Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
Q1) Presentation
A)The fetal part that enters the pelvic inlet first
B)The orientation of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the woman
C)Relation of a fixed reference point on the fetus to the quadrants of the maternal pelvis
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Q2) Which event is the best indicator of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
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Q3) Which factor ensures that the smallest anterior-posterior diameter of the fetal head
enters the pelvis?
A) Station
B) Flexion
C) Descent
D) Engagement
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
Q1) Which major neonatal complication is carefully monitored after the birth of the infant
of a diabetic mother?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypoinsulinemia
D) Hypobilirubinemia
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Q2) Which factor is known to increase the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus?
A) Previous birth of large infant
B) Maternal age younger than 25 years
C) Underweight prior to pregnancy
D) Previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus
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Q3) Which disease process improves during pregnancy?
A) Epilepsy
B) Bell's palsy
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
Q1) During labor a vaginal examination should be performed only when necessary
because of the risk of:
A) infection.
B) fetal injury.
C) discomfort.
D) perineal trauma.
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Q2) The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to:
A) reduce heat loss from evaporation.
B) stimulate crying and lung expansion.
C) increase blood supply to the hands and feet.
D) remove maternal blood from the skin surface.
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Q3) The nurse assesses the amniotic fluid. Which characteristic presents the lowest risk
of fetal complications?
A) Bloody
B) Clear with bits of vernix caseosa
C) Green and thick
D) Yellow and cloudy with foul odor
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
Q1) Which pelvic shape is most conducive to vaginal labor and birth?
A) Android
B) Gynecoid
C) Platypelloid
D) Anthropoid
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Q2) Which factor is most likely to result in fetal hypoxia during a dysfunctional labor?
A) Incomplete uterine relaxation
B) Maternal fatigue and exhaustion
C) Maternal sedation with narcotics
D) Administration of tocolytic drugs
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Q3) After a birth complicated by a shoulder dystocia, the infant's Apgar scores were 7 at
1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes. The infant is now crying vigorously. The nurse in the birthing
room should:
A) palpate the infant's clavicles.
B) encourage the parents to hold the infant.
C) perform a complete newborn assessment.
D) give supplemental oxygen with a small face mask.
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
Q1) Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women's health issues focus on which areas?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers
B) Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment
C) Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer
D) Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population
E) Reduction in deaths associated with cardiovascular causes such as stroke and
coronary artery disease (CAD)
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Q2) Which piece of the usual equipment setup for a pelvic examination is omitted with a
Pap smear?
A) Lubricant
B) Speculum
C) Fixative agent
D) Gloves and eye protectors
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
Q1) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescents.
Which statement best describes a secondary sexual characteristic?
A) Maturation of ova
B) Production of sperm
C) Female breast development
D) Secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
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Q2) If a woman's menstrual cycle began on June 2, on which date should ovulation
mostly likely have occurred?
A) June 10
B) June 16
C) June 29
D) July 5
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Q3) The nurse is explaining the function of the male's cremaster muscle to a group of
nursing students. Which statement accurately describes the function of the cremaster
muscle?
A) Assists with transporting sperm
B) Aids in temperature control of the testicles
C) Aids in voluntary control of excretion of urine
D) Entraps blood in the penis to produce an erection
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
Q1) Which maternal event is abnormal in the early postpartal period?
A) Diuresis and diaphoresis
B) Flatulence and constipation
C) Extreme hunger and thirst
D) Lochial color changes from rubra to alba
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Q2) Which fundal assessment finding at 12 hours after birth requires further assessment?
A) The fundus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus.
B) The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus.
C) The fundus is palpable one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus.
D) The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus.
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Q3) Postpartal overdistention of the bladder and urinary retention can lead to which
complication?
A) Fever and increased blood pressure
B) Postpartum hemorrhage and eclampsia
C) Urinary tract infection and uterine rupture
D) Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
Q1) When should iron supplementation during a normal pregnancy begin?
A) Before pregnancy
B) In the first trimester
C) In the third trimester
D) In the second trimester
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Q2) Which is the most important reason for evaluating the pattern of weight gain in
pregnancy?
A) Prevents excessive adipose tissue deposits
B) Determines cultural influences on the woman's diet
C) Assesses the need to limit caloric intake in obese women
D) Identifies potential nutritional problems or complications of pregnancy
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Q3) The nurse is reviewing a list of foods high in folic acid with a patient who is
considering becoming pregnant. The nurse determines that the patient understands the
teaching when the patient states she will include which list of foods in her diet?
A) Peaches, yogurt, and tofu
B) Strawberries, milk, and tuna
C) Asparagus, lemonade, and chicken breast
D) Spinach, orange juice, and fortified bran flakes
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