19-03-2026

1001CJA101021250063 JA

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

1) Let

, then sum of all distinct elements of X is

(A) 12 π
(B) 9 π

(C)

(D)

2) Let the length of the latus rectum of a hyperbola H : be 10. If the eccentricity of H is

the maximum value of the function , then the value of 4a + b2 is

(A) 4
(B) 6

(C)

(D)

3) The question contains, statement I (assertion) and statement II (reason).

Statement I : (2025)2026 > (2026)2025
Statement II : The function attains global maxima at x = e
Options :

(A) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is true, Statement-II is correct explanation for statement I
(B) Statement I is true, Statement-II is true Statement II is not correct explanation for Statement I.
(C) Statement I is true, Statement-II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.

4) Let C1 be a circle with center (1, 3) and radius 5. Let C2 be a circle which touches the circle C1 at
(5, α), α > 0 and passing through the point (1, 6), if the center of the circle C2 is (h, k), then the value
of h + 2k is

(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 14

5) A line passing through the point A(–2, 0) touches the parabola P : y2 = x – 2 at the point B in the
first quadrant, then the area of the triangle formed by normal at the the point B to the parabola P
and co-ordinate axes in first quadrant is

(A) 169

(B)

(C)

(D)

6) If
& f(1) = 1 then which of the following is correct (in feasible domain)?

(A) f(x) = x2 + 2ℓnx

(B) f2(x) = x2 + 2ℓnx
(C) f(x) = x2 + ℓnx
(D) f(x) = x + 2ℓnx

7) Let f(x) = , then sum of all possible values of f(x) at all local
maxima and local minima is:

(A)

(B) 2

(C)

(D)

8) If f(x) = 2x + |x|,

and , then domain of is

(A) [–1, 1]

(B)
(C)

(D)

9) Let point A(1,1,–1), B(1,–6,2) and plane . L1 is a line passing through A and
perpendicular to the given plane and L2 is a line passing through B and point of intersection of
plane with x axis. Then

List-I List-II

(A) (I) 58
If then α + β is

(B) Shortest distance between L1 and L2 is (II) 221

(C) P is any point on plane . If range of is then n is (III)

(D) Projection of on the plane is , where a & b are coprime (IV) 2

numbers then a – b is
(A) A-(IV); B-(III); C-(I); D-(II)
(B) A-(IV); B-(III); C-(II); D-(I)
(C) A-(IV); B-(I); C-(III); D-(II)
(D) A-(III); B-(IV); C-(I); D-(II)

10) The largest possible integral value of 'p' for which the equation x14 – px4 + x2 + 2 = 0 has no real
solution is

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 10

11) If (x, y, z) is a solution of equation

Where x, y, z are positive integers then

(A) Number of such solution is 2

(B) Minimum possible value of y is 2
(C) Maximum possible value of x is 2
(D) Number of such solution is 4
12) The value of the expression is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

13) Variance of the data 39, 41, 62, a, b is two more that of the data 39, 41, 62, a + 1, b – 1 then the
minimum value of a2 + b2 is

(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 18
(D) 16

14) Let .
Then the area bounded by y = xf(x) & the ordinates x = 0 & x = 4 with x-axis is

(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 2

15) There are 4 letter characters (a, b, c, d), 3 number characters (1, 2, 3) and 3 special characters
(#, @, !). A password must be formed using any number of character without repetition. A
password is said to be strong if it contains at least 8 characters.
Statement I : Number of possible strong password is 225 × 8!
Statement II : Probability that password contains at least three letters, at least two numbers & at

least one special character given that it is a strong password is

(A) Both statement-I and Statement-II are true

(B) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are false.
(C) Statement- I is false & Statement-II is true.
(D) Statement I is true & Statement-II is false

16) A relation R is defined on the set of real numbers as then relation R is

(A) Only symmetric

(B) Only Reflexive
(C) Only transitive
(D) Reflexive and transitive relation

17) Let where M(1,2,3), R(1,1,1) and N lies on the plane x + 2y + z – 2

= 0}. If , then the minimum value of is :

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 9
(D) 5

18) Let Pi where i = 1,2 be points lying in the plane of ΔA1A2A3 satisfying

Then which of the following options is TRUE for P1

(A) Centroid
(B) Incenter
(C) Circumcenter
(D) Orthocenter

19) Let A be the set of complex numbers such that

&
Minimum value of when and is

(A) 2022
(B) 2024
(C) 2026
(D) 2027

20) Let A be the set defined as : and has at least one

root common}.
B be the set of all straight lines such that .

C be the set of straight lines defined as

For which of the following option

(A) D = {(1,10)}
(B) D = {(1,1)}
(C) D = {(1,–1)}
(D) None of these

SECTION-II
1) If and exists, then the value of a – b is

2) If then number of integral value(s)

of p is

3) Let PQRS be a tetrahedron and Mi (where i = 1, 2, 3, .....6) be mid points of the six edges. If four
different colours are used to mark these 10 points (vertices and mid points) such that no two same
colours are on the same edge of the tetrahedron, then number of ways in which this can be done is

4) A be a square matrix of order 2 with such that where adj(A) is a adjoint

of matrix A, then the value of is equal

5) Let be a differentiable function such that f(x) = 1 – 2x + for all

, then the value of [|f(e + 1)|] is (where [.] is G.I.F)

PART-2 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) Center of mass of 3 particles, 10 kg, 20 kg and 30 kg is at (0, 0, 0). Where should a particle of
mass 40 kg be placed so that the center of mass of the combination will be at (3, 3, 3)?

(A) (0, 0, 0)
(B) (7.5, 7.5, 7.5)
(C) (1, 2, 3)
(D) (4, 4, 4)

2) Two vertical glass plates 2mm apart are dipped into water. How high will the water rise between
the plates, if the surface tension of water is 70 dyne cm–1?

(A) 1.40 cm
(B) 0.35 cm
(C) 0.7 cm
(D) 3.86 cm

3) A student is given with a closed device with 3 terminals A, B & C outside. Inside the box, among
any two terminals, three components resistor, capacitor and diode are connected. When box is
connected with its any of two terminals with a variable dc supply of small emf, some specific
observations are obtained as listed below : '+' ⇒ Positive polarity
'–' ⇒ Negative polarity

No current flows until about 0.7 V,

(i) A+, B– after which current increases non
linearly

(ii) A–, B+ Very small saturation current

Linear V-I characteristics with constant

(iii) B+, C–
slope

(iv) B–, C+ Same as in (iii)

Large initial current that rapidly

(v) A+, C–
decreases to zero

(vi) A–, C+ Similar transient current as in (v)

The correct arrangement of components in box are :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

4) In a vernier calliper, the position of main scale and vernier scale before measurement is shown in
figure-(a). While figure-(b) shows the position of two scales during measurement of diameter of a
sphere. The measured value of diameter is :-
(A) 0.31 cm
(B) 0.36 cm
(C) 0.41 cm
(D) 0.45 cm

5) A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contain gases of densities ρ1 and ρ2
respectively. The compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are vibrating in
their first overtone with same frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

6) For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the fractional change in the object's volume
and its compressibility (C) are related as :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7) If Me is the mass of earth and Mm is the mass of moon (Me = 81 Mm), the potential energy of an
object of mass m situated at a distance R from the centre of earth and r from the centre of moon, will
be :-
(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8) The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice the
shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to move from

A to B, then :-

(A) t1 =3t2
(B) t1 = 4t2
(C) t1 = 2t2
(D) t1 = t2

9) Following figure shows an AC generator connected to a "black box" through a pair of terminals.
The box contains possible R, L, C or their combination, whose elements and arrangements are not

known to us :- Measurements outside the box reveals that e = 75

sin (ωt) volt, i = 1.5 sin (ωt + 45°) amp then, the wrong statement is :-

(A) There must be a capacitor in the box.

(B) There must be an inductor in the box.
(C) There must be a resistance and a capacitor in the box.
(D) The power factor is 0.707.

10) In LCR series resonant ac circuit graph between current and frequency is shown, which one is

current relation of Q-factor?

(A) Q1 < Q2 < Q3
(B) Q1 > Q2 > Q3
(C) Q1 < Q2 > Q3
(D) Q2 < Q1 > Q3

11) The switch shown in the figure is closed at t = 0. The charge on the capacitor as a function of

time is given by :-

(A) CV (1 – e–t/RC)
(B) 3CV (1 – e–t/RC)
(C) CV(1 – e–3t/RC)
(D) CV (1 – e–t/3RC)

12) Light with an energy flux of 18 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the
surface has an area of 20 cm2 then find the average force exerted on the surface during a span of 30
minute.

(A) 1.2 × 10–6 N

(B) 0.6 × 10–6 N
(C) 2.4 × 10–6 N
(D) 6 × 10–6 N

13) Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves is correct?

(A) X-rays in vacuum travel faster than light waves in vacuum.
(B) The energy of X-ray photon is greater than that of a light photon (visible range)
(C) Light can be polarised but X-ray cannot.

(A) A and B
(B) B and C
(C) A, B and C
(D) B only

14) Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each
magnet has magnetic dipole M. Which configuration has highest net magnetic dipole moment?

(A)
(B)

(C)

(D)

15) Given below are two statements : Statement I : If the Brewster’s angle for the light propagating

from air to glass is θB, then Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is – θB.
Statement II : The Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from glass to air is tan–1 (μg) where μg
is the refractive index of glass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Both Statements I and Statement II are true.

(B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

16) A particle passes through a region with constant velocity then which of the following is not
possible?

(A) E = 0, B = 0
(B) E = 0, B ≠ 0
(C) E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0
(D) E ≠ 0, B = 0

17) Write down output Y in terms of inputs A and B.

(A) B
(B) A
(C) A + B
(D) A.B

18) The energy band diagrams for three semiconductor samples of silicon are as shown. We can then
assert that :-

sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a third group and a fifth
(A)
group impurity respectively.
(B) sample X is undoped while both samples Y and Z have been doped with a fifth group impurity.
sample X has been doped with equal amounts of third and fifth group impurities while samples
(C)
Y and Z are undoped.
sample X is undoped while samples Y and Z have been doped with a fifth group and a third
(D)
group impurity respectively.

19) In the nuclear reaction , if mass of the deuterium atom = 2.014741 u, mass
3
of 2He atom = 3.016977 u and mass of neurtron = 1.008987 u then Q value of the reaction is nearly
:-

(A) 0.00352 MeV

(B) 3.27 MeV
(C) 0.82 MeV
(D) 2.45 MeV

20) A monoatomic gas is kept in a vessel at some finite temperature. Choose the CORRECT
statement(s) :-
(A) Number of atoms moving with speed equal to half of RMS speed will be more than number of
atoms moving with speed equal to one third of RMS speed.

(B) Average velocity of atoms of gas has magnitude equal to .

(C) Number of atoms moving with average speed will be more than number of atoms moving with
RMS speed.
(D) If its temperature (in degree Celsius) is increased to 4 times then its RMS speed will increase by
a factor less than 2 times.

(A) D
(B) A, D
(C) A, C, D
(D) A, B, C

SECTION-II

1) A constant volume gas thermometer shows pressure reading 50 cm and 90 cm of mercury at 0°C
and 100°C, respectively. When the pressure reading is 70cm of mercury, the temperature (in °C) is :-

2) A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass density λ is bent into a circular loop with centre at

O as shown. The moment of inertia of the loop about the axis xx' (parallel to diameter) is . The
value of α is :-

3) Two charge particles are fixed at P1 and P2 separated by a distance 9 m. Find position (in m) on

the line P1P2 from P1 where electric field is zero (null point).

4) Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two
are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the shorter
pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is :-

5) In a Young’s double slit experiment, a laser light of 560 nm produces an interference pattern with
consecutive bright fringes’ separation of 7.2 mm. Now another light is used to produce an
interference pattern with consecutive bright fringes’ separation of 8.1 mm. The wavelength of
second light is _________ nm.

PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Benzenediazonium chloride couples with phenol in alkaline medium to form p-

(A)
Hydroxyazobenzene, which is an orange-coloured azo dye.
Benzenediazonium chloride reacts with aniline in alkaline medium to give p-Aminoazobenzene,
(B)
which is a scarlet red dye.
In the azo dye test, benzenediazonium chloride reacts with β-naphthol in acidic medium to form
(C)
a yellow dye that is readily soluble in water.
Benzenediazonium chloride reacts with phenol in acidic medium to form p-Hydroxyazobenzene,
(D)
which is a yellow dye.

2) One mole of an ideal gas initially at V1 = 2 L expands to V2 = 10 L at 300 K by two different

processes.
Process I (irreversible):
The expansion occurs in two steps:
(i) from 2 L to 6 L against a constant external pressure of 5 bar,
(ii) from 6 L to 10 L against constant external pressure of 2 bar.
Process II (reversible):
The gas expands reversibly and isothermally from 2 L to 10 L at 300 K.
The correct option is (Given : ln5 =1.6)

(A) WI = 3.99 kJ,WII = 2.8 kJ

(B) WI = 2.8 kJ,WII = 3.99 kJ
(C) WI = –2.8 kJ,WII = –3.99 kJ
(D) WI = –3.99 kJ,WII = –2.8 kJ

3) Assertion (A): The mole is a counting unit that can be applied only to microscopic entities such
as atoms, molecules, and ions.
Reason (R): The mole is defined by fixing the numerical value of Avogadro’s constant, which relates
the amount of substance to the number of specified elementary entities.
Choose the correct option:

(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is false, but R is true
(D) A is true, but R is false.

4) Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Phenol condenses with phthalic anhydride in the presence of conc. H2SO4 to

(A)
form phenolphthalein, which gives a dark pink colour in alkaline medium (NaOH).
o-Cresol undergoes phthalein dye test to give a green fluorescent colour with NaOH due to
(B)
formation of fluorescein.
p-Cresol gives a bluish-purple colour in the phthalein dye test because it forms a coloured
(C)
phthalein derivative.
Catechol reacts with phthalic anhydride to give phenolphthalein, which shows an immediate
(D)
pink colour with NaOH.

5) Consider the following reaction sequence:

If A is 3-methylbutan-2-ol, then C is:

(A) CH3–C(CH3)=CH–CH3
(B) CH3–CH(CH3)–CH2–CH3
(C) CH2=CH–CH(CH3)–CH3
(D) CH3–CH(Br)–CH2–CH3

6) At 630 K, hydrogen iodide undergoes partial dissociation as per the equilibrium:

2 HI(g) ⇌ H2(g) + I2(g)
A known mass of HI is placed in a sealed rigid vessel of volume 0.40 L and allowed to
reach equilibrium at this temperature. The mixture is then suddenly cooled to avoid change in
equilibrium composition, and the iodine produced is estimated by titration with 0.02 M sodium
thiosulphate:

If 0.384 g of HI is taken and 25.0 mL of sodium thiosulfate is required, calculate the equilibrium
constant C at 630 K, assuming ideal gas behavior.
(Atomic mass of I = 127)

(A) 1.5 × 10–2

(B) 1.0 × 10–2
(C) 2.5 × 10–2
(D) 3.0 × 10–2

7) A desiccator is used to maintain a constant relative humidity at 20°C. The lower compartment
contains a saturated aqueous solution of NaCl in equilibrium with excess solid NaCl. The solution
obeys Raoult’s law and NaCl is assumed to be completely dissociated in water. A dry sample of
CaCl2·6H2O(s) is placed on the platform inside the desiccator. (At 20°C, the vapour pressure of pure
water is 17.5 mm Hg, while vapour pressure of saturated NaCl solution is 13.125 mm Hg.)
Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) The relative humidity inside the desiccator is approximately 75%.

(B) CaCl2·6H2O(s) will absorb moisture inside the desiccator.
(C) To keep substances dry, a saturated solution of a salt with low solubility should be used.
The relative humidity inside the desiccator remains constant as long as excess solid NaCl is
(D)
present

8) A first-order reaction in aqueous solution is represented as:

A(aq) → B(g) + C(l)
At 300 K, the half-life of the reaction is 69.3 min. A 200 mL sample of a 0.10 M solution of A is
allowed to decompose at this temperature. After some time, 12 mL of gas B is collected over water
at 300 K and 1 atm pressure (vapour pressure of water is negligible).Assuming ideal gas behaviour,
calculate the time for which the reaction was allowed to proceed.

(A) 0.23 min

(B) 1.0 min
(C) 2.3 min
(D) 10.0 min

9) Match the electrochemical cells given in Column I with the corresponding cell reactions /
characteristics given in Column II.

Column I Column II

Overall cell reaction involves oxidation of zinc in

Leclanche
(i) (A) the presence of an acidic paste and reduction of
cell
manganese dioxide
 Cell reaction occurs with almost no change in
(ii) Ni–Cd cell (B)
concentration of electrolyte during discharge

Electrical energy is produced through a reaction

(iii) Fuel cell (C) between a continuously supplied fuel and an
oxidant

Cell in which cadmium undergoes oxidation and

(iv) Mercury cell (D)
Ni(OH)3 undergoes reduction
Choose the correct matching:
(A) (i)–A, (ii)–D, (iii)–C, (iv)–B
(B) (i)–B, (ii)–D, (iii)–C, (iv)–A
(C) (i)–A, (ii)–C, (iii)–D, (iv)–B
(D) (i)–C, (ii)–D, (iii)–A, (iv)–B

10) Which of the following statements is correct about Benzene and certain polynuclear aromatic
hydrocarbons are associated with harmful effects on human health ?
A. Polynuclear hydrocarbons containing more than two fused benzene rings are generally toxic and
may show carcinogenic behaviour.
B. Such hydrocarbons are commonly produced during the complete combustion of organic fuels.
C. These compounds can enter the human body and undergo biochemical transformations that may
damage DNA.
D. Tobacco smoke, coal combustion and petroleum products are potential sources of these
hydrocarbons.

(A) A and C only

(B) A, C and D only
(C) B and D only
(D) A, B, C and D

11) With reference to Bohr’s model and the quantum mechanical model of the hydrogen atom, which
of the following statements is incorrect?

In Bohr’s model, the electron is assumed to move in a well-defined circular orbit, and its wave
(A)
character is ignored.
A well-defined orbit requires simultaneous knowledge of the exact position and exact speed of
(B)
the electron.
The Schrödinger equation gives quantized energy states and corresponding wave functions
(C)
characterized by quantum numbers n, ℓ, and mℓ only.
The quantum mechanical model explains the hydrogen atom spectrum but does not explain
(D)
phenomena that could not be explained by the Bohr model like Zeeman effect.

12) Which one of the following sets of statements is completely correct?

i. Fermentation of glucose occurs under anaerobic conditions and releases carbon dioxide.
ii. During fermentation, exposure to air can oxidise ethanol to ethanoic acid.
(A)
iii. In methanol poisoning, ethanol is administered because it saturates the enzyme responsible
for oxidation of aldehyde (HCHO) to acid, allowing methanol to be excreted by the kidneys.
 i. Fermentation of glucose requires oxygen and does not release carbon dioxide.
(B) ii. Ethanol formed during fermentation is not affected by exposure to air.
iii. Ethanol accelerates the oxidation of methanol to formic acid.
i. Fermentation occurs under aerobic conditions.
(C) ii. Methanol is directly neutralised by ethanol in the bloodstream.
iii. The enzyme responsible for aldehyde oxidation is inhibited permanently by ethanol.
i. Fermentation of glucose occurs under aerobic conditions and releases carbon dioxide.
ii. Ethanol prevents oxidation of methanol by reacting chemically with it.
(D)
iii. Ethanol permanently inhibits the aldehyde-oxidising enzyme, completely stopping
methanol metabolism.

13) In the following reaction sequence,

the compounds A, B, C, D, and E respectively are:

A = Toluene,
B = Potassium benzoate,
(A) C = Benzoic acid,
D = Benzoyl chloride,
E = Benzyl alcohol
A = Ethylbenzene,
B = Benzyl alcohol,
(B) C = Benzaldehyde,
D = Benzoyl chloride,
E = Benzol alcohol
A = Benzyl alcohol,
B = Benzaldehyde,
(C) C = Benzoic acid,
D = Benzyl chloride,
E = Benzyl alcohol
A = Anisole,
B = Potassium anisate,
(D) C = Anisic acid,
D = Anisoyl chloride,
E = Anisole

14) Consider given statements about general properties of p-block elements and assign as correct or
incorrect statements.
Statement-I :- In 13th group of periodic table the relative stability of +1 oxidation state
progressively increases for heavier elements i.e. Al < Ga < In < Tl
Statement-II :- In Thallium +1 oxidation state is more stable than +3 but reverse is true for
Indium.
Statement-III :- In 15th group of periodic table bismuth hardly form compounds in its +3 oxidation
state due to less stability of lower oxidation state.

(A) Statement-I , Statement-II & Statement-III are correct.

(B) Statement-I & Statement-II are correct but Statement-III is incorrect.
(C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II and Statement-III are incorrect.
(D) Only Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II & Statement-III are correct.

15) Statement-I : On heating a salt containing CH3COO– with ethanol and concentrated H2SO4, a
fruity odour is produced.
Statement-II : The fruity odour is due to the formation of ethyl acetate by esterification of acetic
acid in the presence of an acid catalyst.
Choose the correct option:

Statement I is true and Statement II is true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of
(A)
Statement I.
Statement I is true and Statement II is true, but Statement II is not the correct
(B)
explanation of Statement I.
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

16) Which one of the following sets of statements is entirely correct?

i. Alloys such as brass and bronze are formed by combining two transition metals,
(A) ii. Mn2O7 is an ionic compound of dark green colour,
iii. In the Wacker process, oxidation of ethyne to ethanal is catalysed by NiCl2.
i. Brass and bronze are alloys of transition metals with non-transition metals,
(B) ii. Mn2O7 is a covalent green oil,
iii. In the Wacker process, oxidation of ethyne to ethanal is catalysed by PdCl2.
i. Mn2O7 is an ionic oxide of manganese,
(C) ii. Nickel complexes are useful in polymerisation of alkanes,
iii. Bronze is an alloy of copper and zinc.
i. Nickel complexes are useful in polymerisation of alkynes and benzene,
(D) ii. Brass is an alloy of copper and tin,
iii. Mn2O7 is a covalent solid of brown colour.

17) Based on the magnitude of electron gain enthalpy values in periodic table, which one of the
following orders is correct (higher magnitude → lower magnitude)?

(A) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs

(B) O > S > Se > Te
(C) F > Cl > Br > I
(D) Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe

18) Which of the following species attain a linear structure?

(a) CO2
(b) NO2–
(c) HCN
(d) NCO–

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) only (a) and (c)
(C) (a), (c) and (d)
(D) (b) and (d)

19) Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name of the coordination
compound ?
(A) Dichloridobis(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) chloride
(B) Dichloridobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)cobalt(III) chloride
(C) Chloridodiaminecobalt(III) chloride
(D) Dichlorobis(ethane-1,2-diamine)cobalt(III)

20) A student performs the following qualitative tests on an aqueous solution of egg albumin:
i. On treatment with alkaline copper reagent and warming, a violet colour is obtained.
ii. On heating with ninhydrin, a blue colour appears.
iii. On heating with concentrated nitric acid, followed by addition of NaOH, a yellow colour changes
to orange.
Which of the following conclusions is correct?

(A) The sample contains proteins with peptide bonds and aromatic amino acid residues
(B) The violet colour arises due to oxidation of peptide bonds by Cu2+ ions.
(C) The blue colour in ninhydrin test is due to formation of copper–protein complexes.
(D) The yellow to orange colour change is due to nitration of aliphatic amino acids.

SECTION-II

1) Consider the following electrophilic and nucleophilic substitution reactions involving benzene and
its derivatives :
1. Benzene reacts with CO and HCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3/CuCl.
2. Benzoyl chloride undergoes catalytic hydrogenation over poisoned Pd.
3. Para nitro chlorobenzene undergoes hydrolysis under mild conditions.
4. Chlorobenzene undergoes Friedel-Crafts alkylation in the presence of AlCl3.
5. Chlorobenzene undergoes Friedel-Crafts acylation in the presence of AlCl3.
6. The benzylidene diacetate undergoes hydrolysis in aqueous acid.
How many of the above reactions finally yield a compound containing an aldehyde functional group ?

2) In aqueous solution is saturated with magnesium palmitate, Mg(C16H31O2)2, at 60 oC. When 8 litres
of this saturated solution is cooled to 30 oC, a part of the salt separates out as a precipitate.
Given:
Ksp = 6.4×10–12 at 60oC
Ksp = 4.92 × 10–12 at 30oC,
(1.6)1/3 = 1.17, (1.23)1/3 = 1.07, (6.4)1/2 = 2.53, (4.92)1/2 = 2.22
Calculate the mass (in milli grams) of magnesium palmitate that precipitates on cooling. (Answer to
the nearest integer)

3) Each of the following coordination compounds is paired with a statement describing its
application. Count the number of correctly matched pairs.
1. EDTA → Used for estimation of hardness of water by forming complexes with Ca2+ and Mg2+
2. [Au(CN)2]– → Formed during extraction of gold by cyanide process
3. [Ni(CO)4] → Volatile compound is formed during the purification of Nickel.
4. Chlorophyll → Coordination compound of iron responsible for photosynthesis
5. [(Ph3P)3RhCl] → Used as a catalyst for hydrogenation of alkenes
6. [Ag(S2O3)2]3– → Formed during fixing of black-and-white photographic films
4) The standard molar enthalpies of combustion of carbon (graphite) and carbon monoxide are –394
kJ mol–1 and –285 kJ mol–1, respectively.
The following reaction occurs in the gaseous state:
CO(g) + Cl2(g) → COCl2(g), ΔH∘ = –105 kJ mol–1
Using the above information, calculate magnitude of the standard molar enthalpy of formation of
COCl2(g).(in kJ/mol)

5) For the following compounds, the oxidation states of the underlined atoms are to be calculated.
CrO5, KMnO4, H2SO4, NH3
Find the sum of the oxidation states of all the underlined atoms.
 ANSWER KEYS

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. B A B B B B C A A A C D C A A D A D B D

SECTION-II

Q. 21 22 23 24 25
A. 1 3 1536 4 2

PART-2 : PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A. B C C D C A C C B B C A D C B D A D B C

SECTION-II

Q. 46 47 48 49 50
A. 50 3 3 11 630

PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. A C C A A B C C A B D A A B A B A C B A

SECTION-II

Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 3 43 5 214 16
 SOLUTIONS

PART-1 : MATHEMATICS

1) ...(i)

and

...(ii)
From (i) & (ii)

2)

Given that

3)

So, maxima at x = e

4)

Equation of tangent at (5, 6) to the circle C1 is T = 0

Let equation of circle C2 be

at passes through the point (1, 6)

So equation of circle C2 is

center is

5)

Let equation of tangent be

It passes through (–2, 0)

Equation of tangent : 4y = x + 2
point B(6, 2)
The equation of normal at B(6, 2) is 4x + y = 26

Area of Δ is

6)
Interchange x & y

Put x = y C = 0

Put y = 1,

Also
7)

8)

So,

then
= sin–1x, domain of sin–1x is [–1, 1]

9) (A)

(B) Shortest distance between L1 and L2

=
(C) A, B lie on same side of plane
Minimum value of |PA–PB| = 0
Maximum value of |PA–PB| = AB =
(D) Projection of on vector

=
∴ Projection of on plane x + 2y + z = 3

10)
Using AM - am inequality

∴ for no solution p < 4

∴ pmax = 3

11) Multiply row 1, 2, & 3 by y, z & x respectively & then taking out common y, z & x from
column 1, 2 & 3

possible solution (1, 1, 2) (1, 2, 1) & (2, 1, 1)

12)

13) Mean is same

∴ Min. value of a2 + b2 is

14) f(x) = sin2x + x4 + cos2x – x4

f(x) = 1

15) Statement-I
Number of possible strong password
=
= 225 × 8!
Statement-II

Probability

16) For reflexive

For symmetric, but
For transitive

17)
R' is the mirror image of R with respect to
x+ 2y +z –2 = 0

18)

and similarly we can show for other sides

⇒ P1 is orthocenter

19) For A,
Let

∴ or

Sketch the region of A, B & C

20) For set A

since (a, b, c) A
⇒ a+ b+ c = 0 & a – b + c = 0
⇒ Set B represents all lines passing through (1,1) or (1,–1)

21)

22)

23) No of ways = 4! × 26

24) Let
|A| = d = mq – np
 d = 1, m + q = 0

25)

(use king's)

Solution is

from the given equation y(0) = 1 C=0

PART-2 : PHYSICS

26)

Now,

27)

h= = = 7.14 cm

28)

By circuit stuny suitable option is (C).

29)
7MSD = 10VSD
LC = 1MSD – 1VSD

= 1MSD –

=
Reading = 0.3 + 0.03 × 5 = 0.45

30)

for close organ pipe :- f1 = (first overtone)

For open organ pipe f2 = ⇒

f1 = f2

⇒ L2 =

31)

Bulk modulus

32)
Me = 81Mm
mm

U=

=
33)

by kelpar's law :

= const

⇒ ⇒
t1 = 2t2

34)

e = 75 sinωt

i = 1.5 sin

as current lead voltage by , so in circuit there must be a capacitor & resistor in circuit

Power factor cosϕ = = 0.707

35)

i R Q
more peak value of current have greater value of quality factor

36)

Equivalent circuit :-

q = CV[1 – e–t/2]

Z=

q = CV
37)

Favg =

38)

Wavelength of x-ray → 0.1Å – 100 Å

Wavelength of visible light → 3800 Å – 7800 Å
Energy of x-ray > energy of light photon

39)

Meff =

40)

For a light travelling from one minimum |µ1| to µ2 by snell law µ1sinθB = µ2 sin (a0 – θB)

For air to glass

For glass to air

41)

E # 0 & B = 0 magnetic force act on charge particle then direction of velocity

will change due to this force.
42)

Y = A.B + B = B

43)

For X :- No additional energy level in Band gap → No doping

For Y :- Impurity energy level is Just Below conduction band → Donar type impurities
For Z :- Impurity energy level is just above valance Band :- acceptor type impurities

44)

Q = [mR – mP] × 931.5 MeV

= [2 × 2.014741 – 3.016977 – 1.008987] × 931.5
= 3.2752 MeV

45)

Correct Answer is (C).

46) For contant volume thermometer. Relation between P & T will be linear
T = mp + C
273 = m × 50 + C ⇒ 40 m = 100 ⇒ m = 2.5
373 = m × 90 + C C = 148
T = 2.5 P + 148
T = 2.5 × 70 + 148 = 323 K
T = 323 – 273 = 50°C

47)

I= 2πR = L ⇒ R =

I=

48) Ratio of charge at P1 and P2 is q1 : q2 = ,

So null point distance

 49)
⇒ Let assume after n1 & n2 oscillation both pendulum in same phase

n1T1 = n2T2 ⇒
n2 = 11

50)

PART-3 : CHEMISTRY

51) (A) Phenol couples with benzenediazonium chloride in alkaline medium to form p-
Hydroxyazobenzene (orange dye).
(B) Aniline couples in mildly acidic medium; p-Aminoazobenzene is yellow, not scarlet red.
(C) β-Naphthol couples in alkaline medium forming a scarlet-red dye, which is sparingly
soluble in water.
(D) Coupling with phenol does not occur in acidic medium and p-Hydroxyazobenzene is
orange, not yellow.

52) Process I (irreversible):

W1 = – 5(6-2) – 2(10 - 6) = –20 – 8 = – 28 bar-L
WI = –28 × 100 = –2800 J
Process II (reversible, isothermal):

53) Correct Answer: Option (3)

54)

(A) Phenol + phthalic anhydride → phenolphthalein; gives dark pink colour in NaOH (phthalein
dye test).
(B) Fluorescein (green fluorescence) is formed by resorcinol, not o-cresol.
(C) p-Cresol gives no colour, not bluish-purple.
(D) Catechol does not form phenolphthalein; colour response is different and slower.
55)

56) Moles of thiosulfate used

= 0.0200 × 25.0 × 10–3 = 5.0 × 10–4 mol

Initial moles of HI

At equilibrium:
(HI) = 2.5 × 10–3, (H2) = (I2) = 2.5 × 10–4
Using volume = 0.40 L,

57) Relative Humidity (RH) = × 100 ≈ 75%

Calcium chloride hexahydrate (CaCl2·6H2O) is a strongly deliquescent substance and
absorbs moisture .
To maintain substances in a dry state, salts with high solubility are preferred because
they cause greater lowering of vapour pressure.
Since the NaCl solution is saturated and in equilibrium with excess solid NaCl, the
vapour pressure of water—and therefore the relative humidity—remains constant at a
fixed temperature.

58) For a first-order reaction,

Initial moles of A:

Volume of gas B collected = 12 mL at 300 K and 1 atm

Moles of A remaining: = 0.020 − 0.0005 = 0.0195 mol

For a first-order reaction:

59) Leclanché cell → Uses Zn anode and MnO₂ cathode in an acidic paste
Ni–Cd cell → A rechargeable cell where Cd is oxidised and NiOOH is reduced
Fuel cell → Electrical energy produced by continuous supply of fuel and oxidant
Mercury cell → Electrolyte concentration remains constant during discharge (no ion
accumulation)
60) A True — PAHs with multiple fused rings are often carcinogenic.
B - False — they are formed during incomplete, not complete, combustion.
C - True — metabolic activation can lead to DNA damage.
D -True — tobacco, coal, and petroleum combustion are major sources.

61)

Theory based

62) i. Fermentation of glucose occurs under anaerobic conditions and releases carbon dioxide.
ii. During fermentation, exposure to air can oxidise ethanol to ethanoic acid.
iii. In methanol poisoning, ethanol is administered because it saturates the enzyme responsible
for oxidation of aldehyde (HCHO) to acid, allowing methanol to be excreted by the kidneys.

63)

64) Stability of +1 oxidation state. Al < Ga < In < Tl

In+3 is more stable as compared to In+
Bi+3 is more stable than Bi+5

65) Acetate salt reacts with dilute/conc. H2SO4 to form acetic acid, which
undergoes esterification with ethanol to give ethyl acetate, responsible for the fruity smell.

66) NCERT-Based

67) (kJ mol–1)

Li ≈ 60
Na ≈ 53
K ≈ 48
Rb ≈ 47
Cs ≈ 46
Hence, Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs

68)

CO2 → linear
NO2– → bent due to lone pair on N
HCN → linear
NCO–→ linear
Hence, (a), (c) and (d) are linear.

69)
Theory based

70) Biuret test: Violet colour confirms two or more peptide bonds via Cu2+ complex formationi
• Ninhydrin reaction: Blue colour (Ruhemann’s purple) confirms amino groups of proteins.
• Xanthoproteic test: Yellow → orange colour indicates nitration of aromatic amino acids.

71)

1. Benzene reacts with CO and HCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3/CuCl to form
benzaldehyde.
2. Benzoyl chloride undergoes catalytic hydrogenation over poisoned Pd to form benzaldehyde.
6. The benzylidene diacetate undergoes hydrolysis in aqueous acid to form benzaldehyde.

72)

For
Mg(C16H31O2)2(s)⇌ Mg2+ + 2 palmitate–
Ksp = 4s3
Solubility at 60 °C:

Solubility at 30 °C:
s30 C ≈ 1.07 × 10–4 M
o

Moles precipitated from 8 L:

(s60 C – s30 C) × 0.8 ≈ 0.08 mol
o o

Molar mass of Mg(C16H31O3)2 = 534 g mol–1

Mass precipitated = 0.08 × 534 = 42.72 gm.

73)

Theory based

74)

Enthalpy of formation of CO:

ΔHf∘(CO) = –394 – (–285)=-109 kJ mol–1
Using Hess’s law: ΔHf∘(COCl2) = –109 + (–105) = –214 kJ mol–1

75)

Total sum
=6 + 7 + 6 – 3 = 16