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Finals !!

The document outlines the structure and content of the Social Science final exam for Grade VI, which includes sections on History, Geography, and Civics, totaling 80 marks. It specifies the types of questions, including MCQs, short answers, and case-based questions, along with instructions on answering formats and marking schemes. Additionally, it provides sample questions and topics for revision to aid students in their preparation.
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
3 views43 pages

Finals !!

The document outlines the structure and content of the Social Science final exam for Grade VI, which includes sections on History, Geography, and Civics, totaling 80 marks. It specifies the types of questions, including MCQs, short answers, and case-based questions, along with instructions on answering formats and marking schemes. Additionally, it provides sample questions and topics for revision to aid students in their preparation.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

FINAL EXAMS

Practice Worksheets
ALL SUBJECTS
1
SOCIAL SCIENCE
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE
GRADE: VI
MAX. MARKS: 80
TIME: 3 HOURS
General Instructions
1. All questions are compulsory. Candidates must read the question paper carefully before
attempting it.
2. The question paper consists of 38 questions carrying a total of 80 marks.
3. The question paper is divided into three sections:
Section A – History
Section B – Geography
Section C – Civics
4. Each section contains questions of different types such as Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs),
Very
Short Answer (VSA), Short Answer (SA), Long Answer (LA), and Case-Based Questions
(CBQ).
5. Very Short Answer (VSA) questions carry 2 marks each. Answers should not exceed 40 words.
6. Short Answer (SA) questions carry 3 marks each. Answers should not exceed 60 words.
7. Long Answer (LA) questions carry 5 marks each. Answers should not exceed 120 words.
8. Case-Based Questions (CBQ) consist of three sub-questions and carry 4 marks in total.
Answers to each sub-question should not exceed 100 words.
9. The map-based questions carry 5 marks and are divided into two parts:
Question 13 in Section A – History (2 marks)
Question 26 in Section B – Geography (3 marks)

2
10. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, internal choices have been
provided in afew questions. Candidates must attempt only one of the alternatives in such
questions.
SECTION-A (History)
Choose the most appropriate option in the questions given below.
[1X7=7]
1.
Which source provides direct physical evidence of the past?
(a) Folk tales
(b) Archaeological sources
(c) Legends
(d) Opinions
[1]
2.
Which ancient text mainly contains hymns in praise of gods?
(a) Upanishads
(b) Ramayana
(c) Rig Veda
(d) Arthashastra
[1]
3.
Find the odd one out in context of the sources of history:
(a)Inscriptions
(b)Monuments
(c) Coins
[1]
(d) Myths
4.

3
Which of the following is a biography? (a) Tripitakas (b) Harshacharita (c) Vedas (d) Manusmriti
[1]
5.
Identify the odd one out related to Buddhism: (a) Eightfold Path (b) Nirvana (c) Triratna (d)
Sacrifice
[1]
6.
Statement I: History helps us understand changes over time. Statement II: History is based only
on imagination. (a) Both statements are true (b) Both statements are false (c) Statement I is true,
Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
[1]
7.
Assertion (A): Manuscripts are valuable sources of history. Reason (R): They provide written
records from the past. (a) Both A and R are true and R explains A (b) Both A and R are true but R
does not explain A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true
[1]
8.
What do you understand by history? Mention any one importance of studying history.
[2]
9.
Explain the importance of a timeline in history. What do we mean by a century and a
millennium?
[3]
[1.5+1.5]
10.
Write three features of early Vedic society. OR
Mention any three teachings of Jainism.
[3]
11.

4
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
Ancient Centres of Learning
In ancient India, centres of learning such as Takshashila were famous for attracting students from
different parts of India and abroad. Education was not limited to one subject but included
medicine, mathematics, philosophy and logic, which helped students develop practical
knowledge and thinking skills. Learning focused on understanding concepts rather than
memorising facts. Teachers, known as Gurus, were highly respected and played an important role
in shaping students’ character. Students lived with their Gurus and followed a simple and
disciplined life. Education aimed at both intellectual and moral development. Great importance
was given to values such as obedience, honesty and self-control. Discussion and debate were
common methods of
[4]
SAMPLE PAPER/3
teaching. This system helped students become responsible and knowledgeable citizens.
(a) Why were subjects like medicine and philosophy important in ancient education? (b) How
did the role of the Guru influence the learning process in ancient times? (c) Explain two ways in
which the system of ancient education helped in building disciplined and responsible individuals.
[1]
[1]
[2]
12.
Tribal communities in India live close to nature and follow traditions passed down through
generations.
(a) Explain any three features of the tribal way of life.
(b) How do tribal traditions help in maintaining unity and harmony within the community?
OR
Tribal communities have developed their own systems to manage resources and social life.
(a) Explain any three occupations or livelihood practices followed by tribal communities. (b)
Mention two ways in which tribal communities protect and conserve nature.
[5]
[3]

5
[2]
[3]
[2]
13.
On the given outline map of India, locate and label: (A) Birthplace of Gautama Buddha (B)
Birthplace of Mahavira
[1+1]
SECTION-B (Geography/Economics)
14.
Which continent is known for having the largest hot desert? (a) Asia (b) Africa (c) Australia (d)
Europe
[1]
15.
Which natural disaster is more common in plains? (a) Flood (b) Sandstorm
(c) Landslide (d) Avalanche
[1]
16.
Which of the following is a plateau? (a) Ganga Plain (b) Malwa (c) Thar Desert (d) Sundarbans
[1]
17.
Match the following
Column A
Column B
A. Animal Husbandry
1. Secondary activity
[1]
SAMPLE PAPER/4
B. Nike Factory

6
2. Tertiary activity
C. Doctor
3. Primary activity
D. Hunting and Gathering
4. Primary activity
Choose the correct option:
(a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 (b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4 (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
18.
Which sector provides raw materials for making finished goods? (a) Primary (b) Secondary (c)
Tertiary (d) Manufacturing
[1]
19.
Assertion (A): Plains support dense population. Reason (R): Plains have fertile soil and flat land.
(a) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
[1]
20.
Statement I: Raw materials are obtained from the primary sector. Statement II: The secondary
sector uses raw materials to make goods.
(a) Both statements are true (b) Both statements are false (c) Statement I is true, Statement II is
false (d) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
[1]
21.
Meena bought a kitchen appliance that stopped working within a few days of purchase.
(a) Name one consumer right that can help Meena in this situation. (b) Mention one way in
which consumer protection laws help buyers.

7
OR
What is meant by consumer awareness? State one advantage of being a well-informed consumer.
[1+1]
[1+1]
22.
Why are plains suitable for agriculture? Mention any one problem faced by people living in
plains.
[2+1]
23.
Life in the deserts comes with several challenges. Mention three challenges faced by the desert
dwellers.
[1+1+1]
SAMPLE PAPER/5
24.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Deccan Plateau is an important physical region of India. Although the land is uneven, it is
rich in minerals and has fertile black soil in many areas. The region supports mining activities,
agriculture, and the growth of industries. Crops like cotton and millets are widely grown. Many
rivers originating from the plateau help in irrigation and power generation. The plateau region
has played a significant role in India’s economic development.
(a) Mention any two difficulties faced by people living in plateau regions. (b) Agriculture is also
an important occupation in plateau regions. Justify this statement with two reasons.
[4]
[2+2]
25.
No product can reach consumers through the effort of only one sector.
Explain why all three sectors of the economy are important for economic development, with the
help of an example.
[5]
26.

8
On the given Political map of India and neighbouring areas, locate and label:
(a)Chotanagpur Plateau
(b)Eastern Ghats
(c)Thar Desert
[1+1+1]
SECTION-C (Civics)
27.
Geographical diversity refers to the differences in:
a) Languages and religions
b) Landforms, climate, and vegetation
c) Population and literacy
d) Occupations only
[1]
28.
Which body looks after the administration of a village? (a) Municipality (b) Gram Panchayat (c)
Zila Parishad (d) Lok Sabha
[1]
29.
Which amendment of the Constitution introduced the three-tier system in urban areas?
(a) 74th Amendment (b) 73rd Amendment
(c) 86th Amendment (d) 101st Amendment
[1]
30.
PM POSHAN scheme is related to: (a) Housing (b) Nutrition (c) Transport (d) Employment
[1]
31.
Assertion (A): India is a diverse country. Reason (R): People follow different cultures and
traditions.

9
(a) A is true but R is false
[1]
SAMPLE PAPER/6
(b) A is false but R is true
(c) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(d) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
32.
Statement I: Local self-government promotes democracy. Statement II: People actively get
involved in all the decisions.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) Both statements are true (b) Both statements are false (c) Statement I is true, Statement II is
false (d) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
[1]
33.
State any two core values by Indian society.
[2]
34.
India has a goal for 2047. Name the goal and explain its relevance.
[2]
35.
Explainthe structure of Urban Local Bodies in India.
[3]
36.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
Case: Gurugram Municipal Corporation
The Gurugram Municipal Corporation looks after civic services in one of India’s fast-growing
cities. It is responsible for maintaining roads, managing solid waste, providing street lighting,
and ensuring cleanliness in residential and commercial areas. With rapid urbanisation, the
corporation also focuses on drainage systems, water supply, and traffic management. Citizens

10
participate by reporting problems through helplines and mobile apps. Public cooperation helps
the corporation respond more effectively to local needs. In this way, urban local government
plays an important role in city administration and development.
Questions:
(a) Name the urban local body described in the passage. (b) Mention one way citizens participate
in urban governance in Gurugram. (c) Explain two responsibilities of a Municipal Corporation in
a city like Gurugram.
[4]
[1+1+2]
37.
What is meant by diversity? Explain how diversity is reflected in Indian society with suitable
examples
OR
Name three types of food eaten in India. Explain how diversity in food habits promotes unity
among people.
[5]
[3+2]
[3+2]
38.
(a) Explain any three reasons how reservation for women in rural local bodies promotes women
empowerment.
(b) Name the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) related to women empowerment and state
one objective of this goal.
OR
[5]
[3+2]
(a) Explain the contribution of any two women leaders who have achieved success at the local
government level in India.
(b) State the proportion of seats reserved for women in rural local bodies in India and mention
one significance of this reservation.

11
(HISTORY REVISION)
ANNUAL EXAMINATION SESSION: 2025-26
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE GRADE: VI
Revision Sheet

12
SECTION-A

1. Identify the ideas contained in the Upanishads. [1]


a. Brahman and Atman
b. Sacrifice and rituals
c. Worship of nature forces
d. Stories of kings and wars

2. Find the incorrect pair related to the Vedas and their contents. [1]
a. Rig Veda – Hymns in praise of gods
b. Sama Veda – Rules of sacrifice
c. Yajur Veda – Rituals and sacrificial procedures
d. Atharva Veda – Spells, charms, and everyday life

3. The branch of history that deals with the study of inscriptions is known as: [1]
a. Archaeology
b. Numismatics
c. Epigraphy
d. Chronology

4. Assertion (A): Anekantavada teaches that there is only one absolute way to [1]
understand truth.
Reason (R): Anekantavada is a core doctrine associated with Jainism. Choose the
correct option:
a. Both A and R are true and R explains A
b. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

13
5. Statement I: The Eightfold Path of Buddhism focuses on religious rituals and prayer [1]
s among other ideas.
Statement II: Buddhism emphasises on the importance of caste in a person’s life.
Choose the correct option:
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. Statement I is true, Statement II is false
d. Statement I is false, Statement II is true

6. Which of the following best describes tribal philosophy?


a. Focus on individual wealth and power
b. Living in harmony with nature and the community
c. Complete dependence on modern technology
d. Emphasis only on written laws and rules

7. Match the Religion with its Major Text / Tradition [1]


Column A (Religion) Column B (Major Text / Tradition)
A. Hinduism 1. Tripitakas
B. Jainism 2. Folk traditions
C. Buddhism 3. Upanishads
D. Tribal religions 4. Twelve Angas

(GEOGRHAPHY + ECONOMICS)
ANNUAL EXAMINATION SESSION: 2025-26
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE
GRADE: VI
Revision Sheet

14
SECTION-A
1. Which physical feature is most suitable for mining coal/gold? (a) Mountains (b) Plateaus
(c) Plains (d) Deserts
[1]
2. Manisha is travelling across the Gobi Desert, she is most likely to be in which continent?
(a) Europe (b) Africa (c) Asia (d) Australia
[1]
3. Out of the following, which geographical feature is named after Lord Brahma?
(a) River (b) Plain (c) Plateau (d) Desert
[1]
4. Assertion (A): Human activities are more concentrated in plains. Reason (R): Plains
provide favourable conditions for farming, transport, and settlement. Choose the correct
option. (
a) Both A and R are true and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A (
c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true
[1]
5. Statement I: Agricultural activities are part of the primary sector. Statement II: In the
primary sector, raw materials are converted into finished goods. Choose the correct option:
(a) Both statements are true
b) Both statements are false
(c) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
[1]
6. What is the slogan associated with the Consumer Court in India? (a) Swachh Bharat
7. Name the Act that enables citizens to obtain information from public authorities in India.
Can this Act be used to seek information from private organisations? Give a reason. [1+1]
8. Mention any three opportunities available in plain areas. [3]

15
9. Case Study: Life in the Kalahari – A Fight Against Nature
The Kalahari Desert is a dry region in southern Africa where rainfall is very low and water
is scarce. People living in this region face many challenges due to extreme heat and lack of
vegetation. Most people depend on hunting, gathering, and limited farming for their
livelihood. Animals such as antelopes and snakes are commonly found here. The people of
the Kalahari have adapted to their harsh environment by using traditional knowledge to
find water, wear loose clothing, and build shelters suitable for the climate.
(a) Mention any two challenges faced by people living in the Kalahari Desert.
(b) Explain any two ways in which people of the Kalahari have adapted to their
environment. [2+2]
10. Mandira is a farmer who grows wheat. The wheat is sent to a factory where it is
converted into flour. The flour is then transported and sold to consumers.
(a) Identify the process shown in the above situation. Name one SDG supported by it.
(b) Give one example of your own to show how different economic sectors are connected.
Explain stage wise.
(c) Which sector serves the other three sectors of the economy?
[5] [2+2+1]
******************************************************************************

(CIVICS)
ANNUAL EXAMINATION
SESSION: 2025-26
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE
GRADE: VI
Revision Sheet

16
SECTION-A

1. Tick the correct explanation of an amendment. [1]


(a) A law passed only by the Prime Minister
(b) A change made to the Constitution by the judiciary
(c) A formal change or addition made to the Constitution through a legal
process
(d) A rule made by local governments for villages

2. Amit wants to be a member of the Gram Sabha. Which condition must [1]
he meet?
(a) He must be an elected member of the Panchayat
(b) He must be an adult resident voter of the village
(c) He must be appointed by the State Government
(d) He must own land in the village

3. Find the incorrect option related to urban local bodies in India. [1]
(a) Municipal Corporation is formed in cities with a population of more
than 10 lakh
(b) Ward Committees are compulsory in cities with a population of more
than 5 lakh
(c) Nagar Panchayat is formed in towns with a population of less than 1
lakh
(d) One-third seats are reserved for women in urban local bodies

4. Assertion (A): The PM POSHAN helps fight hunger. [1]


Reason (R): PM POSHAN provides nutritious meals to school children.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R explains A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

5. Statement I: Citizens can submit written complaints to the Municipal [1]


Corporation regarding local issues such as water supply and sanitation.
Statement II: Ward councillors help citizens by raising their grievances
in municipal meetings.
Choose the correct option:
(a) Both statements are true
17
(b) Both statements are false
(c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, Statement II is true

6. What do Indian epics NOT teach? [1]


(a) Values like honesty and courage
(b) Importance of duty and righteousness
(c) Respect for elders and family
(d) Discrimination and inequality among people

7. Which of the following was NOT established by the 74th Constitutional [1]
Amendment?
(a) State Election Commission
(b) Ward Committees
(c) Nagar Panchayat
(d) Zila Parishad

SECTION-B

8. What do you mean by Unity in Diversity? What role did Gandhiji play in [1+1]
promoting it?

9. People take part in decision-making through elected representatives. [3]


Mention three functions performed by Panchayats — political, economic,
and social — with examples.

10. Case Study: Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation and Urban


Development
Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation is the local government
responsible for providing civic facilities to the people of Mumbai. To
improve the quality of life in the city, the Corporation adopted
sustainable and people-friendly measures. It introduced energy-efficient
LED street lights, improved solid waste management through
segregation and recycling, and promoted the use of renewable energy in
public buildings. Funds saved through these measures were used to
improve public transport, sanitation facilities, drinking water supply,
and roads. Citizens also participated by giving feedback and cooperating
with cleanliness drives, which strengthened urban local governance.

Questions

18
(a) Mention any two steps taken by the Brihanmumbai Municipal
Corporation to improve the lives of the people.
(b) Name any two Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) supported by
this work.

[2+2]

11. Mention five types of diversity found in India with examples. [5]

******************************************************************************

MATHEMATICS
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
CLASS: VI
SAMPLE PAPER
MAX. MARKS: 80 TIME: 3 HOURS

19
NAME: __________________ ROLL NO.: ______
______________________________________________________________________________
_________
General instructions:
1.
Read the questions carefully.
2.
All the questions are compulsory.
3.
This question paper has 5 Sections A-E.
4.
Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.
5.
Section B has 5 questions carrying 2 marks each.
6.
Section C has 6 questions carrying 3 marks each.
7.
Section D has 4 questions carrying 5 marks each.
8.
Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (4 marks each).
9.
An internal choice in 1 question of 5 marks; 1 question of 3 marks and 1 question of 2
marks has been provided.
10.
Draw neat figures wherever required using pencil and ruler.
SECTION-A
1.
The product of two even numbers is always even.

20
(a) True (b) False (c) None of these (d) Always odd
[1]
2.
Which is the smallest prime number?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
[1]
3.
Which is the equivalent fraction of 25 :
(a) 1230 (b) 2050 (c) 46 (d) 1025
[1]
4.
Predecessor of (-1 + 4 ) is :
(a)
1 (b) - 2 (c) 0 (d) 2
[1]
5.
Which of the following are not twin- prime?
(a)
7, 8 (b) 3, 5 (c) 11, 13 (d) 17, 19
[1]
6.
What is the side of a square whose area is 289 cm2?
(a) 15 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 17 cm (d) 18 cm
[1]
7.
The area of a square is 36sq cm. What will be the perimeter of that square:
(a) 24 cm (b) 72cm (c) 30cm (d) 20cm

21
[1]
8.
Two lines that intersect each other at a _________ angle are called Perpendicular lines.
(a) 90° (b) 180° (c) 60° (d) None of these
[1]
9.
To construct an angle of 35°, we construct the angle bisector of :
(a) 70° (b) 90° (c) 60° (d) 30°
[1]
10.
1 has exactly _____ factor?
(a)
0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
[1]
AE/2
11.
What is the perimeter of decagon with each side 5 cm? (a) 5 cm (b) 100 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 50
cm
[1]
12.
The greatest negative integer is :
(a)
does not exist (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) 0
[1]
13.
Find the number having the following prime factors: 2 x 11 x 7
(a) 770 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 154

22
[1]
14.
What is improper fraction?
(a)
Fraction with numerator greater than denominator
(b)
Fraction with denominator greater than numerator
(c)
Both (a) and (b)
(d)
None of these
[1]
15.
The product of successor and predecessor of 145 is:
(a) 202020 (b) 12021 (c) 21024 (d) 21021
[1]
16.
_________ is neither positive nor negative?
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) - 1
[1]
17.
A number is divisible by 3 if :
(a) It ends with 2, 3, 6, 9. (b) The sum of its digits is a multiple of 3. (c) It is divisible by both
2 and 3. (d) none of these.
[1]
18.
In 167#5, replace # by smallest one digit number, so that it is divisible by 9.

23
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 9
[1]
DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed
by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option:
19.
Assertion (A): A square is a type of rectangle.
Reason (R): All rectangles have four right angles, and a square has four equal sides,
making it a special rectangle.
(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
[1]
20.
Assertion (A): On a number line, 781 lies immediately to the right of 780. Reason (R):
Moving one unit to the left on a number line represents adding 1.
(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
[1]
SECTION-B
21.
Find the area and perimeter of the figure given below:
[2]
AE/3
22.
How is a rectangle different from a square? Explain using their properties.

24
[2]
23.
Write the divisibility rule for 3 and 6.
[2]
24.
(i)
Represent 5 more than -3 on the number line.
(ii)
Represent 10 less than 7 on the number line.
[2]
25.
Find the prime factorisation of the following using factor tree or division method.
(i) 540
(ii) 702
OR
(i) 243
(ii) 2744
[2]
SECTION-C
26.
(i) Explain what are the co-prime numbers, give two examples
(ii) List all the prime numbers between 1 and 100.
(ii) List all the twin prime numbers.
[3]
27.
Mohini bought 152 litres of juice. Out of this, 316 litres were consumed. How much juice is
left with her?

25
[3]
28.
State whether true or false:
(i) The sum of two even number is always even. ________
(ii) Multiply 4 x 10 or 10 x 4 the product will be same. _________
(iii) The successor of a 2-digit number is always a 2-digit number.________
OR
(i) Write the rules of the Collatz conjecture.
(ii) Apply the Collatz conjecture to the number 32 and write the sequence until it reaches 1.
(iii) Does the Collatz sequence always end at 1? Explain with an example.
[3]
29.
(i) What is the difference between 78691 and the largest 7-digit palindrome? What is their
sum?
(ii) What is Kaprekar constant? Find it taking the number 3,524.
[3]
30.
Solve:
(i) (–8 ) + (– 5) – (– 11)
(ii) 10 + 17 – (– 20 ) – 13
(iii) 123 – (– 120) – ( ________) = 400
[3]
31.
(i) Draw a square with sides 9 cm using proper geometry tools. After drawing, check if it
satisfies both the square properties.
(ii) Draw 90° angle using compass.
[3]
SECTION-D

26
32.
Do as directed:
(i) What is the digit sum of 24542 palindromic number?
(ii) Write the smallest 5-digit number and find prime factors of it.
[5]
AE/4
(iii) Find the HCF of 68 and 72.
(iv) Find the LCM of 70 and 84.
(v) Find the HCF and LCM of 54, 32, 66.
33.
To promote sustainable transport planning and efficient use of public spaces (SDG 11:
Sustainable Cities and Communities & SDG 12: Responsible Consumption and
Production), a rectangular bus terminal yard is renovated. The length of the yard is 80 m
and the breadth is 38 m.
(a) Calculate the total cost of paving the yard at the rate of ₹20 per square metre. (b) Find
the total distance covered by a bus if it completes 5 rounds around the yard.
[5]
34.
In a school assessment, three students scored marks in three different subjects.

Student A scored (–21) in Mathematics, 25 in Science, and 13 in English.

Student B scored (–17) in Mathematics, 18 in Science, and 15 in English.

Student C scored 18 in Mathematics, (–11) in Science, and 25 in English.
(a) Find the total marks scored by each student. (b) Write the name of the student who
scored the highest total marks.
OR
Do as directed

27
(i) Arrange the following integers in ascending order: –2, 5, 0, –9, 1
(ii) Write the integer just before 0.
(iii) Which is greater? – 7 or – 4
(iv) List four negative integers greater than –6: ___________________
(v) 0 + (– 204) = ____________
[5]
35.
Simplify the following:
(i) 67 + 293 (ii) 114 – 67 + 421
(iii) 111 3 – 3105
[5]
SECTION-E
36.
Solve:
(i) Arrange 910 , 85 , 112 , 35 in ascending order.
(ii) Arrange 117 , 88 , 67 , 18 in descending order.
(iii) Arrange 3111, 1110 , 1056 in ascending order
[4]
37.
Find the perimeter of the following figures:
(i)
[1]
AE/5
(ii) A square
[1]
(iii) A regular pentagon
[1]

28
(iv)
[1]
38.
Case Study:
A librarian is organizing books in a school library to promote quality education (SDG 4).
To make books easily accessible, she plans to arrange them category-wise on a shelf that is
120 cm long. She wants to divide the shelf into three equal sections using geometrical
construction so that each category gets equal space. Later, to further improve organization,
she decides to subdivide each section equally. Choose the correct answer:
(i) Which mathematical concept is being applied by the librarian to support SDG 4
(Quality Education)? (a) Measurement and division of a line segment (b) Area and
perimeter (c) Data handling (d) Probability
[1]
(ii) How can the librarian divide the 120 cm shelf into three equal sections accurately? (a)
By randomly marking points on the shelf (b) By measuring 40 cm from one end for each
section (c) By bisecting the shelf only once (d) By estimating equal lengths by eye
[1]
(iii) Which geometrical tools should the librarian use to ensure precise and fair division of
the shelf? (a) Protractor only (b) Calculator (c) Compass and ruler (d) Measuring tape only
[1]
(iv) If each of the three sections is further divided into two equal parts to arrange books
more efficiently, how many equal parts will the shelf have in total? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 12
[1]
AE/6

29
ENGLISH
SUBJECT: ENGLISH
GRADE: VI
SAMPLE PAPER
MAX. MARKS: 80 TIME: 3 HOURS
NAME: __________________ ROLL NO.: ______
__________________________________________________________________________

30
General Instructions:
1. Read the questions carefully.
2. All the questions are compulsory.
3. This paper consists of 12 questions.
4. This paper comprises three sections: Section-A (Reading), Section-B (Writing and Grammar),
and Section-C (Literature).
5. Answers must be written in legible handwriting.
______________________________________________________________________________
_________
SECTION-A (READING)
1.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
[10X1=10]
For millions of people in India, river Ganga is the most sacred river. It is considered as mother
and goddess. It is also a lifeline to millions of Indians who live on the banks of its course and
depend on it for their daily needs. River Ganga is the third largest river in the world by the
amount of water that flows through it. It is the longest river in India. The river water of Ganga is
used for irrigation, transportation and fishing. The Gangetic plain formed by river Ganga is one
of the most fertile lands on earth. This is why almost 10% of the world population lives here and
earns its livelihood. The Ganga, in India is the most worshipped body of water. The irony here is
that in spite of being the most worshipped river, it is also the dirtiest one. It carries metals thrown
out by tanneries, waste produced by industries and urban waste from different cities. All this has
made river Ganga the fifth most polluted river in the world. Another major reason that adds to
the Ganga river pollution is the coal based power plants on its banks which burn tons of coal
every year and produce a lot of fly ash. This ash mixed with domestic waste water is released
into the river. This bad situation calls for an urgent need to make efforts to reduce pollution and
revive river Ganga. To achieve these. objectives, the Government of India has started a
programme named "Namami Ganga Programme". The main pillars of this programme are
sewage treatment, river surface cleaning, afforestation, river front development and public
awareness. The importance of the success of ‘Namami Ganga Programme’ can be seen through
the following lines: “If Ganga dies, India dies. If Ganga thrives, India thrives. No Ganga, No
India.”
AE/2
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions given below:

31
(i) The Ganga water is used for-
(a) Irrigation
(b) Transportation
(c) Fishing
(d) All of the above
[1]
(ii) The pollutants that make river Ganga very dirty are:
(a) Effluents from industries
(b) Urban wastes from cities
(c) Metals discharged from tanneries
(d) All of the above
[1]
(iii) The Namami Ganga project has been started by____________.
(a) An NGO
(b) People of India
(c) Government of India
(d) Local bodies
[1]
(iv) Most of the people in India consider the Ganga as_________________.
(a) Mother
(b) River
(c) Godess
(d) Both (a) and (c)
[1]
(v) River Ganga is __________ for millions of Indians.
[1]
AE/3

32
(a) a sacred one
(b) a lifeline
(c) the best friend
(d) both (a) and (c).
(vi) How much of the world population lives near river Ganga?
(a) 15%
(b) 30%
(c) 10%
(d) 20%
[1]
(vii) Discuss the main pillars of the programme.
[2]
(viii) Elaborate on the irony discussed for the river in the above passage.
[2]
(ix) Discuss the reasons for making Ganga the fifth most polluted river in the world.
[2]
2.
Read the passage given below:
[10]
UNITING EFFORTS FOR GLOBAL PROGRESS
In today’s interconnected world, challenges such as environmental damage, lack of education,
and health crises affect people across borders. These issues cannot be solved by one nation acting
on its own. SDG 17 focuses on strengthening cooperation among countries, institutions, and
communities to bring positive change worldwide.
Working together allows nations to combine their strengths. While some countries may offer
financial support or advanced research, others provide local knowledge and practical solutions.
When these strengths come together, the impact becomes stronger and more lasting. Such
cooperation ensures that solutions are inclusive and effective.

33
Educational institutions and young learners also contribute to these efforts. By participating in
collaborative learning, social initiatives, and volunteering programmes, students develop
leadership skills and a sense of shared responsibility. These experiences help them understand
the importance of unity in solving real-world problems.
Successful cooperation depends on openness, mutual respect, and honesty. When partners
communicate clearly and value each other’s contributions, misunderstandings reduce and goals
are achieved more efficiently. SDG 17 encourages such partnerships to ensure progress that
benefits everyone and leads to a sustainable and peaceful future.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below:
(i) What is the central focus of SDG 17 as mentioned in the passage?
(a) Individual achievement
(b) Strengthening global cooperation
[1]
AE/4
(c) Economic competition
(d) National independence
(ii) Why is cooperation necessary according to the passage?
(a) Problems are limited to one country
(b) Challenges affect people across borders
(c) It reduces responsibility
(d) It increases inequality
[1]
(iii) Which action reflects effective cooperation?
(a) Ignoring local knowledge
(b) Combining financial support with practical solutions
(c) Working without communication
(d) Competing for resources
[1]
(iv) How do students contribute to global progress?

34
(a) By avoiding social activities
(b) By focusing only on academics
(c) By engaging in collaborative and volunteer activities
(d) By working alone
[1]
(v) Which quality is essential for successful partnerships?
(a) Dishonesty
(b) Openness and respect
(c) Fear
(d) Control
[1]
(vi) The word “inclusive” in the passage most nearly means —
(a) limited to a few
(b) involving everyone
(c) unclear
(d) secretive
[1]
(vii) Why is clear communication important in partnerships?
(a) To delay decision-making
(b) To reduce participation
(c) To avoid misunderstandings and achieve goals
(d) To hide information
[1]
(viii) What does combining different strengths suggest about partnerships?
(a) One partner dominates others
(b) All partners contribute in their own way
(c) Only developed nations matter

35
(d) Cooperation is unnecessary
[1]
(ix) Which statement BEST explains why global challenges need joint efforts?
(a) Nations prefer competition
[1]
AE/5
(b) Problems are interconnected worldwide
(c) Governments act independently
(d) Resources are unlimited
(x) If partners do not value each other’s contributions, what is the MOST LIKELY result?
(a) Faster progress
(b) Improved understanding
(c) Reduced effectiveness of cooperation
(d) Stronger trust
[1]
SECTION-B (WRITING AND GRAMMAR)
3.
Attempt any one from (i) and (ii) given below:
[1X5=5]
(i) Your school has recently put the ‘ACERS exhibition. Write a report in 80-100 words for the
same.
OR
(ii) Write an article on “The Imortance of Reading” in 80-100 words.
[1X5=5]
4.
Attempt any one from (i) and (ii) given below:
[1X5=5]

36
(i) Design a poster on “Importance of games”, explaining why games are important.
OR
(ii) Design a poster with the theme “Together We Can Make a Difference” aimed at encouraging
cooperation among nations and communities.
[1X5=5]
5.
Fill in the blanks with the correct degree of comparison.
(i) This puzzle is __________ than it looks at first glance. (difficult)
(ii) Of the two options available, this one seems __________ for beginners. (suitable)
(iii) No other student in the class spoke as __________ as Riya during the debate. (confident)
(iv) This is among the __________ discoveries made in recent years. (remarkable)
(v) The harder you practise, the __________ your performance will become. (strong)
(vi) She made the __________ effort to complete the task on time. (determined)
[6X0.5=3]
6.
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate kinds of adverbs.
(i) The audience waited __________ for the announcement to begin. (patient / patiently)
(ii) The children have __________ completed their homework. (nearly / outside)
(iii) The manager spoke __________ during the meeting. (firmly / yesterday)
(iv) She checks her email __________ before leaving for work. (regularly / upstairs)
(v) The glass was __________ full to the brim. (almost / noisily)
(vi)The puppy followed its owner __________. (everywhere / gently)
[6X0.5=3]
7.
Choose the correct prepositions from the given ones and fill in the blanks.
(i) The principal spoke __________ the importance of discipline during the assembly.
(about / with)

37
(ii) The students waited __________ the bus in the hot sun. (for / since)
(iii) The bird flew __________ the trees and settled on the roof. (between / among)
(iv) The library will remain closed __________ Monday due to maintenance.
[6X0.5=3]
AE/6
(till / from)
(v) She succeeded __________ her efforts and regular practice. (through / with)
(vi) The hikers walked __________ the narrow bridge carefully.(across / along)
8.
Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate conjunction.
(i) __________ the weather was unpleasant, the match continued as scheduled.
(Although / Because)
(ii) He completed the task early __________ he could leave on time. (so that / unless)
(iii) The students stayed back __________ they wanted extra clarification. (because / though)
(iv) __________ you follow the instructions carefully, errors will occur. (Unless / If)
(v) She whispered __________ she would not disturb the class. (so that / although)
(vi) The plants will dry up __________ they are watered regularly. (unless / because)
[6X0.5=3]
9.
Change the given sentences to passive voice.
(i) The players follow the rules strictly
(ii) The mechanic repairs the car.
(iii) The principal will inaugurate the new library.
(iv) The students have submitted the forms on time.
(v) The workers are cleaning the classroom.
[5X1=5]
10.

38
Fill in the blanks with appropriate verbs in agreement with their subjects.
(i) One of the boys __________ selected for the final round. (was / were)
(ii) The list of items __________ on the table. (is / are)
(iii) Neither the students nor the teacher __________ present today. (was / were)
(iv) There __________ a large number of books in the cupboard. (is / are)
(v) Physics __________ considered a difficult subject by many students. (is / are)
(vi) Everyone in the auditorium __________ applauding the performance. (was / were)
[6X0.5=3]
SECTION -C (LITERATURE)
11.
Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow.
A.
But nought there was a stirring
In the dark still night.
(Someone)
[5X1=5]
(i) Name the poet and the poem from which the above extract is taken.
(b) What did the poet open and listen to?
(c ) Give any two adjectives from the given lines.
(d) What all sounds were heard afterwards?
(e) Elaborate the poet’s state of mind.
OR
“There is something about everything that you can be glad about, if you keep hunting long
enough to find it.”
(Pollyanna: The Glad Game)
(i) Who says these words, and in what situation are they spoken?
(ii) What does the speaker mean by “keep hunting long enough”?

39
AE/7
(iii) Which idea or lesson is the speaker trying to teach through this statement?
(iv) How does this line reflect the speaker’s personality and outlook on life?
(v) Explain how this statement brings out the central theme of The Glad Game..
B.
“Della counted the money again. One dollar and eighty-seven cents. And the next day would be
Christmas.”
(The Gift of Magi)
(i) How much money did Della have with her?
(ii) For which occasion was Della saving this money?
(iii) Why was this amount not enough for Della?
(iv) What does this line tell us about Della’s financial condition?
(v) How does this situation lead to Della’s decision later in the story?
OR
“First, your memory I’ll jog,
And say: A cat is not a dog.”
(The Ad-Dressing of Cats)
(i) Who is the poet addressing in these lines?
(ii) What does the poet want the reader to remember about a cat?
(iii) Why does the poet compare a cat with a dog here?
(iv) Which quality of cats is indirectly highlighted through this comparison?
(v) What is the tone of these lines — humorous or serious? Give one reason.
[5X1=5]
C.
“Harris always reminds me of my poor Uncle Podger. You never saw such a
commotion up and down a house in all your life, as when my Uncle Podger undertook to do a
job. A picture would have come home from the frame-maker’s, and be standing in the dining
room, waiting to be put up; and Aunt Podger would ask what was to be done with it, and Uncle

40
Podger would say: ‘Oh, you leave that to me. Don’t you, any of you, worry yourselves about
that. I’ll do all that.”
(Uncle Podger Hangs a Picture)
(i) Who does Harris remind the narrator of?
(ii) What assurance does Uncle Podger give to the family?
(iii) Where was the picture kept before it was put up?
(iv) What caused “commotion” in the house?
(v)What was the final comment of Aunt Podger for the ‘commotion’in the house?
OR
That night Huck was hiding in that side street behind the inn. At eleven o’clock, all the lights in
the inn went out. ‘Everybody’s asleep now,’ thought Huck. ‘I’m going to sleep too.’ At that
moment, he heard a faint sound from the inn. Somebody had closed a door softly and was
coming very quietly down the street. Huck quickly returned to his hiding place.”
(Huck Saves the Life of Widow Douglas)
(i) Where was Huck hiding that night?
(ii) What made Huck think that everyone was asleep?
(iii) What sound did Huck hear from the inn?
(iv) Why did Huck quickly return to his hiding place?
(v) What kind of person was Huck?
[5X1=5]
AE/8
12.
Answer ANY FIVE of the following questions in about 30-40 words each.
(i) How does the poet describe the behaviour of the mysterious visitor in the poem ‘Someone’?
(ii) What role does the Glad Game play in shaping Pollyanna’s personality?
(iii) How does Della’s sacrifice reflect her love for Jim in ‘The Gift of the Magi’?
(iv) What does Uncle Podger’s behaviour reveal about his attitude towards work?
(v) How does Huck show courage and presence of mind during the danger to Widow Douglas?

41
(vi) What does the picture-hanging incident tell us about human nature in ‘Uncle Podger Hangs a
Picture’?
(vii) According to the poet, how are cats different from other animals in ‘The Ad-Dressing of
Cats’?
[3X5=15]

42

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