24-02-2026

6201CMD30303125RPT2 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two persons A and B of weight 80 kg and 50 kg respectively are standing at rest at opposite ends
of a boat of mass 70 kg and length 2 m. When they interchange their positions, then displacement of

the centre of mass of the boat will be :

(1) 60 cm towards left

(2) 40 cm towards right
(3) 30 cm towards left
(4) Remains stationary

2) Assertion (A) :- In case of bullet fired from gun, the ratio of kinetic energy of gun and bullet is
equal to ratio of mass of bullet and gun.
Reason (R) :- In firing, total momentum is conserved.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

3) A bullet of mass 0.01 kg and travelling at a speed of 500 m/s strikes and passes horizontally
through a block of mass 2kg which is suspended by string of length 5m. The centre of gravity of the
block is found to raise a vertical distance of 0.1m. What is the speed of the bullet after it emerges

from the block? [g = 9.8 m/s2] (time of passing of bullet is negligible)

(1) 110 m/s

(2) 120 m/s
(3) 220 m/s
(4) 280 m/s

4) Graph of force of impact (F) vs time 't' for short duration of collision of two bodies is as shown.
Find coefficient of restitution for given graph.
(1) 0.56
(2) 1
(3) 0.64
(4) 0.26

5) Match the following columns with respective positions of centre of mass -

Column-I Column-II

(A)
(P)
uniform rod, length = R

(B)
uniform thin semicircular ring (Q)
of radius R

(C)
unifiorm semicircular disc of (R)
radius R

(D) (S)
uniform solid hemisphere of
radius R

(1) A – P, B – R, C – Q, D – S
(2) A – Q, B – P, C – R, D – S
(3) A – Q, B – S, C – R, D – P
(4) A – S, B – P, C – Q, D – R

6) A smooth steel ball strikes a fixed smooth steel plate at an angle θ with vertical. If coefficient of
restitution is e, the angle with vertical at which the rebounce take place is :

(1)

(2)

(3) tan–1(e)
(4) e tan θ

7) If density of the material of a square plate and circular plate as shown is the same, the centre of

mass of composite system will be :

(1) Inside the square plate

(2) Inside the circular plate
(3) at point of contact
(4) outside the system

8) A student measured the thickness of an alluminium sheet and wrote it as 1.350mm. Among the
following instruments, suggest the instrument he used for measurement.

A vernier calliper, with main scale divisions of 1mm, where 9 main scale division coincides with
(1)
10 vernier scale divisions
(2) A meter scale
(3) A screw gauge having 100 divisions on circular scale and pitch as 0.5 mm.
(4) A screw gauge having 50 divisions on circular scale and pitch as 0.5 mm.

9) One end of a string of length ℓ is connected to a particle of mass m and other to a small peg on a
smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with constant speed v, the net force on the
particle directed towards centre is (where T is tension in string)

(1) T

(2)

(3)

(4) 0

10) A motor car is travelling at speed 60 m/s on a circular road of radius 1200 m. Its speed is
increasing at rate of 4m/s2. The acceleration of the car at this instant is :

(1) 3m/s2
(2) 4m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 7 m/s2

11) If the angular momentum of a body is increased by 150%, then its kinetic energy will be
increased by

(1) 300 %
(2) 775%
(3) 525 %
(4) 325 %

12) Assertion (A) : The tendency of skidding or overturning is increased when a cyclist increases
his speed of turning .
Reason (R) : Angle of bending of cyclist decreases as velocity of cycle increases.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct & (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

13) A meter scale is placed on the sharp edge of a knife edge at 60 cm mark. Two weights of 250 g
and 500 g are suspended from 30 cm and 80 cm marks respectively. Find the mass of scale if it
balances on sharp edge of knife.

(1) 150 g
(2) 200 g
(3) 250 g
(4) 350 g

14) A wheel initially at rest is rotated with a uniform angular acceleration. The wheel rotates
through an angle θ1 in first two second and through an additional angle θ2 in next 6 second. The ratio

of is

(1) 9
(2) 12
(3) 18
(4) 15

15) What is the value of linear velocity in circular motion, if and ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) A particle of mass 4Kg is moving along the line with speed 2m/sec. The
magnitude of the angular momentum of the particle about origin is

(1) 8 Kg – m2 – s–1
(2) Kg – m2 – s–1
(3)
(4)

17) A uniform rod of mass m and length L is suspended with two massless strings as shown in the
figure. If the rod is at rest in a horizontal position, the ratio of tension in the two strings T1/T2 is:

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 4 : 3

18) If a car is moving in uniform circular motion in a circle of radius R, then what should be the
value of velocity (v) of car so that car will not leave the circle (μs, μk are coefficient of static &
kinetic frictions between car & road) ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

19) A rectangular plate of mass M and side a, b is given. Different axis of rotations are marked.
Match the column :

Column-I Column-II

(a) I1 (P)

(b) I2 (Q)

(c) I3 (R)

(d) I4 (S)

(1) a→P, b→S, c→R, d→Q

(2) a→S, b→Q, c→R, d→P
(3) a→Q, b→R, c→P, d→S
(4) a→Q, b→P, c→R, d→S

20) An object follows a circular path. Which of the following quantities may remain constant during
its motion ?
(i) Speed (ii) Velocity (iii) Acceleration
(iv) Magnitude of acceleration

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (iv)
(4) (ii), (iv)

21) A rectangular block has a square base measuring a × a and height 'h'. It moves on a horizontal
surface in a direction perpendicular to one of its edges. The coefficient of friction is μ. It will topple
if :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
22) The moment of inertia of a uniform disc about its geometric axis is I. A section ABCD of the disc
(as shown in figure) is cut off and separated. The moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc

about the same axis will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A particle of mass m slides on a quarter part of smooth sphere of radius R as shown in figure. It
is released from rest at A, the normal contact force exerted by surface on particle when it reaches P

is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) An elevator cable is to have a maximum stress of 7 × 107 N/m2 to allow for appropriate safety
factors. Its maximum upward acceleration is 1.5 m/s2. If the cable has to support the total weight of
2000 Kg of a loaded elevator. The area of cross-section of the cable should be

(1) 3.28 cm2

(2) 2.38 cm2
(3) 0.32 cm2
(4) 8.23 cm2

25) The length of a metal wire is L1 when the tension in it is T1 and is L2, when the tension is T2. The
natural length of the wire is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A U-tube closed at one end is filled with three immiscible liquids having densities ρ, 3ρ and 8ρ as

shown in figure. The pressure inside the tube at close end is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) P0 + hρg

27) The speed of wind streamlines on the upper and lower part of an aeroplane wings are 70 ms–1
and 60 ms–1 respectively. If area of wings is 2.5 m2 and density of air is 1.3 kg m–3. Find uplift force
acting on aeroplane :

(1) 2.11 × 103 N

(2) 3.55 × 103 N
(3) 7.32 × 103 N
(4) 6.25 × 10–3 N

28) Two mercury drops (each of radius r) merge to form a bigger drop. The surface energy of the
bigger drop is : (Surface tension = T)

(1) 25/3 π r2 T
(2) 4πr2T
(3) 2πr2T
(4) 28/3 π r2 T

29) Assertion (A) : A thin stainless steel needle can lie floating on a still water surface.
Reason (R) : When the buoyancy force balances the weight of the object, object floats.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

30) 64 rain drops of equal size are falling in air with terminal velocity 1.5 ms–1. If these drops coalese
to form a big drop then terminal velocity of big drop is-

(1) 6 ms–1
(2) 16 ms–1
(3) 24 ms–1
(4) 32 ms–1

31) The surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 N m–1. The work done in blowing to form a soap
bubble of surface area 40 cm2 is :-

(1) 2.4 × 10–4 J

(2) 1.2 × 10–2 J
(3) 3.6 × 10–4 J
(4) 4.2 × 10–2 J

32)

A wire of initial length L and radius r is stretched by a length ℓ. Another wire of same material but
with initial length 2L and radius 2r is stretched by a length 2ℓ. The ratio of the stored elastic energy
per unit volume in the first and second wire is :

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

33) The power of a water pump is 2kW. If g = 10 ms–2, the amount of water it can raise in one minute
to a height of 10 m is :-

(1) 2000 litre

(2) 1000 litre
(3) 100 litre
(4) 1200 litre

34) A coin is placed on the horizontal surface of a rotating disc. The distance of the coin from the
axis is 1 m and coefficient of friction is 0.5. If the disc starts from rest and is given an angular

acceleration rad / sec2, the number of revolutions through which the disc turns before the coin
slips is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A uniform solid sphere of radius R has a spherical cavity of radius a as shown in fig. The position

of centre of mass of remaining sphere from point O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards each other under the action of their
internal attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v at any instant, then the speed of centre of mass of
the system will be :-

(1) v
(2) 2v
(3) Zero
(4) 1.5v

37) A uniform rod of mass 'm' and length ℓ is suspended by two strings at its ends as shown. When
one of the string is cut, the rod starts falling with an initial angular acceleration :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

38) The mass of moon is times the mass of earth. the gravitational force of attraction F1 on the
moon due to the earth and the force F2 on earth due to moon are in the ratio :-

(1) 81 : 1
(2) 1 : 81
(3) 1 : 9
(4) 1 : 1

39) A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The
gravitational potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from the centre will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) If Ve and V0 represent the escape velocity and orbital velocity of a satellite corresponding to a
circular orbit of radius R, then :-

(1) Ve = V0
(2)
(3)
(4) Ve and V0 are not related

41) A mass tied to one end of string of length 1 m which was fixed at the other end so that particle
can revolve in vertical circle. If a speed of 10 m/s is given to the particle at lowest point then find out

tension in the string at highest point, mass of the particle is 1 kg :

(1) 60 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 90 N

42) If spring constant K = 750 N/m, then find maximum compression of spring :-
(1) 20 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 50 cm

43) Two perfectly elastic particles A and B of equal mass travelling along the line joining them with
velocities 15 m/s and 10 m/s. After collision, their velocities will be :

(1) 10 m/s, 10 m/s

(2) 15 m/s, 15 m/s
(3) 10 m/s, 15 m/s
(4) 15 m/s, 10 m/s

44) Two moving particles P and Q are 10 m apart at a certain instant. The velocity of P is 8 m/s
making an angle 30° with the line joining P and Q and that of Q is 6 m/s making an angle 30° with
PQ as shown in the figure. Then angular velocity of P with respect to Q is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 0.1 rad/sec
(3) 0.4 rad/sec
(4) 0.7 rad/sec

45) A 1 kg ball falls from a height of 25 cm and rebounds upto a height of 16 cm. The coefficient of
restitution is :-

(1) 0.8
(2) 0.32
(3) 0.40
(4) 0.56

CHEMISTRY

1) Correct electronic configuration of Ce(Z = 58) is:-

0
(1) [Xe] 6s2 4f1 5d1 6p
 0 0
(2) [Xe] 6s2 4f2 5d 6p
0 0
(3) [Xe] 6s2 4f 5d2 6p
0
(4) [Xe] 6s2 4f 5d1 6p1

2)

The longest λ in hydrogen atom for Lyman series is ? (Given R = 109678 cm–1)

(1) 1215 Å
(2) 1315 Å
(3) 1415 Å
(4) 1515 Å

3) Which is the correct order of atomic sizes 63Eu, 71Lu, 70Yb & 64Gd

(1) Gd > Eu > Yb > Lu

(2) Eu > Gd > Yb > Lu
(3) Eu > Gd > Lu > Yb
(4) Lu > Yb > Gd > Eu

4) A compound of vanadium has magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. If the vanadium ion in the compound
is present as Vx+, then, the value of x is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5)

If a0 be the radius of first Bohr's orbit of H-atom, the de-Broglie's wavelength of an electron
revolving in the second Bohr's orbit will be:

(1) 6 πa0
(2) 4 πa0
(3) 2 πa0
(4) None of these

6) The number of waves made by a Bohr electron in an orbit of maximum magnetic quantum number
is equals to +3 :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1
7) Match List-I with List-II

List-II
List-I (Orbital
(Value of associated with
quantum quantum
number) number given in
List-I

A. n = 2, ℓ = 1 I 4s

B. n = 4, ℓ = 0 II 2p

C. n = 5, ℓ = 3 III 3d

D. n = 3, ℓ = 2 IV 5f
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

8) Correct quantum number set for last electron of Al is :-

(1)
n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s =

(2)
n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s =

(3)
n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s =

(4)
n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s =

9) The radiation of maximum frequency will be emitted in the transition (for H atom):

(1) From n = 1 to n = 3
(2) From n = 2 to n = 5
(3) From n = 3 to n = 1
(4) From n = 5 to n = 2

10) Which molecule has a zero-dipole moment?

(1) H2O
(2) CO2
(3) NH3
(4) HF

11) Four lowest energy levels of H–atoms are shown in the figure. The number of emission lines
could be :-
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

12) Which shows negative overlapping?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The process that is NOT endothermic in nature is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) Which of the following properties is correct?

(1) Atomic radius : Li < Be < B

(2) Ionisation potential : Li < Be < B
(3) Screening constant : Li < Be < B
(4) Electronegativity Fe+3 < Fe+2

15) Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing dipole moment ?

(1) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I

(2) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I
(3) CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I > CH3F
(4) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3I > CH3Br

16) Solid PCl5 exist as :-

 + –
(1) [PCl4] & [PCl6]
(2) PCl3 & Cl2
– +
(3) [PCl4] & [PCl6]
+ –
(4) [PCl3] & [PCl3]

17) M–3 configuration is [He]2s22p3 then configuration of will be :-

(1) 1s22s2
(2) [He]
(3) 1s22s22p5
(4) 1s22s22p2

18) Consider the following four elements which are represented according to long form of periodic

table - Here W, Y and Z are left, up & right elements with respect to the element 'X'. 'Y'
belongs to 16th group and 2nd period. Then according to given information the incorrect statement
regarding given element is :-

(1) Maximum electronegativity : Y

(2) Electronegativity of Y > X
(3) Maximum electron affinity : Z
(4) Y Exhibits maximum electron affinity

19) Which is correct graph ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Choose the incorrect radii order :-

(1) Ti2+ < Ti3+ < Ti4+

(2) S2– > S–
(3) Mg2+ < C4–
(4) H+ < H–

21) Which of the sequences given below shows the correct increasing order of energy ?

(1) 3s, 3p, 4s, 4p, 3d, 5s, 5p, 4d

(2) 3s, 3p, 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d, 5s, 5p
(3) 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p, 5s, 4d, 5p
(4) 3s, 3p, 4s, 4p, 5s, 3d, 4d, 5p

22) Find out the distance between 2nd & 3rd orbit of H-atom :-

(1) 2.65 Å
(2) 1.2 Å
(3) 4 Å
(4) 1.5 Å

23) Which two orbitals are located along the axis, and not between the axis ?

2
(1) dxy, dz
(2) dxy, pz
(3) dyz, px

(4) pz,

24) When electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 300 nm falls on the surface of a metal, electrons
are emitted with the kinetic energy of 1.68 × 105 J mol–1. What is the minimum energy needed to
remove an electron from the metal ?
(h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js, c = 3 × 108 ms–1,
NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol–1)

(1) 2.31 × 106 J mol–1

(2) 3.84 × 104 J mol–1
(3) 3.84 × 10–19 J mol–1
(4) 2.31 × 105 J mol–1

25)

What should be the momentum (in gram centimetre per second) of a particle if its de-Broglie
wavelength is 1Å and the value of h is 6.6252 × 10–27 erg second ?

(1) 6.6252 × 10–19 g cm/s

(2) 6.6252 × 10–21 g cm/s
(3) 6.6252 × 10–24 g cm/s
(4) 6.6252 × 10–27 g cm/s

26)
The increasing order for the values of e/m (charge/mass) is :

(1) e, p, n, α
(2) n, p, e , α
(3) n, p, α, e
(4) n, α, p, e

27) The value of the spin magnetic moment of a particular ion is 2.83 Bohr magneton. The ion is :

(1) Fe2+
(2) Ni2+
(3) Mn2+
(4) Co3+

28) Four quantum numbers of unpaired electrons of chlorine are :-

n m s

(1) 3 2 0

(2) 2 1 0

(3) 3 1 +1

(4) 3 0 –1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) The ratio of velocity of electron in second and third shell of Li+2 ion :

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

30) Circumference of 4th orbit having de-Broglie wavelength of an electron XÅ, is :-

(1) 4X Å
(2) 2X Å
(3) X Å
(4) None of these

31) A certain transition in H spectrum from an excited state to ground state in one or more steps
gives rise to total of 10 lines. How many of these belong to UV sepectrum :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 5

32) The set of configuration in which both Hund, Pauli's principle are violated is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Identify IUPAC name of recently discovered element of group having gases only ?

(1) uuq
(2) unq
(3) uno
(4) uuo

34) Which of the following is semi-metal ?

(1) Mg
(2) Be
(3) Zn
(4) Sb

35) Which of the following pair is not isoelectronic ?

–
(1) HS , H2O2
(2) MgS, NaCl
(3) Zn+2, Ge+3
(4) Tl+3, Hg+2

36) Which of the following option is correct ?

(1) HF < H2O (dipole moment)

(2) NH3 > H2O (dipole moment)
(3) (C = C) < (C = O) (Bond length)
 H2O(g) → H+(g) + OH–(g), ΔaH1o = x kJ/mol
(4) OH–(g) → H+(g) + O2–(g), ΔaH2o = y kJ/mol
then x = y

37) During the change of O2 to O2– the incoming e– enters in the orbital :-

(1) π2px
(2) π*2px
(3) π*2py
(4) both 2 or 3 are possible

38) Select the correct match :

(1) Atomic size – B > Be

(2) I.P. – Ga > Al
(3) EA – F > Cl
(4) EN – Ti < Hf < Zr

39) Correct order of Acidic strength ?

(1) Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO

(2) P4O10 > SO3 > Cl2O7
(3) Na2O < MgO < Al2O3
(4) P4O10 > SO3 < Cl2O7

40) Lowest 2nd IP in any period will be for

(1) Alkali metal

(2) Halogens
(3) Alkaline earth metal
(4) Inert gas

41) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The magnitude of the H-bonding depends on the physical state of the compound

(2)
x & y are bond lengths then x > y
(3) H-bond strength - HF > H2O > NH3
(4) Hydrogen bonds have strong influence on the structure and properties of the compounds.

42) In which molecule s-p mixing is operative ?

(1) B2
(2) O2
(3) Ne2
(4) All

43) Which order of stability is correct ?

(1) BMO > AO > ABMO

(2) BMO < AO < ABMO
(3) BMO > AO < ABMO
(4) ABMO > BMO > AO

44) Which of the following compound is mainly ionic ?

(1) NH4Cl
(2) LiI
(3) AlBr3
(4) All of the above

45) In which of the following compound only axial d-orbitals are used in hybridisation ?

(1) PF5
(2) XeF6
(3) IF7
(4)

BOTANY

1) Polysome is formed by :-

(1) A ribosome with several subunits

(2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement
(3) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
(4) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum

2) Glycoprotein are formed in which one of the following organelle?

(1) Chloroplast
(2) Nucleus
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Golgi complex

3) Match the following column–I with column–II and choose the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

A Aleuroplast (i) Photosynthesis

B Elaioplast (ii) Storage of starch

 C Chloroplast (iii) Storage of protein

D Amyloplast (iv) Storage of fat

(1) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
(2) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
(4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i

4) A nuclear pore allows

(1) Movement of DNA

(2) Movement of RNA and proteins
(3) Movement of proteins only
(4) Movement of RNA only

5) Chromatin contains-

(1) Only DNA

(2) Only DNA & Histone
(3) Only DNA & RNA
(4) RNA, DNA, Histone and Non histone

6) Assertion : The number of mitochondria per cell is variable.

Reason : It depends upon physiological activity of cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) Match the following -

Ribonucleo
(A) Robert Brown (I)
proteins

Nucleus as cell
(B) Flemming (II)
organelle

Packaging of
(C) George Palade (III)
materials

Staining of nucleus
(D) Camillo Golgi (IV)
material
Options :-
(1) A - (II) B - (IV) C - (I) D - (III)
(2) A - (II) B - (IV) C - (III) D - (I)
(3) A - (I) B - (II) C - (III) D - (IV)
(4) A - (IV) B - (III) C - (II) D - (I)
8) The electron microscopic study of a cilium or the flagellum show that they are covered with
plasma membrane. Their core called the.........., possesses a number of mictotubules running parallel
to the long axis.

(1) Axoneme
(2) Basal body
(3) Radial spoke
(4) Cover sheath

9) Statement-I : In anaphase chromatids move to opposite pole.

Statement-II : In telophase, nucleolus, golgi body and ER reform.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

10) Match column I with column II and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II

Terminalisation of
(a) Zygotene (I)
chiasmata

Dissolution of
(b) Pachytene (II) synaptonemal
complex

(c) Diakinesis (III) Crossing over

(d) Leptotene (IV) Synapsis

Condensation of chromosomal
(e) Diplotene (V)
material start
(1) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-V, e-IV,
(2) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-V, e-II,
(3) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-V, e-I
(4) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-V, e-I

11) Given below are two statements-

Statement-I : Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cytoplasmic division but only a
single cycle of DNA replication.
Statement-II : Meiosis-II is initiated after the DNA replication in S-phase of interkinesis.

(1) Both statement-I & II are correct

(2) Both statement-I & II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

12) A bivalent consists of :-

(1) Two chromatids and one centromeres
(2) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(3) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(4) Four chromatids and four centromeres

13) In plasma membrane the protein are classified as integral or peripheral on the basis of :

(1) Ease of extraction

(2) Location inside the cell
(3) Amount of protein
(4) Rotation inside the membrane

14) Densely stained reticular structure near the nucleus is :

(1) Lysosome
(2) Vacuole
(3) Golgi body
(4) Mitochondria

15) Which of the following cell organelles are formed by the process of packaging in the Golgi
apparatus ?

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Lysosomes
(3) Plastid
(4) Ribosome

16) Non membrane bound cell organelle, which arrange spindle fibres between two poles of cell and
has an organisation like the cartwheel, that structure is :-

(1) Cilium
(2) Flagellum
(3) Centriole
(4) Ribosome

17) Which of the following is not a significance of mitosis ?

(1) Maintenance of identical genetic complement

(2) Cell repair
(3) Restore nucleo cytoplasmic ratio
(4) Genetic variability

18) The fluid nature of the membrane is also important from the point of view of functions like :-
(i) Cell growth
(ii) Formation of intercellular junctions
(iii) Secretions
(iv) Endocytosis
(v) Cell division

(1) i, iii, iv only

(2) ii, iii, v only
(3) i, iii, iv, v only
(4) i, ii, iii, iv, v

19)

Identify structure A,B,C and D in given diagram :-

A B C D
Peripheral Central Radial Central
(1)
microtuble sheath spoke microtubule
Interdoublet Central Central Central
(2)
bridge microtuble sheath bridge
Interdoublet Central Radial Central
(3)
bridge sheath spoke microtubule
Interdoublet Radial Central Central
(4)
bridge spoke sheath microtubule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) a. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

b. Formation of recombination nodules
c. Alignment of bivalent chromosome on the equatorial plate
d. Terminalisation of chiasmata
Select the correct sequence of events during meiosis-I :

(1) c → a → b → d
(2) a → b → d → c
(3) b → a → d → c
(4) c → b → d → a
21) If A cell have 40 unit DNA, 20 chromosome in prophase I than what should be the amount of
DNA and chromosome in gamete respectively :-

(1) 20,20
(2) 10,20
(3) 20,10
(4) 10,10

22)

How many of the following organelles are included into endomembrane system ?
[Mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisome, golgibody, lysosome, chloroplast, vacuole]

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 6

23) Disjunction refers to :-

(1) The separation of homologous chromosomes at anaphase-I.

(2) Separation of non homologous chromosome at anaphase-II.
(3) Separation of homologous chromosome at mitotic anaphase.
(4) Separation of non homologous chromosomes at mitotic anaphase.

24) RER (Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum) :-

(a) Bears 80S ribosomes on their surface
(b) Frequently observed in the cells actively involved in lipid synthesis and secretion
(c) Are extensive and continuous with outer nuclear membrane
(d) Synthesizes steroid hormones in animal cells
Find out the incorrect statement(s) :-

(1) a and c
(2) b and d
(3) b only
(4) d only

25) Read the following statements :-

(A) Presence of DNA
(B) Presence of cristae
(C) Presence of ribosomes
(D) Enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis
(E) Site for oxidative phosphorylation
How many of the above statements are common for both mitochondria and chloroplast ?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

26) Match the column-I and column-II :

Column-I Column-II
Cells Shape
(i) RBC (a) Elongated
(ii) WBC (b) Round and oval
(iii) Trachied (c) Amoeboid
Mesophyll
(iv) (d) Round and biconcave
cells
(1) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
(2) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
(3) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

27)

What is the role of cytoskeleton in the cell ?

(1) Motility
(2) Mechanical support
(3) Maintenance of the shape of the cell
(4) All of the above

28)

Which stage is suitable to study karyotype ?

(1) Interphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophase

29) Which statement is not true ?

(1) Growth of multicellular organisms occurs by mitosis

(2) In meiosis nuclear division occurs twice but DNA Replication only once.
(3) In Animals, meiosis occurs in diploid cell
(4) All four cells produced by meiosis are always genetic similar
30) Identify the given below stage with their respective event :-

(1) Anaphase-II; Splitting of the centromere

(2) Anaphase-I; Homologous chromosome separate
(3) Anaphase-I; Splitting of the centromere
(4) Metaphase-I; Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate

31) Which phase of meiotic division in mammals can last for months or years ?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

32) Choose the correct statement regarding stroma of chloroplast

(1) It is connected with light reaction of photosynthesis

(2) It contains chlorophyll
(3) It contains enzyme for the synthesis of carbohydrate and protein
(4) It contains 80 S type ribosome

33) Assertion (A) : Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.

Reason (R) : Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does ensure independent living.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

34) Assertion (A) : In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, a semi-fluid matrix called nucleoplasm
occupies the volume of the cell.
Reason (R) : The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and
animal cells.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

35)
Unequal length of arms are noticed in

(1) Metacentric chromosome.

(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome.
(3) Acrocentric chromosome
(4) Both (2) and (3)

36)

Pick out the correct statements w.r.t Chloroplast and Mitochondria

(A) Both have grana.
(B) Both are involved in respiration.
(C) Both have double membrane.
(D) Both are involved in protein synthesis.
(E) Both have circular DNA and 70s ribosomes.
(F) Both have cristae.

(1) C, D & E only

(2) All
(3) A, D & E only
(4) A, E & F only

37) Match the following :

List-I List-II

(A) Lysosomes (I) Tonoplast

(II) Luminal and extra

(B) Golgi apparatus luminal
compartments

(III) Hydrolytic
(C) Vacuoles
enzymes

(IV) Modification of
(D) E. R
proteins
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C- I, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

38)

Plastids are found in

I. All plant cells II. All eukaryotes
III. Euglenoides IV. All animal cells

(1) All
(2) I, II & III
(3) III only
(4) I & III

39) Match the following:

List-I List-II

Rudolph Structure of cell

(A) (I)
Virchow membrane

(B) Schwann (II) Granular structures

Singer & Modified the cell

(C) (III)
Nicolson theory

George Presence of cell wall

(D) (IV)
Palade in plant cells
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

40) Assertion (A) : Chromosomal condensation marks the beginning of telophase.

Reason (R) : Chromosomal decondensation begins immediately after prophase.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

41) Which of the following statements are correct about prokaryotic genetic material (DNA) ?
(I) DNA is naked, that is without histones
(II) DNA is usually single chromosome
(III) Outside the genomic DNA, small circular DNA is also present in many bacteria.
(IV) The smaller DNA (extra chromosomal) is called plasmid

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II, III and IV

42) Read following statements:

(A) Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis.
(B) The content of nucleolus is continous with the rest of the nucleoplasm as it is a membrane bound
structure
(C) Nucleolus is main site for synthesis of ribosomal protein.
(D) Nuclear envelope consists of two parallel membranes with a space between called
perimitochondrial space.
(E) The centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella.
How many above statements are not correct?

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

43) Choose the incorrect pair :-

(1) Synapsis – Zygotene

(2) Synaptonemal complex – Leptotene
(3) Crossing over – Pachytene
(4) Terminalisation – Diakinesis

44) Statement-I : Cells in quiescent stage remain metabolically inactive.

Statement-II : Plants can show meiotic division in both haploid and diploid cells.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

45) Statement-I: Conservation of specific chromosome number of each species is due to meiosis.
Statement-II: Genetic variability increases in organisms is due to meiosis.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect

ZOOLOGY

1) Read the following statements :-

(I) Ammonia excreting process is known as ammonotelism.
(II) Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires a large amount of water for its elimination.
(III) Many cartilagenous fishes, aquatic reptiles and aquatic insects are ammonotelic in nature.
(IV) Kidneys do not play any significant role in removal of ammonia .
(V) Ammonia is generally excreted by diffusion as NH4+.
Which are correct statements ?

(1) I, II, III & IV

(2) II, III, IV & V
(3) I, II, IV & V
(4) All are correct

2) Shape of Henle's loop and Vasa recta are :-

(1) 'C' shaped and 'U' shaped respectively
(2) 'U' shaped and 'C' shaped respectively
(3) Hairpin shaped and 'U' shaped respectively
(4) Hairpin shaped and 'C' shaped respectively

3) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable for ?

(1) Glucose
(2) NH3
(3) Na+
(4) Water

4) Assertion (A) : Sharks are considered to be ammonotelic.

Reason (R) : Sharks have the ability to retain considerable amount of ammonia to maintain desired
osmolarity.
Options :

(1) Both A and R are correct

(2) Both A and R are incorrect
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct

5) Which of the following is a homopolymer ?

(1) Cellulose
(2) Nucleic acid
(3) Histone
(4) Insulin

6) Find out the incorrect statement :

(1) Liver converts ammonia into urea which is excreted by kidneys.

Collecting duct allows the passage of small amounts of urea into the medullary interstitium to
(2)
keep up the osmolarity.
(3) Human kidneys can produce urine nearly four times concentrated than the intial filtrate formed.
(4) ADH can affect the kidney function by its vasodilation effects on blood vessels.

7)

Match the excretory functions in section-I with the part of the excretory system in section-II. Choose
the correct combination from among the answers given :

Section-II (Parts
Section-I
of Excretory
(Function)
system)

(1) Ultra filtration (a) Henle's loop

 Concentration of
(2) (b) Ureter
urine

(3) Transport of urine (c) Urinary bladder

Malpighian
(4) Storage of urine (d)
corpuscle

Proximal
(e)
convoluted tubule
(1) 1-e, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(2) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
(3) 1-e, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
(4) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

8)

The inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase is done by

(1) Succinate
(2) Malonate
(3) Prosthetic group
(4) Co-enzyme

9) Assertion (A) : Compared to uric acid, urea is a more toxic excretory substance.
Reason (R) : Birds and insects are uricotelic animals.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are incorrect
(4) A is correct but R is incorrect

10) The glomerular filtrate i.e., the filtrate collected in the cavity of Bowman's capsule is

(1) Blood minus proteins

(2) Blood minus proteins and corpuscles
(3) Water
(4) Urine

11) Match the given secondary metabolites with their category

a. Alkaloid (i) Ricin

b. Toxin (ii) Morphine

c. Lectin (iii) Concanavalin A

Polymeric
d. (iv) Gums
substance
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

12)

Which one of the following is correct for a normal human ?

(1) pH of urine is around 8.5

(2) On an average, 75-80 mg of urea is excreted via urine per day
(3) Presence of ketone bodies in urine may be an indicator of diabetes mellitus
Relaxation of smooth muscles of bladder and simultaneous contraction of urethral sphincter
(4)
causes release of urine

13)

What are A, B, C & D in the below diagram :

A B C D
(1) Vasa recta Afferent arterial Efferent arteriole Glomerulus
(2) Glomerulus Efferent arteriole Afferent arteriole Vasa recta
(3) Vasa recta Efferent arteriole Afferent arteriole Glomerulus
(4) Glomerulus Afferent arteriole Efferent arteriole Vasa recta
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) The given molecular formula belongs to which of the following groups of biomolecules ?

(1) Carbohydrates
(2) Proteins
(3) Nucleic acids
(4) Triglycerides

15) Which one of these is not correct about the conducting zone ?

(1) Conducting zone is the actual site for diffusion of O2 & CO2
(2) Conducting zone transports the gases to the alveoli.
(3) Conducting zone clears the air from foreign particles.
(4) Conducting zone equalises the air to the body temperature.

16) In human beings, respiratory rhythm centre is situated in :-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Medulla
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Olfactory epithelium

17) Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusally high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. The
patient has been inhalling polluted air containing unusually high amounts of :-

(1) Carbon disulphide

(2) Chloroform
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Carbon monoxide

18) Which of the following cannot be measured using a spirometer ?

(1) Residual volume

(2) Expiratory reserve volume
(3) Tidal volume
(4) Inspiratory reserve volume

19) Hamburgers process is also known as :-

(1) Bicarbonate shift

(2) Chloride shift
(3) Potassium shift
(4) Oxyhaemoglobin shift

20) The enzyme "Carbonic anhydrase" is found in :-

(1) Macrophages
(2) RBCs
(3) WBCs
(4) Platelets
21) Which statement is true here ?

(1) Total thickness of diffusion membrane is much less than a millimetre

(2) Diffusion capacity of O2 is higher than that of CO2
(3) Diffusion capcity of CO2 is 20-25 times less than that of O2
(4) All of the above are true

22) Book lungs are the respiratory organs in –

(1) Scorpion
(2) Prawn
(3) Snail
(4) Cockroach

23) Match the column-A with column-B and choose correct option :-

Column-A Column-B

(i) IRV (a) 1200 ml

(ii) ERV (b) 1000 ml

(iii) TV (c) 2500 ml

(iv) RV (d) 500 ml

(1) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
(2) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(4) i-d, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a

24) Lecithin is example for

(1) Amino acid

(2) Steriod
(3) Phospholipid
(4) Glycolipid

25)

In humans which part of the lungs does gaseous exchange take place ?

(1) Trachea & alveolar duct

(2) Trachea & bronchi
(3) Alveolar duct & alveoli
(4) Alveoli & Trachea

26) Read the following statements:

(A) Contraction in diaphragm, increases volume of thoracic cavity in dorso ventral axis.
(B) Contraction in diaphragm increases volume of thoracic cavity in anterior-posterior axis.
(C) Contraction in EICM, increases volume of thoracic cavity in dorso ventral axis.
(D) Contraction in EICM, increases volume of thoracic cavity in anterior-posterior axis.
Which of the above statement is incorrect ?

(1) A, C
(2) A, D
(3) B, C
(4) B, D

27) What would happen when intra-pulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure ?

(1) Expiration
(2) Inspiration
(3) Forceful expiration
(4) Breathing stops

28) The cavities of alveoli in the lungs are lined by –

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
(4) Squamous epithelium

29) In given graph, labelled points show oxygen dissociation curve, where A and B are ?

(1) A = pH↓, B = Temperature↑

(2) A = pH↑, B = Temperature↑
(3) A = pH↑, B = Temperature↓
(4) A = pH↓, B = pH↑

30) How many of the following statements correctly represents emphysema ?

(A) Usually occurs in individuals who break stone.
(B) Cigarette smoking continuously.
(C) Fibrosis in lungs.
(D) Decreased respiratory surface

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

31) Right atrioventricular aperture is guarded by ________

(1) Mitral valve

(2) Tricuspid valve
(3) Bicuspid valve
(4) Semilunar valve

32) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(a) The atrium and the ventricles of the same side are also separated by a thick muscular
tissue called AV septum
(b) Left atrium opens into left ventricle through semilunar valve
(c) Pericardium is double layered membrane
(d) Heart is mesodermal in origin

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

33) There are 3 drops of blood from Mr.X on a slide, antibodies are added to it.

Identify the types of blood group on the basis of above information

:

(1) B+
(2) B–
(3) A+
(4) A–

34) Atrial systole results in :

(1) Complete emptying of ventricles

(2) Complete atrial filling
(3) Increased flow of blood in to the ventricles by about 30%
(4) Increased flow of blood in to the ventricles by about 70%

35) Heart is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body in condition of :-

(1) Angina pectoris

(2) Heart attack
(3) Cardiac arrest
(4) Heart failure

36) Find out the time interval between the heart sounds 'lub' to 'dub' and 'dub' to 'lub' respectively:

(1) 0.3 seconds & 0.4 seconds

(2) 0.3 seconds & 0.5 seconds
(3) 0.7 seconds & 0.3 seconds
(4) 0.4 seconds & 0.4 seconds

37) Sino–atrial node is present :

(1) In left upper corner of right atrium

(2) In right upper corner of left atrium
(3) In right upper corner of right atrium
(4) In left lower corner of left atrium

38) Read the following statements :

(A) Heart is two chambered having one atrium and one ventricle.
(B) Heart pumps the blood to gills for purification (oxygenation).
(C) It is called as a venous heart
Which of the above statements are correct for a single circulatory heart ?

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A, B, C

39) Coronary artery disease is :

(1) Arrythmia
(2) Atherosclerosis
(3) Hypertension
(4) Angina

40) Which of the following enzymes is non proteinaceous?

(1) Zymase
(2) Urease
(3) Ribozyme
(4) RuBisCo

41) Which of the following chambers of human heart has the thickest wall and consists of 95 mmHg
of pO2 in blood.

(1) Right atrium

(2) Left atrium
(3) Right ventricle
(4) Left ventricle

42) Which of the following pair will have the possibility of erythroblastosis foetalis during second
pregnancy ?

(1) Rh+ male and Rh+ female

(2) Rh– male and Rh+ female
(3) Rh+ male and Rh– female
(4) Rh– male and Rh– female

43) Ventricular systole in ECG, is represented by ?

(1) T-wave
(2) P-wave
(3) S-wave
(4) QRS complex

44)

How many of the following statement is/are incorrect ?

(A) Heart sound can be easily heard through a sphygmomanometer.
(B) Heart sounds are of clinical diagnostic significance.
(C) First heart sound 'Lub' is due to closing of semilunar valves.
(D) Second heart sound 'dub' is due to closing of AV-valve.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

45) The given figure is of the circulatory system. Identify the labelled parts (A, B, C, D)

A –Vena cava, B–Pulmonary vein,

(1)
C–Pulmonary artery, D–Dorsal aorta
A–Pulmonary vein, B–Pulmonary artery,
(2)
C–Vena cava, D–Dorsal aorta
 A –Vena cava, B–Pulmonary artery,
(3)
C–Pulmonary vein, D–Dorsal aorta
A –Dorsal Aorta, B–Vena cava,
(4)
C–Pulmonary vein, D–Pulmonary artery
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 3 1 3 2 1 3 1 3 3 3 3 4 1 2 3 1 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 1 3 2 1 4 1 3 1 4 4 2 1 3 3 4 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 3 4 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 2 4 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 2 3 1 1 2 4 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 4 4 1 4 2 3 2 1 2 2 4 4 3 1 4 2 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 1 1 1

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 3 2 4 1 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 2 3 4 4 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 1 2 3 1 4 3 4 2 3 3 3 4 4 1 2 4 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 2 2 4 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 3 3 2 1 4 4 2 2 2 2 3 4 4 1 2 4 1 2 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 1 1 1 3 3 2 2 4 4 4 2 2 2 3 4 2 3 4 2 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 4 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) 80[2 – x] – 50[2 + x]+ 70(–x)= 0

x = 30 cm

2)

mgvg = mbvb

3)
Pi = .01 × 500 = 5 kg m/sec
Pf = mbVb + mblock × Vblock
Vblock =
Pi = Pf ⇒ 5 = 0.01 × Vb + 2 × 1.4

Vb =

4)

5)

COM of uniform rod (length R) will be at i.e. (A) → (Q)

COM of uniform thin semicircular ring (Radius R) will be at

i.e. (B) → (S)

COM of uniform semicircular disc (Radius R) will be at

i.e. (C) → (R)

COM of uniform solid hemisphere (Radius R) will be at
 i.e. (D) → (P)

6)
v cos α = e u cos θ.
v sin α = u sin θ.

tan α =

⇒α=

7) Asp > Acp Msp > Mcp

So, COM inside square plate.

8) As the given measurement has four significant figures with 3 places after decimal, so such
measurement can only be possible with help of screw gauge having 100 divisions on circular
scale and pitch as 0.5 mm, because least count of such instrument comes as

9) The net force on particle directed towards centre is T.

10)

⇒
=

11) and

12) From equation if velocity is increased then tan θ increases. As θ increases the
chances of overturning increases. Thus for safe turn, θ should be small , for which v should be
small and r should be large. Also so if v increase then θ increase.
13) Let mass of scale is M, which acts at 50 cm (COM)
Using principle of moments :

ACW moment = CW moment

250 (30) + M(10) = 500(20)
10M = 2500 ⇒ M = 250 g

14)

.... (1)

in first 8 sec

.... (2)

15)
=

16)
L = mvrT
=4×2× sin 30°
2 –1
= Kg m s

17) τA = 0
18)

N = mg & f =
As car does not leave the circle, so

(f is static friction)
⇒

19)
I2 =

20) In uniform circular motion, speed (v) and magnitude of acceleration remain same.

21)
To topple, clockwise moment must be more than anticlock wise moment, so
About point G →

(μ mg) > mg

22)

Iremain = I – Iremoved

23)
Apply work energy theorem at A & P

Use dynamics equation at P :-

N –mg cos 60 =
Solving above equations, we get
 ⇒ N = mg +

24) Max. stress =

= 3.28 × 10–4 m2

25)

Let L → natural length

...(i)

...(ii)
Dividing (i) by (ii) and solving

26)

PA = PB

0
P + hρg + (2h)(3ρ)g = Ptube +

0
P + 7hρg = Ptube + hρg

0
∴ Ptube = P + hρg

27) =

PL – Pu = – = (702 – 602)

Fup = (PL – Pu)A = (70 + 60) (70 – 60) × 2.5

= 2.11 × 103 N

28)

Let radius of big drop is 'R'

So R = (n1/3) (r) (For two drop n = 2)
R = (21/3) (r)
Surface energy U = (T) (A)
U = (T) (4πR2)
U = (T) [4π(21/3r)2]
2/3 2
U = (T) 4(π) 2 r
 = (T) (28/3)π(r2)

29) The core concept involves forces acting on objects placed on a water surface. Typically,
objects float if the buoyant force balances their weight (Archimedes' principle). However, a
thin needle floats because surface tension-the cohesive force at the water surface-supports its
weight without it sinking, rather than buoyancy.

Remember that buoyancy applies when an object displaces fluid, but surface tension can
support small objects if they don't break the water surface. This distinction helps in cases
involving floating needles or insects like water striders.

30)
vT ∝ r2

vT' = 16 × 1.5 = 24 ms–1

31) Work done = Surface tension × change in surface area

= 0.03 × 2 × (40 × 10–4) J
= 2.4 × 10–4 J

32) Elastic potential energy stored per unit volume in a stretched wire
According to question,
(strain)1st wire = (strain)2nd wire
and Y1 = Y2 (as matrial is same)
Hence U1 = U2 i.e., U1 : U2 = 1:1

33)

34)
35)

RCM =

= =

36)

Net external force on system is zero

so

37) τ = I α

α=

38) (Action – Reaction)

39)

0
40) V =
Ve =

41)

The tension in the string at the highest point is 50 N (taking g = 10 m/s2).

42)

Using the spring potential energy formula with :

 43) Question Explanation : Two identical mass collide head-on elastically than there speed
is.

Concept : Head-on elastic collision.

Solution :
In head on elastic collision between two bodies of same mass the velocities are exchanged.

Initial velocity of A uA = 15 m/s = final velocity of B

Initial velocity of B uB = 10 m/s = final velocity of A

Final Answer: Option (3)

44)

45)

CHEMISTRY

46)

factual theory based.

47)

Å
 48)

Lanthnoid contraction due to poor shielding of f-orbitals.

Atomic radius

49) Question Explanation

You're given the magnetic moment of a vanadium compound (1.73 BM) and asked to find the
oxidation state (x) of vanadium ion Vⁿ⁺.

Concept

Magnetic moment (μ) = √n(n+2)

Where n = number of unpaired electrons

Given μ = 1.73 BM → implies n = 1

Solution:

Vanadium (Z = 23) → Configuration: [Ar] 3d³ 4s²

Let’s check which ion (Vⁿ⁺) leaves 1 unpaired e⁻:

A. V⁺ → remove 1 e⁻ → [Ar] 3d⁴ → 4 unpaired e⁻

B. V²⁺ → [Ar] 3d³ → 3 unpaired e⁻

C. V³⁺ → [Ar] 3d² → 2 unpaired e⁻

D. V⁴⁺ → [Ar] 3d¹ → 1 unpaired e⁻ → ✔ matches

E. V⁵⁺ → [Ar] 3d⁰ → 0 unpaired e⁻

Final Answer (4)

x = 4, i.e., V⁴⁺

50)

r1 for H-atom = 0.529 Å ×

= a0 ...(i)
2πr2 = nλ. {n = 2}

λ =
= 4πa0

51)

ℓ = – 3 to + 3
[n > ℓ] always
n = 4 = number of waves

52)

A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

53) Al → 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1

last electron enter in 3p1
n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = –1 or 0 or 0 + 1

s= or

54) n ∝ E

55) Explaining : Which molecule has a zero-dipole moment?

Concept : This question is based on dipole moment.
Solution : CO2 is a linear molecule with two polar bonds that cancel each other out, resulting
in a net dipole moment of zero.
Final Answer : (2)

56)

4→1
3 + 2 + 1 = 6 lines

57)

58) is exothermic.

59)

Left to right screening constant increases.

60)

Dipole moment is experimental quantity.

61)

2PCl5(s) = [PCl4]+ [PCl6]– (theoretical factual)

62) M–3 —→ M —→ M+2
[He]2s22p3 [He]2s2 [He]

63)

64)

K. E. =

K. E. ∝

K. E. ↑ then n ↓

65) Ti2+ > Ti3+ > Ti4+

greater the positive charge in same element greater will be Zeff and less will be the radius.

66) Energy order is decided by (n + ℓ) rule

67) r3 – r2

68)

Pz →

69)

λ = 300 nm = 300 × 10–9m

= 6.626 × 10–19 J
For 1 mole ⇒ 6.626 × 10–19 × 6.023 ×1023
= 3.99 × 105 J/mole
K.E.= 1.68 × 105 J/mole
hν0 = hν – K.E.
hν0 = 3.99 × 105 – 1.68 × 105
= 2.31× 105 J/mole
minimum energy = 2.31× 105 J/mole-1

70)
λ = 1 Å = 10–8cm

P = 6.6252 × 10–19 gcm/sec.

71)

Charge / mass for n = 0, for α =

for , for

72)

Magnetic moment =

73)

3p5

n = 3, = 1, m = +1, s = or

74)
75)

NCERT, Pg # 46

76)
n=5
No. of lines in u.v. region = (5 – 1) = 4

77)

78) Group 18 has gases only.

NCERT-XI, fig.3.2

79) Among given option only Sb is semi-metal/metalloid.

NCERT-XI, fig.3.2

80) Zn+2 has 28e– but Ge+3 has 29e–.

81) 1. HF < H2O

2. x > y

82) O2 → O2–
σ1s2, σ*1s2, σ2s2, σ*2s2, σ2pz 2
.

Now electron can be entered either in π*2px or in π*2py

NCERT-XI, 4.8

83) IP of Ga > IP of Al due to transition contraction.

NCERT-XI

84) On moving left to right, acidic nature increases.

85)

Conceptual
 86) Properties of H-bond.
NCERT-XI, 4.9

87) In B2, C2, N2 - s-p mixing operative.

NCERT-XI

88) BMO > AO > ABMO

NCERT-XI

89)

Conceptual.

90) PF5 → sp3d

s + px + py = pz + dz → axial
2

NCERT-XI

BOTANY

91)

NCERT Class-XI, Page No. 91

92)

NCERT Class-XI, Page No. 96

93)

NCERT Class-XI, Page No. 97

94)

NCERT Class-XI, Page No. 100

95)

NCERT Class-XI, Page No. 101

96) NCERT Class-XI, Page No. 97

97)
NCERT XI Page No. 97, 98, 100

98) NCERT Page No. 99

99)

NCERT (XI) Page No. 124

100) NCERT (XI), Page No. 126

101)

NCERT (XI), Page No. 125

102)

NCERT XI Page No. 126

103) NCERT Pg.#131 (8.5.1)

104) NCERT Pg.#133 ([Link])

105) NCERT Pg.#134

106)

NCERT Based

109) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 137, Fig. 8.9

111)

112) NCERT Based.

113)

NCERT Page no. 123

114)

NCERT Based.

115)

NCERT Page no. 120, 121

116) NCERT-XI, Pg # 127

117)

NCERT Based.
The role of cytoskeleton in the cell motility, mechanical support and maintenance of the shape
of the cell.

118)

NCERT Page no. 123

119)

NCERT Based

120)

NCERT Based.

121)

NCERT Based.

122) NCERT XI_Page No.136

123)

Assertion is true but reason is false.

124)

Assertion is false but reason is true.

 125)

NCERT Based

126)

C, D & E only

127)

A-III, B-IV, C- I, D-II

128)

I. All plant cells

III. Euglenoides

129)

A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

130)

Both (A) and (R) are false

131) NCERT Pg. # 128, Para-1

132) NCERT-XI, Pg#134

133)

NCERT Based

134)

Both the statements are incorrect

135)

Both statements are correct.

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT XI(E) page 290

137)

NCERT Based.

138)

NCERT based.

139)

Both A and R are incorrect

140)

NCERT Based.

141)

NCERT Based.

142)

1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

143)

NCERT Based.

144)

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A

145)

NCERT Based.

146)

Old, NCERT XI Pg.# 148

147)

NCERT Based.

148)
NCERT Based.

149)

NCERT Based.

150)

NCERT Based.

151)

NCERT Based.

152)

NCERT Based

153)

NCERT Based.

154)

NCERT Based.

155)

NCERT Based.

156)

NCERT Based.

157)

NCERT Based

158)

i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a

159)

NCERT Based
160)

NCERT Based

161)

NCERT Based

162) NCERT-XIth Pg # 270 [E]

163)

NCERT Based

164)

NCERT Based.

165)

Only B and D are correct

166) NCERT XI [Link].283

167) NCERT XI [Link].283

c and d are correct.

168) NCERT XI [Link].280

169)

NCERT XI Page 284

170)

NCERT Based.

171) Conceptual.
172) NCERT–XI, Pg#284

173) NCERT XI [Link].283

174)

NCERT Based.

175)

NCERT Page No.154

176)

NCERT Based.

177) NCERT XI [Link].281

178) NCERT–XI, Pg#286

179) A, C and D are incorrect.

180) NCERT XI [Link].287