27-07-2025

1701CMD303052250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) A planet moving around sun sweeps area A1 in 2 days, A2 in 3 days and A3 in 6 days. Then the

relation between A1, A2 and A3 is :-

(1) 3A1 = 2A2 = A3

(2) 2A1 = 3A2 = 6A3
(3) 3A1 = 2A2 = 6A3
(4) 6A1 = 3A2 = 2A3

2) Assertion (A) : Radius of circular orbit of a satellite is made 2 times, then its areal velocity will
also become 2 times.

Reason (R) : Areal velocity of a satellite is given as .

(1) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) If (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) If both the (A) and (R) are false

3) The radius of moon is 1/4 times that of the earth and its mass is 1/80 times that of the earth. If g
represents the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth, than its value on the surface
of moon is.

(1) g/4
(2) g/5
(3) g/6
(4) g/8

4) Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, how many would a body weigh
halfway down to the centre of the earth if it weighed 250N on the surface?

(1) 100N
(2) 125N
(3) 175N
(4) 200N

5) The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th its weight on the surface of earth
(radius R) is.

(1) 5R
(2) 15R
(3) 3R
(4) 4R

6) The gravitational potential due to a point mass distribution is V = 3x2y +y3z. The gravitational
field at (1, 1, 1) is____N kg–1.

(1) 13
(2)
(3)
(4) zero

7) If the gravitational field intensity at a point is given by I = then magnitude of potential at

distance 'r' is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A body is projected vertically upwards from the surface of the earth with a velocity sufficient to
carry it to infinity. If the radius of the earth is R, the velocity of the body at a height h is.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Two concentric spherical shells of non-zero masses are as shown in the figure. Match Column-I
with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

A Potential at A P Greater than B

B Gravitational field at A Q Less than B

C As one moves from C to D R Potential remains constant

D As one moves from D to A S Gravitational field decreases

T Data insufficient
(1) A-P ;B-Q; C-R; D-S
(2) A-Q ;B-T; C-R; D-S
(3) A-P ;B-Q; C-S; D-R
(4) A-Q ;B-P; C-S; D-R

10) The ratio of radii of two planets is p and the ratio of acceleration due to gravity at their surface
is q. the ratio of escape velocity from their surfaces will be.

(1)

(2)

(3) pq
(4)

11) If one of the satellites of Jupiter has an orbital period of 1.769 days and radius of the orbit is 4.22
× 108m, then what is the ratio of mass of Jupiter to the mass of sun?

(1) 1/100
(2) 1/2000
(3) 1/1000
(4) 1/200

12) A satellite moving in a circular path of radius r around the earth has a time period t. If its radius
slightly increases by 4%, then percentage change in its time period is.......

(1) 1%
(2) 6%
(3) 3%
(4) 9%

13) A satellite is put in a circular orbit of radius R. Another satellite is thrown in a circular orbit of
radius 1.01R. The percentage difference between the periodic time of second satellite with respect
to the first will be.

(1) 1% increased
(2) 1% decreased
(3) 1.5% increased
(4) 1.5% decreased

14) A body of mass m is taken from a height 2R from centre of earth to a height 4R from centre
without changing its kinetic energy then work done on the body is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) mgR
(4) 2mgR

15) A spherical hollow cavity is made in a lead sphere of radius R, such that its surface touches the
outside surface of the lead sphere and passes through its centre. The mass of the sphere before
hollowing was M. With what gravitational force will the hollowed-out lead sphere attract a small
sphere of mass 'm', which lies at a distance d from the centre of the lead sphere on the straight line

connecting the centres of the spheres and that of the hollow, if d = 2R :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Two fix planet of masses M & 4M are separated by a distance of 6R between their center. A body
is projected from the surface of planet of mass M then what will be the minimum velocity of particle

so that it can reach at the surface of planet of mass 4M.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Mass M is divided into two parts xM and (1 – x) M. For a given separation, the value of x for
which the gravitational attraction between the two pieces becomes maximum is

(1) 1/2
(2) 3/5
(3) 1
(4) 2

18) The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the
shaded area SAB. If t1 be the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from

A to B, then :

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 = 8t2
(3) t1 = 4t2
(4) t1 = 2t2

19) The mass of the earth is 9 times that of Mars. The radius of the earth is twice that of Mars. The
escape velocity on the earth is 12 km s–1. The escape velocity on Mars is..... km s–1.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) Five point masses m each are placed at five corners of a regular pentagon. Distance of any
corner from center is r. Match the following two columns.

Column I Column II

Gravitational field strength at

A P Gm/r2
center

B Gravitational potential at center Q 4 Gm/r

 When one mass is removed
C gravitational field strength R zero
(magnitude) at center.

When one mass is removed

D S None of these
gravitational potential at center
(1) A→R, B→S, C→P, D→S
(2) A→R, B→P, C→S, D→Q
(3) A→S, B→R, C→P, D→Q
(4) A→S, B→Q, C→R, D→P

21) A hollow metallic sphere P is charged to a potential V volt. Another metallic sphere Q is charged
to a potential V/2. If Q is placed inside P and they are connected by a metallic wire, then

(1) charge will flow from P to Q until the potential becomes 3V/4
(2) whole charge will flow from P to Q
(3) the whole charge will flow from Q to P
(4) no charge flows

22) An electric dipole of dipole moment P is kept perpendicular to the plane of 2 large charged

conducting plates as shown. The potential energy of the dipole is given as -

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) In a region shown consider an electric field where (A = 9 × 105 Nm2/C). The potential
difference between point x1 and x2 will be :-

(1) 2 × 105 V
(2) 9 × 105 V
(3) 105 V
(4) 1.11 × 105 V

24) The electric potential at a point due to an electric dipole will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A non conducting sphere of radius 'a' has a net charge '+q' uniformly distributed throughout its
volume. A hollow spherical conductor having inner and outer, radii 'b' and 'c' and net charge '–q' is

concentric with the sphere (see the figure) Read the following statements

(i) The electric field at a distance r from the centre of the sphere = for r < a
(ii) The electric field at distance r from the centre of the sphere for a < r < b = 0
(iii) The electric field at distance r from the centre of the sphere for b < r < c = 0
(iv) The charge on the inner surface of the hollow sphere = –q
(v) The charge on the outer surface of the hollow sphere = +q Which of the above statements are
true ?

(1) (i) , (ii) and (v)

(2) (i) , (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) , (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) , (iii) and (v)

26) Three conducting concentric spherical shells of radius R, 2R and 3R have charges Q, and – 2Q
respectively. The intermediate shell 'B' is now grounded. Find the charge flow into the earth.
(1)

(2)

(3) Q
(4) 0

27) The density of charge at P on the conductor is σ. The resultant electric field near P will be

[ Where = unit normal vector at point P. and = , K = 1/4πε]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Amount of work done in moving a charge q0 from centre of ring to an axial point at x = will
be, if charge given to ring is Q and ‘a’ being the radius:-

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

29) Identify the false statement :-

(1) Inside a charged or neutral conductor electric field is zero.

The electrostatic field at the surface of charged conductor must be tangential to the surface at
(2)
any point
(3) There is no net charge at any point inside the conductor
(4) Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the conductor

30) A uniform electric field of 400 V/m is directed at 45° with x-axis as shown in figure. The potential
difference VA – VB is given by :-

(1) 0
(2) 4 V
(3) 6.4 V
(4) 2.8 V

31) The electic potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = – x2 y – xz3 + 4. The electric field at that
point is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) An electric dipole of dipole moment is kept in uniform electric field

. Torque acting on dipole will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

33) As shown in fig. if a charge +q is carried from a point A (r, 135°) to point B (r, 45°). If dipole
moment is p then the work done by the external agent is

(1) 0
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The diagram shows a uniformly charged hemisphere of radius R. It has volume charge density ρ.
If the electric field at a point 2R distance above its center is E then what is the electric field at the
point which is 2R below its center?

(1) ρR/6ε0 + E
(2) ρR/12ε0 – E
(3) –ρR/6ε0 + E
(4) ρR/24e0 + E

35) Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of
surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A uniform electric field E = (8m/e) V/m is created between two parallel plates of length 1m as
shown in figure, (where m = mass of electron and e = charge of electron). An electron enters the
field symmetrically between the plates with a speed of 2m/s. The angle of the deviation (θ) of the
path of the electron as it comes out of the field will be ……….
(1) tan–1 (4)
(2) tan–1 (2)

(3)

(4) tan–1 (3)

37) The variation of potential with distance R from a fixed point is as shown below. The electric field

at R = 5m is :-

(1) 2.5 volt/m

(2) –2.5 volt/m
(3) 2/5 volt/m
(4) –2/5 volt/m

38) Some equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. What will be the magnitude and direction of

electric field?

(1) 100 V/m and 60° with +x-axis

(2) 200 V/m and 60° with +x-axis
(3) 300 V/m and 150° with +x-axis
(4) 200 V/m and 120° with +x-axis

39)

If we have an irregularly shaped conductor as shown and a charge is given to it, choose the correct
statement.

(1) the electric field and electric potential at P is maximum among all points of conductor.
(2) the electric field at P is maximum and electric potential is same at all points of conductor.
(3) the electric field and electric potential at P is same at all points of conductor.
(4) the electric field and electric potential at P is minimum among all points of conductor.

40) Assertion :- Under electrostatic conditions net electric field inside a solid conductor will be
zero.
Reason :- under electrostatic conditions there will be no free electons inside a conductor.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

41) We are able to obtain fairly large currents in a conductor because :-

(1) The electron drift speed is usually very large

The number density of free electrons is very high and this can compensate for the low values of
(2)
the electron drift speed and the very small magnitude of the electron charge
The number density of free electrons as well as the electron drift speed are very large and these
(3)
compensate for the very small magnitude of the electron charge
The very small magnitude of the electron charge has to be divided by the still smaller product of
(4)
the number density and drift speed to get the electric current

42) The current through a wire depends on time as i = (2 + 3t) A. Calculate the charge through a
cross section of the wire in first 10 sec :-

(1) 150 C
(2) 160 C
(3) 170 C
(4) 180 C

43) Current density of an area of cross section is varying according to equation . Find

the current through the cylinder

(1) πR J0
2

(2)

(3)

(4)
44) Suppose a current carrying wire has a cross-sectional area that gradually become smaller along
the wire has the shape of a very long cone as shown in figure.

(1) Electric current is different in different portions of wire.

(2) Electric field at point A is same as that of point B.
(3) Drift speed of electrons at point A is lesser than that of at point B.
(4) Drift speed of electrons at point A is same as that of at point B.

45) There is a current of 40 amp in a wire of 10–6 square meter area of cross-section. If the number
of free electrons per cubic metre is 1029, then the drift velocity is :-

(1) 250 × 10–3 m/sec

(2) 25.0 × 10–3 m/sec
(3) 2.50 × 10–3 m/sec
(4) 1.25 × 103 m/sec

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following is correct order of I effect :

(1) –NO2 > –CHO > –CN (–I)

(2) –CH3 > –CD3 > – CT3(+I)
(3)
(4) –OH > –F > –Br (–I)

2) Which of the following does not has resonance?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH2 = CH–C ≡ N

3) Which among the following compound/ion is not aromatic :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) pKb is minimum for :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) Most acidic compound is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) The correct order of increasing basic strength of the bases NH3, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH and (CH3)3N
in aqueous solution is :-

(1) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH

(2) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N < NH3
(3) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3NH
(4) NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH

7) In which of the following compound both +M and –I effect are operating :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following is not the correct resonating structure of C6H5NH2 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) Which sequence of stability of carbanion is correct ?

(1) III > I > II > IV

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) I > III > II > IV
(4) III > I > IV > II

10) Which of the following compound has highest bond length ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

11) In the following compound The order of basicity is

:-

(1) IV > I > III > II

(2) III > I > IV > II
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) I > III > II > IV

12) Arrange stability of the given carbocation in decreasing order :-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) IV > I > II > III
(4) II > III > I > IV

13) Which of the following is most stable free radical:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The electron density in benzene ring in the following compounds follows the order
(1) IV > III > II > I
(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) IV > II > I > III
(4) IV > II > III > I

15) The correct order of decreasing basic strengths of x, y and z is

(1) x > y > z

(2) x > z > y
(3) y > x > z
(4) y > z > x

16) Most reactive compound towards ESR is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) Which of the following is most stable carbocation:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The order of heat of combustion in following compounds is :

(1) II < I < IV < III
(2) III < IV < II < I
(3) II < III < I < IV
(4) II < IV < I < III

19) Which among the following does not show hyper conjugation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Which of the following is most stable.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which of the following compound is not aromatic?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
22) Correct order of stability of the following carbocations is :

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) a > b > d > c
(3) b > a > d > c
(4) a > d > b > c

23) Which of the following compound is aromatic ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) In which species C — N bond length is the maximum ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Correct order of stability of the following carbocation is:

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) d > a > b > c
(3) a > d > b > c
(4) c > b > a > d

26) Which of the following is least stable carbanion?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Most reactive towards electrophilic substitution reactive ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In which of the following species, incorrect direction of inductive effect is shown?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

29) Polarization of electrons in acrolein may be written as:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Resonance effect involves:

(1) Delocalization of π-electrons along a conjugated system.

(2) Delocalization of lone pair along a conjugated system.
(3) Delocalization of negative charge along a conjugated system.
(4) All are correct.

31) The correct stability order of given resonating structures is.

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > III > II > I
(3) I = II = III = IV
(4) II = III > I = IV

32) Which of the following species does not have equally contributing resonating structures?
(1)

(2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

(3)

(4)

33) The correct increasing order of basic strength of the labelled N is.

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) I < II < IV < III
(3) I < III < IV < II
(4) IV < III < II < I

34) Choose the strongest base among the following :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

35) The correct basic strength order of following anions is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Arrange the following carbanions in decreasing order of stability:

(I) (II)
(III) (IV)

(1) III > II > IV > I

(2) III > II > I > IV
(3) III > I > II > IV
(4) II > III > I > IV

37) The stability order of following carbocation is.

(1) i > ii > iv > iii

(2) iii > i > ii > iv
(3) iv > ii > iii > i
(4) ii > iv > iii > i

38) Which of the following is the rearranged more stable carbocation of the given species?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Arrange the following in increasing order of their heat of hydrogenation.

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) IV < III < II < I

(2) I < II < III < IV
(3) IV < III < I < II
(4) I < II < IV < III

40) Arrange the following in there correct order of reactivity towards Electrophilic substitution

reaction?

(1) I > IV > II > III

(2) II > I > III > IV
(3) II > I > IV > III
(4) III > II > IV > I

41) Which of the following is weakest base ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

42) Which of the following is not a pair of valid resonating structure ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) In which case, all effect namely inductive, hyperconjugation and resonance applicable.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) When attached to benzene ring which group has maximum inductive effect but minimum H-
effect.

(1) Methyl
(2) t-butyl
(3) Ethyl
(4) isopropyl

45) Positive mesomeric effect shown by :-

(1) –Cl
(2) –OCH3
(3) –NHCOCH3
(4) All

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following statements is correct regarding to kidney disease ?

(1) Glomerulonephritis affects only the tubules of the kidney

(2) Glomerulonephritis is always caused by a bacterial infection
(3) Renal Calculi is insoluble mass of crystallised salts
(4) Glomerulonephritis is common disease in human

2) Which one of the following statement is correct with respect to Hemodialysis ?

(1) In a patient of liver failure, ammonia can be removed by this process

(2) Blood drained out from a convenient vein
(3) Dialysis unit contains a coiled cellophane tube surrounded by dialysing fluid.
(4) Cellophane membrane of the tube is non-porous.

3) Consider the following notations and choose the correct sequence of passage of urine ?

I Nephron

II Collecting duct

III Renal Calyx

IV Duct of Bellini

V Papilla

VI Urinary bladder

VII Ureters

VIII Urethra
(1) I - II - IV - III - V - VII - VI - VIII
(2) I - II - IV - V - III - VII - VI - VIII
(3) I - IV - II - V - III - VII - VI - VIII
(4) I - II - IV - V - III - VIII - VI - VII

4) Statement-I : Opening of urethra is controlled by sphincters made of only involuntary muscle.

Statement-II : These sphincters normally remain contracted and relax during micturition

(1) Statement A and Statement B both are true.

(2) Statement A and Statement B both are false.
(3) Statement A is true and Statement B is false.
(4) Statement A is false and Statement B is true .
5) Which of the following factor/feature prevent back-flow of urine into ureters during micturition ?

(1) Presence of urothelium in urinary bladder

(2) Obliquity of the openings of ureters into urinary bladder.
(3) External urethral sphincter
(4) Internal urethral sphincter

6) The______is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour, emotional reaction and motivation.

(1) Cerebral cortex

(2) Limbic system
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Corpus callosum

7) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

A Midbrain I Base of thalamus

B Brain stem II tract of nerve fibres.

C Corpus callosum III Corpora quadrigemina

D Hypothalemus IV Midbrain, Pons and Medulla

Choose the correct answer from options given below-

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

8) In the given figure, site A and site B represents

(1) Site A-depolarised state, site B-repolarised state

(2) Site A-depolarised state, site B-polarised state
(3) Site A-polarised state, site B-repolarised state
(4) Site A-repolarised state, site B-depolarised state
9) Find out the incorrect statement from the options given below :-

(1) Neurotransmitter bind to their specific receptors, present on the post synaptic membrane.
(2) A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the midbrain.
Association areas of brain are responsible for complex functions like intersensory association,
(3)
memory and communication.
(4) Electrical synapses pass electrical signal between cells with the use of Ach.

10)
In the above diagram the electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane at the site A is
called :-

(1) Graded potential

(2) Resting potential
(3) Action potential
(4) None of these

11) During the transmission of nerve impulse which of the following take place ?

(1) Flux of Na+ inwards and K+ outwards.

(2) Flux of K+ inwards and Na+ outwards.
(3) Flux of K+ inwards and Na+ inwards.
(4) Flux of K+ outwards and Na+ outwards.

12) Assertion (A) : Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that
across a chemical synapse.
Reason (R) : Transmission of an impulse across chemical synapses is very similar to impulse
conduction along a single axon.

(1) Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

13) Read the following options and select the correct options :-
(A) Ion channels are semipermeable to different ions.
(B) The axonal membrane is impermeable to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm.
(C) The axoplasm inside axon contains high concentration of Na+ and low concentration of K+ ions.
(D) Neurons are excitable cells because their membrane are in a polarised stage.

(1) A, B are correct.

(2) B, C, D are correct.
(3) B, C are correct.
(4) B, D are correct.

14) How many of the following functions are related to medulla oblongata ?
Cardiovascular reflex, respiration, gastric, secretion, metabolism.

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2

15)

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A. Schwann cells I. Neurotransmitter

B. Synaptic knob II. Cerebral cortex

C. Bipolar neurons III. Myelin sheath

D. Multipolar neurons IV. Retina

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D -III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

16) Match List–I with List–II

List–I List–II

A. Limbic system I. Body temperature

B. Arachnoid II. Tract of nerve fibres

C. Corpus callosum III. Amygdala

D. Hypothalamus IV. Cranial meninges

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A–I, B–II, C–IV, D–III
(2) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(3) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I

17)

Match List I with List II :

 List I List II

A. Pons I. Has convoluted surface

B. Hypothalamus II. Controls respiration and gastric secretions

C. Medulla III. Connects different regions of the brain

D. Cerebellum IV. Neuro secretory cells

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

18) Match the list-I with list-II :-

List-I List-II

Site of information processing and

A. I. Somatic neural system
control

Relays impulses from the CNS to Autonomic neural

B. II.
skeletal muscles system

Comprises of all the nerves of the

C. III. Central neural system
body associated with the CNS

Transmits impulses from the CNS to Peripheral neural

D. IV.
the involuntary organs system

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :-

(1) A-(III), B-(I), C-(IV), D-(II)
(2) A-(III), B-(II), C-(IV), D-(I)
(3) A-(IV), B-(I), C-(II), D-(III)
(4) A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV)

19) The cerebral cortex is referred to as the __A__ due to its __B__ appearance, the neuron __C__ are
concentrated here giving the colour :

A B C

(1) White mater White Cell bodies

(2) Grey mater Grey Axon

(3) White mater White Axon

(4) Grey mater Grey Cell bodies

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
20) Inside the skull, the brain is covered by cranial meninges consisting of an outer layer called
__A__ a very thin middle layer called __B__ and an inner layer called __C__.

A B C

(1) Duramater Pia mater Arachnoid

(2) Pia mater Arachnoid Duramater

(3) Duramater Arachnoid Pia mater

(4) Arachnoid Duramater Pia mater

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) In resting condition the outer surface of the axonal membrane possesses a __A__ while its inner
surface becomes __B__ and therefore is __C__.

A B C

(1) Positive charge Negative charge Depolarised

(2) Positive charge Negative charge Polarised

(3) Negative charge Positive charge Polarised

(4) Positive charge Negative charge Hyper polarised

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the __A__ of ions by the __B__
which transport __C__ outwards for __D__ in to the cell.

Column-I Column-II

(A) (i) 2K⊕

(B) (ii) 3Na⊕

(C) (iii) Na-k-pump

(D) (iv) Passive transport

(v) Ion channels

(vi) Active transport

A B C D

(1) vi iv ii i
 (2) iii iv i ii

(3) vi iii i ii

(4) vi iii ii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) The axoplasm contains high concentration of __A__ and negatively charged proteins and low
concentration of __B__ ?

A B

(1) K⊕ ions ions

(2) Na⊕ ions K⊕ ions

(3) K⊕ ions Na⊕ ions

(4) PO4–3 ions K⊕ ions

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Autonomic neural system transmits impulses from the CNS to the __A__ and __B__ of the body.
Fill in the blanks (A & B) with appropriate choice :

A - Involuntry organs
(1)
B - Smooth muscles
A - Involuntry organs
(2)
B - Skeletal muscles
A - Voluntry organs
(3)
B - Skeletal muscles
A - Involuntry organs
(4)
B - Voluntry muscles

25) Which of the following statement/s are incorrect -

(i) Autonomic neural system transmits impulses from CNS to the voluntory organs and skeletal
muscles of the body.
(ii) Autonomic neural system is classified into somantic neural system and visceral neural system.
(iii) Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly found in autonomous and the somatic neural systems.
(iv) The PNS is divided into two divisions called somatic neural system and autonomic neural system.
Choose the correct choice :

(1) i, ii and iii

(2) ii and iv
(3) Only i
(4) i and ii

26) Assertion (A) :- CNS is main site of information processing and control.
Reason (R) :- PNS comprises of all the nerves of body associated with CNS.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation A
(3) Only A is True
(4) Both A and R are false

27) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

(a) Polarise (i) Influx of Na+ ion

(b) Depolarise (ii) –60 MV

(c) Repolarise (iii) Na+ – K+ pump open

(d) Threshold potential (iv) K+ VGC open

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

28) Select the option with correct statement -

(1) Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on pre synaptic membrane.
(2) Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on post synaptic membrane.
(3) Dendron terminals contain vesicles filled with neurotransmitters.
(4) At chemical synapses the membrane of pre and post synaptic neuron are in very close proximity.

29) In central nervous system myelin sheath is produced by __A__ and in Peripheral Nervous system
myelin sheath is produced by __B__.
Select the correct option about A and B respectively :-

(1) Oligodendrocytes and Astrocytes

(2) Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells
(3) Schwann cells and Astrocytes
(4) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes.

30) Different parts of the brain given in column-I and their functions in column-II. Match column-I
and II correctly and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II
 (A) Cerebrum (i) Balancing

Intelligence
(B) Cerebellum (ii)
and memory

Secretion of
(C) Medulla (iii)
neurohormone

Peristalsis and
(D) Hypothalamus (iv)
heart beats
(1) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
(2) A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i
(3) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
(4) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv

31) In the given diagram, which one is receptor sites for neuro transmitters?

(1) A - Tips of Axons

(2) B - Membrane of Synaptic Vesicles
(3) C - Pre - Synaptic Membrane
(4) D - Post Synaptic Membrane

32) Limbic system of human brain consists of

(1) Mid brain, pons and medulla oblongata.

(2) Thalamus, hypothalamus and corpora quadrigemina, association area of Brain.
Inner part of cerebral hemisphere, group of associated deep structure like amygdala,
(3)
hippocampus
(4) Cerebral equeduct, corpora quadrigemina.

33) When the neuron is conducting an impulse, i.e. excited, the axon membrane :

(1) Is freely permeable to sodium and potassium ions

(2) Comparatively more permeable for potassium and nearly impermeable to sodium ions
(3) Rise in permeability to potassium ions
(4) Becomes negatively charge outside and positively charge inside

34) Mid brain is responsible for :-

(1) Visual and auditory inputs only

(2) Memory
(3) Thermoregulation
(4) Visual, auditory and tactile inputs.
35) Read the following statements (A-D) :-
(A) The hindbrain comprises pons, cerebellum and medulla oblongata.
(B) Pons consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of the brain.
(C) Cerebellum has very convoluted surface in order to provide the additional space for many more
nephrons.
(D) The medulla of the brain is connected to the spinal cord.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

36) Assertion (A) : The cerebral cortex is referred to as the grey matter.
Reason (R) : It is of greyish appearance.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

37)

Column - I Column - II

(1) Corpus callosum (i) Thermoregulation

Connects two cerebral

(2) Thalamus (ii)
hemispheres

(3) Hypothalamus (iii) Memory

Major coordinating
(4) Association areas (iv) centre for sensory and
motor signaling
(1) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
(2) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv
(3) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-iii
(4) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv

38) The process through which two or more organs interact and complement the functions of one
another is called -

(1) Homeostasis
(2) Coordination
(3) Integration
(4) Osmoregulation

39) Assertion :- Myelinated nerve fibre are found in spinal & cranial nerves enclosed by
oligodendrocytes.
Reason :- Oligodendrocytes forms myelin sheath in CNS and PNS both.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

40) Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select the option which includes the correct one
only :
(a) The gap in between two myelinated sheath is called nodes of ranvier
(b) myelinated nerve fibres are present in spinal and carnial nerve
(c) Myelinated neve fibre is enclosed by a schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath around
the axon. It is commonly found in autonomous and somatic neural system
(d) Each branch of axon terminates as a bulb like structure called synaptic knob which possesses
synaptic vesicles, which contain a chemical called neurotransmitter

(1) Statement (c) and (d)

(2) Statement (b), (c) and (d)
(3) Statement (a) and (c)
(4) Statement (a), (b) and (d)

41) Resting axonal membrane is :-

(1) Unpolarized
(2) Unpolarized and more permeable to K+
(3) Polarized and more permeable to Na+
(4) Polarized and more permeable to K+

42) Na/K pumps transports :-

(1) 3Na+ out for 2K+ in

(2) 3Na+ in for 2K+ out
(3) 2Na+ out for 3K+ in
(4) 2Na+ in for 3K+ out

43) Depolarization occurs due to :-

(1) Influx of Na+

(2) Eflux of Na+
(3) Influx of K+
(4) Eflux of K+

44) Assertion :- Some areas of the brain and spinal cord look white.
Reason :- This is because cell bodies of neurons are situated in those areas.

(1) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Assertion is true and Reason is false

45) The correct sequence for depolarization and repolarization is :

(A) Stimulus applied at a site on polarized membrane
(B) Increase the permeability for Na+
(C) Generation of A.P.(Action Potential)
(D) Increase the permeability for K+
(E) Restoration of membrane potential

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) B → A → C → D → E
(3) A → D → C → B → E
(4) A → B → D → C → E

46) Statement-I :- The role of O2 is quite insignificant in the regulation of respiratory rhythm.
Statement-II :- Chemosensitive area present in pons is highly sensitive for CO2 and H+

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true.

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true.
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false.

47) Match the disorders given in column I with symptoms under column II. Choose the answer which
gives the correct combination of alphabets with numbers–

Column I Column II

(a) Asthma (i) Occupational respiratory disorder

(b) Bronchitis (ii) Inflammation of bronchi and bronchiole

(c) Silicosis (iii) Damaged alveoli wall

(d) Emphysema (iv) Inflammation of bronchi

(v) Cough with blood strained sputum

(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – v, d – i
(2) a – v, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
(3) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(4) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii

48) Match the following columns

Place pO2 pCO2

A Alveoli P 95 I 40

B Oxy. Blood Q 40 II 45
 C Tissue R 104 III 40
(1) A - R - I, B - P - III, C - Q - II
(2) A - P - II, B - Q - I, C - R - III
(3) A - Q - I, B - P - II, C - R - III
(4) A - R - III, B - Q - II, C - P - I

49) Identify the labelled part/marked A and B in the given diagram respectively :

(1) WBC, Basement membrane

(2) Alveolar cells, Endothelium
(3) RBC, Blood capillary
(4) RBC, Pulmonary artery

50) Statement-I : During respiration, O2 is utilized by the organism to directly break down nutrient
molecules.
Statement-II : The process of exchange of O2 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the cells
is commonly known as respiration.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

51) Read the following statements.

A. This process of exchange of O2 from atmosphere with CO2 Produced by the cells is called
breathing.
B. Earthworms use their moist cuticle to transport atmosphere air within the body.
C. Amphibians like frogs can respire through their moist skin (cutaneous respiration) also.
D. Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum.
Choose the correct options :-

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) C, D and B
(4) A, B, C and D

52) Match the column-I with column-II

 Column-I Column-II

Site for gases

Partial pressure
exchange

A Alveoli i 0.3 mmhg PCO2

Deoxygenated
B ii 45 mmhg PCO2
blood

C Atmospheric air iii 104 mmhg PO2

D Tissue iv 40 mmhg PO2

(1) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
(2) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(4) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv

53) Fill in the blanks (A, B, C, D) given in the following statement, then choose appropriate option.
(a) Tubes of conduction zone are supported by ___(A)___ rings which are ___(B)___.
(b) Larynx is a ___(C)___ box, which helps in ___(D)___ production.

A B C D

1 Bony Incomplete Bony Sound

2 Cartilagenous Incomplete Cartilagenous Sound

3 Cartilagenous Complete Cartilagenous Sound

4 Cartilagenous Incomplete Bony Sound

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3

(4)
4

54) Statement-I : In our body all factors are favourable for diffusion of O2 from alveoli to tissue and
that of CO2 from tissue to alveoli.
Statement-II : Alveoli are the primary sites of exchange of gases.

(1) Statement-I & statement-II both are correct

(2) Statement-I & statement-II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

55) See carefully some factors given below :

A. High Temperature B. High pH
C. High pCO2 D. High pO2
E. Low pH F. Low Temperature
G. Low pCO2 H. Low pO2
Which factors given above favours dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin at tissue level ?

(1) A, C, E, H
(2) A, C, E, F
(3) A, C, G, H
(4) A, C, E, G

56) Match the terms of column-I with column-II related to transportation of gases and select correct
option from given below.

Column-I Column-II

(p) 100 ml of oxygenated Blood (i) 4 ml of CO2

(q) Carbaminohemoglobin (ii) 97% through RBC

(r) Oxyhaemoglobin (iii) 5 ml of O2

(s) 100 ml of deoxygenated Blood (iv) 20-25% through RBC

(1) (p) – (i), (q) – (iv), (r) – (ii), (s) – (iii)
(2) (p) – (iii), (q) – (iv), (r) – (ii), (s) – (i)
(3) (p) – (iii), (q) – (ii), (r) – (iv), (s) – (i)
(4) (p) – (i), (q) – (ii), (r) – (iv), (s) – (iii)

57) Statement - I : Neural signal from Pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration of inspiration
and therefore alter the respiratory rate.
Statement - II : Receptors can recognise changes in CO2 and H⊕ ions concentration and send
necessary signal to pneumotaxic centre for remedial actions.

(1) Statement - I and II are correct.

(2) Statement - I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement - I is correct but II is incorrect.
(4) Statement - I is incorrect but II is correct.

58) The following statements refer to transportation of gases. Read carefully and choose correct
option containing incorrect statements.
(i) After leaving the lungs, each litre of blood contains about 20 ml of oxygen.
(ii) When PCO2 rises, the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen is increased.
(iii) Each litre of arterial blood contains about 4 ml of CO2.
(iv) Role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite significant.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

59) Given below are the partial pressures (in mmHg) of O2 and CO2. Choose correct option according
to labelled A, B, C and D.
 Respiratory gas O2 CO2

Atmospheric air 159 A

Alveoli B 40

Deoxygenated Blood 40 C

Oxygenated Blood D 40

A B C D

(1) 0.3 40 45 95

(2) 0.3 104 45 95

(3) 32 116 45 40

(4) 0.3 45 104 95

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

60) Oxygen binding to heamoglobin in blood is-

(1) Directly proportional to the concentration of CO2 in the medium.

(2) Inversely proportional to the concentration of CO2 in the medium.
(3) Directly proportional to the concentration of CO in the medium.
(4) Independent of the concentration of CO in the medium.

61) Match the list I with list II and choose the correct option :-

List I List II

P. Larynx A. Conduction zone/part

Q. Alveotar ducts B. Cartilagenous box

R. Trachea C. Incomplete cartilage ring

S. Terminal bronchiole D. Exchange zone/part

P Q R S

(1) D B A C

(2) A B C D

(3) B D C A

(4) D C A B
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) Tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 2500 mL respectively.
What will be his inspiratory capacity if the residual volume is 1200 mL ?

(1) 1700 mL
(2) 3700 mL
(3) 700 mL
(4) 3000 mL

63) The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the ____(A)____, ventrally by the ____(B)____, laterally
by the ___(C)___, and on lower side by the dome-shaped ____(D)____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Vertebral column Sternum Diaphragm Ribs

(2) Sternum Vertebral column Ribs Diaphragm

(3) Vertebral column Sternum Ribs Diaphragm

(4) Vertebral column Ribs Sternum Diaphragm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Which of the following statement is correct about respiration organs ?

(1) Higher vertebrates exchange O2 with CO2 by simple diffusion over their entire body surface
(2) Earthworm have network of tubules for exchange of gases
(3) Gills are used by most of the aquatic arthropods for exchange of gases
(4) Among vertebrates fishes and reptiles, use gills for breathing

65) Statement-I :- Mammals respire through lungs.

Statement-II :- Animals which are found in terrestrial habitat, only use lungs for exchange of gases.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(4) Both statements I and II are correct

66) Low secretion of ADH hormone can leads to, :

(1) Hyperglycemia
(2) Abnormal skin
(3) Dehydration
(4) Diarrhoea

67) During micturtion :-

(1) Urethral sphincter contracts, urinary bladder relaxes

(2) Urethral sphincter and urinary bladder contracts
(3) Urethral sphincter relaxes, urinary bladder contracts
(4) Urethral sphincter and urinary bladder relaxes

68) Read the following statements-

(A) Filtration is a selective and passive process performed by the glomerulus
(B) Nearly 99% of the urine is reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
(C) Nearly all of the essential nutrients, and 70-80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed by
PCT.
(D) PCT and collecting duct allow reabsorption of water and certain electrolytes, which help in
osmoregulation.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Only One
(4) Two

69) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A: Human kidneys can produce urine nearly two times concentrated than the initial
filtrate formed.
Statement B: In kidney, high osmolarity of deep medullary interstitium is maintained by NaCl and
urea.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Only statement A is correct

70) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): In most of the terrestrial organisms, nitrogenous waste is either urea or uric acid.
Reason (R): Terrestrial adaptation necessitated the production of lesser toxic nitrogenous wastes
like urea and uric acid for conservation of water.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

71) In which one of the following options Column I is correctly matched with Column II?

Column I Column II
(1) Reabsorption of glucose, amino acids, Na+ Passive
(2) Reabsorption of urea Active
(3) Tubular secretion of H+ Active
(4) Conditional reabsorption of Na and water PCT
+

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by the afferent arteriole which is a fine branch of

(1) Ventral aorta

(2) Renal vein
(3) Renal artery
(4) Inferior vena cava

73) In which of the following organism malpighian tubules are the excretory structures?

(1) Cockroach
(2) Rotifers
(3) Crustaceans
(4) Flatworms

74)

Study the following events and arrange them in correct order

(A) Activation of stretch receptors
(B) Filling of urine in urinary bladder
(C) Stretching of urinary bladder
(D) Initiation of contraction of smooth muscles of the bladder
(E) Signals are sent to CNS
Choose the correct option -

(1) A, C, D, E, B
(2) B, C, A, E, D
(3) B, E, C, A, D
(4) A, D, B, E, C

75) Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
(A) Liver (i) Excretion of degraded steroid hormones
(B) Sebaceous gland (ii) Excretion of waxes
(C) Sweat gland (iii) Excretion of lactic acid
(D) Salivary gland (iv) Excretion of small amount of urea
(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
(2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv)
(3) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii)
(4) (A) - (i), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)

76) In the summer season, a person is walking on the road in the afternoon, causing excessive
sweating. Which of the following mechanisms helps maintain the osmolarity of body fluids despite
the loss of water due to sweating?

Activation of osmoreceptors which can stimulate the hypothalamus to release antidiuretic

(1)
hormone from the neurohypophysis
Activation of osmoreceptors which can stimulate the hypothalamus to release antidiuretic
(2)
hormone from the adenohypophysis
Activation of osmoreceptors which can stimulate the hypothalamus to release atrial natriuretic
(3)
factor from the neurohypophysis
Activation of osmoreceptors which can stimulate the JG cells to release antidiuretic hormone
(4)
from the neurohypophysis

77) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) The renal tubule begins with a double walled cup-like structure called Bowman’s capsule.
In majority of nephrons, the loop of Henle is too short and extends only very little into the
(2)
medulla.
(3) In juxta medullary nephrons, loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into the medulla.
Towards the centre of inner convex surface of the kidney, a notch is present, through which
(4)
ureter, blood vessels and nerves enter.

78) The urine formed is a light yellow coloured watery fluid which is slightly acidic because

(1) Hydrogen ions are passively secreted into the renal tubules
(2) Hydrogen ions are actively reabsorbed into the renal tubules
(3) Hydrogen ions are passively reabsorbed into the renal tubules
(4) Hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the renal tubules

79) A counter current mechanism operates between

(1) Two limbs of the loop of Henle

(2) Two limbs of the capillary parallel to Henle’s loop
(3) Ascending limb of loop of Henle and collecting duct
(4) Both 1 and 2

80) In which of the following group of organism kidneys do not play any significant role in the
removal of nitrogenous waste?

(1) Marine fishes

(2) Many bony fishes
(3) Mammals
(4) Terrestrial amphibians

81) Glomerulus alongwith Bowman’s capsule is called:

(1) Renal corpuscle

(2) Malpighian tubule
(3) Malpighian body
(4) Both 1 & 3

82) Match column-I term with column-II terms related to haemodialysis process and select correct
option from given below.

Column-I Column-II

(a) cellophane tube (i) Anticoagulant

(b) Dialysing fluid (ii) Vasoconstrictor

(c) heparin (iii) Plasma minus nitrogenous wastes

(d) Dialysing unit (iv) Coiled and porous tube

(v) Artificial kidney

(1) (a) – (v), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
(2) (a) – (v), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (v)
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (v)

83) Statement - I : Protonephridia are primarily concerned with ionic and fluid volume regulation.
Statement - II : DCT and collecting duct concentrate the filtrate about four times.

(1) Statement - I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement - I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement- I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

84) Which of following substance are reabsorbed actively by renal tubule.

(i) NH3 (ii) H2O (iii) Glucose
(iv) Urea (v) Amino acids (vi)
(vii)

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(2) (ii), (v), (vi), (vii)
(3) (iii), (v) and (vii)
(4) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) and (vii)

85) What would be true about the role of collecting duct in the concentration of urine by the kidneys
?
(I) Allows passage of small amounts of urea into the medullary interstitium.
(II) Large amounts of water could be reabsorbed from this part to produce a concentrated urine.

(1) Only (I)

(2) Only (II)
(3) Both (I) and (II)
(4) Neither (I) nor (II)

86) Statement - I : JGA is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modification in the proximal
convulated tubule and the afferent arteriole at the location of their contact.
Statement - II : A rise in GFR can activate the JG cells to release renin.

(1) Statement - I is correct but statement - II is incorrect.

(2) Statement - I is incorrect but statement - II is correct.
(3) Both statement - I and II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement - I and II are correct.

87) Assertion (A) : As a concentrated filterate pass upward through ascending limb of henle loop, it
gets diluted.
Reason (R) : Ascending limb of henle loop transports electrolyte actively or passively to the
medullary fluid.

(1) A is correct but R is not correct.

(2) A and R both are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A and R both are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A & R are incorrect.

88) Match the parameters of each kidney given in column I and II and choose the correct option :-

Column I Column II

A. Weight P. 5 - 7 cm

B. Length Q. 10 - 12 cm

C. Width R. 2 - 3 cm

D. Thickness S. 120 - 170 gm

A B C D

(1) S P Q R

(2) S Q P R

(3) S R Q P

(4) S R P Q
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) Statement I : In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and
permeable to electrolytes.
Statement II : The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium
and increases the surface area for reabsorption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

90) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A : Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA) plays an important role in regulation of glomerular
filtration rate (GFR).
Reason R : A fall in GFR can activate the J.G. cells to release renin which can stimulate the
glomerular blood flow and there by bringing the GFR to normal level.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 4 1 4 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 1 1 2 4 3 2 2 4 4 1 3 2 2 2 1 4 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 2 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 4 3 3 4 2 3 1 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 1 1 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 1 4 3 3 2 4 2 4 4 2 2 4 3 2 4 2 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 3 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 4 3 1 3 4 3 1 4 2 1 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 1 4 3 4 4 4 1 1 2 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 1 4 1 2 4 1 3 4 4 2 2 1 1 2 3 4 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 1 3 3 1 2 1 1 4 4 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 1 3 3 3 3 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) = constant

2) Correct option (2)

3) Correct option (2)

4) Correct option (2)

5) Correct option (3)

6) Correct option (2)

7)

8) Correct option (4)

9) Correct option (2)

10) Correct option (4)

11) Correct option (3)

12) Correct option (2)

13) Correct option (3)

14)

Correct option (2)

15)

Correct option (2)

16)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The problem asks to find the minimum velocity required for a particle
projected from the surface of a planet with mass M to just reach the surface of a second planet
with mass 4M. The two planets are fixed and separated by a distance of 6R between their
centers.

Underlying Concept: The key concept involved here is the conservation of mechanical energy
(kinetic + potential) in a gravitational field. The particle moves under the influence of
gravitational forces from both planets, and its total mechanical energy at launch and at the
destination surface must be equal if it just reaches there with zero velocity.

Relevant Formulas: 1. Gravitational potential energy due to a planet of mass M at distance r

is given by where G is the universal gravitational constant, M is the mass of the

planet, m is the mass of the particle, and r is the distance from the planet's center.

2. Conservation of mechanical energy: where is the initial velocity, initial

total potential energy, and final total potential energy.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Find the neutral point where gravitational fields from both

planets cancel:
2. Calculate initial and final potential energies considering distances: - Initial potentials on

surface of M (at distance R): - Final potentials on surface

of 4M (at distance 2R from M):

3. Apply energy conservation:

4. Simplify and solve for :

5. Therefore, .

Tips and Tricks: Use energy conservation to avoid complicated force calculations. Find the
neutral point to understand the influence zones of the two planets, though it indirectly
supports the solution here.

Common Mistakes: Ignoring the gravitational potential energy due to the second planet at
the starting point and the first planet at the ending point. Forgetting to account for the initial
distance from the particle to the center of the planet when calculating potential energy.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Some wrong options may arise from using the escape
velocity formula for a single planet without considering the second planet's gravitational field,
or by mixing up distances when calculating potential energies.

17)

Correct option (1)

18) From Kepler's law : Areal velocity = constant so

19) Correct option (4)

20)
Gravitational field at center is zero : (A - R)

Gravitational potential at center = (B - S)

When one mass is removed field strength with 4 mass (C - P)

Potential with 4 mass (D - S)

21) When P & Q are connected by a metallic wire, they will come at same potential which is
possible only when whole charge resides on outer shell.

22) Udipole =

= –P =

23) Δv =

=A

24)

Correct option (1)

25)
b < r < c, E = 0 (Inside conductor E = 0)

26) Let q charge flows into earth

Potential of B shell

⇒q=0

27) Resultant near surface of charged conductor is .

σ is local charge density.

28)
29)

Correct option (2)

30)

= Ex(xB – xA) + Ey(yB – yA)

31)

Correct option (4)

32)

33) WAB = q (VB – VA)dipole

34)

Erem = Etotal – Euse

= –E

35) Concept Used:

When conductors are connected by a wire, they attain the same electric potential. The surface
charge density is related to charge and radius.
Formulas Used:
• Potential on a conducting sphere:
• Surface charge density:

• Since V1 = V2

• Charge ratio:

• Surface charge density ratio:

Final Answer:

36)

sx = uxt
1=2×t

sec
vy = uy + ayt

vy = 0 +
vy = 4 m/s

37)

Correct option (1)

38)

ΔV = 10 volt

39) is maximum at sharp corners while entire conductor is equipotential.

40)

Assertion is correct but Reason is false because under electrostatic condition free electron will
be present inside the conductor.

41)

Correct option (2)

42)

q= = =

q = 2(10 – 0) + (102 – 02) = 20 + 150 = 170C

43)
 44) Theoretical

45)

As i = neA Vd

then Vd =

=
= 2.5 × 10–3 m/sec

CHEMISTRY

46)

Fact based :

Answer 3 :

47)

Correct option (2)

48)

Correct option (4)

49)

Correct option (3)

50)

Correct Answer: (3)

51)

Correct Answer: (4)

52)

Correct option (2)

53)

Correct Answer: (3)

54)

Correct option (1)

55)

Correct option (3)

56)

Correct option (4)

57)

Correct option (2)

58)

Correct option (3)

59)

Correct option (4)

60)

Correct option (2)

61)

Correct option (3)

62)

Correct option (1)

63)

Correct option (1)

64)
Correct option (4)

65)

Correct option (1)

66)

Correct option (3)

67)

Correct option (2)

68)

Correct option (1)

69)

Correct option (4)

70)

Correct option (3)

71)

Correct Answer: (3)

72)

Question Explanation:
The question asks to identify which of the given compounds (Phenol, Aniline, Benzyl alcohol,
Toluene) is the most reactive towards electrophilic substitution reaction.

Concept Used:
Electrophilic Aromatic Substitution (E.S.R.), Activating Groups, Electron-Donating Groups
(EDGs), Mesomeric Effect (+M), Hyperconjugation (+H), Inductive Effect (+I), Relative
Reactivity.

Answer Explanation:
E.S.R. reactivity is determined by the electron-donating ability of substituents. Stronger EDGs
cause greater activation.

Reactivity towards ESR ∝ Nucleophilicity of Benzene ∝

A. (1) Phenol (C₆H₅OH): -OH is Strongly Activating (strong +M effect).
B. (2) Aniline (C₆H₅NH₂): -NH₂ is Very Strongly Activating (very strong +M effect, stronger than -
OH).
C. (3) Benzyl alcohol (C₆H₅CH₂OH): -CH₂OH is Weakly Activating (+H, & -I ).
D. (4) Toluene (C₆H₅CH₃): -CH₃ is Activating (+H and +I effects).

Order of activating strength:

-NH₂ > -OH > -CH₃ > -CH₂OH.

Aniline is the most activated due to the powerful electron-donating +M effect of the -NH₂
group.

Final Answer:
The correct option is option 2 - Aniline (C₆H₅NH₂) is the most reactive towards electrophilic
substitution.

73)

Direction of I effect is away from +I group and towards -I group.

So, Incorrect direction in option 4.
correct direction is as follows:

74)

Correct Answer: (2)

75) Concept : Resonance effect involves conjugation of

Soln/Explanation :
Ans. (4)

76)

Correct Answer: (4)

77)

Correct Answer: (2)

78)

Correct Answer: (2)

79)

Correct Answer: (4)

80)

Correct Answer: (3)

81)

Correct Answer: (2)

82)

Correct Answer: (4)

83)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

The question asks which of the following is the rearranged more stable carbocation of
the given species.

Key Concept:

Rearrangement: Whenever an Intermediate carbocation is formed in reaction it

rearranges to a

more stable one.

Not all carbocations rearrange but only those which can produce more stable species
can only

rearrange.

(i) The driving force responsible for carbocation rearrangement is formation of more
stable carbocation.

(ii) Shifting of H, alkyl, aryl, bond (1,2):- Less stable carbocation rearranges itself to
more stable carbocation by shifting of HΘ, PhΘ, RΘ via formation of a 3 membered
transition state.

Rearrangement can be 'n' times but each time by 1, 2 shifting and the formed cation
should be more stable

either through hyperconjugation or through resonance.

(iii) Ring expansion (more strained ring to less strain ring) :- If +ve charge just next
to ring, then ring expands.

But six membered ring is not expanded due less or zero angle strain.

(iv) Ring contraction

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Conclusion:

Hence, option (2) is correct.

 84) correct option (2)

85) correct option (3)

86) Correct option (2)

87) Correct option (2)

88) Correct option (3)

89) Correct option (2)

90) correct option (4)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. 214

92) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 213

93) NCERT-XII, Pg. # Module

94) NCERT-XII, Pg. # Module

95) NCERT-XII, Pg. Module

96) NCERT, Pg. # 236

97) NCERT, Pg. # 236

98)

The correct answer is 2. Site A-depolarised state, site B-polarised state.

A. Depolarization: In depolarization, the inside of the cell becomes less negative (more
positive). This is caused by the influx of sodium ions (Na+) into the cell. In the image, we can
see sodium ions moving into the cell at site A, indicating depolarization.
B. Polarization: In polarization, the inside of the cell is more negative compared to the outside.
This is the resting state of the neuron. At site B, the cell seems to maintain its negative charge
inside, indicating a polarized state.
Therefore, based on the movement of sodium ions and the charge distribution, Site A represents a
depolarized state, and Site B represents a polarized state.

99)

NCERT Pg. # 319, 321

100)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 233

101)

NCERT Pg. # 318

102) Assertion (A): Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster
than that across a chemical synapse.
• Electrical Synapses: These synapses involve direct physical connections (gap junctions)
between the pre- and post-synaptic neurons. Ions flow directly through these channels,
allowing for very rapid and direct impulse transmission.
• Chemical Synapses: These synapses involve the release of neurotransmitters from the pre-
synaptic neuron into the synaptic cleft. The neurotransmitters then bind to receptors on the
post-synaptic neuron, triggering a response. This process involves several steps
(neurotransmitter release, diffusion, receptor binding), which take time.
Therefore, Assertion (A) is TRUE.
Reason (R): Transmission of an impulse across chemical synapses is very similar to
impulse conduction along a single axon.
• Impulse conduction along a single axon involves the movement of ions (primarily sodium and
potassium) across the axon membrane, leading to a wave of depolarization (action potential).
• Chemical synapses involve neurotransmitter release and binding, which is a fundamentally
different mechanism than the electrical conduction along an axon.
Therefore, Reason (R) is FALSE.
The correct answer is:
3. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

103)

NCERT Pg. # 317, 318

104)

NCERT Pg. # 321

105)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 232, 234

106) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 235, 236

107) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 235, 236

108)

NCERT XI Pg.# 236

109) NCERT, Pg # 321(E), 321(H)

110) NCERT, Pg # 320(E), 320(H)

111) NCERT, Pg # 318(E), 318(H)

112) NCERT, Pg #232

113) NCERT, Pg # 317(E), 317(H)

114) NCERT, Pg # 231

115) NCERT, Pg # 231

116) NCERT, Pg # 231

117) NCERT-XI Pg.# 317

118) NCERT Pg. No. # 234

119) NCERT XII Pg # 232 (E)

120) NCERT Pg. # 321

121) NCERT Pg. No. # 319

122) NCERT Pg. No. # 236; 18.4.1

123)

NCERT XI Pg. # 233

 124)

The correct answer is option (4) Visual, auditory, and tactile inputs.

Explanation:

A. The midbrain (mesencephalon) is a part of the brainstem that plays a key role in processing
sensory information.
B. It contains superior colliculi, which are responsible for visual reflexes, and inferior colliculi,
which process auditory signals.
C. The midbrain is also involved in tactile (touch) inputs by coordinating sensory information and
motor responses.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

125) NCERT Pg. # (E) 321, (H) 322

126) NCERT Pg. # 321

127) NCERT Pg. # (E) 321, (H) 321, 322

128) NCERT Pg. (E) 315, (H) 316

129) NCERT Pg. # 318

130)

Ans. Bonus

131)

NCERT Pg. # 318

132)

NCERT Pg. # 317

133)

NCERT Pg. # 317

134)

NCERT Pg. # 317

135)
 Question Explanation: The correct sequence of depolarization ?
Concept : Generation and condvetion of nerve Impulse.
Solution :
Stimulus applied at a site on polarized membrane
↓
Increase the permeability of Na+
↓
Generation of A.P.(Action Potential)
↓
Increase the permeability for K+
↓
Restoration of membrane potential

Final Answer : option (1). A → B → C → D → E

136)

A. Question: Evaluate the truth of the given statements about respiratory regulation.

B. Given Data:

A. Statement I: The role of O2 is quite insignificant in the regulation of respiratory rhythm.

B. Statement II: The chemosensitive area present in the pons is highly sensitive to CO2
and H+.

C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of the chemical control of breathing.

D. Explanation:

Statement I: This statement is true. While oxygen levels do play a role in respiratory
regulation, especially in situations of very low oxygen (hypoxia), their role in normal
respiratory rhythm regulation is relatively insignificant compared to CO2. The body is much
more sensitive to changes in CO2 levels.
Statement II: This statement is false. The chemosensitive areas that are highly sensitive to CO2
and H+ ions are located adjacent to the respiratory rhythm center in the medulla oblongata,
not the pons. While the pons contains respiratory centers (like the pneumotaxic center), it's
the chemosensitive area in the medulla that primarily detects changes in CO 2 and H+ and
signals the respiratory centers to adjust breathing rate and depth.

E. Final Answer: The correct answer is 2: Statement I is true and statement II is false.

137)

A. Question: Match the disorders given in Column I with symptoms under Column II. Choose
the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets with numbers.

B. Given Data:
 Column I (Disorders): (a) Asthma (b) Bronchitis (c) Silicosis (d) Emphysema

Column II (Symptoms): (i) Occupational respiratory disorder (ii) Inflammation of bronchi

and bronchiole (iii) Damaged alveolar wall (iv) Inflammation of bronchi (v) Cough with blood-
stained sputum

C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of respiratory disorders and their associated
symptoms.

D. Explanation:

A. Asthma: Asthma is characterized by inflammation of the bronchi and bronchioles, leading to

difficulty breathing, wheezing, and coughing. So, (a) matches with (ii) and (iv) as both describe
inflammation of the bronchi.
B. Bronchitis: Bronchitis involves inflammation of the bronchi. So, (b) matches with (iv). While
(ii) also mentions bronchioles, (iv) is a more direct and specific match for bronchitis.
C. Silicosis: Silicosis is an occupational respiratory disorder caused by inhaling silica dust, which
damages the lungs. So, (c) matches with (i).
D. Emphysema: Emphysema involves damage to the alveolar walls, the tiny air sacs in the lungs
responsible for gas exchange. This damage reduces the lung's capacity to exchange gases. So,
(d) matches with (iii).

Therefore, the correct answer is 4 : a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii

138) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 187

139) NCERT Pg#188

140) NCERT Pg#183

141) NCERT Pg. 194, 183, 185

142) NCERT Pg. # 187

143) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 269

144) NCERT Pg. No. # 187, 188

145) NCERT Pg. No. # 189, 190

146) NCERT Pg. No. # 189-190

147) NCERT Pg. No. # 190

148) NCERT Pg. No. # 189-190

 149) NCERT Pg. No. # 187

150) NCERT Pg. No. # 189

151) NCERT Pg # 184

152) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 187

153) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 185

154) NCERT-XI, Pg # 268

155) NCERT-XI, Pg # 268

156)

Question Asking About :

Asks about the consequence of law secretion of the Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH).

Solution :
The primary function of ADH is to regulate water reabsorption in the kidney. When ADH levels
are low, the kidneys reabsorb less water, leading to increased urine output. This excessive loss
of water can result in dehydration.
Therefore, the most direct consequence of low ADH secretion is dehydration.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

157) Correct Answer: Option 3 - Urethral sphincter relaxes, urinary bladder contracts
Explanation :

A. Micturition is the process of expelling urine from the bladder.

B. When the urinary bladder fills, stretch receptors send signals to the CNS.
C. The CNS triggers contraction of the bladder's smooth muscles and relaxation of the urethral
sphincter, allowing urine to pass out.

Thus, during micturition, the urinary bladder contracts, and the urethral sphincter relaxes.

158) NCERT Pg # 209, 214, 215

159) NCERT Pg # 211, 212

160) NCERT Pg # 205

 161) NCERT Pg # 209, 210

162) NCERT Pg # 207

163) NCERT Pg # 206

164) NCERT Pg # 212, 213

165) NCERT Pg # 213

166) NCERT Pg # 212

167) NCERT Pg # 206, 207, 208

168) NCERT Pg # 209, 210, 213

169) NCERT Pg # 210, 211

170)

NCERT Pg # 205

171)

Correct Answer: 4. Both 1 & 3

Explanation: The Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule forms the Renal corpuscle, which
is also called the Malpighian body. It is the site of filtration in the nephron.

A. Renal corpuscle = Glomerulus + Bowman's capsule

B. Malpighian body is another name for the renal corpuscle.

Thus, Option 4 (Both 1 & 3) is the correct answer.

172) NCERT Pg. No. # 213

173) NCERT Pg. No. # 206

174) NCERT Pg. No. # 209

175) NCERT Pg. No. # 210

176) NCERT Pg. No. # 209-210

177) NCERT Pg # 209

178) NCERT Pg # 206

179) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 209

180) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 212