macrophages
C. Helper T cells
D. B cells

B 18. Cytotoxic T cells are best characterized by the following

cell-surface marker
A. CD4
B. CD8
C. CD3
D. CD2

A 19. The major function of interferon-gamma is to

A. Induce the activation of resident macrophages
B. Inhibit migration of macrophages from reaction sites
C. Promote and maintain the proliferation of T cells
D. Promote B and T cell growth

D 20. Cytotoxic T cells are involved in which of the following

action(s)
I. Antigen presentation
II. Tumor destruction
III. Cell lysis of virus infected cells
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
E 21. T-helper cells are important in augmentation of which of the
following
I. Antibody production
II. Mixed lymphocyte reaction
III. Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

C 22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for

Natural-Killer cells
I. Recognize and destroy certain tumor cells
II. Lyse virus-infected cells
III. Involve in delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

B 23. A male patient suffering from bacterial infection received a

penicillin injection and he almost immediately had respiratory
distress. This reaction is most likely to be mediated by
A. T cells
B. IgE
C. IgG and IgM
D. IgG and Complement
C 24. AIDS patients infected with TB are likely to react less
vigorously to tuberculin test because of the deficiency of
A. Platelets
B. CD8
C. CD4
D. B cells

C 25. An AIDS patient who received a tuberculin test 48 hours

after showed a weak erythematous skin reaction (6mm in
diameter) at the site of injection. What is the proper
interpretation for the observation? The patient,
A. Has never been exposed to TB bacilli
B. Has active TB
C. Has been exposed to TB bacilli
D. Is infected with multidrug-resistant TB bacilli

D 26. The ability of the T cells to discriminate between self and

non-self is learned in the
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Lymph nodes
D. Thymus

B 27. Which of the following will grow in the presence of optochin

I. Streptococcus pyogenes
II. Streptococcus viridans
III. Streptococcus pneumonia
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only
C 28. Which statement is true for passive immunization
I. Provides long lasting protection
II. Provides protection without hypersensitivity
III. Provides immediate protection
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. II and III only

D 29. A vaccine antigen that primarily induces opsonizing

antibody is
A. Hepatitis B virus vaccine
B. MMR vaccine
C. Rabies vaccine
D. H. influenza Type B vaccine

A 30. Streptococci are incubated i

n a blood agar plate overnight. Which of the following
reactions show beta-hemolytic streptocci?
A. Completely lyse the RBC
B. Partially lyse the RBC
C. Unable to hemolyse the RBC
D. Leave a greenish discoloration

D 31. The following contribute(s) to the development of a

compromised state of the host defense
I. Radiation therapy
II. Exposure to toxoid
III. Malnutrition
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and IIII only
E. I, II and III only
E 32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
I. Toxoides are used as immunogen
II. Exotoxins are highly toxic at very low doses
III. Some G(-) bacteria exotoxins
IV. Some G(+) bacteria produce endotoxins
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I and IV only
E. I, II and III only

A 33. Which of the following is not a correct statement

concerning neutrophils
A. They can be differentiated into B cells on activation
B. They constitute the first line of nonspecific host defense
mechanism
C. Principal phagocytic cells together with monocytes and
macrophages
D. They cannot present antigens

C 34. Diagnostic lab techniques most frequently employed for the

visual microscopic detection of antigens in tissue sections, in
cells suspensions, or on cell monolayers include
A. Agglutination
B. Radioimmunoassay
C. Immunofluorescence
D. Precipitation
C 35. This is/are forces or bonds involved in the interaction
between an antigen and an antibody
I. Covalent bonds
II. Van der waals
III. H-bonds
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

C 36. A man with blood group phenotype AB

A. May donate blood to individuals with blood type O
B. Has anti-A and anti-B in his serum
C. Has A and B antigen in his RBC
D. May be given blood type AB, A, or B but not Type O

D 37. Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) is caused by

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus viridans

38. Immunologic suppression for

transplantation may be induced by
I. Lymphoid radiation
II. Cyclosporine
III. Steroids
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
39. The maturation of T-cells in the thymus is
accompanied by changes in the
I. Cell surface markers
II. Cell size
III. Surface immunoglobulin class
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III

40. Which of the following organisms are

correctly paired with their microbial
organelles or components known to enhance
their virulence or invasiveness?
I. M protein of Strep. pyogenes
II. Pili of N. gonorrhoeae
III. Mesosome of Staph. aureus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. I and III
E. I, II and III

B 41. Toxic activities of endotoxin reside in the

I. Muramic acid component of peptidoglycan
II. Lipid A moiety of lipopolysaccharide
III. Capsular polysaccharide
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
C 42. A vaccine produced from an extracellular toxic bacterial
product that is made nontoxic, but maintains antigenicity, is
known as
A. Live attenuated organism
B. Antitoxin
C. Toxoid
D. Killed organism

E 43. Which statement(s) describes a monocyte

I. They can become macrophages
II. They only populate the lymph nodes
III. They are actively phagocytic
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III

B 44. Which of the following statements best describes an

antigen
I. Is always an immunogen
II. Has one or more epitopes
III. Molecular weight may be less than 10,000 are potently
immunogenic
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
A 45. A small molecule that can react with preformed antibodies
but cannot, by itself, induce their formation is referred to as
A. Hapten
B. Epitope
C. Complete antigen
D. Cofactor

C 46. Opsonin-treated bacteria are more readily engulfed by

phagocytes than are untreated bacteria because
I. The capsule is removed by opsonin
II. Opsonin digests wall component
III. The surgace of phagocytes contains receptors for opsonins
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III

A 47. The first line of defense against viruses is

A. Interferon
B. IgM directed to internal viral antigens
C. IgG directed to external viral antigens
D. All of the above

B 48. Type I hypersensitivity

A. Is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity
B. Involves IgE response to an allergen
C. Is independent of inflammatory mediators
D. Involved degranulation of eosinophils

A 49. Which of the following diseases is caused by an exotoxin

release of Staphylococcus aureus
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Meningitis
D. Pneumonia
D 50. The maximal reaction time for tuberculin reaction is
A. 2-5 hours
B. 6-10 hours
C. 12-20 hours
D. 48-72 hours

A 51. Memory cells

A. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D. Basophils

B 52. First white blood cells to be involved in acute inflammation

by pyogenic cocci
A. Macrophages
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Basophils
D. Lymphocytes

A 53. Antigen presenter

A. Dendritic macrophages
B. NK cells
C. Eosinophils
D. Pre-B cells

C 54. Helminth infections will cause an increase in

A. NK cells
B. Dendritic macrophages
C. Eosinophils
D. Pre-B cells
C 55. Vaccine for Rubeola
A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microorganisms
D. Killed attenuated microorganisms

D 56. Vaccine for Whooping cough

A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microoganisms
D. Killed attenuated microogranisms

A 57. Vaccine for Tetanus

A. Toxoid
B. Toxin
C. Living attenuated microorganisms
D. Killed attenuated microorganisms

B 58. Autoimmune haemolytic anemia and Goodpasteur's

syndrome
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic antibody
C. Immune-complex disease
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA

A 59. Asthma
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic antibody
C. Immune-complex disease
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA
D 60. Contact dermatitis
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic antibody
C. Immune-complex disease
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA

E 61. Tetanus, botulism and diphteria

A. Immediate hypersensitivity
B. Cytotoxic antibody
C. Immune-complex disease
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. NOTA

D 62. A burn patient developed a wound infection, and a

bacteriologic culture of the site indicated a gram-negative rod
that was oxidase-positive and produced a blue-green pigment.
The organism was relatively resistant to antibiotics but
susceptible to ticarcillin, gentamicin and tobramycin. This
organism is likely
A. E. coli
B. K. pneumonia
C. S. marcescens
D. P. aeruginosa

A 63. A spinal fluid specimen from a 28 year old man shows N.

meningitides. The DOC is
A. Pen G
B. Amikacin
C. Kanamycin
D. Ethambutol
C 64. Pending the results of cultures, meningitis in children 8-10
months of age should be treated with
A. Ampicillin
B. Pen G
C. Cefortaxime
D. Tetracycline

C 65. Tetracycline may be the DOC for all EXCEPT

A. LGV
B. Inclusion conjunctivitis
C. Hospital-acquired PNX due to Klebsiella
D. Psittacosis

C 66. Penicillin is the DOC for the following infections caused by

EXCEPT
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Bacteriodes fragilis
D. Clostridium perfringens

E 67. Which of the following is true of staphylococcus epidermidis

I. Catalase-positive
II. Coagulase-positive
III. Facultative
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
C 68. An adult patient with a history of severe penicillin allergy
has a sore throat and low-grade fever. Results of a throat
culture show a large number of beta-hemolytic streptococcal
colonies. Of the following, which best suits the patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Cephalothin
C. Tetracycline
D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
E. Erythromycin

B 69. All of the following are modified penicillins resistant to

destruction by staphylococcal beta-lactamase except
A. Naficillin
B. Ampicillin
C. Oxacillin
D. Cloxacillin
E. Methicillin

B 70. Treatment of herpetic conjunctivitis

A. Streptomycin
B. Iododeoxyuridine
C. Rifampin
D. Nalidixic acid

A 71. Effective given orally in Microsporum-induced disease of

hair
A. Metronidazole
B. Griseofulvin
C. Nystatin
D. Polymyxin

D 72. Streptomycin is known for

A. Erythema nodosum leprosum
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Discoloration of the teeth
D. Vestibular damage
A 73. Dapsone is given for
A. Erythema nodosum leprosum
B. Bone marrow depression
C. Discoloration of the teeth
D. Vestibular damage

B 74. Polypeptide antibiotic inhibiting pseudomonas

A. Amphotericin B
B. Colistin
C. Carbenicillin
D. Methicillin

C 75. Inhibits the mucopeptide synthesis by affecting alanine

racemase
A. Amphotericin B
B. Colistin
C. Cycloserine
D. Methicillin

B 76. A healthy medical student clearing in Lyme, Connecticut,

was bitten by ticks. One week later complains of fever, stiff
neck, stiff joints and arrhythmias. An expanding skin lesion
known as erythema chronicum migrans was found on her leg
with sharply formed borders. DOC for this condition is
A. Metronidazole
B. Pen V
C. Flucytosine
D. Chloramphenicol
A 77. A 22 year-old nurse who had been in excellent health
complained of fatigue and diarrhea. Then he developed
pneumonia that was caused by Pneumocystis carinii. Blood tests
repeated showed depletion of CD4 T-lymphocutes. The patient
must be managed with
A. 3'-azidothymidine
B. Chloroquine
C. Acyclovir
D. Enviroxime

D 78. Which of the following is an example of an aerobic

organisms?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Histoplasma capsulatum
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus

C 79. The toxin of E. coli that is very similar to the shiga toxin of
Shigella dysenteriae is
A. Heat-labile enterotoxin
B. Heat-stable enterotoxin
C. Verotoxin
D. Exfoliative toxin

D 80. The most recently discovered sexually transmitted disease is

A. Trichomoniasis
B. Condyloma acuminate (warts)
C. Hepatitis
D. AIDS

C 81. Congenital syphilis can be best detected by the use of

A. Dark-field examination
B. Silver nitrate staining of the spirochetes
C. The Wassermann Complement fixation test
D. IgM-FTA-ABS test
A 82. Humans acquire Salmonella typhimurium by
A. Ingestion of contaminated food and water
B. Tick bites
C. Mosquito bites
D. Aerosols

B 83. The main virulence factor of Yersinia pestis is/are the

A. Endotoxin
B. V and W antigens
C. Erythrogenic toxins
D. Lecithinase

B 84. Mycoplasma are pleomorphic gram-negative bacteria that

A. Are sensitive to penicillin
B. Lack cell walls in all stages of growth
C. Cannot divide by binary fission
D. Do not produce "fried egg" colonies

A 85. The spirochete that is tightly coiled, thin, and has a hook at
its end is
A. Leptospira
B. Borrelia
C. Treponema
D. Vibrio

C 86. The body louse is the bector for

A. Leptospirosis
B. Pinta
C. Epidemic relapsing fever
D. Meningitis
D 87. Chlamydia trachomatis infection may result to
A. Brill's disease
B. Ornithosis
C. Undulant fever
D. Lymphogranuloma venerum

B 88. In the laboratory diagnosis of the enteric pathogens

Salmonella and Shigella, the screening procedure includes
testing their inability to
A. Ferment glucose
B. Ferment lactose
C. Reduce nitrates
D. Produce oxidase

A 89. Characterized with marked hypotension, and scarlatiniform

rash followed by desquamation
A. Toxic shock syndrome
B. Botulism
C. Cholera
D. Tetanus

A 90. Causative agent of undulant fever

A. Brucella
B. Listeria
C. Legionella
D. Chlamydia

A 91. A nonmotile, oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus,

usually in pairs, that is a facultative anaerobe with urethral
epithelium in the male
A. Gonococcus
B. Meningococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Staphylococcus
B 92. All of the following are transmitted to man by ingestion of
undercooked meat. Which of the following is vector
transmitted?
A. Trichinella
B. Leishmania
C. Clonorchis
D. Diphyllobothrium

D 93. A major cause of blindness in tropical Africa is

A. Ancylostoma duodenale
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Onchocerca volvulus

D 94. A cestode that competes with its host for dietary Vit. B12
A. Hymenolepsis nana
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Diphyllobothrium latum

C 95. Vector of Trypanosoma cruzi

A. Sand Fly (Phlebotomus)
B. Tsetse Fly (Glossina)
C. Reduviid (Kissing Bug)
D. Black Fly (Simulium)

C 96. The event that correlates with the presence of fever

paroxysm in Plasmodium vivax malaria is
A. Invasion of hepatocytes by sporozoites
B. Invasion of new RBC by merozoites
C. Schizont rupture
D. Gametocytes
C 97. Natural resistance to malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax
has been demonstrated in populations who are
A. Duffy blood group antigen-positive
B. G6PD deficient
C. Duffy blood group antigen-negative
D. All of the above

D 98. Flagellated protozoa that cause gastroenteritis in humans

include
A. Entamoeba histolytca
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Balantidium coli
D. Giardia lamblia

B 99. Generally infects human eating raw beef

A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Trichinella spiralis
D. Necator americanus

A 100. This adult parasites are usually in the parenchyma of the

human lungs
A. Paragonimus westermanii
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Taenia solium

C 101. A 5 year old girl spent a year attending schoolon West

Africa. She returnes to the US because of poor sleeping and
intense itching in her anal area. Anal swab samples of the
patient would most likely contain the larvae of which organism?
A. Wuchereria bancorft
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Schistosoma japponicum
A 102. The Filovidae are a newly recognized family of negative-
sense, single-stranded RNA viruses. Which of the following
viruses belongs to this family and causes hemorrhagic fever?
A. Marburg virus
B. Yellow fever virus
C. Dengue virus
D. Parvovirus

B 103. Corona virus are recognized by club-shaped surface

projections that are 20 nm long and resemble solar coronas.
These viruses are characterized by their ability to
A. Infect infants more frequently than adults
B. Cause common colds
C. Grow well in the usual cultures cell line
D. Agglutinate human red blood cells

D 104. Mumps virus is biologically relates to the virus causing

which of the following disease?
A. Rabies
B. Variola
C. Vaccine
D. Measles

B 105. Which of the following antiviral agent is purine nucleoside

analogue that has shown promise with lassa fever, influenza A
and B and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?
A. Amantadine
B. Ribavirin
C. Acyclovir
D. Gancyclovir
D 106. ECHOviruses are cytopahogenic human viruses that mainly
infects the
A. Respiratory tract
B. Central Nervous System
C. Blood and lymphatic system
D. Intestinal tract

B 107. A 5 year old child presents with symptoms of low-grade

fever, coryza, conjunctivitis and Koplik's spots. The causative
agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses?
A. Adenovirus
B. Paramyxovirus
C. Piconavirus
D. Herpesvirus

A 108. Human rotavirus is best described by which of the

following statements
A. It is often associated with infantile diarrhea
B. It I an example of viral STD
C. It is associated with conjunctivitis
D. All of the above

C 109. Varicella is a member of which of the following viral families

A. Pox virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Herpes virus
D. Paramyxovirus

C 110. German measles virus is a member of which viral family

A. Herpes
B. Pox virus
C. Togavirus
D. Orthomyxovirus
D 111. A patient has all the gastrointestinal symptoms of infection
with Hepatitis A virus (HAV), yet all tests for HAV-IgG and HAV-
IgM are non-reactive A possible cause of this infection id
A. Hepa B surface antigen
B. Hepa C surface antigen
C. Hepa D surface antigen
D. Hepa E surface antigen

C 112. The human papilloma virus is the causative agent of

A. Measles
B. Chancre
C. Warts
D. Herpes

D 113. RNA directed DNA polymerase is exclusively found only

amiong
A. Paramyxovirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Togavirus
D. Retrovirus

C 114. Quinolones are bactericidal agents which act by

A. Inhibition of beta-lactamase
B. Inhibition of revered transcriptase
C. Inhibition of chromosome supercoiling
D. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

B 115. A patient presents with an abscess. The pus was examined

containing yellow granules. The sample was tested negative to
acid-fast bacilli. The patient most likely has
A. Nocardiosis
B. Actinomycosis
C. Streptococcal infection
D. Staphylococcal infection
A 116. The species of shigella responsible for the most severe form
of shigellosis
A. S. dysenteriae
B. S. sonnei
C. S. boydii
D. S. flexneri

C 117. Quelling test is used to test for the presence of

A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphlococcoss aureus
C. Streptococos pneumoniae
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia

A 118. A goat farmer presents with a fever of unknown origin,

which of the following organism is responsible for this?
A. B. melitensis
B. B. abortus
C. B. suis
D. Bacillus cereus

B 119. Majority of coagulase-negative staphylococcal infection

cases involving prosthetic heart valve endocarditis are caused
by
A. Staph aureus
B. Staph spidermidis
C. Staph saprophyticus
D. Staph hemolyticus

C 120. Botulism is brought by

A. Invasion of the gut epithelium by the organism
B. Secretion of an enterotoxin
C. Ingestion of neurotoxin
D. Activation of cyclic AMP
B 121. A 28 year-old menstruating woman appeared in the
emergency room with the following signs and symptoms; fever,
hypotension, a Scarletiniform rash on her trunk, palms, and
soles, extreme fatigue and diarrhea. The patient above most
likely has
A. Sacalded skin syndrome
B. Toxic shock syndrome
C. Scarletina
D. Chickenpox

B 122. A campylobacter-like bacteria that is commonly associated

with gastric ulcers
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Helicobacter fenneliae

A 123. This is the most common form of botulism

A. Infant botulism
B. Foodborne botulism
C. Wound botulism
D. Endemic botulism

C 124. Which of the following may be used as preventive method

in the prevention of botulinum spore germination in food?
A. Maintaining food in basic pH
B. Storing food at cool temp(8-15 C)
C. Preheat food at 80C for 30 mins
D. Administration of polyvalent antitoxin
B 125. An anaerobic infection with B. fragilis is characterized by
I. Black discoloration of food containing exudates
II. Susceptibility to penicillins
III. Foul-smelling discharge
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II, II and III

A 126. A person with boil prepared a snack with mayonnaise for

their school field trip. Three of his friends whom he shared his
food became violently ill 2 h after eating the food. What is the
most likely cause?
I. Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin
II. Staphylococcus aureus coagulase
III. Staphylococcus aureus leukocidin
A. I only
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II, and III

B 127. Treatment of staph. aureus infection with penicillin is often

complicated by
I. Inability of penicillin to penetrate the membrane of stap.
Aureus
II. Production of beta-lactamase by Staph. aureus
III. Lack of penicillin binding sites in Staph. aureus
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III
C 128. In staphylococci, antibiotic resistance genes can exist on
plasmids or chromosomes. The genes are carried by
I. Prophage
II. Free DNA
III. Transposons
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III

A 129. Which of the following statements will differentiate

Mycoplasmas from Chlamydiae
I. Ability to grow in artificial media
II. Ability to cause urinary tract infections
III. Susceptibility to penicillins
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III

B 130. Brill-Zinsser disease is caused by

A. Rickettsia rickettsia
B. R. prowazekii
C. R. typi
D. R. tsutsugamushi

A 131. a poultry farmer has symptoms of chills, fever and

headache. Two weeks ago he lost a large number of his
livestock to an undiagnosed disease. What is the most likely
condition of the farmer.
A. Psittacosis
B. Q-fever
C. Anthrax
D. Ornithosis
B 132. An ill patient denied being bitten by insects. Which of the
following Rickettsial infection is most likely the cause of the
illness?
A. rickettsial pox
B. Q-fever
C. Scrub typhus
D. Rocky mountain spotted fever

D 133. A Mycoplasma which is a common cause of

nongonococcal urethritis
A. M. hominis
B. M. pneumonia
C. M. fermentans
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum

B 134. The distinctive characteristic of Mycoplasmas from other

bacteria is their lack of
I. Lipopolysaccharide
II. A cell wall
III. ATP synthesis
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III

C 135. Which organism will be most affected by a drug that will

inhibit ATP synthesis?
A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Ureaplasma urealyticum
C. R. rickettsia
D. N. gonorrhoeae
A 136. Which of the following will identify chlamydia trachomatis
from chlamydia psittaci?
I. C. trachomatis is sensitive to sulphonamides
II. C. trachomatis has a different lipopolysaccharide antigen
III. C. trachomatis can be stained
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III

A 137. This is/are clinical manifestations of C. trachomatis

I. Lymphogranuloma venereum
II. Perinatal conjunctivitis
III. Otitis-media in young children
A. I only
B. II inly
C. III only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III

D 138. Which of the following is the causative agent of Cat-scratch

disease
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Coxiella burnetii
C. Rickettsia ricketssii
D. Bartonella henselae
B 139. Which statement(s) explain why beef tapeworm is less
serious than pork tapeworm infection?
I. Acute intestinal stoppage is less common in beef tapeworm
infection
II. Larval invasion does is not occur in beef tapeworm infection
III. The adult beef tapeworm are smaller
A. I only
B. II inly
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I,II and III

D 140. Which parasitic roundworm hatches in the upper small

intestine and releases larves that penetrate the intestinal wall?
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Ascaris lumbricoides

A 141. This sexually transmitted protozoan is common among male

homosexuals.
A. Giardiasis
B. Amoebiasis
C. Leishmaniasis
D. Trypanosomiasis

C 142. A patient's stool examination was found to have a small

structures resembling rice grains( proglottids) which of the
following organisms is the most likely present in the patient's
stool?
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichuria
B 143. Humans are both the intermediate and definitive hosts of
which parasite?
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Trichuris trichuria

A 144. Acute infection of trypanosoma cruzi affects the skin

foaming ' chagoma'. Chronic stage of disease will form lesions
on which organs.
I. Heart and digestive tract
II. Spleen and pancreas
III. Liver and spleen
A. I
B. II
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III

B 145. A malarial organism producing ringlike and crescentlike

forms within red blood cells
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium ovale

C 146. A fungus formely classified as a parasitic Sporozoan

affecting patients with immune deficiency.
A. Microsporidium
B. Cryptosporidium
C. Pneumocystis
D. Blastomyces
D 147. Diphyllobotrium latum infection may lead to the deficiency
of which vitamin?
A. Vit A
B. Vit B9
C. Vit B1
D. VitB12

B 148. Most macroparasites are extracellular organisms. Which of

the following is an intracellular parasite?
A. Enterobius
B. Trichinella
C. Strongloides
D. Ascaris

D 149. Relationship of animals living together in which one species

lives in or on the body of another.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis

A 150. A type of relationship in which one species of organism

uses the body of a larger species as its physical environment
and makes use of that environment to acquire nutrients.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis

B 151. A relationship that manifests reciprocity of benefits between

the organisms involved
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
C 152. A type of relationship that involve one-sided beneficial
relationship which usually ending up in a harmful relationship for
one organism.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis

D 153. Which of thef following statement(s) is /are true regarding

viruses
I. Are cellular organisms, which require host to replicate
II. Contain genetic materials required for production of new
viruses
III. Requires the hosts metabolic machinery to transcribe and
translate genetic information
A. I
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III

A 154. This is an example of an anaerobic spore-forming bacilli.

A. Clostridium
B. Bacillus
C. Listeria
D. Mycobacteria

D 155. Which of the following virus family is characterized as a

single stranded DNA, non-enveloped virus
A. Herpesviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Parvoviridae
B 156. This is characterized as the most complex DNA virus
A. Herpesviridae
B. Poxviridae
C. Adenoviridae
D. Parvoviridae

E 157. This is/are examples of naked DNA viruses

I. papova
II Adeno
III. Parvo
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III

E 158. This is/are examples of enveloped DNA viruses

I. Herpes
[Link]
[Link]
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A 159. Most of the RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm. Which

of the following RNA viruses replicate in the nucleus
A. Retrovirus
B. Togavirus
C. Picorvirus
D. Paramyxovirus
C 160. Generally RNA viruses are single stranded viral organism.
Which of the following is the only double-stranded RNA virus
A. Rhinovirus
B. Coronavirus
C. Reovirus
D. Orthomyxovirus

C 161. One important generalization for RNA viruses is that they

are usually enveloped. Among the RNA viruses there are three
which are naked. Which of the following is/are naked RNA
viruses?
I. Picornavirus
II. Reovirus
III. Retrovirus
A. I
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I,II and III

B 162. This is a condition where there are small changes in the

antigenic structure of an organism which mat later result to an
epidemic
A. Antigenic shift
B. Antigenic drift
C. Tolerance
D. Immunity

A 163. This refers to the complete change in the antigenic

structure of an organism leading to the synthesis of new
antigenic substances that have never been exposed to the
human immune system . This may result to a pandemic
A. Antigenic shift
B. Antigenic drift
C. Tolerance
D. Immunity
A [Link] of the influenza viruses is isolated in both man and
animals
A. Influenza A
B. Influenza B
C. Influenza C
D. Influenza D

C 165. this condition that results when children with influenza or

varicella are given Aspirin
A. Herxheimer reaction
B. Salicylism
C. Reye syndrome
D. Asthma

B 166. Amantadine used for influenza A infection has been shown

to be effective preventing which step in the viral replication
process?
A. Penetration
B. Uncoating
C. Assembly
D. Release

D 167. this is/are examples of viruses classified under

PAramyxoviridae family
I. influenza virus
II. Respiratory syncitial Virus
[Link] virus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
B 168. A viral organism well known to involve infection of the
parotid gland and testes in males.
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Herpes virus
D. Respiratory syncyitial virus

C 169. Koplik's spots seen among patients with measles are usually
localized in the
A. Upper Extremities
B. Lower Extremities
C. Mouth
D. Scalp

D 170. This/these statement/s is/are regarding patients with

measles during pregnancy
I. may result to birth defects
II. is associated with spontaneous abortions
III. may also result to premature labor
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

C 171. Which of the following is/are transmitted via fecal oral

route?
I. Hepa A
II. Hepa B
[Link] C
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
C 172. Which of the following Hepavirus is/are example of RNA
virus
I. Hepa A
II. Hepa B
[Link] C
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

B 173. Chickenpox is a common disease of children. It is caused

by
A. Pox viridae
B. Varicella
C. Zoster
D. CMV

A 174. Virus which is associated with Burkitt's lymphoma

A. EMV
B. CMV
C. Varicella-Zoster
D. HSV-1

D 175. The first intestinal microorganism to be observed under a

microscope is
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Cryptosporidium parvum
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Giardia lamblia
B 176. Which of the following species can be found in the small
intestine
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lmablia
C. Trichuris trichuria
D. Enterobius vermicularis

C 177. This organism is one of the important cause of severe

darrhea in immunocompromised individuals such as patients
with AIDS
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Giardia lamblia
C. Isospora belli
D. Strongyloides stercolis

Walang 178.

C 179. The most common and deadliest plasmodia

A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae

B 180. The organism is the causative agent of erythema

infectionism in children
A. Adenovirus
B. Parvovirus
C. Polymavirus
D. Cytomegalovirus
C 181. Which of the following belong/s to the group of the
ARBOvirus?
I. Bunyaviridae
II. Falviviridae
Coronaviridae
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

B 182. The presence of this in the serum patients indicates

immunity to Hepatitis B virus.
A. HBsAg
B. Anti HBsAg
C. Anti HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg

C 183. The presence of theis antigen indicates high infectivity and

active disease of Hepa B virus
A. HBsAg
B. HBeAg
C. HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg

C [Link] presence of this in the serum of the patient with

hepatitis will ascertain that the patient have an old Hepatitis B
infection
A. Anti HBsAg
B. IgM-Anti HBcAg
C. IgG-Anti HBcAg
D. Anti HBeAg
D 185. This is a parentallu transmitted(Blood-borne) hepatitis
which can only replicate and cause infection with help of
Hepatitis B virus
A. HEV
B. HAV
C. HCV
D. HDV

C 186. This/ These statement/s is/are true for HSV-1

I. Causes gingivostomatitis
II. Causes herpetic keratitis
III. An STD
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

B 187. This is/are example of organisms that can cross the

placenta
I. Rubeola
II. Cytomegalovirus
III. Leprosy
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and

C 188. This is the ARBOvirus family from which the dengue fever
and yellow fever virus are classified
A. Bunyaviridae
B. Togaviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Caliciviridae
A 189. Which of the following viral organicm is characteristically
associated with Peyer's patchesof the intestines
A. Poliovirus
B. Rubella
C. Coronavirus
D. Adenovirus

E 190. This/These statement/s is/are true concerning the polio

vaccine
I. Salk vaccine is made of killed-polio viruses
II. Sabin vaccine is made of attenuated polio virus
III. The vaccine can pick up virulence and cause paralysis
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

C 191. This/ These is/are the common viral organism/s

I. Rhinovirus
II. Coronavirus
III. Flavivirus
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

B 192. Which viral organism has a characteristic bullet-shaped,

enveloped, helical nucleocapsid?
A. Poliovirus
B. Rabies virus
C. Coronavirus
D. Adenovirus
C 193. This is/are statement(s) pertaining to the rabies virus
I. Brain cells of infected animals and humans contain virions in
the cytoplasm called Negri bodies
II. Bitten individual should receive human rabies immune
globulin(passive immunization)
III. Killed rabies virus vaccine (active immunization) is given only
as prophylaxis for rabies.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A 194. This is also known as the "break bone fever"

A. Dengue fever
B. Yellow fever
C. Hay fever
D. Relapsing fever

D 195. Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms. They may

be classified according to their organ for locomotion. Which of
the following protozoan has no definite organ for motility
A. Sarcodina
B. Mastigophora
C. Ciliaphora
D. Sporozoa

C 196. Member(s) of the phylum Apicomplexa with motile zygote

I. Cryptosporidium
II. Plasmodium
III. Toxoplasma
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
D 197. This intestinal protozoan/s cause/s severe diarrhea in
individuals with defective immune system such as patients with
AIDS
I. Giardia
II. Isospora
III. Crystosporidium
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A 198. This is the ingested infective form of protozoan parasites in

humans
A. Cysts
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Cytostome

D 199. This is/are examples of free-living pathogenic amoebae in

man
I. Entamoeba
II. Naegleria
III. Acanthamoeba
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
C 200. A protozoan which has high incidence of infection among
campers and backpackers after drinking from "clear" mountain
streams.
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma

A 201. This is an experimental drug given for AIDS patients

suffering from Cryptosporidiosis
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B

B 202. This is the drug of choice in AIDS patients suffering from

Isospora belli infection\
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B

C 203. This is the causative agent of the so called"Leningrad's

curse"
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma

D 204. A protozoan organism usually opportunistic among

patients with AIDS. It is naturally harboured by cats
A. Entamoeba
B. Trychomonas
C. Giardia
D. Toxoplasma
C 205. This is the most common opportunistic infection among
AIDS patients
A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Isosporosis
C. Pneumonia
D. Toxoplasmosis

B 206. This drug is given both as a prophylactic and symptomatic

treatment of PCP in AIDS patients.
A. Spiramycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Albendazole
D. Amphotericin B

C 207. This is the malarial species that causes the called "Quartan
malaria"
A. [Link]
B. [Link]
C. [Link]
D. [Link]

B 208. This is/are true statements regarding malaria

I. Schizogeny or the asexual cycle of malaria occurs in mosquito
II. Sporogeny or the sexual cycle of malaria occurs in man
III. Mosquitoes are the definitive hosts for malaria
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
D 209. This is the malarial species that has a characteristic crescent
or banana shaped gametocytes
A. [Link]
B. [Link]
C. [Link]
D. [Link]

B 210. The release of this from of the malarial parasite triggers the
fever, chills and sweats of malaria
A. Sporozoites
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Gametocytes

D 211. This is/are the species of malaria which are capable of

forming dormant in the liver called the hypnozoites
I. P. vivax
II. [Link]
III. [Link]
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

D 212. This is a form of the malarial parasite that is taken up ny the

mosquito as it bites on human
A. Sporozoites
B. Merozoites
C. Trophozoites
D. Gametocytes
A 213. Which of the following drugs is given for the exo-
erythrocytic form of malaria?
A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Doxycycline

E 214. This is/are agents given for Chloroquine-resistant P.

falxiparum
I. Quinine
II. Fansidar
III. Mefloquine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A 215. This is the drug coined used as the "radical cure" of malaria
A. Primaquine
B. Chloroquine
C. Mefloquine
D. Doxycycline

C 216. This is the only form of the blood-borne flagellates which is

non-flagellated
A. Promastigote
B. Epimastigote
C. Amastigote
D. Trypomastigote
B 217. This is the organism which causes kala-azar or Viscerla
Leishmaniasis
A. [Link]
B. [Link]
C. [Link]
D. [Link]

A 218. This is the causative agent of Espundia or Mucocutaneous

leishmaniasis
A. [Link]
B. [Link]
C. [Link]
D. [Link]

B 219. This is thedrug of choice for all forms of leishmaniasis

A. Primaquine
B. Stibogluconate
C. Pentamidine
D. Suramin

B 220. This is the causative agent of the West African sleeping

disease
A. Trypanosome brucei rhodesiense
B. [Link] gambiense
C. [Link]
D. [Link]

D 221. this is the drug given for the treatment of African sleeping
disease
A. Nifrutimox
B. Stibogluconate
C. Sulfadiazine
D. Suramin
A 222. There is currently no approved drug for the treatment of
American sleeping disease, although there are two drugs
currently used for acute cases only. Which of the following
drugs is used for acute cases of American sleeping disease?
A. Nifrutimox
B. Stibogluconate
C. Sulfadiazine
D. Suramin

A 223. This is/ are examples of nematode that can cause infection
by penetrating intact skin
I. Necator americanus
II. Trichuris trichura
III. Enterobius vermacularis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

C 224. This is/ are examples of nematodes which is/are acquired

thru the ingestion of eggs
I. Ascaris lumbricoides
II. Trichuris trichura
III. Strongyloides stercoralis
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
D 225. This nematode is acquired through the ingestion of
encysted larvae present in pork meat.
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichura
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichinella spiralis

C 226. This is the drug of choice for patients having Ascariasis

A. Pyrantel pamoate
B. Invermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel

B 227. This is the drug of choice for patients having filriasis

A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel

A 228. Drug of choice for patients suffering from strongyloides

sterecularis infection
A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel

D 229. This is the drug of choice for flukes

A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivemectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel
B 230. The infection from this nematode will cause a rise in the
levels of serum muscle enzymes such as creatinine
phosphokinase
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichuris trichura

D 231. A helminth infection usually is accompanied by increase in

the serum levels of eosinophils. This may be result of the tissue
invasion of the helminth. Which of the following organisms
listed has no tissue invasion, hence, will not manifest with
elevated level of serum eosinophils.
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Trichuris trichura

C 232. This is a diagnostic test for the presence of Enterobius

vermicularis
A. Kato thick method
B. Kato-katz method
C. Scotch tape swab method
D. Brine flotation technique

E 233. This is/are example(s) of nematode which is/are transmitted

usually by an arthropod vector.
I. Onchocerca volvulus
II. Wuchereria bancrofti
III. Brugia malayi
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
C 234. This organism is usually acquired by fishermen eating raw
small brackfish water fish called "bagsit"
( Hypseleotris bipartite )
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Capillaria philippinensis
D. Trichuris trichura

A 235. This drug is given as the drug of choice for the bancroftian
filariasis
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Praziquantel

B 236. This is an example of trematode which inhibit/s the portal

blood stream of vertebrates
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Schistosoma japonicum
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Clonorchis sinensis

C 237. This is/are example/s of flukes which inhibit/s the liver if

vertebrates
I. Fasciola hepatica
II. Clonorchis sinensis
III. Paragonimus westermani
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
A 238. This is/are example/s of tapeworms which require/s a
vertebrate as intermediate host
I. Taenia solium
II. Hymenolepsis nana
III. Dipylidium caninum
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

D 239. Which of the following tepeworms will require an

invertebrate as intermediate host?
I. Taenia solium
II. Hymenolepsis nana
III. Dipylidium caninum
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

B 240. This is the organism which cause the Chinese liver fluke
infection
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Schistosoma japonicum

C 241. This is also known as the Giant intestinal fluke

A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Schistosoma japonicum
B 242. this is/are true statement/s regarding Schistosoma
I. They are the number one worldwide water-borne protozoal
infection
II. They multiply in humans
III. Eggs must reach freshwater to hatch
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

A 243. There are different species of Schistosoma and common in

them is they lay eggs in the feces. Which of the following
Schistosoma deposits eggs in the urine?
A. Schistosoma heamatobium
B. Schistosoma Israeli
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Schistosoma japonicum

D 244. Aside from Praziquantel, this drug is also given for

tapeworms
A. Diethylcarbamazine
B. Ivermectin
C. Mebendazole
D. Niclosamide

C 245. this is the smallest tapeworm that infects humans

A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus
D 246. This is the organism causing the so called River blindness
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Capillaria philippinensis
D. Onchocerca volvulus

D 247. This is the organism causing "Hydratid disease"

A. Taenia solium
B. Taenia saginata
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Echinococcus granulosus

C 248. This is/are example/s of antihelminthic drugs which

produce/s their effects by inducing paralysis of the worm
I. Praziquantel
II. Mebendazole
III. Diethylcarbamazine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

E 249. This is/ are example/s of filarial nematodes

I. Wuchereria bancrofti
II. Brugia malayi
III. Loa loa
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
A 250. Endotoxins are usually found in garam-neagative organism.
Which of the is the only gram-positive organism which
produces an endotoxin
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Clostridium sp
D. Nocardia

C 251. This is the average time required for the population , or the
biomass of an organism to double
A. Lag time
B. Growth rate constant
C. Generation time
D. Priming time

A 252. This is the portion in the bacterial growth curve

representing the period at which the newly inoculated cells are
adapting to their new environment. Enzymes and intermediates
are formed and accumulated until they are present inn
concentrations that permit growth to resume.
A. Lag time
B. Exponential phase
C. Maximum stationary phase
D. Death phase

C 253. This phase in the bacterial growth curve represents the

time where exhaustion of nutrients or the accumulation of toxic
products causes growth to cease completely. There is slow loss
of cells through death, which is just balanced by the formation
of new cells through growth and division. This is a period where
the total count slowly increases although the variable count
stays constant.
A. Lag time
B. Exponential phase
C. Maximum stationary phase
D. Death phase
E 254. This is/are example/s of drugs that cause/s the destruction
of bacterial DNA
I. Ionizing radiation
II. Alkylating agents
III. UV light
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

B 255. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of

Amphotecin B as an antifungal agent/
A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Alteration of cell membrane function
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis
D. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis

C 256. This is/are possible ways in which bacteria may gain

resistance to antibacterial agents
I. Alteration of the target site
II. Synthesis of enzymes that modify or destroy the antibacterial
agent
III. Presence of capsule inn a bacteria
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
D 257. This is/are example/s of drugs that inhibit/s the cell wall
synthesis
I. Penicillins
II. Cyclosporine
III. Teicoplanin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III

E 258. This/ These statement/s is/are true about the glycopeptide

antibiotics
I. Given only parentally as it is not absorbed from the GIT
II. Given only for gram-positive organism
III. Potentially ototoxic and nephrotoxic
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III

A 259. This is/are aminoglycoside antibiotics derived from

Streptomyces species
I. Streptomycin
II. Gentamicin
III. Azithromycin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III
D 260. Tetracyclines are indicated for the treatment of bacterial
infection from which organism/s
I. Staphylococcus
II. Mycoplasma
III. Chlamydia
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

C 261. This antibacterial agent claimed its glory by being the first
broad spectrum antibiotic introduced. It contains a
nitrobenzene nucleus, which is responsible for some of its toxic
side effects. It blocks the action of peptidyl transferase, thereby
preventing peptide bond synthesis. Currently its main indication
is for infections of Salmonella typi
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Vancomycin

A 262. This is the most common drug used as alternative for

patients allergic to penicillins
A. Erythromycin
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Vancomycin
B 263. This is a steroid-like compound that inhibit protein
synthesis by forming a atable complex with elongation factor
EF-G , guanosine diphosphate and the ribosome. It is given for
gram-positive cocci but not used alone due to the
development of rapid resistance to the drug.
A. Erythromycin
B. Fusidic acid
C. sulfonamides
D. lincomycin

A 264. sulphonamides are drugs acting as nucleic acid synthesis

inhibitors by competing this substrate
A. Aminoacyl
B. ATP
C. PABA
D. Peptidyl tRNA

E 265. This is/are example/s of drugs which are structural

analogues of the aminohyroxypyrimidine amoiety of folic acid
prevent/s its synthesis to THFS.
I. Trimethoprim
II. Pyrimethamine
III. Methotrexate
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III

C 266. These antibacterial agents prevent the supercoiling of the

bacterial chromosomes
A. Macrolides
B. Rifampicin
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Clindamycin
A 267. these drugs are contraindicated in children due to the
possible toxic effects on cartilage development
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin

B 268. This drug acts by inhibiting the synthesis of mRNA

A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin

B 269. This drug is currently given as the drug of choice for the
prophylaxis of close contacts of meningococcal and
Haemophilus meningitis
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Clindamycin

C 270. This drug is important in the management of parasites and

anaerobic bacteria
A. Rifabutin
B. Rifampicin
C. Metronidazole
D. Nitrofrantoin
D 271. This is/are true statements about Colistin
I. It is a polymyxin antibiotic acting on the cell membrane
II. It is systemically given for systemic infections
III. It is used topically for wound irrigation and bladder washout
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III

B 272. Methenamine is used as urinary tract antiseptic/s.

Methenamine is hydrolysed into which compound to provide its
antibacterial effect in the urinary tract?
A. Ethylene
B. Formaldehyde
C. Ammonia
D. Acetic acid

C 273. This is given together with isoniazid for patients with TB to

prevent its neurologic side effects
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyridoxine
D. Pyrazinamide

B 274. This is anti-TB drug that inhibits and does not kill
mycobacterium tuberculosis. It usually presents an important
toxic side effects such as optic neuritis
A. Rifampicin C. Pyridoxine
B. Ethambutol D. Pyrazinamide

C 275. This expensive drug is given for dapsone-resistant [Link]

A. Thalidomide
B. Para-aminosalicylic acid
C. Clofazime
D. Rifampicin
D 276. This is the most important agent used for severe systemic
mycoses, but is toxic
A. Ketoconazole
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin

B 277. This is an antifungal that acts by inhibiting lanosterol C14-

demethylase, an important enzyme in sterol synthesis
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
Flucytosine
C. Amphotericin

C 278. This is an important antifungal agent which inhibits DNA

synthesis and is active only on yeasts (candida and
Cryptococcus )
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin

A 279. An antifungal that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis and has

anti-mitotic activity by inhibiting microtubule assembly
A. Griseofulvin
B. Miconazole
C. Flucytosine
D. Amphotericin

D 280. This is an example of a topical agent, which is derived from

the combination of benzoic and salicylic acids.
A. Haloprogin
B. Tolnaftate
C. Naftifine
D. Whitfield's ointment
B 281. This antiviral agent specifically acts by inhibiting the
penetration and uncoating of viral organism
A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Ribavirin
D. Interferons

D 282. This is an antiviral agent which is effective in preventing vial

protein synthesis
A. Acyclovir
B. Amantadine
C. Ribavirin
D. Interferons

E 283. This is/are example of antiviral agent/s that act in the viral
DNA or RNA synthesis
I. Idoxuridine
II. Acyclovir
III. Zidovudine
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III

D 284. Vaccines are prepared from which of the following

I. Immunoglobulins
II. Killed organism
III. 'Subcellular fractions
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
E. I, II and III
C 285. This was the first vaccine in human used to be made by
recombinant DNA technology
A. Polio vaccine
B. Rabies vaccine
C. Hepa B
D. Measles vaccine

B 286. This is the only viral disease where post-exposure

vaccination is successful due to its long incubation period
A. Polio
B. Rabies
C. Hepa B
D. Measles

A 287. This is an agent used for the control of bacterial growth,

and is classified as an alkylating agent
A. Formaldehyde
B. Alcohols
C. Detergents
D. Heavy metals ions

D 288. This agent works by binding to sulfhydryl groups of

bacteria
A. Formaldehyde
B. Alcohols
C. Detergents
D. Heavy metals ions2

C 289. These organisms do not require organic nutrients for

growth.
A. Heterotrophs
B. Chemolithotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. Psychotrophs
B 290. These are organisms that use an inorganic substrate as
hydrogen or thiosulfate as reductant and carbon monoxide as
carbon source.
A. Heterotrophs
B. Chemolithotrophs
C. Autotrophs
D. Psychotrophs

C 291. These are organisms characterized to have flagella all over

the cell body
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous

B 292. These are organisms that possess no flagella

A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous

A 293. These are organisms that possess a tuft of flagella at one

end
A. Lopotrichous
B. Atrichous
C. Peritrichous
D. Amphitrichous
C 294. There are generally two types of stain ,a n Acidic and Basic
stain. Which is/are true statement/s about Basic stains
I. They are composed of colored cation with a colorless anion
II. They combine with negatively charged phosphate present in
bacterial cells
III. They are used in negative staining
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II and III

A 295. This is a specific stain used for staining nuclei

A. Feulgen stain
B. Carbofuchsin
C. Nigrosin

D 296. This is also known as the Welch method

A. Gram stain
B. Acid-fast stain
C. Spore stain
D. Capsule stain

A 297. A stain specifically used to stain spores

A. Malachite green
B. Carbolfuchsin
C. Nigrosin
D. Methylene blue

C 298. First proposed the theory of Biogenesis, which states that

life must arise from pre-existing life
A. Louis Pasteur
B. John Tyndall
C. Rudolf Virchow
D. Lazaro Spallanzani
B 299. Developed the method of producing immunity by using
antitoxin against diphtheria
A. Joseph Lister
B. Emil von Behring
C. Robert Koch
D. Paul Ehrlich

C 300. A German physician given credit for developing pure-

culture techniques
A. Joseph Lister
B. Emil von Behring
C. Robert Koch
D. Paul Ehrlich