06-07-2025

1701CMD303052250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) Three charges +Q, q, +Q are placed respectively, at distance 0, and d from the origin, on the x-
axis. If the net force experienced by +Q, placed at x = 0, is zero, then value of q is-

(1)
+

(2)
+

(3)
–

(4)
–

2) A point charge when placed at point A (3,4) m in xy plane then electric field at origin is E. If

charge is moved from A to B (24, 7) m then electric field at origin is :-

(1) E/25
(2) 25 E
(3) 5 E
(4) E/5

3) If linear charge density of a wire of length L depends on distance x from one end as .

Find total charge of wire.

(1) λ0L

(2)

(3)

(4) 2λ0L

4) A long cylindrical shell carries positives surfaces change σ in the upper half and negative surface
charge – σ in the lower half. The electric field lines around the cylinder will look like figure given in :
(Figures are schematic and not drawn to scale)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Find electric field due to uniformly charged are at point P as shown in figure.

(1) Zero

(2)
N/C

(3)
N/C

(4)
N/C

6) Find the net electric force on point charge placed at point P due to all other charges placed as
shown in figure.

(1) 9 × 1010 N
(2) 9 × 109 N
(3) 9 × 108 N
(4) 9 × 1012 N

7) Two point charges –Q and –2Q are placed at x = 0 and x = +a respectively which graph represent
the variation of electric field along x axis :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

If given system of point charges is in equilibrium then what will be value of q.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) Find the total charge enclose in a cube of side length a kept in electric field shown in

figure.

(1) ε0 a
3

(2) ε0 a
4

(3) 2ε0 a
4

(4) 3ε0 a
4

10) Three positive charges of equal value q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The
resulting lines of force should sketched as in-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

11) Two small spheres each having the charge +Q are suspended by insulating threads of length L
from a hook. This arrangement is taken is space where there is no gravitational effect, then the
angle between the two suspension and the tension in each will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) In the given figure two tiny conducting balls of identical mass m and identical charge q hang
from non-conducting threads of equal length L. Assume that θ is so small that tanθ = sinθ, then for
equilibrium x is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The electric field in a region is radially outward with magnitude . The charge contained
in a sphere of radius R0 centered at the origin is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
14) Electric field at centre of semicircular ring shown in figure is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Surface charge density of a thin disc having radius R varies with distance r from centre as

then total charge of disc is.

(1) 4πσ0R
2

(2)
(3)

(4)

16) Three equal point charge (each q) are situated at the xy-plane as shown in the figure. The

resultant force acting on the charge situated at the origin will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A charge 'q' is placed at one corner of a cube as shown in figure. The flux of electrostatic field
through the shaded area is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Find the electric field at point P (as shown in figure) on the perpendicular bisector of a uniformly
charged thin wire of length L carrying a charge Q. The distance of the point P from the centre of the

rod is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) As shown in figure, a cuboid lies in a region with electric field N/C. The
magnitude of charge within the cuboid is (If dimension of cuboid is 1 × 2 × 3 m3)
(1) 12 ε0
(2) 6 ε0
(3) 24 ε0
(4) 3 ε0

20) For a given figure resultant force on charge q situated at O will be (If side of an

equilateral triangle is a)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

21) A point charge q is situated at a distance d from one end of a thin non - conducting rod of length
L having a charge Q(uniformly distributed along its length) as shown in fig. Then the magnitude of

electric force between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The repulsive force between two equal charges (Q) is F. To reduce force by 25% how much
charge is transferred from first to second :–

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)
Q

23)

A point charge q is placed at one of the vertices of the cube as shown. Then,

flux through the shaded face of cube is

(1)

(2)
flux through shaded face of cube is

(3)
flux through complete cube is

(4)
flux through complete cube is

24) A linear charge having linear charge density λ, penetrates a cube diagonally and then it
penetrate a sphere diametrically as shown. What will be the ratio of flux coming cut of cube and

sphere:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Five charges of equal values placed at corners of a regular pentagon of side 'a'. The force on q

which is placed at centroid 'O' is :-

(1) zero

(2)
, along OE

(3)
, along EO

(4)
, along OE

26) Two charges q and 2q are placed at heights a/2 and a respectively from plane of the square

surface [Link] flux through the square surface is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

27) Point charge Q is placed at point P in the plane of circular face of sphere. The electric flux

passing through the spherical part shown in the figure is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) The magnitude of the electric field that is set up at P is minimum in :

(1) (i)
(2) (ii)
(3) (iii)
(4) equal in all cases

29) For a given surface the Gauss's law is stated as . From this we can conclude that
:-

(1) E is necessarily zero on the surface

(2) E is perpendicular to the surface at every point
(3) The total flux through the surface is zero
(4) The flux is only going out of the surface

30) Two equal and like charges when placed 5 cm apart experience a repulsive force of 0.144
newtons. The magnitude of the charge in micro–coulomb will be

(1) 0.2
(2) 2
(3) 20
(4) 12

31) Find flux exiting from the cone. Which is placed in uniform electric field E shown in figure.

(1) πR2E
(2) ERH
(3) πRH
(4) zero

32) The total electric flux associated from a closed surface enclosing an α-particle (e-electronic
charge) is :

(1)

(2)

(3) eε0

(4)

33) An oil drop carrying a charge of 2 electrons has a mass of 3.2 × 10–17 Kg. It is falling freely in air
 with terminal speed. The electric field required to make the drop move upwards with the same
speed is :

(1) 2 × 103 V/m

(2) 4 × 103 V/m
(3) 3 × 103 V/m
(4) 8 × 103 V/m

34) Two point charges +3 µC and +8 µC repel each other with a force of 40 N. If a charge of –5 µC is
added to each of them, then the force between them will become :

(1) –10 N
(2) +10 N
(3) +20 N
(4) –20 N

35) A charge –q of mass m is performing circular motion around a charge Q place at a distance R.
Calculate the relation between time period of –q & R.

(1) T ∝ R2
(2) T ∝ R3
(3) T2 ∝ R
(4) T2 ∝ R3

36) A charge Q is divided in two parts in such a way that these two parts exert maximum replulsion
on each other when placed at a fixed distance. Calculate the ratio of each part with Q ?

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 1 : 4

37) If charge (–q, m) is displaced slightly along x-axis and released then find period of S.H.M. will

be–

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Find electric field at centre of arc.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Figure shows two uniformly charged large non conducting sheets having surface charge
densities 2σ and –σ respectively. A, B and C are three points. be the electric field at point B, then

electric field at point A can be given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Three charges , and are arranged along a straight line as shown in the
figure. Calculate the total electric field intensity due to all three charges at the point P :
(1) Zero
(2) 8.48 × 103 N/C
(3) 16.43 × 103 N/C
(4) 5.3 × 103 N/C

41) Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal
length, the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the
height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Statement I : A charged body can attract an uncharged body.

Statement II : A charged body can induce charges of opposite signs on uncharged body.

Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation of
(1)
the Statement I
Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of
(2)
the Statement I
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

43) Figure shows a closed surface which intersects a conducting sphere. If a positive charge is
placed at the point P, the net flux of the electric field through the closed surface
(1) will remain zero
(2) will become positive
(3) will become negative
(4) will become undefined

44) Let ‘e’ be charge of an electron. Let point charges of different values be present at vertices of a
cube of side ‘a’ & let ‘F’ be magnitude of force between two electrons separated by distance ‘a’.
Which of the following cannot be the force exerted by any of the charge on any other charge present
on vertices of the cube.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) F

45)

A metallic sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. The lines of force follow the path (s) shown in
the figure as

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

CHEMISTRY

1) The correctly matched pairs of the following are given by the sets :
(A) Neopentane – position isomer of isopentane
(B) Isopentane – three primary carbon atoms
(C) Isobutylene – no secondary carbon
(D) Isobutane – two primary carbons

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

2) Which of the following pairs of compounds is a ring-chain isomer ?

(1)
and

and
(2)

(3)
CH2=CH–CH2–OH and

(4)
and

3) Total number of alkyne possible by the molecular formula C5H8 is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

4) Select the S-configuration from the following:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) Which is pair of geometrical isomers :-

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) i & ii
(2) i & iii
(3) ii & iv
(4) iii & iv

6) Among the following structures, select E isomers (arrow indicate the bonds to be considered?

(A)

(B)
(C)

(D)

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) A and D
(4) B and C

7) Among the following, the Newmann projections of meso-2,3-butadiol are

(P)

(Q)

(R)
(S)

(1) P,Q
(2) P,R
(3) R,S
(4) Q,S

8) Which of the following best explains the reason for the relative stabilities of the conformers
shown?

(I) (II)

(1) I has more torsional strain

(2) I has more steric strain
(3) II has more torsional strain
(4) II has more steric strain

9) Number of structural monosubstituted products formed by

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

10) Which is correctly matched :

(1)

Functional group isomers

(2)

Metamers

(3)

Functional group isomers

(4)

Position isomers

11) Which is optically active among the following ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) E-configuration molecule is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Which of the following shows optical and geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
14) Which are pair of geometrical isomers ?

(1) and

(2) and

(3)

and

(4)

and

15)
Which is correct

(1) P and Q are diastereomers

(2) P and R are homomers
(3) Q and R are enantiomers
(4) P and Q are enantiomers

16) How many following compound have Gauche Conformation is more stable than anti (staggered)
conformation :
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(e) (f)

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

17) Total number of chiral carbon (asymmetric carbon) in given steroid molecule named cholic acid

is :-

(1) 11
(2) 10
(3) 9
(4) 8

18) Which of the following compound is meso form?

(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)

(1) ii, iii, iv

(2) i, ii
(3) i, iii, iv
(4) All of these

19) Which of the following compound have (2R, 3S) configuration:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(1) 1, 2
(2) 1, 2, 3
(3) 2, 4
(4) All of the above

20) Which is not pair of enantiomers:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which of the following compound is chiral (optically active)?

1.

2.
3.

4.

(1) 1, 2, 4
(2) 2, 3
(3) 1, 3, 4
(4) 2, 4

22) Correct order of –I effect is :-

(1) –CN > –COOH > –NO2

(2) –COOH > –CN > –NO2
(3) –NO2 > –COOH > –CN
(4) –NO2 > –CN > –COOH

23) Which of the following aldose is D-erythrose :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

24)

Match the following.

Column-I Column-II
(a) CaO + CO2 → CaCO3 (i) Decomposition
(b) NH4NO2 → N2 + 2H2O (ii) Single displacement
CuSO4 + 2NaOH →
(c) (iii) Double displacement
Cu(OH)2 + Na2SO4
(d) Na + H2O → NaOH + H2 (iv) Combination
(1) (a) → (ii), (b) → (i), (c) → (iii), (d) → (iv)
(2) (a) → (iv), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iii), (d) → (i)
(3) (a) → (iv), (b) → (i), (c) → (iii), (d) → (ii)
(4) (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii)

25) For the equation aLi + bH3PO4 → cH2 + dLi3PO4 the values of a, b, c and d are respectively

(1) 6, 2, 3, 2
(2) 6, 2, 3, 1
(3) 6, 3, 2, 2
(4) 6, 2, 1, 3

26) In the following oxidation reduction reaction : , the

+
balanced equation coefficient for , , H are :

(1) 5, 2, 16
(2) 16, 5, 2
(3) 2, 16, 5
(4) 2, 5, 16

27)

The equation Mg(s) + CuO(s) → MgO(s) + Cu(s) represents

a. decomposition reaction
b. single displacement reaction
c. combination reaction
d. double displacement reaction

e. redox reaction
(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) b and e
(4) d and e

28) Which one of the following is a Redox Reaction?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) Reaction (A) S–2 + 4 H2O2 → SO42– + 4H2O

(B) Cl2 + H2O2 → 2HCl + O2
The true statement regarding the above reactions is :

(1) H2O2 acts as reductant in both the reactions

(2) H2O2 acts as oxidant in reaction (A) and reductant in reaction (B)
(3) H2O2 acts as an oxidant in both the reactions
(4) H2O2 acts as reductant in reaction (A) and oxidant in reaction (B)

30) Oxidation number of sodium in sodium amalgam is :-

(1) +2
(2) +1
(3) –2
(4) Zero

31) Which acts as reducing agent as well as oxidising agent ?

(1) H2O2
–
(2) ClO4
(3) F2
–
(4) MnO4

32) Which one of the following is not a redox reaction ?

(1) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

(2) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
(3) Na + H2O → NaOH + 1/2 H2
(4) MnCl3 → MnCl2 + 1/2 Cl2

33) At 27° C the vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 70 torr. This liquid makes ideal solution with
liquid B. The mole fraction of B is 0.2 and the total pressure of the solution at 27°C has been found
to be 84 torr. What is the vapour pressure of pure liquid B at 27° C :-

(1) 14 Torr
(2) 140 Torr
(3) 56 Torr
(4) 70 Torr

34) An ideal solution has two components A and B. A is more volatile than B, i.e., P°A > P°B and also
P°A > Ptotal . If XA and YA are mole fractions of components A in liquid and vapour phases, then:-

(1) XA = YA
(2) XA > YA
(3) XA < YA
(4) Data insufficient

35) If at certain temperature the vapour pressure of pure water is 25 mm Hg and that of very dilute
aqueous urea solution is 24.5 mm Hg, the molality of the solution is :-

(1) 0.02
(2) 1.2
(3) 1.11
(4) 0.08

36) The freezing point of 1 molal NaCl solution assuming NaCl to be 100% dissociated in water is :
(Kf = 1.86 K molality–1) :-

(1) –1.86°C
(2) –3.72°C
(3) +1.86°C
(4) +3.72°C

37) 300 cm3 of an aqueous solution contains 126 g polymer. The osmotic pressure of such solution at
300 K is found to be 126 pascal. The molar mass of polymer is (in g/mol) :-

(1) 8.2
(2) 8.2 × 104
(3) 3.40 × 104
(4) 34.02

38) The osmotic pressure of 40% (weight/volume) urea solution is 1.64 atm and that of 3.42%
(weight/volume) cane sugar is 2.46 atm. When equal volumes of the above two solutions are mixed,
the osmotic pressure of the resulting solution is :-

(1) 1.64 atm

(2) 2.46 atm
(3) 4.10 atm
(4) 2.05 atm

39) Consider separate solution of 0.5 M C2H5OH(aq), 0.1 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq), 0.25 M KBr(aq) and 0.125
M Na3PO4(aq) at 25°C. Which statement is true about these solutions, assuming all salts to be strong
electrolytes?

(1) They all have the same osmotic pressure.

(2) 0.1 M Mg3(PO4)2(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
(3) 0.125 M Na3PO4(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.
(4) 0.5 M C2H5OH(aq) has the highest osmotic pressure.

40) Pure water freezes at 273 K and 1 bar. The addition of 34.5 g of ethanol to 500 g of water
changes the freezing point of the solution. Use the f.p. depression constant of water as 2K kg mol –1.
The figures shown below represents plot of vapour pressure (V.P.) versus temperature (T).
(mol. wt. of ethanol = 46 g mol–1). Among the following the option representing change in the f.p. is
[Consider ethanol as non volatile solute]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Consider the following statements regarding 0.1 molar aqueous solutions of glucose and 0.52
molar urea :-
(A) The boiling point of the solution of glucose will be lower than that of the solution of urea.
(B) The freezing point of the solution of glucose will be higher than that of the solution of urea.
(C) The osmotic pressure of the solution of glucose will be lower than that of the solution of urea.
(D) The lowering of vapour pressure of both solutions will be the same.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) A, B and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, C and D

42) Which of the following solutions will exactly oxidize 25 ml acidic solution of 0.1 M iron (II)
oxalate?

(1) 25 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4

(2) 25 ml of 0.2 M KMnO4
(3) 25 ml of 0.6 M KMnO4
(4) 15 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4

43) A solution is prepared by dissolving a 2.5 g sample of an unknown compound in 34 g of benzene,

C6H6, boils at 1.38°C higher than pure benzene. Which expression gives the molar mass of the
–1
unknown compound ? (Kb for benzene is 2.53°Cm )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A person living in Manali observed that cooking food without using pressure cooker takes more
time. The reason for this observation is that at high altitude:

(1) pressure increases

(2) temperature decreases
(3) pressure decreases
(4) temperature increases

45) Which of the following process represents disproportionation ?

(1) Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O

– – –
(2) 3I2 + 6OH → IO3 + 5I + 3H2O
(3) Cl2 + I2 → 2ICl
(4) Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

BIOLOGY

1) Read the following statement and select the correct ones :

i. Nodal tissue is specialised cardiac musculature in human heart which has the ability to generate
action protential only due to an external stiumli.
ii. Position of SAN - right upper corner of right atrium
iii. Postion of AVN - right corner of ventricle
iv. AV bundle continues from AVN
v. Purkinje fibers are modified cardiac muscle fibers that originate from the atrioventricular node
and spread into the two atria.

(1) i and ii
(2) i and iii
(3) ii and iv
(4) All

2) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

High
(a) blood (i) Atherosclerosis
pressure

Coronary
Acute chest
(b) artery (ii)
pain
disease

Heart stops
(c) Angina (iii)
beating

Cardiac
(d) (iv) Hypertension
arrest

(v) heart attack

Select the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)

(3) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which one increases strength of heart contraction?

(1) Acetylcholine
(2) ACTH
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Melatonine

4) Mark the correct statement/statements :

(a) Crocodiles have 4-chambered heart
(b) Atrio-ventricular septa are provided openings which are guarded by cuspid-valves.
(c) Stroke volume is 70 ml of each ventricle.

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, c

5) Statement I :- Congestion of the lungs is one of the main symptoms of congestive heart failure.
Statement II :- Heart failure sometimes also called as congestive heart failure.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

6) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Atria and ventricle of same side are separated by thick muscular tissue
(2) In reptiles left atrium receives oxygenated blood from lungs.
(3) Open circulatory system is present in arthropods
(4) Inter–ventricular septum is thick- walled.

7) Assertion :- Blood flows in heart only in one direction i.e from atria to ventricles, and then to
pulmonary artery or Aorta.
Reason :- Opening between atria and ventricles and between ventricles and respective vessels are
provided with valves.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false

8) Find out the correct statement about human circulatory system ?

(1) Opening between right atrium and right ventricle is guarded by tricuspid valve
(2) Heart is ectodermally derived organ
(3) Not all vertebrates posses muscular chambered heart
(4) All molluscs have closed network of blood vessels

9) Which layer of blood vessels is called endothelium ?

(1) Tunica intima

(2) Tunica media
(3) Tunica externa
(4) All of above

10) Fibrins are formed by conversion of ____ present in ____ by the enzyme ____.

(1) Fibrinogen, Serum, Thrombokinase

(2) Prothrombin, Plasma, Thrombin
(3) Fibrinogen, Plasma, Thrombin
(4) Prothrombin, blood, Thrombokinase

11) ___A___ grouping is based on the presence or absence of ___B___ surface antigen on the RBC :

(1) ABO, Three

(2) Rh, Two
(3) ABO, Two
(4) Rh, Three

12) How many statement are correct among following statement ?

(A) AB group can accept blood from persons with AB as well as the other groups of blood.
(B) Plasma of different individual contain three natural anti bodies.
(C) 'O' group individuals are called universal donars.
(D) 'AB' group individuals are called universal recipients.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

13) Coronary artery disease often reffered as :-

(1) Angina
(2) Heart failure
(3) Cardiac arrest
(4) Atherosclerosis

14) Which match is not correct about given below information ?

Systemic circulation ⇒ Provide nutrients, O2 to tissues and takes harmful substances away for
(1)
elimination.
(2) Hepatic portal system ⇒ A unique connection between digestive tract and liver.
(3) Coronary system ⇒ Supply blood to cardiac musculature.
Systemic circulation ⇒ deoxygenated blood → pulmonary artery → lungs → pulmonary vein → left
(4)
atrium.

15) 1st heart sound and 2nd heart sound can be easily heard through stethoscope. These sounds are
produced respectively due to :-
(1) Closure of only AV valves
(2) Closure of AV valves and semi lunar valves
(3) Opening of AV valves and semilunar valves
(4) Closure of semilunar and AV valves

16) Cardiac out put is :-

(a) Stroke volume × End diastolic volume
(b) Stroke volume × heart rate
(c) Volume of blood pumped out by each atria
(d) Volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle in one minute
Which option is correct regarding cardiac out put ?

(1) Only a and b

(2) Only b and c
(3) Only c and d
(4) Only b and d

17) Match the column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II

a. Joint diastole (i) 0.8 second

b. Heart beat (ii) All four chambers of heart are relaxed.

c. Cardiac cycle (iii) 72 times/min

d. Stroke volume (iv) 70 mL

Choose the correct answer about given column :-
(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)

18) Choose the incorrect statement about human heart :-

(1) Heart is mesodermally derived organ

(2) A thin muscular wall called inter atrial septum separates the right and left ventricle.
(3) Thick walled septum seprates the right and left ventricle.
(4) The atrium and ventricle of same side are also seprates by thick fibrous tissue.

19) Erythroblastosis foetalis condition occures when :-

(1) Mother is RH +ve and foetus is RH –ve

(2) Mother is RH–ve and foetus is RH –ve
(3) Mother is RH +ve and foetus is RH +ve
(4) Mother is RH –ve and foetus is RH +ve
20) Assertion (A) : Rh group should be matched before transfusion.
Reason (R) : Rh–ve person if exposed to Rh+ve blood will form specific antibodies against Rh antigen.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) (R) is true but (A) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

21) Match the column-I and column-II.

Column-I Column-II

Fibrinogen,
Major protein
(i) (a) albumin,
in plasma
globulin

(ii) Water in plasma (b) 90-92 percent

Plasma without
(iii) (c) Serum
clotting factors

(iv) Osmotic balance (d) Albumin

Choose the correct answer about given above columns :-
(1) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(2) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-a
(3) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-d, (iv)-c
(4) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a

22) Choose the incorrect statement about most commonly fluid used in body for transportation in
human :-

(1) This fluid is a special connective tissue.

(2) This fluid consisting a fluid matrix (45%).
(3) This fluid consisting formed elements.
(4) Matrix of this fluid is straw coloured and viscous fluid nearly 55%.

23) Match the following to select a correct answer.

A. Rh + Ve a. 1.5–3.5 lac per mm3 i. Leucocyte

B. Platelets b. Erythroblastosis foetalis ii. Clotting

2 antigen on
C. ABO group c. 6–8 percent iii.
surface

D. Monocyte d RBC iv. 80 percent

(1) A–b–iv, B–a–ii, C–d–iii, D–c–i
(2) A–b–iv, B–d–ii, C–a–iii, D–c–i
(3) A–d–iv, B–a–ii, C–c–iii, D–b–i
(4) A–b–iv, B–a–ii, C–d–i, D–c–iii
24) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A. Cardiac arrest (I) Inadequate blood supply

B. Heart attack (II) Heart beat stop

C. Heart failure (III) Heart not pumping blood effectively

No enough oxygen is reaching the heart

D. Angina (IV)
muscle

(V) Acute chest pain

(vi) Heart muscle is suddenly damaged

(1) A–(II), B–(I) (VI), C–(III), D–(IV) (V)
(2) A–(II) (IV), B–(VI), C–(III) (I), D–(V)
(3) A–(VI), B–(III) (V), C–(IV), D–(I) (V)
(4) A–(III), B–(VI) (IV), C–(I) (II), D–(V)

25) Match the column-I with column-II and choose correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

A Calcium ions (I) Opening of the right ventricles

B. Pericardium (II) Coagulation of blood

C. Pulmonary Artery (III) Double walled membranous bag.

D. Aorta (IV) Opening of the left ventricles

(V) Opening of the right atrium

(VI) Muscular wall

(1) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(2) A–IV, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(3) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–VI
(4) A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV

26) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

A T-wave i Depolarisation of atria

Depolarisation of
B P-wave ii
ventricles

Repolarisation of
C QRS complex iii
ventricles

iv Repolarisation of atria
(1) A - iii, B - i, C - ii
(2) A - iv, B - i, C - iii
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - i
(4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii

27) Ventricular systole increases the ventricular __ (i) Causing the closure of__ (ii) __ and __(iii) ___
valves due to attempted back flow of blood into the __ (iv)__.
Choose the correct statement for fill in the blanks :-

(1) (i) Pressure, (ii) Tricuspid, (iii) bicuspid, (iv) Atria

(2) (i) Pressure, (ii) semilunar, (iii) bicuspid, (iv) Ventricle
(3) (i) Volume, (ii) Tricuspid, (iii) Tricuspid, (iv) Atria
(4) (i) Volume, (ii) semilunar, (iii) Tricuspid, (iv) Ventricle

28) Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

The cardiac events that occur from the beginning of one heart beat to beginning of the next are
(1)
called cardiac cycle.
(2) Cardiac cycle consists of systole and diastole of both the atria and ventricles.
(3) The heart beats 72 times per minute, i.e., that only one cardiac cycle is performed per minute.
During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately 70 ml of blood which is called
(4)
the beat volume.

29) Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given
below :-

Column-I Column-II

Between right atrium

a Semilunar valve i
and right ventricle

Between left atrium and

b Tricuspid valve ii
left ventricle.

Between left ventricle

c Bicuspid valve iii
and aorta
(1) a - iii, b - ii, c - i
(2) a - iii, b - i, c - ii
(3) a - ii, b - i, c - iii
(4) a - ii, b - iii, c - i

30) Statement -I :- All the four chambers of heart are in a relaxed state, i.e. they are a joint
diastole.
Statement -II :- At the time of joint Diastole, as the tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open, blood
from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and right ventricle respectively through
the left and right atria.

(1) Both statement i and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement i and statement II are correct.

31) Statement-I :- In RBC red colored respiratory pigment hemoglobin is present.

Statement-II :- Life span of RBC is 120 days.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

32) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

Responsible for immune

(A) Globulins (i)
response of body

(B) Thrombocytes (ii) 6000-8000 mm-3 of blood

Primarily involve in defense

(C) Leucocyte (iii)
mechanism

B and Produced from mega

(D) (iv)
T lymphocyte karyocytes of bone marrow.
(1) A-(iii), B-(ii) ; C - (i) ; D-(iv)
(2) A-(iv), B-(ii) ; C - (i) ; D-(iv)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv) ; C - (ii) ; D-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii) ; C - (iv) ; D-(i)

33) If......A.....lecucocytes are responsible for immune response of body and .......B......leucocyte are
responsible for phagocytic in nature then both A and B are......C.....type leucoyte.

(1) A-Neutrophil ; B-Eosinophil ; C-granulocyte

(2) A-lymphocyte ; B-Basophil ; C-Agranulocyte
(3) A-Lymphocyte ; B - Monocyte ; C-Agranucloyte
(4) A-Neutrophil ; B-Monocyte ; C-Granulocyte

34) Read column-I, II & III and identify their correct Match.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

A Neutrophils P 0.5 - 1% i Immune response

B Basophils Q 2 - 3% ii Resist infections

C Lymphocyte R 60-65% iii Phagocytic

D Eosinophils S 20-25% iv Inflammatory reactions

(1) A - R - iii, B - P - iv, C - Q - ii, D - S - i
(2) A - S - i, B - Q - ii, C - R - iii, D - P - iv
(3) A - R - iii, B - P - iv, C - S - i, D - Q - ii
(4) A - P - i, B - Q - ii, C - R - iii, D - S - iv

35) Read the following statements :-

a. Neural signal through the sympathetic nerves (part of ANS.) can decrease the rate of heart beat.
b. Parasympathetic neural signals decrease the rate of heart beat.
c. The "tunica media" is comparatively thin in the arteries
d. Heart is mesodermally derived organ.
e. Calcium ions play a very important role in clotting.
Choose the correct options.

(1) a, b & d
(2) b, d & e
(3) c, d & e
(4) a, c & e

36) Read column I, II & III and identify their correct match.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Second heart Ventricle

A P i Attial contraction
sound depolatisation

Closure of semilunar
B QRS - wave Q Pacemaker ii
value

Atrial
C Sinoatrial node R iii ventricle contration
depolarisation

Right upper corner

D P-wave S Dub iv
of the tight atrium
(1) A - P - i, B - Q - ii, C - R - iii, D - S - iv
(2) A - P - iv, B - Q - iii, C - R - ii, D - S - i
(3) A - S - ii, B - P - iii, C - Q - iv, D - R - i
(4) A - S - ii, B - P - i, C - Q - iv, D - R - iii

37) Assertion (A) :- If repeated checks of blood pressure of an individual in 140/90 mm Hg or

higher it shows hypertension.
Reason (R) :- Obesity and stress is the one of the factors of hypertension.

(1) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion and Reason is false.
(4) Only Assertion is true.

38) Which of the following statement are true/false ?

I. Plasma is a straw coloured viscous fluid constitute nearly 55% of blood.
II. Plasma without clotting factor is called serum.
III. 80% of plasma is water.

(1) I - T, II - F, III - T
(2) I - F, II - T, III - T
(3) I - T, II - T, III - F
(4) I - F, II - F, III - T

39) Read the following statements and choose correct ones..............

(a) Erythrocytes or red blood corpuscle are most abundant of all the cells in blood.
(b) RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in adults
(c) A heathy individual has 12-16 gms of haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood.
(d) Leucocytes are also known as white blood corpuscle as they are colorless due to lack of
haemoglobin
(e) Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic corpuscle which destroy foreign organisms entering
the body.

(1) Only b & c

(2) a, b, & c
(3) a, b, c, d & e
(4) Only a & d

40) Match the items given in column-I with those in column-II and select the correct option given
below :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Sino atrial node (i) Present in ventricles

Present in right upper corner of the

(b) Atrio-ventricular node (ii)
right atrium

Present in lower left corner of the

(c) Chordae tendinae (iii)
right atrium.
(1) (a)-(iii), b-(i), (c)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(ii), b-(iii), (c)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), b-(ii), (c)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(ii), b-(i), (c)-(iii)

41) Statement-I :- During each cardiac cycle two prominent sounds are produced which can be
easily heard through a spirometer.
Statement-II :- The first heart sound (Dub) is associated with the closure of the tricuspid and
bicuspid valves whereas the second heart sound (lub) is associated with the closure of the semilunar
valves.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

42)

SAN can generate the maximum number of action potentials i.e.,......(i)......and is responsible for
initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the.........(ii)........
Therefore,.......(iii).......is called the pacemaker.
Choose the correct satement for fills in the blanks :-

(1) (i) 60 - 75 min-1, (ii) lungs, (iii) sino atrial node

(2) (i) 60 - 65 min-1, (ii) Heart, (iii) atrio ventricular node
(3) (i) 70 - 75 min-1, (ii) lungs, (iii) atrio ventricular node
(4) (i) 70 - 75 min-1, (ii) Heart, (iii) sino-atrial node

43) Assertion (A) :- During diastole, ventricles receives blood from autricles.
Reason (R) :- During ventricular diastole (stage of rapid inflow) the pressure inside auricles is
greater than ventricles.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason are false.

44) The first heart sound is associated with the......(i)........whereas the second heart sound is
associated with the........(ii)........
Choose the correct answer for fill in the blanks :-

(i) closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves,

(1)
(ii) opening of the Eustachian valve
(i) Opening of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves,
(2)
(ii) Opening of the semilunar valves.
(i) closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves.
(3)
(ii) closure of the semilunar valves.
(i) opening of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
(4)
(ii) Closure of the Eustachian valve.

45) Match the item given in column - I with those in column II and select the correct option given
below :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Atrial systole (i) 0.3 sec.

(b) Ventricular systole (ii) 0.1 sec.

(c) Atrial diastole (iii) 0.5 sec.

(d) Ventricular diastole (iv) 0.7 sec.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

 (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) During a cardiac cycle each ventricle pumps out approximately.....(i).....of blood which is called
the .......(ii)...... The.......(iii).......multiplied by the heart rate gives the cardiac out put.
Choose the correct statement for the fill in the blanks :-

(1) (i) 70 ml, (ii) stroke volume, (iii) stroke volume

(2) (i) 120 ml , (ii) stroke volume, (iii) Heart beat
(3) (i) 50 ml, (ii) Heart beat, (iii) stroke volume
(4) (i) 70 ml, (ii) No of heart beats per min., (iii) Stroke volume.

47) Which one of the following pair is incorrect :

(1) Uricotelic ........... Birds

(2) Ureotelic ........... Insects
(3) Ammonotelic ......... Tadpole
(4) Ureotelic ........... Elephant

48) Both kidney have ____ tubular structure called ureter.

(1) 1 million
(2) 2 million
(3) one
(4) two

49) In majority of nephrons, the loop of henle is too _(a)_& extends only very little into the _(b)_.
such nephrons are called _(c)_ nephrons.

(1) (a) Long ; (b) medulla ; (c) justa medullary

(2) (a) Short ; (b) medulla ; (c) justa medullary
(3) (a) Short ; (b) medulla ; (c) Cortical
(4) (a) Long ; (b) Cortex ; (c) Cortical

50) Statement-I :- The Mapighian corpuscle, PCT and DCT of the nephron are situated in the
cortical region of the kidney.
Statement -II :- The loop of henle dips into the medulla of kidney.

(1) Both statement are incorrect

(2) Both statements are correct
(3) I statement correct, II incorrect
(4) II statement correct, I incorrect

51) Assertion :- Each kidney has nearly one to two million complex tubular structure called
nephrons.
Reason :- Nephrons are the structural & functional unit of kidnay.

(1) Both A & R are true & R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) Assertion is true but reason is not true
(4) Reason is true but assertion is not true.

52) Select the correct statement regarding kidney :-

(1) 10 - 12 cm in width
(2) 2 - 3 cm in width
(3) 220gm - 370 gm in weight
(4) 5 - 7 cm in width

53) Kidney is situated between.

(1) T2 to L3
(2) L3 to T2
(3) Last thorasic to third lumbar vertebra
(4) Last lumbar to third thorasic vertebra

54) Assertion :- The first step in urine formation is the filtration of blood.
Reason :- Filtration of Blood is carried out by the glomerulus and is called glomerular filtrate.

(1) Assertion & Reason are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason all not true.

55) How many of the followings are reabsorbed actively in the filtrate.
Glucose, urea, amino acid, uric acid, Na+, Cl–

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

56) Howmany of the following substances are present in glomerular filtrate.

Protein less plasma, RBC, Glucose, Amino Acid, Fatty Acid, Urea, WBC, Platelates, Protein

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Eight

57) The renal tubule begins with a double walled cup like structure called __(A)__ which encloses the
__(B)__ select the correct options regarding A & B.

(1) A - Glomerulus, B - Bowman's capsule

(2) A - Bowman's capsule, B - Glomerulus
(3) A - Bowman's capsule, B - Henley's loop
(4) A - Henley's loop, B - Glomerulus

58) Statement-I :- Each nephron has two parts the glomerulus and the renal tubule.
Statement -II :- Blood from glomerulus is carried away by an afferent arteriole.

(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

(2) Both statement I and statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement I and statement II is correct.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

59) Statement -I :- The medulla is divided into medullary pyramids.

Statement -II :- These pyramids are projecting into the calyces.

(1) only I is true

(2) only II is true
(3) Both I and II are true
(4) Neither I, Nor II is t

60) Fill in the blanks

Inside the kidney, there are two zones an onter __a__ and an inner __ b__.

(1) a - Medulla, b - cortex

(2) a - cortex, b - medulla
(3) a - pelvis, b - medulla
(4) a - medulla, b - pelvis

61) Fill in the blanks

In Human kidney inner to Hilum is a broad funnd shaped space called the ___ with propections
called calyces.

(1) Renal pelvis

(2) Renal cortex
(3) Renal Medulla
(4) Nephron

62) Read the following statements-

(A) Filtration is a non-selective and passive process performed by the glomerulus
(B) Nearly 99 % of the filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
(C) Nearly all of the essential nutrients, and 70-80 % of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed by
PCT.
(D) DCT and collecting duct allow reabsorption of water and certain electrolytes, which not help in
osmoregulation.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Only One
(4) Two

63) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): In most of the terrestrial organisms, nitrogenous waste is either urea or uric acid.
Reason (R): Terrestrial adaptation necessitated the production of lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes
like urea and uric acid for conservation of water.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

64) In which one of the following options Column I is correctly matched with Column II?

Column I Column II
(1) Reabsorption of glucose, amino acids, Na+ Passive
(2) Reabsorption of urea Active
(3) Tubular secretion of H +
Active
(4) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water PCT
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) The renal tubule begins with a double walled cup-like structure called Bowman’s capsule.
In majority of nephrons, the loop of Henle is too short and extends only very little into the
(2)
medulla.
(3) In juxta medullary nephrons, loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into the medulla.
Towards the centre of inner convex surface of the kidney, a notch is present, through which
(4)
ureter, blood vessels and nerves enter.

66) How much blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute?

(1) 125 ml/minute

(2) 1100-1200 ml/minute
(3) 1/5th of the blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute
(4) Both 2 and 3

67) Choose the correct statement about excretion ?

(1) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in juxta-medullary nephrons.

(2) In Juxta-medullary nephrons loop of henle is very long and runs deep into the medulla
(3) Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule is called Malpighian tubule
(4) Both kidneys has nearly one million nephrons.

68) Statement - I : Protonephridia are primarily concerned with ionic and fluid volume regulation.
Statement - II : Antennal glands or green glands perform the excretory structures in amphioxus
and rotifers.

(1) Statement - I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement - I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement- I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

69) Identify the part of nephron that_____.

(I) is lined by cuboidal brush bordered epithelium.
(II) reabsorbs 70 - 80% of electrolytes and water.

(1) Distal convoluted tubule.

(2) Loop of Henle
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule.
(4) Collecting Duct.

70) Assertion (A) : As a concentrated filterate pass upward through ascending limb of henle loop, it
gets diluted.
Reason (R) : Ascending limb of henle loop transports electrolyte actively or passively to the
medullary fluid.

(1) A is correct but R is not correct.

(2) A and R both are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A and R both are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A & R are incorrect.

71) Members of kingdom plantae

(1) May include some eukaryote unicellular

(2) have chitinous cell wall
(3) Lack cellulosic cell wall
(4) Always have equal lengths of diploid and haploid phases in their life

72) How many of the given plants have archegonia as well as they produces seeds?
Laminaria, Dictyota, Sphagnum, Equisetum, Cycas, Pinus, Ginkgo, Mustard, Mango, Cedrus,
Ectocarpus

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 6

73) Select the mismatched pair.

(1) Pinus - Dioecious

(2) Selaginella - Heterosporous
(3) Funaria - Multicellular rhizoids
(4) Ectocarpus - Filamentous algae

74) Endosperm in gymnosperm is :

I. Formed before fertilization
II. Haploid in nature
III. Female gametophyte
Option :

(1) I is correct
(2) II & III are correct
(3) I & III are wrong
(4) All are correct

75) Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by formation of specialised structures called
gemmae. All of the following are true about gemmae, except.

(1) Multicellular
(2) Green
(3) Develop in Gemma cup
(4) Germinate to form new sporophyte.

76) Motile stages are not found in life cycle of :-

(1) Red Algae & green Algae

(2) Red Algae & brown Algae
(3) Red Algae & blue green Algae
(4) Green Algae & brown Algae

77) Polysulphate ester is present in the cell wall of A which also show B. What are A and B
respectively:

(1) A = Green algae, B = Agranal chloroplast

(2) A = Red algae, B = Isogamy
(3) A = Brown algae, B = Heterotrichous thallus
(4) A = Red Algae, B = Oogamy

78) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Red algae possess chlorophyll a, b corotenoids and xanthophyll.

(2) Red algae are found mainly in marine water
(3) Volvox, Fucus and Ulothrix are green algae
(4) Sexual Reproduction may be isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous in bryophyta

79) In which of the following plant groups, the female reproductive organ is archegonium ?

(1) Algae, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta.

(2) Algae, Bryophyta, Gymnosperm
(3) Bryophyta, Pteridophyta, Gymnosperm
(4) Pteridophyta, Gymnosperm, Angiosperm

80) Assertion (A) : In liverworts specialised structure called gemmae are present.
Reason (R) : Gemmae are green, multicellular structure and helps in sexual reproduction.

(1) A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) A and R both are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

81) Which pteridophyte produce two kind of spore in their life cycle ?

(1) Psilotum
(2) Equisetum
(3) Dryopteris
(4) Salvinia

82) Which one of the following property of gymnosperm leaves help to reduce water loss ?

(1) Thin cuticle and sunken stomata

(2) Thick cuticle and sunken stomata
(3) Thick cuticle and open stomata
(4) Thin cuticle and open stomata

83) Select the correct statement from the following with respect to gymnosperm.

In Pinus, small specialised roots called coralloid roots are associated with N2-fixing
(1)
cyanobacteria.
(2) In Cedrus the stems are branched.
(3) In Pinus the stems are unbranched.
(4) In gymnosperms, the ovules are enclosed by an ovary wall.
84) Read the column-I, II, III and select the correct one :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Brown Chl a, d and

a. Chlorophyceae (i) P.
algae phycoerythrin

Green
b. Phaeophyceae (ii) Q. Chl a, b
algae

Red Chl a, c and

c. Rhodophyceae (iii) R.
algae fucoxanthin
(1) a-(ii)-Q, b-(i)-R, C-(iii)-P
(2) a-(ii)-Q, b-(i)-P, C-(iii)-R
(3) a-(ii)-P, b-(i)-Q, C-(iii)-R
(4) a-(ii)-P, b-(i)-R, C-(iii)-Q

85) Which of the following is the correct match ?

(1) Bryophytes : Marchantia, Porphyra, Polytrichum

(2) Pteridophytes : Adiantum, Salvinia, Selaginella
(3) Gymnosperms : Cedrus, Eucalyptus, Pinus
(4) Angiosperms : Wolfia, Ginkgo, Eucalyptus

86) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom.

(2) Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and as soil-binders.
The gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain
(3)
exposed both before and after fertilisations.
In gymnosperms the male and the female gametophytes have an independent free living
(4)
existence.

87) Assertion (A) : In Cycas specialized roots called coralloid roots associated with cyanobacteria.
Reason (R) : This association helps in N2-fixation in the Cycas.

(1) A and R both are true but R is not correct explanation of A.

(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A.

88) Identify the set of correct statement -

A. Sexual reproduction is isogamous in Fucus and Spirogyra.
B. Phycoerythrin is major pigment of Laminaria.
C. Amphibians of the plant kingdom are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.
D. Prothallus bear male and female sex organs.
E. The nucellus is protecteod by envelopes and the composite structure is called an ovule.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below -
(1) A, C and E only
(2) B, D and E only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) A, C and D only

89) Algin is :

(1) Hydrocolloids produced from red algae

(2) Hydrocolloids produced from brown algae
(3) Proteins produced from brown algae
(4) Peat produced by bryophyta

90) In Mosses and liverworts, spores are produced within the ___A___ after ___B___.

(1) A-Capsule, B-Mitosis

(2) A-Seta, B-Meiosis
(3) A-Capsule, B-Meiosis
(4) A-Seta, B-Mitosis
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 2 3 1 1 3 4 2 3 1 1 2 2 4 3 2 3 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 3 1 2 1 1 1 4 2 2 2 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 3 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 4 2 4 4 2 3 4 4 3 1 3 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 1 3 1 4 3 1 2 4 1 1 2 3 3 2 2 4 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 3 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 3 4 4 1 1 1 1 3 3 3 4 4 2 4 2 2 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 1 1 4 1 1 3 2 4 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 3 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 1 3 3 1 2 4 3 2 4 4 3 2 2 1 2 1 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 1 3 4 4 2 4 3 3 1 3 1 4 4 3 4 2 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 2 1 2 4 4 3 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
For equilibrium of charges Q,

∴q=–

2) Distance of point A from origin

......... (1)
Distance of point B from origin

⇒ from (1)

3)

Let us assume an element of length dx at a distance x from O.

charge on element

dQ = λ dx =

x dx ⇒ Q =

⇒Q=
Hence option (2)

4) From the property of electric filled lines we know,

Electric filled lines stars from positive charge and ends at negative charge
As density of cylinder is uniform so all he lines comes out of positive charge should enter to
the negative charge

5)
6) Fnet =
= 10 K N
= 9 × 1010 N

7)

Correct Answer: (3)

8)

Correct Answer: (4)

9) ϕin = –a2 a2 = –a4

ϕout = a(2a)a2 = 2a4

10)

Correct Answer: (3)

11)

Correct Answer: (1)

12) ∵ θ << ⇒ tanθ ≈ sinθ

13)

14)

Correct Answer: (2)

15)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to find the total electric charge on a thin disc whose
surface charge density varies with the distance from the center according to the given
formula. Specifically, the surface charge density is inversely proportional to the distance from
the center, and we need to integrate this to find the total charge.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves the concept of surface charge density and
integration over a continuous charge distribution. By considering a small ring element at a
distance r from the center and integrating these charges over the entire disc, the total charge
can be found.

Relevant Formulas: Surface charge density is given by where is a

constant, is the radius of the disc, and is the distance from the center. The charge on an

infinitesimal ring element is where is

the area of the ring element.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Consider a ring of radius and thickness with area

. 2. The charge on this ring is . 3.

Integrate from to :
4. The total charge on the disc is .

Tips and Tricks: Remember that when integrating charge distributions with radial
dependence, breaking the disc into rings often simplifies the integration. Also, note how the
terms with cancel out, making integration straightforward.

Common Mistakes: A common mistake is to directly integrate without considering the

infinitesimal ring's area or incorrectly handling the terms, leading to divergent or incorrect
results. Also, some might mistakenly plug in directly without considering it is excluded.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options involving powers of indicate a

misunderstanding of the area element or the dependency of charge density. Choices that
include likely come from incorrect assumptions or integration mistakes, as the integral
leads to a straightforward linear dependency.
16)
Force due to charge at A :

Force due to charge at B :

17)

flux through cube =

flux through surfaces ABEH, ADGH, ABCD will be zero

ϕ (EFGH) = ϕ (DCFG) = ϕ (EBCF) =

18)

sin θ =
19)

|q| = 12∈0

20) Flux =

ϕ= …(i) 4ϕ = …(ii)

⇒ q = 25µC

21) F = qE = q

22) Let x amount of charge be transferred

F= ;

4Q2 – 4x2 = 3Q2 ⇒ x =

23)

If the charge is placed at the corner of a cube, seven more identical cubes are required to

enclose the charge completely. Thus, the total flux through all the faces of cubes is .

The contribution of this flux through each cube . This flux emerging equally though
three front faces of the cube other three faces of cube junction of which charge is placed have
no flux.
Therefore, the flux through the face

Also, only th part of sphere is inside the cube, so .

24) Flux coming out of the cube ....(i)

and from sphere ϕ2 = ...(ii)

25) Since, it is a regular polygon If all charges were positive net force would be zero. Now
one positive is missing and one additional –Q is placed at point E.

26) Consider closed cube for give case

27) Ω = 2π, thus

28)

E = 0 in case (iii) → minimum

29) Solution:-
Exp:- To find flux . through a surface
Concept :- electric flux

Formula:- ϕ (flux enclosed) =

Cal:- If =0
than ϕ = 0
Answer-3
Level:- Easy

30) F = ⇒ 0.144 =

Q2 = =

Q= = 0.2 × 10–6 C.

31) Area of cross section is triangle

32) According to Gauss's law :

Electric flux, ϕE =
Charge on α-particle = 2e

∴ ϕE =

33) mg = F = 6πηrυ
qE – mg = F = 6πηrυ
qE = 6πηrυ + mg = 2mg

= = 2 × 103 V/m

34) New charges will be, –2µC and +3µC.

In first case ; 40 =

In second case ; F =

∴
or F = –10 N

35) Felec = FQnt

 T=
T2 ∝ R3

36)

37)

For ring, E = (along x -axis)

For x << R, force on –q

FR = – x→ (1) & FR = mw2x → (2) [For SHM]

⇒w= and T = = 2π

38)

At centre

E= sin 45° =

39) E1 and E2 be field produced by positively and negatively charged plates

At B : (right)

(right)
 (right)

At A : (left)

(right)

(left)

hence

40)
Enet = E' – E

= 16.46 × 103 N/C

41) tan θ =

⇒
⇒ y ∝ r3

⇒ r′ = r

42)

Correct Answer: (1)

43)
Charge induction on metallic sphere because of point charge.
 44) For cube distance between two charges can be a, ,

so force can be
Here q1 = n1e, q2 = n2e & n1, n2 will be integer

and ,

F2 = (n1, n2)

so, denominator can't be 4

45)

Correct Answer: (4)

CHEMISTRY

47)

Correct Answer: (3)

48)

Correct Answer: (2)

49)

Correct Answer: (3)

50)

Correct Answer: (3)

51)

Correct Answer: (3)

52)

Correct Answer: (2)

53)
Correct Answer: (4)

54)

Correct Answer: (2)

55)

Correct Answer: (4)

56)

Correct Answer: (4)

57)

Correct Answer: (2)

58)

Correct Answer: (3)

59)

Correct Answer: (4)

60)

Correct Answer: (4)

61)

Correct Answer: (3)

62)

Correct Answer: (1)

63)

Correct Answer: (3)

64)

Correct Answer: (4)

65)

Correct Answer: (4)

66)

Correct Answer: (2)

67)

Correct Answer: (4)

69)

Correct Answer: (3)

70) 6Li + 2H3PO4 → 3H2 + 2Li3PO4

71) Reduction half reaction

(i) MnO4– + 5e– + 8H+ —→ Mn+2 + 4H2O
(ii) C2O42– —→ 2CO2 + 2e–
Multiply equation (i) with 2 and equation (ii) with 5 and add
∴ 2MnO4– + 16H+ + 5C2O42– —→ 2Mn+2 + 8H2O + 10CO2
∴ Coefficients are 2,5 and 16 respectively.

72)

Correct Answer: (3)

73)

Correct Answer: (1)

74) S–2 + →

75)

Concept :The O.N. of Na in Na-Hg is zero. This is because Na is in a free state in Na-Hg and
the oxidation state of an element in a free state is always zero

76) A. Question Explanation: We are asked to identify which substance can act as both a
reducing agent and an oxidising agent - i.e., it can undergo both oxidation and reduction
 depending on the reaction conditions.

B. Concept
A substance that can act as both oxidising and reducing agent must have an intermediate
oxidation state - meaning it can either gain or lose electrons.
Let's analyze each:
1. H2O2 (Oxidation state of O is -1):

A. Can be oxidised to O2 (0)

B. Can be reduced to H2O (–2)
C. Acts as both oxidising and reducing agent

2. ClO4– (Chlorine in +7 state):

A. Already in maximum oxidation state

B. Can only be reduced, not oxidised further
C. Only oxidising agent

3. F2 (Oxidation state 0):

A. Most electronegative element

B. Always acts as an oxidising agnet
C. Only oxidising agnent

4. MnO4– (Mn is +7):

A. Can be reduced to Mn2, MnO2, etc.

B. Cannot be oxidised further
C. Only oxidising agent

C. Final Answer
Option 1: H2O2
D. Question Level
Easy

77)

Correct Answer: (1)

78)

Correct Answer: (2)

79)

Correct Answer: (3)

80)

Correct Answer: (3)

 81)

Correct Answer: (2)

82)

Correct Answer: (2)

83)

Correct Answer: (4)

84)

Correct Answer: (1)

85)

Correct Answer: (1)

87)

Correct Answer: (4)

88)

Correct Answer: (3)

89)

Correct Answer: (3)

BIOLOGY

91) Question Explanation:

The question tests your knowledge of the heart's conductive system, specifically the properties
and locations of the sinoatrial node (SAN), atrioventricular node (AVN), AV bundle, and
Purkinje fibers.
Correct Answer and Explanation:
3. ii and iv •
ii. Position of SAN - right upper corner of right atrium: This is correct. The sinoatrial
(SA) node, the heart's natural pacemaker, is located in the upper right atrium near the
opening of the superior vena cava.
iv. AV bundle continues from AVN: This is also correct. The atrioventricular (AV) node
delays the electrical impulse briefly before passing it on to the AV bundle (also known as the
bundle of His), which then conducts the impulse to the ventricles.
92) Correct Match: Option 1
(a) High blood pressure - (iv) Hypertension: This is a direct correlation . Hypertension is the
medical term for high blood pressure.
(b) Coronary artery disease - (i) Atherosclerosis: Atherosclerosis is the underlying cause of
coronary artery disease. It involves the buildup of plaque (fatty substances, cholesterol,
calcium, and other cellular waste products) inside the arteries, narrowing them and reducing
blood flow to the heart.
(c) Angina - (ii) Acute chest pain: Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by decreased
blood flow to the heart muscle. It often feels like pressure or squeezing in the chest.
(d) Cardiac arrest - (iii) Heart stops beating: Cardiac arrest is a sudden cessation of the
heart's pumping function, leading to the loss of blood circulation.

93) Asking about : Which one Increases strength of Heart contraction ?

Concept : Regulation of cardiac activity

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
• Adventive is a hormone released during sympathetic stimulation. It Increases, Heart rule,
strength of ventricular contraction and cardiae output.
• While Acetylcholine is a Neuro trans miter.
• ACTH works on Arden cortex
• Melatonin maintain diurnal Rhythm, sleep work cycle etc.
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

94)

Question Asks: To identify the correct statements.

Solution Explanation:
(a) Crocodiles have 4-chambered heat:
crocodiles are an exception. They possess a 4-chambered heart with two atria and two
completely separatied ventricles, similar to birds and mammals. This allows for a completely
separated ventricles, similar to bird and mammals. This allows for a complete separation of
oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
Therefore, statement (a) is correct.
(b) Astrio-ventricular septa are provided openings which are guarded by cuspid-values.
The valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle is the tricuspid valve (having three
cusps), and the valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the bicuspid valve or
mitral valve (having two cusps).
Therefore, statement (b) is correct.
(c) Stroke volume is 70ml of each ventricle.
Stroke volume is the volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle during each heartbeat. In a
healty adult at rest, the stroke volume is approximately 70 ml per ventricle.
Therefore, statement (c) is correct.
Since all three statements (a), (b), and (c) are correct, the correct option is the one that
includes all of them.

95) NCERT XI Pg.# 288

96) Explanation :
Identify incorrect statement.

Concept :
Structure of Heart

Solution :
1. Incorrect : Atria and ventricle of same side are separated by thick muscular tissue.
2. Correct
3. Correct
4. Correct

Final Answer :
Option (1)

97) Explanation :
To evaluate Assertion and Reason.

Concept :
Blood vessels

Solution :
Assertion - Correct
Reason - correct
There is undialectical flow of blood atria to ventricle and ventricle to other vessels due to
presence of respective values between them which ensure theme is no backflow of blood.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

98) NCERT XI Pg.# 282 - 283

99) NCERT Pg # 201

100) NCERT Pg # 196

101) NCERT Pg # 195

102) NCERT Pg # 195

103) NCERT Pg. # 203, 15.6

104) NCERT Pg. # 201, 15.4

105) NCERT Pg. # 200, 15.3.2

106) NCERT Pg. # 200, 15.3.2

107) NCERT Pg. # 200, 15.3.2

108) NCERT Pg. # 198, 15.3.1

109) NCERT Pg. # 196, [Link]

110) NCERT Pg. # 196, 15.1.3

111) NCERT Pg. # 194, 15.1.1

112) NCERT Pg. # 193, 15.1.1

113) NCERT Pg.# 195-196

114) NCERT Pg.# 203

115) NCERT Pg.# 196, 198, 199

116) NCERT Pg. # 201

117) NCERT Pg. # 200

118) NCERT Pg. # 199, 200

119) NCERT Pg. # 284

120) NCERT Pg. # 199

121) NCERT Pg. # 195

122) NCERT Pg. 194-195

123) NCERT Pg. # 194

124) NCERT Pg. # 194

 125) NCERT Pg. # 202, 198, 196

126) NCERT Pg. # 200, 201

127) NCERT Pg. # 202

128) NCERT Pg. # 193

129) NCERT Pg. # 194

130) NCERT Pg. # 199

131) NCERT, Pg. # 200

132) NCERT Pg. # 199

133) NCERT Pg. # 199,200

134) NCERT Pg. # 200

135) NCERT, Pg. # 200

136) NCERT Pg. # 200

137)

Correct Answer:

A. Option 2 - Ureotelic _________Insects (Incorrect Pair)

Explanation :

A. Uricotelic organisms excrete uric acid (e.g., Birds, Reptiles, Insects).

B. Ureotelic organisms excrete urea (e.g., Mammals like Elephants, Amphibians like Frogs).
C. Ammonotelic organisms excrete ammonia (e.g., Tadpoles, Bony Fishes, Amphibians).
D. Insects are uricotelic, not ureotelic, so Option 2 is incorrect.

138) NCERT Pg. # 207

139) NCERT Pg. # 293

140) NCERT Pg. 293

141)

NCERT Pg. # 292

142) NCERT Pg. # 291

143) NCERT Pg. # 291

144) NCERT Pg. # 208

145) NCERT Pg. # 294

146) NCERT Pg. # 209

147) NCERT Pg. # 292

148) NCERT Pg. 207

149) NCERT Pg. # 206, 207

150) NCERT Pg. # 206, 207

151) NCERT Pg. # 206,207

152) NCERT Pg # 209, 214, 215

153) NCERT Pg # 205

154) NCERT Pg # 209, 210

155) NCERT Pg # 206, 207, 208

156) NCERT Pg # 208

157) NCERT-XI Pg.# 292-293

158) NCERT Pg. No. # 206

159) NCERT Pg. No. # 209

 160) NCERT Pg # 209

162)

To answer this question, let's analyze each plant to determine if it has archegonia and
produces seeds:

A. Laminaria: Alga, no archegonia, no seeds.

B. Dictyota: Alga, no archegonia, no seeds.
C. Sphagnum: Bryophyte, has archegonia, but does not produce seeds.
D. Equisetum: Pteridophyte, has archegonia, but does not produce seeds.
E. Cycas: Gymnosperm, has archegonia and produces seeds.
F. Pinus: Gymnosperm, has archegonia and produces seeds.
G. Ginkgo: Gymnosperm, has archegonia and produces seeds.
H. Mustard: Angiosperm, does not have archegonia (flowering plants lack archegonia) but
produces seeds.
I. Mango: Angiosperm, does not have archegonia but produces seeds.
J. Cedrus: Gymnosperm, has archegonia and produces seeds.
K. Ectocarpus: Alga, no archegonia, no seeds.

Plants with archegonia and seeds:

A. Cycas, Pinus, Ginkgo, Cedrus.

Total: 4
Correct answer: 3. 4

163)

The correct answer is:

1. Pinus - DioeciousExplanation:

A. Pinus is monoecious, meaning both male and female cones (reproductive structures) are found
on the same plant. Hence, this pair is mismatched.
B. The other pairs:

2. Selaginella - Heterosporous: Correct. Selaginella produces two types of spores (microspores and
megaspores).
3. Funaria - Multicellular rhizoids: Correct. Funaria (a moss) has multicellular rhizoids for
anchorage.
4. Ectocarpus - Filamentous algae: Correct. Ectocarpus is a filamentous brown alga

165)

Asexual reproduction in liverworts takes place by the formation of gemmae, which are small,
multicellular structures that develop in gemma cups. They are green and help in the asexual
propagation of the plant. However, gemmae germinate to form a new gametophyte (not a
sporophyte), as the gametophyte is the reproductive stage in liverworts.

169) NCERT, Pg. # 29, 32, 33

170) NCERT Pg. # 29

171) NCERT Pg. # 32

172) NCERT Pg. # 32

173) NCERT Pg.#32.

174) NCERT Pg. # 26, 27

175) NCERT, PG. # 28 to 33

176) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29,30,32,33

177) NCERT Pg. # 32

178) NCERT Pg. No. # 24

179) NCERT-XI, Pg. 26-27

180)

XI NCERT Pg. No. # 29, 30