Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

SBI CLERK MAINS MODEL TEST - 9

GENERAL AWARENESS
1. In October 2024, which state in collaboration with the Asian Development Bank

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(ADB) has initiated a project ' Sustainable Wetland and Integrated Fisheries
Transformation (SWIFT)’ to restore 129 wetlands in the state?
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Arunachal Pradesh
3) Assam 4) Sikkim 5) Haryana
2. Which among the following is the market where fixed income securities of various

1) Money Market
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types and features are issued and traded?
2) Debt Market
3) Capital Market 4) Futures Market 5) Prediction Market
3.

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A Special Non-Resident Rupee (SNRR) Account is a type of bank account that
allows non-residents to conduct business transactions in Indian rupees. It's a
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non-interest-bearing current account that can be opened by anyone who lives
outside of India but has a business interest in the country. SNRR Accounts can
be operated for a maximum period of ________.
ee

1) 07 Years 2) 05 Years 3) 15 Years 4) 10 Years 5) 12 Years

4. In October 2024, which country has regained the title as World’s Largest Freest
Economy in the “Economic Freedom of the World (EFW) 2024 Annual Report” by
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Fraser Institute?
1) Singapore 2) United States of America
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3) Switzerland 4) New Zealand 5) Hong Kong

5. Which of the following options is/are “INCORRECT” from “National Securities
Depository Limited (NSDL)”?
1) It is an Indian central securities depository, based in New Delhi.
2) It was established in August 1996 as the first electronic securities depository
in India with national coverage.
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3) It was established based on a suggestion by a national institution responsible
for the economic development of India.
4) Only (1) & (2) 5) All options are correct.
6. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) reduced the face value of debt
securities to encourage retail investor participation in the corporate bond market.
What is the new face value of debt securities as per the latest SEBI guidelines?
1) Rs 1,00,000 2) Rs 10,00,000 3) Rs 1,000 4) Rs 10,000 5) Rs 50,000
7. In December 2024, which organisation has hosted the 14th Asia-Oceania
Meteorological Satellite Users' Conference (AOMSUC-14) in New Delhi, Delhi?
1) India Meteorological Department (IMD)
2) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
3) Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM)
4) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
5) National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF)

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

8. Which bank has introduced the Maha Krishi Samrudhi Yojana (MKSY) that aims
to provide financial help to Food and Agriculture businesses, as well as projects
that build agricultural facilities?
1) Indian Bank 2) Bank of Maharashtra
3) State Bank of India 4) Canara Bank 5) HDFC Bank
9. In December 2024, environmentalist Tulsi Gowda, also known as the ‘Encyclopedia
of Forest’, passed away at 86 in Honnali, Karnataka. She was born in Honnali in
1938.
When did she receive the Padma Shri Award?
1) 2024 2) 2003 3) 1989 4) 2017 5) 2021

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10. In the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI), which
parameter has the highest weightage?
1) Payment Enablers 2) Consumer Centricity
3) Payment Performance 4) Payment Infrastructure Supply-side factors
5) Payment Infrastructure Demand-side factors
11.
ha
Indian Farmer Fertilizer Cooperative Ltd. (IFFCO) has received Fertilizer Control
Board (FCO) approval to manufacture Nano Copper and Nano Zinc liquids fertilizers.
These new liquid fertilizers will combat micronutrient deficiencies in agriculture,

scale.

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enhance the yields of crops, and alleviate micronutrient malnutrition on a global

When was ‘IFFCO’ established?

d
1) 1967 2) 1959 3) 1976 4) 1988 5) 1991
12. Jio Financial Services’ joint venture with BlackRock to enter the mutual fund
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(MF) space in India has received the nod from the Securities and Exchange Board
of India (SEBI). Where is the headquarters of ‘BlackRock’?
1) Singapore 2) Berlin 3) Switzerland 4) New York 5) Paris
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13. In October 2024, which state has received a USD 241.3 million loan from the
Asian Development Bank (ADB) to enhance the power distribution in the state?
1) West Bengal 2) Jharkhand
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3) Manipur 4) Madhya Pradesh 5) Maharashtra

14. Which state government’s eSwasthya Dham portal is now integrated with the
Centre’s Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), allowing ‘Char Dham’ pilgrims
to seamlessly create their national digital health accounts?
1) Uttara Pradesh 2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Odisha 4) Uttarakhand 5) Tamil Nadu
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15. Which of the following statements is/are “INCORRECT” from the “HIM-UNNATI
scheme”?
1) The Himachal Pradesh government has launched the scheme to promote natural
farming across the state with an allocation of ?150 crore.
2) This scheme will support approximately 1.92 lakh farmers working on over
32,149 hectares of land.
3) The program focuses on a cluster-based development model, consolidating
smallholding farmers for bulk production and ensuring a marketable surplus.
4) It will integrate various ongoing agricultural schemes and coordinate with
departments such as animal husbandry, horticulture, and rural development.
5) All Options are correct.
16. ‘Nima Rinji Sherpa’ (18 years ol4) has achieved a milestone few have accomplished,
becoming the youngest climber to reach all 14 of the world’s tallest mountains,
known as the “eight-thousanders.” He is from which of the following country?
1) Bhutan 2) Nepal 3) Bangladesh 4) Vietnam 5) India

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

17. Which organization has partnered with the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) as
the Principal Partner for four years, supporting the Paris Olympics 2024 and Los
Angeles Olympics 2028?
1) TATA Group 2) Reliance Industries Limited
3) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
4) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
5) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
18. Name the author who has entered the “India Book of Records” for writing several
literary works using the index finger of his left hand.
1) Madhumita Murgia 2) Lakshmi Murdeshwar Puri

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3) Prakashbabu 4) Jenny Erpenbeck 5) Sam Pitroda
19. What is the interest rate of “Public Provident Fund (PPF)” for the third quarter
(Q3) of the financial year (FY) 2024-25 starting from October 1st, 2024- December
31st, 2024?
1) 5.7% 2) 6.8% 3) 6.3% 4) 7.1% 5) 7.8%
20.
ha
Recently, the fixed deposit (FD) rates of over seven small finance banks (SFBs)
have raised to above what percentage for two-year tenures in order to compete
with larger banks like State Bank of India (SBI) and HDFC Bank?

21.
1) 6% 2) 7%

E 3) 5% 4) 8% 5) 4%
Masala bonds are Indian rupee denominated bonds issued in offshore capital
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markets. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has reduced the minimum tenure of
such bonds that an Indian company can, issue to _________.
1) Two Year 2) One Year 3) Five Year 4) Four Year 5) Three Year
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22. Which Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) has signed a Memorandum of Agreement
(MoA) with Airbus India Private Limited to foster development and socio-economic
reforms across the country?
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1) IIT Guwahati 2) IIT Kanpur 3) IIT Delhi 4) IIT Hyderabad 5) IIT Madras
23. In August Month 2024, which of the following entities has received ‘Fit & Proper’
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certificate from Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for the acquisition of the Industrial
Development Bank of India (IDBI) Limited?
1) State Bank of India 2) Emirates NBD Bank
3) Kotak Mahindra Bank Limited 4) Only (1) & (2) 5) Only (2) & (3)
24. The Royal Swedish Academy of Science has selected novelist ‘Han Kang’ for the
2024 Nobel Prize in Literature for her intense poetic prose that confronts historical
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traumas and exposes the fragility of human life. She is from which of the following
country?
1) Myanmar 2) Russia 3) North Korea 4) South Korea 5) Taiwan
25. Under which section of the banking Regulatory Act 1949 are banks prohibited
from opening a new branch without Reserve Bank of India's approval?
1) Section 14 2) Section 27 3) Section 11 4) Section 38 5) Section 23
26. Which of the following organisation has released its Climate Strategy 2030
document to promote green financing?
1) National Housing Bank 2) Securities and Exchange Board of India
3) Small industries Development Bank of India
4) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
5) Centre of Science and Technology for Rural Development
27. Which country has launched a new group of satellites known as the Yaogan-43 03
for testing new technologies related to low-orbit constellations?
1) Russia 2) United Arab Emirates 3) China 4) Turkiye 5) Japan

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

28. Recently, who has released a special booklet titled 'Paving the Path to Viksit
Bharat' depicting the important achievements of the first 100 days of the newly
elected union government?
1) Nitin Gadkari 2) Nirmala Sitharaman
3) S. Jaishankar 4) Amit Shah 5) Rajnath Singh
29. The Chandrakant Pandit-coached “Kolkata Knight Riders (KKR) cricket team”
won the Indian Premier League (IPL) 2024 title by beating Sunriser Hyderabad
(SRH) in the final of the 17th IPL; how many times have the Kolkata Knight
Riders won the Indian Premier League titles?
1) Only Three 2) Only Two 3) Only One 4) Only Five 5) Only Four

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30. Which of the following statements is/are “INCORRECT”?
1) The 9th edition of the India-Indonesia Joint Special Forces Exercise Garud
Shakti commenced at Cijantung, Jakarta, Indonesia.
2) The bilateral military exercise will be held from 1 to 12 November 2024.
ha
3) The 8th edition of the Garud Shakti exercise was also held in Indonesia in
November 2022.
4) The first edition of the Garud Shakti exercise was conducted in India in 2013,

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and the second in Indonesia in 2014.
5) All options are correct.
d
31. Which Indian Actor has been awarded ‘The Youth Icon Award 2024’ for
Entertainment at the 1st edition of the ‘FICCI Young Leaders Awards (2024)’?
1) Shah Rukh Khan 2) Ayushmann Khurran
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3) Ranveer Singh 4) Manoj Bajpayee 5) Amitabh Shah

32. Who has been appointed as the Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive
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Officer (CEO) of Digital India Corporation (DIC) and President/Chief Executive
Officer (P&CEO) of the National e-Governance Division (NeGD)?
1) Ashish Bhargava 2) Sakesh Prasad Singh 3) S. Krishnan
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4) Akash Tripathi 5) Abhishek Singh

33. Which state has the highest wage rate for unskilled workers under the “Mahatma
Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNRES)” in 2024-25?
1) Telangana 2) Arunachal Pradesh 3) Haryana
4) Chhattisgarh 5) Madhya Pradesh
C
34. Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), in its latest report, forecasts that the
dominance of fossil fuels in India’s electricity generation will end by _________,
with renewable energy expected to surpass 50% of global electricity generation.
1) 2028 2) 2040 3) 2035 4) 2032 5) 2030
35. The Union Cabinet approved an additional instalment of Dearness Allowance
(DA) and Dearness Relief (DR) for Central Government employees and pensioners.
By how much percent was the DA/DR increased over the existing rate of 50% of
the Basic Pay/Pension in October 2024?
1) 03% 2) 05% 3) 01% 4) 02% 5) 04%
36. According to the World Economic Forum's Travel & Tourism Development Index
2024, India is ranked __________, and the _________ country topped the 2024
ranking.
1) 83rd; Denmark 2) 59th; Norway
3) 54th, Switzerland 4) 13rd, the United States of America (USA)
5) 39th; the United States of America (USA)

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

37. Small Savings scheme (SSC) interest rates are fixed by the government on quarterly
basis based on the recommendations of _________.
1) Krishnamoorthy Committee 2) Shyamala Gopinath Committee
3) Krishnaswamy Committee 4) Sivaraman Committee 5) MV Nair Committee
38. Jakson Engineering Limited’ has signed a Memorandum of understanding (MoU)
with which bank to set up solar projects to a wide range of consumers across
commercial, industrial, and institutional sectors in August Month 2024?
1) HDFC Bank 2) Punjab National Bank 3) ICICI Bank
4) Bank of Baroda 5) State Bank of India
39. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed a Rs 3.10 lakh penalty on which company
for rule violations?

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1) Hero Fincorp Ltd 2) Kotak Mahindra Life Insurance
3) Bajaj Allianz General Insurance
4) Life Insurance Corporation of India 5) Universal Sompo General Insurance
40. In November 2024, what is the anticipated average annual financial requirement
for implementing India’s updated National Biodiversity Strategy and Action Plan
from FY 2024-2025 to FY 2029-2030?
1) Rs. 81,664.88 crore
3) Rs. 70,334.45 crore
ha 2) Rs. 95,123.67 crore
4) Rs. 78,560.33 crore 5) Rs. 92,345.33 crore
41. In October 2024, ‘Vera Voronova’ from Kazakhstan and ‘Ysabel Agustina Calderon
Carlos’ from Peru were awarded the 2024 MIDORI Prize for Biodiversity for their

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exceptional work in conservation and sustainability. Each winner receives a
$100,000 cash prize. The prize was established in ________.
d
1) 2011 2) 2015 3) 2005 4) 2010 5) 2017
42. In order to monitor the limits of the liberal remittance scheme, banks have
requested integration with the Reserve Bank of India platform. How much may
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Indian individuals send each fiscal year for different approved transactions under
LRS?
1) $3,50,000 2) $1,50,000 3) $2,50,000 4) $2,00,000 5) $1,00,000
43. Which of the following traditional saree from Gujarat was received the GI tag
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from the Geographical Indications (GI) Registry?
1) Gharchola 2) Panetar 3) Patola 4) Bandhani 5) Banarasi
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44. Which of the following statements is/are “INCORRECT” from the days and themes
of October 2024?
1) International Day of Older Persons - Ageing with Dignity: The Importance of
Strengthening Care and Support Systems for Older Persons Worldwide.
2) World Teachers' Day - Valuing teacher voices: towards a new social contract
for education.
3) World Sight Day - Love Your Eyes at Work.
4) International Day of the Girl Child - Girls’ vision for the future.
C
5) All Options are correct.
45. How many personnel from various States and Union Territories (UTs), Central
Armed Police Forces (CAPF) and Central Police Organisations (CPOs) have been
awarded the Kendriya Grihmantri Dakshata Padak for the year 2024?
1) 520 Personnel 2) 313 Personnel
3) 229 Personnel 4) 463 Personnel 5) 255 Personnel
46. In December 2024, the centre approved the release of ?944.80 crore to which
state as two instalments of its share from the State Disaster Response Fund
(SDRF) to help the state government’s relief efforts in areas ravaged by Cyclone
“Fengal”?
1) Tamil Nadu 2) Odisha 3) Kerala 4) Telangana 5) West Bengal
47. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has announced the
interoperability of stock exchanges to ensure business continuity in the face of a
technical glitch or an outage. The interoperability for cash, derivatives, currency
derivatives, and interest rate derivatives will be effective from which date?
1) 1 August 2025 2) 1 March 2025
3) 1 January 2025 4) 1 June 2025 5) 1 April 2025

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

48. Where were the African cheetahs relocated under Project Cheetah?
1) Kuno National Park 2) Bandipur National Park
3) Kaziranga National Park
4) Jim Corbett National Park 5) Keibul-Lamjao National Park
49. A group to create a FREE-AI in the financial industry has been suggested by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI). What does the second “E” in FREE-AI stand for?
1) Ecosystem 2) Ethical 3) Enablement 4) Enhance 5) Expert
50. With how many states the Uttar Pradesh government has signed a Memorandum
of Understanding under the Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat Programme of the
government of India?

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1) Four States 2) Five States 3) Two States 4) Three States 5) Six States
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (51-53): in this question a sentence is given with underlined part that
in it. Choose correct idiomatic expression from the following that suites underlined

51.
part.
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Mr. Tharun is an uncompromising personality. He can make the impossible
possible.

52.
1) set the Thames on fire
4) Be in two minds

E 2) bite the dust

5) Wolf in sheep’s clothing
3) ill at ease

The migrants have no choice but to walk several kilometers to reach their
d
hometowns during the period of shutdown in the country.
1) kick one’s heels 2) a burning question
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3) at the drop of the hat 4) A broken reed 5) A queer fish

53. I guess I’m not an impressive speaker and I don’t fit in political field.
1) Add insult to injury 2) make a mountain out of a mole hill
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3) over head and ears 4) A prodigal son 5) Not my cup of tea
Directions (54-61): In this question, six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F have been
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given. Some parts of the sentences A, B, C, D, E are given in bold and marked
1,2,3,4,5. You have to interchange some of the parts (marked as 1,2,3,4,5) to
make all the sentences meaningful and then rearrange the sentences A, B, C, D,
E and F to make a meaningful paragraph.
A) The need of the hour is out-of-the-box solutions combined with inspiration
from models of those air pollution is the third top risk factor.(1)
B) While most of the predominant risk factors for cardiovascular disease present
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no startling medical revelation, is to modify this risk factor(2) is a low education
level.
C) However, governments will have to muscle up to tackle(3), a rather startling
finding — ambient air pollution and indoor air pollution have an impact on CVD
and mortality.
D) Household who seem to have belled this particular cat(4),in low-income
countries, according to the study.
E) It is no doubt part of the job description of the National Programme it is significant
that the single largest risk factor(5).
F) Any plans that target the risk factors and prevent the onset of non-communicable
diseases will clearly have to be truly game-changing and incorporate the
environmental angle as well.
54. Which of the following parts of the sentences has to be interchanged to make the
sentences meaningful?
1) 1-3 2) 1-4 3) 2-3 4) 2-4 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

55. Which of the following parts of the sentences has to be interchanged to make the
sentences meaningful?
1) 2-5 2) 2-3 3) 3-4 4) 3-5 5) None of these
56. Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
57. Which of the following should be the third sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
58. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after the rearrangement?

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1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
59. Which of the following can replace the part of the sentence given in the italics
both grammatically and without changing the meaning of the sentence in the
context of the passage?
1) bring about dramatic change in existing situation
2) introduce a change
ha
4) will result in a changed game
3) make an impact on the change
5) None of these
60.

E
What is the meaning of the idiom “belling the cat” mean?
1) To tie a bell around the neck of a cat
d
2) To undertake a dangerous mission 3) To perform a hard task
4) To notice something dangerous 5) None of these
61. Which word can replace the word “muscle up” in the sentence?
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1) Buckle up 2) Barge in 3) Scale in 4) Use up 5) None of these

Directions (62-66): In the following passage, there are blanks, each one has
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preceded by a word given in bold. Every blank has four alternative words given in
options (1), (2), (3) and (4). Find the word which best suits the place. If the given
word suits the blank, mark (5) ‘No change required’ as the answer.
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The interesting element here is that the decline in trust is high among
those who support the march of the political right but there is a surge in trust
among the (conformist) ___________ (62). The study reveals that among the
Republicans, the decline is steep from 47% to 10% and it pulled down the national
average despite a surge in trust among the Democrats from 53% to 73%. The
study provides new (stupidity) ___________ (63) that help us understand trust in
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the media and raises many fundamental questions about the core values of
journalism. Though it is a (stagnation) __________ (64) to do a direct comparative
analysis between the behaviour of Americans and Indians, the study does provide
more than a clue to the challenges facing Indian journalism. In India, too, we are
witnessing the (achievement) __________ (65) in trust in the news media among
the privileged right. The key finding is the disjunction created by partisan
considerations where people do not even (endorse) __________ (66) key journalistic
values.
62. 1) liberals 2) heretic 3) eccentric
4) bohemian 5) No change required
63. 1) intuition 2) observation 3) insights
4) comprehension 5) No change required
64. 1) amplitude 2) breadth 3) region
4) stretch 5) No change required

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

65. 1) decline 2) recession 3) abatement

4) deterioration 5) No change required
66. 1) authenticate 2) criticize 3) certify
4) sanctions 5) No change required
Directions (67-75): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Work culture refers to how rules/regulations, policies, traditions/rituals,
shared values, beliefs and practices contribute to an organization’s unique social
and psychological environment. It is concerned with the interaction between

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workers within the organization and between workers & organization. The work
culture is a product of its history, traditions, values and vision. Employees (including
Public Servants) obtain a sense of identity and understand that they belong to a
larger community with a sense of commitment to achieve something more
significant than their individual interest. Organizational culture shapes attitudes
ha
and behaviour by providing the necessary incentives and sanctions. These ensure
that the behaviour of the employees is aligned with the organization’s values. It
helps engage and keep talented staff as workers prefer to work in an environment

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where they enjoy spending time. A collaborative environment in the organization
encourages the employees to work diligently and inspires people to demonstrate
d
the values of responsiveness and efficiency. It creates satisfied employees and
increases productivity.
The work culture in organizations decides how employees interact with each
ee

other and how they function. The work culture in government offices is the work
environment that offers specific working conditions to people _______________in
an organization expected to deliver public services making effective use of their
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attitudes, convictions and behaviour to ensure a more responsive system of
governance. The less the administrative processes deliver, the more the grievances
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are filed. The work culture should improve the quality of services. When services
are delivered to the utmost, filing a grievance in case of non-compliance remains
out of the question. The resolution of public grievances would no longer take
priority over any other matter. Desirable work culture includes shared institutional
values, priorities, rewards and other practices which foment inclusion, high
performance, and commitment, while still allowing diversity in thought and action.
C
In many countries, the work culture seems to deliver more to senior leadership
than to the public or in the public interest. No work culture can set responsible
public service standards if a trio of authority, delegation and ego cultures the
work environment. The “Hitler approach” does not fit in the current scenario.
Instead, bosses should be more like mentors to the employees. Is there practically
any work culture in which a ceaseless craving for power and modesty can coexist?
Good work culture promotes transparency, innovation and discipline in an
organisation and also effective communication that helps in decreasing the strife
among individuals/team during work. Transparency, responsibility and unbiased
are underpinnings of good work culture. These will enable individuals and teams
to become self-organized which in turn improves quality and productivity. It includes
peer respect, recognition of hard work, and freedom to bring new ideas (innovation).
These will help in long term prospects of the organization. Healthy work culture
provides a platform for effective communication among the verticals and horizontals
of the organisation which helps in getting work done effectively. There should be

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

a clear-cut division of work wherein each level assigns responsibilities to the

level beneath it, while each lower level is accountable to the level above for
fulfilling those assignments. Decisions taken by bureaucrats should be governed
by a consistent system of rules, regulations and procedures, which are written,
rational and impersonal. Bureaucratic structure should ensure the free flow of
information among all departments and levels in the organization horizontally
and vertically regularly. There should be a constant endeavour to move towards
process simplification. Work culture should be able to persuade and motivate
people coming from different cultural backgrounds to achieve organizational goals.

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Every institution has a distinct culture. Institutional culture reflects the
core values of the institution and forms the basis of how people work together.
Institutional or corporate culture is a blend of ideas, conventions, customs and
practices, company and shared ethical values that define accepted behaviour for
ha
every employee in an organization. Culture reflects the informal procedures that
emerge in the organization’s operations. Culture is determined by the institution’s
vision and core values. The senior management heavily influence culture. Last

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but not the least, human resource system and tools are important factors that
influence work culture.
d
67. With which of the following statements are the complaints totally illogical?
1) Workers who complain a lot are struggling with obsessive thoughts that lead
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them to ruminate, and will have difficulty giving up the habit during the work.
2) Those who feel trapped by another person’s complaining at work place need to
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construct a new, more rational thought process in order to control their response.
3) Recognizing that someone who constantly complains has a problem and
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encouraging them to work on it can help the situations at work.

4) The more the administrative processes deliver, the more the complaints are
filed, ease to bind all familiar problems associated at work place.
5) Improving the quality of service at work and delivering at the supreme level,
files no grievance.
68. What are the Major components of ethical work culture briefly described in the
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passage?
I. honesty
II. fairness
III. integrity and understanding
IV. dependability
1) I,II& IV 2) I, II & III 3) I, III & IV 4) II, III & IV 5) I, II, III & IV
69. According to the given passage, why is the work culture important in government
offices?
I. Acts as a regulating mechanism
II. Sense of identity and belongingness
III. Attracting talent
IV. Promotes efficiency
1) I,II& IV 2) I, II & III 3) I, III & IV 4) II, III & IV 5) I, II, III & IV

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

70. What is the tone and theme of the passage?

1) Worried about Healthy work culture at government organization comparing
with private partnership.
2) Curious about Methods to improve non- compliance mechanism of work culture
in an organisation
3) Assertive about employee’s pay scale including promotion, loyalty and honesty
in the treatment of customers and employees.
4) Narrative about work culture and formal towards its importance in success of
the organisation
5) All of these

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71. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
1) A collaborative environment in the organization encourages the employees to
work idle and inspires people to demonstrate the values of responsiveness and
deficiency
2) Reduced conflicts, increased productivity and quality as well as sustainable
ha
work with ineffective communications leading private organizations dominancy.
3) Characteristics of a Healthy Work Culture like mild employees, partial treatment
and reward to top performers focusing over team building

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4) Healthy work culture is associated with private organisations and government
organisations are known for the lack of it due to frequent mismanagement,
corruption, bureaucratic red tape etc.
d
5) Culture reflects the formal procedures that emerge in the organization’s
operations and determined by the institution’s vision and core values where lower
management heavily influence culture.
ee

72. Choose the better contextual word that fits in the blank given in the passage?
1) employed or engaged 2) deployed or committed 3) worked or retired
4) committed or occupied 5) deployed or worked
C
73. Find out the most suitable synonym for ITALIC word given in the passage from
the following sentence?
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“The English people on the other hand were not so prone to instigate and stimulate
the money lending business further.”
1) Further 2) stimulate 3) lending 4) instigate 5) prone
74. Find the most suitable antonym for the bold word engage given in the passage?
1) truck with 2) sign up 3) sign on 4) break up 5) put on
75. Which of the following phrase contextually replaces the given phrase which is
C
underlined in the sentence?
1) to galvanize 2) to strife 3) to inspire 4) to exhilarating 5) to rouse
Directions (76-80): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Young mountains rise in the west. The most familiar of these mountains are
probably the Rockies, North America’s largest chain. The Rockies stretch from
the province of British Columbia, Canada, to the U.S. state of New Mexico. The
Rocky Mountains are part of a system of parallel mountain ranges known as the
Cordilleras. A cordillera is a long series of mountain ranges. Although cordilleras
exist all over the world, in North America, “the Cordilleras” indicate the massive
mountain ranges in the western part of the continent. The Cordilleras extend
from Canada all the way to the Isthmus of Panama. The Sierra Madre mountain
system is part of the Cordilleras. The Sierra Madre stretch from the southwestern
United States to Honduras. The Sierra Madre include many high volcanoes (up to
5,636 meters, or 18,500 feet) that stretch across Mexico south of the cities of

10
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

Guadalajara and Mexico City. Volcanic mountain ranges in Guatemala, Honduras,

Nicaragua, Costa Rica, and Panama are also considered part of the Cordilleras.
Volcanic___________(A) and earthquakes occur frequently in this region. Volcanic
(B) activity can destroy towns and cities. It also contributes to the rich, fertile
soils of the region. Some of the Earth’s youngest mountains are in the Cascade
Range of the U.S. states of Washington, Oregon, and California. Some peaks
began to form only about a million years ago—a blink of an eye in Earth’s long

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history. The mountains include temperate rain forest—a biome unique to the
area. The temperate rain forest receives an incredible amount of precipitation,
between 254 to 508 centimeters (100 to 200 inches) annually. However, its cool
winters and mild summers promote the growth of mosses, ferns, fungi, and lichens.
ha
The temperate rain forest supports a wide variety of life. The Sitka spruce, western
red cedar, and Douglas fir are trees native to North America’s temperate rain
forest. Some of these trees grow to more than 90 meters (300 feet) tall and 3

E
meters (10 feet) in diameter. Black bears, Roosevelt elk, and marmots are
d
indigenous animal species. / The three major desert regions of North America—
the Sonoran, Mojave, and Chihuahuan—are all in the American southwest and
ee

northern Mexico. These large deserts are located in the rain shadows of nearby
mountains. The mountains block precipitation and accelerate the movement of
hot, dry wind over these regions.
C
76. According to the given passage, what are the major desert regions of North America?
Sr

1) Sonoran, Mojave, and Chihuahuan 2) Panama

3) Mexico and Canada 4) Washington 5) all the above
77. Which of the following words should fill the blank given in (A) to make it contextually
correct and meaningful?
1) collapses 2) eruptions 3) trickles 4) Implosions 5) crumbling
C
78. According to the given passage, what are the advantages of the temperate rain
forest?
1) Trees grow to more than 90 meters 2) Dry wind and cool places
3) Growth in mosses and ferns
4) Above all 5) None of these
79. According to the given passage, where do Cordilleras extend between?
1) Mojave and Chihuahua 2) Guadalajara and Mexico City
3) Canada and Isthmus of Panama.
4) Washington and Sonoran 5) only 1&2
80. Which of the following is ANTONYM in meaning to the word Volcanic (B) given in
bold in the above passage?
1) placid 2) stormy 3) turbulent 4) intense 5) volatile

11
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

Directions (81-82): In this question three sentences are given. From the following
options, select the correct option which summarises the theme of the given
sentences without adding any additional information. If none of the given
sentences conveys the same meaning to context of the sentence given, mark
‘None of those given as options’ as the answer.
81. A handful of Items are driving inflation in America. This is portending lower
inflation. But it is not enough for the government to drop its guard.
1) The government is watchful of the factors that are driving inflation as these
factors are indicative of lowered inflation rates.

r’s
2) Despite there being only a few items causing inflation, which signals a likely
decrease in inflation, the government continues to remain alert.
3) The fact that multiple factors are propelling inflation in America is the reason
its government is lowering its guard.
ha
4) Since there are oniy a few controllable factors determining inflation rates in
America, the government is not alarmed by the situation.
5) None of those given as options
82.

E
The planet has 8 billion people living in material comfort. The dream of the
people is based on an economy powered by coal, oil and natural gas. Hence, it is
d
unachievable.
1) 8 billion people on the planet dream of living in material comfort derived from
ee

economies powered by coal, oil and natural gas.

2) The dreams of 8 billion people will be shattered if economies continue to be
fuelled by coal, oil and natural gas.
C
3) Coal, oil and natural gas will power economies and help achieve the dream of a
planet of 8 billion people live comfortably.
Sr

4) Economies driven by coal, oil and natural gas will not allow the dream of a
planet of 8 billion people living in material comfort, to transpire.
5) None of those given as options
Directions (83-85): In the questions given below a sentence is divided into four
parts are jumbled and one of the part may have a misspelt word or grammatically
C
incorrect word or group of words. Arrange the divided parts into a coherent
sentence and identify the parts which have an error in it.
83. (A) What is more, information about prison life comes large from “the outside,”
she said. (B) But also the 115 million people who know them (C) It affects the
estimate 2.3 million people who are imprisoned or detained, (D) Kane said she
was shocked to learn how extensive incarceration is in the United States
1) ADBC (A) and (C) 2) CABD (B) and (D) 3) BACD (C) and (D)
4) DCBA (A) and (C) 5) None of these
84. (A) Crisis in the Horn of Africa, one of (B) Of danger instability and a major
humanitarian (C) A military conflict in northern Ethiopia has raised fears (D) The
world’s most strategic area
1) CBAD (B) and (D) 2) BCDA (A) and (B) 3) CADB (C) and (D)
4) DCBA (A) and (B) 5) None of these

12
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

85. (A) Many industry, including motor vehicles, household furnishing, (B) Of nylon
particles that can damage lungs if inhaled and lead to coughing, shortness of
breath and lung scarring (C) Or natural fibers to a surface. Flocking produce a
fine dust (D) Cosmetics and photography, use “flocking,” a process that involves
attaching millions of synthetic
1) ABCD (A) and (B) 2) BADC (B) and (D) 3) ADCB (A) and (C)
4) CDBA (A) and (C) 5) None of these
Directions (86-88): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is

r’s
given, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
86. She did leave something in the dryer and it should be removed before the wrinkles
come to light it.
1) set in 2) come at 3) carry on

87.
4) take on
ha 5) No replacement required
Maybe it would be a good idea to run down to Josh’s place and call the vet.
1) speak ill of
4) make fun of

E 2) use-up
5) No replacement required
3) wear-out
d
88. The garrison (King’s German Legion) had give out of rifle ammunition and the
French bursting in seized the post.
ee

1) wear out 2) run out 3) waste away

4) dry up 5) No replacement required
Direction (89-90): In this question a sentence has been given and a word have
C
been given in bold, in the options a pair of words/group of words has been given of
which the former will be SYNONYM and the latter will be ANTONYM to that
Sr

particular word as used In the sentence. Determine the pair from the given
options and mark your answer accordingly.
89. Sometimes spyware is installed surreptitiously when a person visits a website.
1) Stealthily: Openly 2) Openly: Closely 3) Confidently: Publicly
4) Secretly: Doubtful 5) None Of These
C
90. After the detailed scrutiny of the virus, scientists have given the report to the
government.
1) study: glimpse 2) oblivion: neglect 3) carelessness: glance
4) imply: expel 5) flash: eyeshot
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
91. The average weight of the 30 students in the class is Z kg and the ratio of the
number of male students to female students in the class is 2 : 1. If the average
weight of the female students is Z + 2 kg and the ratio of the average weight of
3
the female students to the male students is 8 : 7. Find the th of the average
8
weight of the female students.
1) 8 2)10 3) 12 4) 6 5) 9

13
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

92. A person travelled from his home to his friend's house by bike. If 20% of the total
distance is travelled at a speed of 15 km/h, 50% of the remaining distance travelled
at a speed of 20 km/h and the remaining distance is travelled at a speed of 24
km/h, then he reached his destination in 6 hours. If he increased his average
speed by 25%, how long would it take him to reach his destination?

4 4 4 4 4
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 5 5) 6
5 5 5 5 5
93. The present age of Niravi is 3M years older than that of Somi, whose present age
is M + 1 years younger than that of Nani. If the present average age of all of them

r’s
is 25 years and the ratio of the present age of Niravi to Somi is 11: 6, then find the
age of Somi after three years.
1)21 2)18 3)24 4)36 5)27

1 1 1
: :
94.
ha
A, B, and C started a business by investing in the ratio of
20 15 12
respectively.

A withdrew his entire investment amount after eight months, whereas B withdrew
his entire investment amount 2z months before A withdrew his amount. C withdrew

E
his investment Z months after B withdrew his. If the profit share of B is Rs.816
out of the total profit amount of Rs.3570, then find the profit share of A.
d
1)1348 2)1264 3)1224 4)1444 5)1154
95. The ratio of the marked price and the cost price of an article is 8 : 5 respectively.
A seller sold the article for Rs.6440 and the profit earned on it is 25% of the
ee

selling price of the article. Find the percentage of the discount given by the
shopkeeper for an article.
C
2
1)20 2)12 3)18 4)32 5)16
3
Sr

96. A man invested some amount in compound interest compounded annually at a

rate of 15% per annum and at the end of three years the interest earned by the
man is Rs.37503. If he invested in simple interest at the same rate of interest for
the same tenure, then find the interest earned in SI. (in Rs.)
1)34800 2)32400 3)35240 4)32440 5)36540
97. The speed of the boat in still water is 10 km/h higher than the speed of the
C
stream. If the boat covers the distance of 60 km along the stream and the boat
covers the distance of 45 km against the stream, then the total time taken for
this journey is Z hours. If the boat covers the distance of 45 km along the stream
and the boat covers the distance of 60 km against the stream, then the total time
taken by this journey is Z hours 30 minutes. Find the total distance travelled by
boat along the stream for Z - 5 hours?
1)56.5 2)36.5 3)54.5 4)52.5 5)57.5
98. The quantity of the mixture of milk and water in vessel A is 60% of the total
quantity of mixture in vessel A and vessel D together while the quantity of mixture
in vessel D is Z+ 12 liters. The quantity of milk in a vessel A and D is Z + 12 liters
and Z liters respectively. If 50% liters of the mixture is taken out of vessel A and
poured into vessel D, then the ratio of the final quantity of milk to the water in
the resultant mixture of vessel D is 26 : 9. Find the initial quantity of vessel A.
1)90 2)87 3)60 4)93 5) 72

14
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

99. A alone can do a piece of work in x days and B alone can do a piece of work in x+5
1
days, while A and B together can complete the whole work in 11 days. If efficiency
9
of C is 50% more than the efficiency of A, then find the total time taken to
complete the 82.5% of the work by A, B and C together.
1)4 2)3 3)5 4)10 5)9
100. Pipe A and pipe B alone can fill the empty tank in X minutes and X + 10 minutes
respectively while pipe A and B together can fill the tank in 12 minutes and pipe
C is an outlet pipe to drain the water to empty the tank. If all three pipes are

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4
opened together for 12 minutes, then th of the tank will be filled. Find the time
5
taken to empty the full tank with pipe C.
1)72 2)48 3)84 4)96 5)60
ha
Direction (101-105): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.
A milkman mixes water with different quantities of pure milk which is in

E
the six different vessels which makes the milk-water ratio different in each
vessel. Water is free of cost to earn profit he adds a different amount of water
which is free of cost in each vessel.
d
The table shows the quantity of colloid (Mixture of milk and water) in each
vessel as a percentage of the total colloid in all the six vessels together. There is
ee

an empty vessel G which is in use if specified.

He sells colloid in each vessel at the cost price of milk of that particular
vessel and thereby earns some profit from each vessel. The cost price per liter of
C
pure milk is the same in every vessel.
Sr

Vessels Colloid as the Profit earned Milk: water

percentage of total
colloid
Vessel A 15% 50% -
Vessel B - 25% -
Vessel C 12% 20% -
Vessel D 6% - 2:1
C
Vessel E 24% - 5:1
Vessel F - 20% -

101. If colloidal milk from vessel A and vessel C are mixed to form new colloidal milk in
vessel G, what would be the profit percentage of vessel G if the milkman sells the
new colloid at the cost price of milk?
1)30 2)35 3)25 4)40 5)60
102. Find the ratio of profit earned vessel D to that of vessel E?
1)4:7 2)3:7 3)5:4 4)4:3 5) 5:2
103. If the difference of colloid in vessel B and vessel F is 7% for the total colloid and
the colloid in both the vessels are mixed in vessel G, find the amount of pure milk
is what percentage more than that of water in a vessel G?
(Note: Quantity of colloid in vessel B is greater than vessel F)
1)348.25 2)337.5 3)424 4)244.5 5)354

15
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

104. If colloids in vessel A, C, and D are mixed in another vessel G, find the ratio of
pure milk to that of water in vessel G?
1)8:3 2)3:4 3)2:5 4)4:7 5)5:3
105. If the total quantity of colloid is 800 liters and the quantity of colloid in vessel B
and F is 25% and 18% of the total quantity of colloid respectively, then find the
quantity of water in all the vessels together.
1)168 2)200 3)224 4)344 5)154
Direction (106-111): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.

r’s
A person travelled from point A to point B in different modes of transportation
such as bike, car, bus, train and aeroplane. The following pie chart shows the
distance travelled by him in different modes of transportation. The total distance
from point A to point B is 2500 km.
Distance travelled by different mode of transportation
ha 3.6 o 25.2 o

E 57.6o
d
ee

43.2 o
230.4 o
C
Sr

Bike Car Bus Train Aeroplane

The following table shows the cost of travel, time taken and average speed of the
different mode of transportation.

Mode Cost of travel Travelled time Average speed

C
per km
Bike Rs.1per km 0.5hours ----
Car Rs.5per km ---- 1
58 km/hr
3
Bus Rs.3per km ---- 2
66 km/hr
3
Train Rs.2per km 3.75 hours ----
Aeroplane Rs.8per km 4 hours ----

106. Assume that the person travelled 4% of the whole distance by bike, 24% of the
whole distance by bus and remaining by train. The break taken during his journey
is equal to 50% of his bus travel. If he started his journey on Sunday 6.00 am, find
his reaching time on Monday.
1)8 pm 2)3 pm 3)5 pm 4)4 pm 5)7 pm

16
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

107. The travelling cost of aeroplane is approximately what percentage more than the
sum of the travelling costs of bike, car and bus.
1)525 2)433 3)510 4)644 5)354
108. The travelling time of the car is what percentage of the total travelling time of the
bus and aeroplane together?
1)40 2)30 3)20 4)50 5)60
109. If mileage of bike is 50 km/litre and used for 10% of the total distance and
mileage of car is 20 km/litre was used for 30% of the total distance, find the total
petrol consumption of bike and car in litres.
1)38.5 2)32.5 3)42.5 4)48.5 5)56.5

r’s
110. Find the average speed of the journey travelled by bike, car and bus?
(Approximately)
1)45 2)63 3)84 4)72 5)56
111. The distance travelled by the bus and train together is what percent of the distance
travelled by aeroplane? (Approximately)
1)36 2)27
ha 3)30 4)44 5)48
Direction (112-116): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.

E
X, Y and Z invested Rs.500, Rs.700 and Rs.900 to start a new business.
After 4 months from the start of business they invested additional amounts in the
d
1 1 1
ratio : : . Again after 4 more months, they invested additional amounts in
63 45 35
the ratio 3:4:2 and only three investments were made in the time period of one
ee

year. The profit shared among them is proportional to their investment and the
period of investment.
112. Their total investment after 4 months of the start of the business is 4200. Find
C
the share of Y in profit after 8 months if they share the profit every 8 months, and
total profit at that time is 75% of the difference between the investments of X and
Sr

Z after 4 months of starting the business.

1)150 2)180 3)200 4)240 5)350
113. If the difference between investments of Y after 8 months and 4 months is Rs.
1200 and the ratio of investments of X, Y and Z after 8 months is 8 : 11 : 11, find
the share of Y in the total profit of Rs.34800, if the profit is shared twelve months
after the start of the business?
1)14800 2)13600 3)12400 4)14400 5)12200
C
114. If the additional amounts at the end of 8 months were also in the same ratio of
that after 4 months, in what ratio will the profit be divided among X, Y and Z at
the end of the year?
1)5:7:9 2) 5:8:3 3)5:8:7 4)Can’t be determined 5)4:8:7
115. The difference between total investments after 8 months and 4 months is Rs.
1800. The ratio of profit of X and Y at the end of the year is 41:57. Find the
investment of Z after 4 months from the start of business
1)3000 2)2400 3)2700 4)1800 5)3300
116. If they had invested additional amounts after 8 months same as that of after 4
months, what will be the difference between shares of X and Z in the total profit
of Rs. 2468 at the end of the year. X is a working partner and gets 37% of the total
profit as his salary. The remaining profit is shared among them in proportion to
their investment and periods of investment.
(Note: Their total investment after 4 months of the start of the business is 4200)
1)617 2)648 3)624 4)744 5)654

17
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

Direction (117-121): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.
The Population distribution of 4 Towns namely Town A, Town B, Town C and
Town D are given below.
Total Population of a Town = Number of Males + Number of Females + Number
of Children.
The ratio of the number of males in town A to the number of females in town
1
B is 4:3. The number of children in town C is 33 % of the females in town B. The
3

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number of males in town D is 250% of the number of children in town C. The ratio
of the number of females in town A to the number of males in town B is 2:3. The
number of females in town C is 45% of the number of males in town B.
The number of children in town D is 20% of the number of females in town
1
ha
C. The number of males in town C is 83
3
% more than the number of females in

E
town D. The number of children in town B is 36
11
% of the number of males in

town C. The number of children in town A is 80% of the number of children in

d
town B.
The total number of males in town A and town D is 390. The total population of
town A is 504. The total number of females in all the 4 towns is 635.
ee

117. Literacy rate of the Children in town B is 70% and the total number of Illiterate
Children in town B and Town C is 48. The literacy rate of Children in Town C is
how much percent more or less than the Literacy rate of Children in town B.
C
(Approximately)
1)14 2)30 3)48 4)6 5)24
Sr

1
118. If 80% and 33 % of males in town D and town B respectively, 25% and 30%
3
1
females of town D and town B respectively, children in town D and 20% children
3
in town B decide to shift to a newly built town E, then find the difference between
C
the population of town E and the population of town B and town D together.
1)168 2)229 3)199 4)170 5)159
119. Males of town A and town C appeared for a job interview. Out of the total people
who appeared, 60% of them were selected for the job. The ratio of people not
selected from town A to the number of people not selected from town C is 3:1, find
the number of males who were not selected for the job from town A is what
percent of the total male population of these both towns.
1)60 2)45 3)20 4)45 5)30
2
120. Out of the total number of children in all 4 towns 66 % of them are anaemic.
3
Number of anaemic children in town A and town B combined are 104, the total
non-anaemic children of town C and town D is approximately what percent of
the total female population of all the 4 towns.
1)4 2)8 3)12 4)9 5)6

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

121. Average salary of males of town A is Rs. 600, males of town B is Rs. 500, males of
town C is Rs. 750 and males of town D is Rs. 1000. Find the average salary of all
the males of the 4 towns combined? (Approximately)
1)580 2)470 3)670 4)700 5)770
Direction (122-126): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.
The below bar graph shows the distance travelled by five different trains on
Monday and Tuesday (Kms)

r’s
Monday Tuesday

ha585
315
288
440
630

320

E 390
630
480
140
d
Train M Train N Train O Train P Train Q
ee

The below table shows the difference between the time taken (in minutes)
by five trains on Monday and Tuesday. (if the speed of train on Monday and
C
Tuesday is same)
Sr

Train Time
M 90
N 180
O 210
P 120
Q 280
C
122. On Wednesday, Train O whose length is 420 meter takes 36 seconds to cross a
man, who starts 360 meters ahead of train O at the same time, and is running in
the same direction as train O. If the speed of train O and Train M on Wednesday
1
is 11 % and 37.5% more than that of their respective speeds on Monday, then
9
the speed of man is what percentage of the speed of train M on Wednesday?
1)25 2)30 3)40 4)20 5)60
123. On Monday, if the speed of train M is decreased by 10% due to the engine fault for
the first 100 minutes after that the train increased its speed by x% so that the
train reaches the destination at the right time. Find the value of x
(Approximately).
1)15 2)25 3)19 4)35 5)30

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

124. On Sunday, Train P takes 18 seconds to cross train Q while travelling in opposite
9
directions and speeds of train Q and P on Sunday are th of the speed of train P
8
9
on Monday and 7 % more than the speed of train N on Monday respectively. If
13
the length of Slower train is 50% more than the length of the faster train, then
find the length of train P.
1)448 2)534 3)348 4)584 5)564

r’s
125. On Thursday, Train P takes 45 seconds to cross the platform which has a length
 1 
of   of the distance travelled by train P on Monday and the same train takes
 1200  ha
21 seconds to cross a man standing on the platform. Speed of train P on Thursday
1
is what percentage more/ less than the 83 % of the speed of train O on Monday?
3
1)35 2)45

E 3)20 4)10 5)15

d
126. On Friday, train N starts its journey from a certain point at 6.00 am with the
speed of x km/hr and reaches the destination and takes 5 hours rest and returns
back to the initial point at 3 am on Saturday with the speed of (x+4) km/hr. If the
ee

value of 'x' is 120% of the speed of train N on Monday, then find the total distance
traveled by train N.?
C
1)1248.9 2)1372.9 3)1279.2 4)1369.2 5)1480
Direction (127-131): The question below consists a question and two statements
Sr

numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question.
127. Two cars start from different places at the same time and move in opposite directions
and both cars meet after 6.5 hours. Find the original distance between the two
cars.
C
Statement I: The speed of the cars is 60 km/h and 80 km/h.
Statement II: After two hours the difference between the two cars is 630 km.
1) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II)
alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
2) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I)
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) Either statement (I) or statement (II) alone itself is sufficient to answer the
question.
4) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions,
but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.

20
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

128. The rate of interest given to both A and B is 10% per annum. Find the amount
invested by A.
Statement I: The total amount received by B after two years is Rs.18000 in
simple interest and if A and B invested their investment in simple interest they
get a total amount of Rs.35100 in three years.
Statement II: In compound interest, the total amount received by A and B is
Rs.35937 in three years and the difference between the total amount of A and B
is Rs. 3993. Investment of A is more than that of B.
1) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II)

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alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
2) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I)
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) Either statement (I) or statement (II) alone itself is sufficient to answer the
question.
ha
4) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions,
but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.

E
5) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
129. Find the initial quantity of mixture in Jar B.
d
Statement I: The ratio of milk and water in Jar A and B is 3: 2 and 4:1 respectively.
Statement II: 20 liters of mixture is taken out from Jar A and poured into Jar B,
then the ratio of the water and milk in Jar B is 6: 19.
ee

1) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II)
alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
C
2) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I)
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Sr

3) Either statement (I) or statement (II) alone itself is sufficient to answer the
question.
4) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions,
but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
130. Find the initial investment of B.
C
Statement I: The total investment of A and B is Rs.90000. The time period of B
and A is 12 months and 10 months respectively.
Statement II: The share of B is Rs.15000 out of the total profit of A and B is
Rs.25000.
1) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II)
alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
2) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I)
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) Either statement (I) or statement (II) alone itself is sufficient to answer the
question.
4) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions,
but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.

21
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

131. A alone can complete the whole work in 15 days. B and C together can complete
120
the whole work in days. How many days C alone can complete the whole
11
work?
Statement I: A worked for 5 days and the remaining work was completed by B in
40
days.
3
Statement II: A worked for 10 days and the remaining completed by B and D

r’s
together in 7 days.
1) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II)
alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.
2) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I)
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) Either statement (I) or statement (II) alone itself is sufficient to answer the
question.
ha
4) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions,

E
but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Direction (132-136): In the following question, two quantities I and II are given.
d
You have to solve both the quantities to establish the correct relation between
Quantity I and Quantity II and choose the correct option.
132. The income of A is 12.5% more than the income of B. A spent 66% of his income
ee

and saved the rest. The total expenditure of A is Rs. 6,500 more than that of B,
and B saves 42% of his income.
Quantity I: What is the 80% savings amount of A?
C
Quantity II: What is the 70% savings amount of B?
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
Sr

3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II

5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
133. 12 years hence, the age of A is 9.09% more than the present age of B, and 11
years hence, the age of C is 50% more than the present age of B. The ratio of A's
age before 3 years to the present age of C is 3:5, respectively.
n
C
Quantity I: B's age is 'n'% of C's age. Find the value of ' .
2
Quantity II: What is the average age of A, B, and C together?
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
134. A stove is marked up by 85% above the cost price and is discounted by x% and the
profit percentage of a stove is 0.5 less than the discount percentage
Quantity I: If the cost price of a stove is Rs. 5800 and the selling price of a stove
is Rs. 7511, What is the value of x?
Quantity II: If the marked price of the stove is Rs. 10730 and the discount armount
is Rs. 3219, What is the value of x?
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established

22
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

5
135. If a boat travels th of the distance downstream in 2 hours 30 minutes and the
8
stream flow is increased by 50%, then the boat travels the remaining distance
downstream in 1 hour 24 minutes. The initial stream speed is 8 km/hr.
5
Quantity I: What is the time taken for the boat to travel th of the distance
8
upstream with the initial stream speed?
7

r’s
Quantity II: What is the time taken for a boat to travel th of the distance
8
upstream after increasing stream speed?
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
ha
136. A, B, and C started the business with an initial investment of Rs. 4000, Rs. 5500,
and Rs. 7500 respectively. After 3T months, A invested an additional Rs. 100T for
T months and B invested for 4 months less than C. If C invested for (5T-1) months,

E
then the profit ratio of A and B is 3: 4 and the total profit of C and B is Rs. 58000.
(Note: The value of T is an integer value)
d
Quantity I: Find 5000 less than twice the profit share of A
Quantity II: Find the profit share of C.
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
ee

3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II

5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established
Direction (137-138):The give series I has a missing term (x).If the series II stats
C
with x, then find the difference between the sixth term of the series I and series
II.(both series follow the same pattern)
Sr

137. Series I: 82 181 303 454 636 x

1)748 2)733 3)724 4)773 5) 754
138. The series I have a missing term(x).The starting term of series II is 1000x+[Link]
the sixth term of series II.(both series follow the same patterns)
Series I: 144 72 18 3 x 0.0375
1)0.7 2)0.3 3)0.2 4)0.4 5) 0.1
Direction (139-140): In each of the these questions two equations (I) and (II) are
C
given. you have to solve both the equations and answer the following questions.
I: ax2-13x+14=0 II: by2-11y+12=0
Note:
[Link] a and b are the positive integers, where the value of ‘a’ is greater than the
value of b.
7
2. one of the roots of equation I is .
3
3. The sum of the smallest root in equation I and the highest root in equation II is
6.
139. Find the roots of the equation given below.
(a-b)z2+ab(51-6z)+z=0
1)18 and 12 2) 15 and 12 3) 14 and 16 4) 18 and 17 5) 11 and 12
140. What is the difference between a and b?
1)6 2)3 3)2 4)1 5)4

23
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

REASONING
Direction: (141-143) Study the given information and answer the given questions:
Eight people –O, P, Q, R, S, T, U and V belong to four different cities i.e.
Salta, Natal, Rosario and Manaus in two different countries i.e. Brazil and
Argentina. Each country has two cities. Only two people belong to each city. Salta
and Manaus belong to different countries. Q and T belong to different cities but in
the same country. U belongs to neither Salta nor Manaus. U does not belong to
Brazil. Rosario belongs to Argentina. V and O belong to the same city but not in
Natal. R belongs to either Natal or Manaus. P belongs to Manaus. Q belongs to
neither Natal nor Manaus.

r’s
141. Who amongst the following people belong to Natal?
1) T, U 2) R, U 3) R, S 4) Q, U 5) U, P
142. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?

143.
1) O, S
ha
2) U, R 3) V, R 4) T, P 5) U, S
Which of the following statement is “TRUE” as per the given arrangement?
1) U and V belong to the same country 2) O and R belong to the same city

E
3) V and T belong to Salta
5) S and O belong to the same country
4) Q and U do not belong to Rosario
d
Direction: (144-148) Study the given information and answer the given questions:
Sixteen people live in seven floors building in that five floors have two flats
and remaining two floors have three flats. The bottommost floor is numbered as
ee

1, just above floor 1 is numbered as 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered
as 7. Only one person lives in each flat. One even numbered floor and one odd
numbered floor has three flats. The floors, which has three flats are not come in
C
immediate floors (e.g. if fourth floor has three flats then neither third nor fifth
floor won’t have three flats).
Sr

(Note: A lives with B means, both A and B lives in same floor).

P lives immediately below M and lives with only A. F lives in even numbered
floor and only one person lives with him. R lives in the north-east of P and three
floors are between them. Q lives immediately above O. F lives in the north-west
of Q. S lives with D and T lives two floors below S. The number of people live below
O is one more than the number of people live above D.E lives only with L and E
C
lives immediately above F. T does not live in even numbered floor. P lives odd
numbered floor. Two or three people live between the floors of F and Q. N lives two
floors above C, who does not live with J or Q. One of the persons lives in flat is K.
144. How many people live below K’s floor?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Five 4) Eight 5) More than eight
145. Who amongst the following people live in fifth floor of the building?
1) M, C, K 2) F, J, L 3) R, S, D 4) N, R, D 5) P, O, T
146. Who among the following people live immediately below T’s floor?
1) Q, P, A 2) M, C, K 3) N, Q, R 4) F, J, T 5) O, N, Q
147. Which of the following statement is TRUE as per the given arrangement?
1) P lives in third floor 2) R lives in seventh floor
3) Only two people live between the floors of M and Q
4) F lives one of the floors above D 5) Both (3) and (4)
148. How many floors are there in between the floors of A and J?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) One 5) More than four

24
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

Direction (149-151): Read the following information and five statements given
below it carefully and answer the given question.
Recently, the Scientific Research and Development (SRD) team of Country
A’s armed forces has designed a sniper rifle to suit modern battlefields it is used
to ensure more accurate placement of bullets at longer ranges than other small
arms its maximum effective range is 2300 meters, which is three times more
than that of an ordinary rifle
(A) Such is the precision of this rifle that it can reduce the number of bullets
wasted while tiring.
(B) This sniper rifle can function effectively for long period of time with minimum

r’s
maintenance as compared to other rifles in this category.
(C) Country A has been spending a bomb on purchasing arms and ammunition
(D) Experts have cautioned the users of this rifle against its use in humid climate
as such conditions affect its rate of accuracy.
(E) According to the SRD team of Country A’s armed forces initially officers will

149.
ha
have to undergo extensive training In order to use this rifle effectively.
This sniper rifle will prove to be cost-effective to some extent - claims the Colonel
of the armed forces of Country A. Which of the following supports the claim made
by the Colonel?
1) Only B

E 2) Only A and B 3) Both A and C

d
4) Only E 5) Both A and E
150. For those who have never picked up a gun. This sniper rifle can assist in hitting
far away targets with much more precision and ease-claims the senior Scientist
ee

of the SRD team of armed forces of Country A. Which of the following contradict/
s the claim of the senior Scientist?
1) Only A 2) Only C 3) Only B and E 4) Both A and C 5) Only E
C
151. Although a boon, this rifle is not a panacea for all our problems- alerted a renowned
critic. Which of the following supports the statement made by the critic?
Sr

1) Only B 2) Only A 3) Both B and E 4) Only C 5) Only D

Direction: (152-156) Study the given information and answer the given questions:
Ten plays –A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J were held in two consecutive
weeks. One play was held on a day. Each week starts from Monday and ends on
Sunday. Plays are held in two months viz. April and May. The days on where no
play was held not come in same days (For instance, if there was no play was held
C
on Monday then definitely one play was held on another Monday).
Play A was held on Sunday on one of the days before play H. Play F was held
one Friday. Only two plays were held between B and G where play G held after
play B. Only one day was there between play F and play D. No play was held on
twenty seventh and sixth dates. Play J was held on immediately before play I.
Only three plays were held between play F and play H, where play H was held
after play F. Play B was held on a single digit prime numbered date on Monday.
There was no play held immediately after F. Play E was held before play C.
152. On which of the following day and date was C held?
1) 4th-Tuesday 2) 29th-Thursday 3) 6th-Thursday
th th
4) 7 -Friday 5) 26 -Wednesday
153. How many days are there between the play J and play B?
1) Five 2) Three 3) Seven 4) Four 5) Six
154. As many plays held before A as after ___.
1) I 2) B 3) H 4) C 5) G

25
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

155. Which of the following statement is TRUE as per the given arrangement?
1) Play G held after play J.
2) Play B was held on immediately after play H.
3) Play F and play G held on same days.
4) Three plays were held before F.
5) Only two plays were held between play C and play I.
156. How many plays are there between the play H and play D?
1) Five 2) Three 3) Seven 4) Four 5) Six
Direction: (157-158) Study the given information and answer the given questions:
Seven people were born in seven different years between 2002 and 2023. No

r’s
two people born one after other according to alphabetical order (e.g. neither A nor
C were born immediate to B). Ages are to be calculated on the base year 2023.
They like different cars viz. BMW, Ford, KIA, Audi, Volvo, Nissan and Suzuki.
Arrangement-1: C was born in one of the odd numbered year and he is elder to
one who likes Audi. B is younger to A, who is 16 years old. One who likes BMW is
ha
elder to the one who likes Ford. A is just elder to the one who likes Volvo and is
younger than atleast three people. Three people were born between F and G, who
does not like Volvo. F is three years older than A.

E
Arrangement-2: D likes Nissan and is just elder to the one who likes BMW. Only
two people were born between D and one who has 12years. No one was born
between A and one who likes Nissan. As many people were born before F as after
d
the one who likes Suzuki.
Arrangement-3: Only one person was born between the one who likes Nissan
and C.D likes Nissan and is just younger than the one who likes Audi. C does not
ee

like BMW. One who likes KIA is elder to the one who likes Suzuki. As many
persons were born between D and Volvo as after the one who likes Suzuki. A does
not like ford.
C
157. From which of the following arrangement we can conclude that, who likes KIA?
1) From only Arrangement-2 2) From both Arrangement-1 and 2
Sr

3) From both Arrangement-2 and 3 4) From both Arrangement-1 and 3

5) From Arrangement 1&2 and 1&3
158. From which of the following arrangement we can conclude that, which car does A
like?
1) From both Arrangement-1 and 2) From both Arrangement-2 and 3
3) From both Arrangement-1 and 3 4) From Arrangement 1&2 and 1&3
C
5) From all the Arrangements-1, 2 and 3
159. Study the given information and answer the given questions:
Find an eight letter English meaningful word with the given information.
• R is placed at one of the ends.
• The number of letters placed to the left of O is one more than the number of
letters placed to the right of U.
• S is placed third to the left of L.
• More than two letters placed to the right of L.
• C places second from either of the ends. Two letters are there between C
and P.
If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word with the
second, the third, the fourth and the sixth of the word thus formed (from the
above information) using each letter only once, when counted from left to right,
which of the following will be the second letter of the word so formed from the left
end? If no such word can be formed X is your answer.
1) O 2) U 3) L 4) T 5) X

26
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

160. Read the paragraph carefully and answer the given question :
Twenty students, who were blacklisted on account of low attendance, were
asked to bring their parents to meet the Principal of the college. Three out of
them said that their parents were not in the city so they brought some other
people posing to be their relatives. The college authorities later found out that
the three students were lying and that their parents were in the city unaware of
their children being blacklisted.
Which of the following can be an assumption according to the given information?
(An assumption is something that is supposed or taken for granted)
1) Last year also the college followed the same procedure and met the parents of

r’s
the blacklisted students
2) Attending college everyday is not compulsory
3) No serious action was taken against the blacklisted students apart from these
three
4) Colleges keep record of students’ attendance
ha
5) All the colleges follow the same procedure in case of blacklisted students
161. Read the paragraph carefully and answer the given question :
Like every year, the civic body has again failed to meet the June 1st deadline

E
as far as pre-monsoon road works are concerned. Major city roads are still dug up
and resurfacing has not been done at places where road work has been completed.
Which of the following can be a consequence of the information presented above ?
d
1) Commuters face a lot of problems everyday and spend more than an hour in
travelling via these roads
2) No accidents were reported last year while this repair work was going on.
ee

3) Civic authorities fail to finish the work on time because they need to go through
a lot of tiresome paperwork before starting the repair which delays the whole
process
C
4) Civic authorities have promised that this will not be repeated next year and
they will start the road works well in advance
Sr

5) The authorities did not make arrangements for diverting the traffic
Direction (162-165): Study the information carefully and answer the given
questions:
Following are the criteria for selecting team leader for the software company
XYZ. The candidate should have below criteria.
C
Person Born on year Graduation Work Written test Work Interview
(Age Experience Score Experience
calculated as (As a Testing (As an
on 01-04- Engineer) Associate
2023) Engineer)
A 24-03-1992 78% 5 years 80 4years 92%
L 07-05-1987 75% 6 years 68 5years 91%
C 16-07-1997 71% 3 years 75 4years 90%
B 04-01-1991 70% 3 years 84 7years 85%
M 11-09-1990 76% 7 years 69 6years 97%
N 21-04-1989 81% 6 years 71 3years 90%

(i) The person has a work experience of at least four years as an Associate
Engineer.
(ii) The person has graduated with at least 70%.
(iii) Have scored at least 90% in the interview.

27
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

(iv) Have scored at least 65 marks in the written test.

(v) Be at least 30 years and not more than 35 years as on 01-12-2023.
If the candidate satisfies all the above criteria, the candidate may be selected. If
the candidate fulfills all the criteria except,
(a) Criterion (i), but a work experience of at least five years as a Testing Engineer
then he/she is referred to Senior Software Engineer.
(b) criterion (v), but has on or above 75% marks in graduation then he/she is
referred to Manager.
Based on the above information and data given in each question, you have to
decide the course of action. You are not to assume anything.

r’s
162. Who amongst the following candidates are selected?
1) Only A 2) Only L 3) Only A and B 4) Only N 5) Only M and A
163. Who amongst the following candidates are referred to Senior Software Engineer?
1) Only N 2) Only A and B 3) Only L and M 4) Only C 5) Only B
164. Who amongst the following candidates are not selected?

165.
1) Only B
ha
2) Only A 3) Only C 4) Only C and B
Who amongst the following candidates are referred to Manager?
5) Only M

1) Only C 2) Only N 3) Only L 4) Only B 5) Only M

E
Direction: (166-170) Study the given information and answer the given questions:
In a room there are three concentric tables placed such that the outermost
table is rectangle shaped, the innermost table is square shaped and the table in
d
the middle of these two tables is circle shaped. In the rectangular and square
tables, persons can be seated at each of the four corners. The corners are numbered
from 1 to 4 in clockwise direction in both the tables. Corner 1 is in North-West
ee

direction, corner 2 is in North-East direction, corner 3 is in South-East direction

and corner 4 is in South-West direction from the center respectively. 8 persons
from A to H are seated equidistant around the circular table facing towards the
C
center. All of them are of different ages. Ages are to be considered in absolute
numbers only.
Sr

B is third to the left of D, who is 24 years old. G is 11 years older than F, who
is on the immediate left of B. C is second to the right of the one who is 48 years
old. E is the oldest person and is seated adjacent to B. A is 3 years younger than
E but more than 45 years in age. No one is older than 55 years. E’s age is a prime
number. B’s age is 3 times the age of C. A is fourth to the right of E. H sits third to
the left of F, who is 4 years older than C. H’s age is the average of the ages of his
C
immediate neighbors.
Another person J came and rolled dice 6 times and every time a different
number appeared on the top of dice. Each number has some own conditions
according to which the persons are to change their seating arrangement.
1. First time 5 appeared on dice, according to which the person with least prime
numbered age (among the given ages) will shift to seat number 3 of the rectangular
table and face center.
2. Second time 3 appeared on dice, which means the youngest person has to
move to seat 4 of the square table and face away from the center.
3. Third time 2 appeared on dice, which shows that the person with the highest
even numbered age will shift towards his right and face outside.
4. Fourth time 4 came on dice and it signifies that the oldest person has to sit
second to the left of C and face towards center.
5. Fifth time 1 appeared on dice, according to which the person with the lowest
even numbered age has to sit on seat 2 of rectangular table and facing towards
the center.

28
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

6. Sixth and the last time 6 appeared on dice, which means the person with
highest odd numbered age has to sit at seat 4 of the rectangular table facing
towards center.
7. The above conditions are applicable in the order of the dice being rolled.
8. Position of one person is changed only once.
9. Only the persons sitting around the circular table comes under the purview of
the above stated conditions.
166. Who among the following still seated around the circular arrangement after
rearrangement?
I. F II. D III. B

r’s
1) Only II 2) Only I and II 3) Only II and III 4) Only I and III 5) Only III
167. What is the position of the oldest person with respect to A after the dice being
rolled for third time?
1) Fourth to the left 2) Third to the left
3) Both are on different tables 4) Immediate right 5) Second to the right
168.
ha
What is the sum of the ages of the persons that are seated at seat 2 of rectangular
and square table after re-arrangement?
1) 68 2) 42 3) 53 4) 73 5) 57
169.

E
What is the position of H with respect to the youngest person in the initial
arrangement?
d
1) Second to the right 2) Third to the right
3) Fourth to the left 4) Immediate right 5) Immediate left
170. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group as per
ee

the given arrangement. Which one of the following does not belong to that group
(as per final arrangement)?
1) E 2) G 3) H 4) F 5) C
C
Direction: (171-175) Study the given information and answer the given questions:
Input: Textile 21 34 Ominous Educated 72 Bearn 29 Wrecked 94 48
Sr

Removed
Step 1: Deck 60 Textile _____ Ominous Educated 72 29 _____ Removed 39 Near
Step 2: Lite 45 ______ 60 34 _____ 48 Removed _____ Near 47 Date
Step 3: _____ 36 ____ 45 Deck _____39 Near 47 ____ 24 Onus
Step 4: Date 66 Dove 36 ______ 45 Deck 39 Near _____ 26 Onus
Step 5: Deck _____ Date 66 Dove Lite 45 _____ 26 Onus 39 Near
C
Step 6: Dove 44 _____ 44 Date 66 26 _____ 39 Near 33 Lite
Input: Pattern 17 46 Become Overview 58 Their 35 Approve 74 32 Landscape
171. Which element comes second to the right of third from the left end in penultimate
step?
1) Come 2) 66 3) Wive 4) 20 5) 33
172. What is the sum of the numbers of fourth element from right end in 3rd step and
third element from left end in 4th step?
1) 54 2) 75 3) 74 4) 99 5) 86
rd
173. Which element is placed at fifth from the right end in 3 step?
1) Over 2) Pace 3) 20 4) Come 5) 26
174. What is the difference between the numbers of second element from left end and
second element from right end in 2nd step?
1) 14 2) 11 3) 19 4) 21 4) 20
175. How many numbers are there in between ‘Come’ and ‘Wive’ in step 5?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) Five 5) One

29
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

Direction: (176-180) Study the given information and answer the given questions:
A family of 12 persons has three generations and there are four married
couples. Each one has either both or none of his/her parents alive. They are
sitting in two parallel rows 1 and 2 facing each other. Persons sitting in row 1
were facing north and persons sitting in row 2 were facing south.
Two persons sit in between R and his mother-in-law. O and T are siblings
and S who is unmarried, is paternal uncle of O. V is not the father of P, who is
married to R. T sits second to the left of Y but neither of them sit adjacent to U. X
who is the daughter of Q’s wife, sits opposite to the person sits immediate left of
R. V is married to Z, who sits to the immediate left of X. P has only one son. R

r’s
who is father of T’s brother, sits second from any extreme end in row 1.O and Q
sit opposite to each other. Y who is brother-in-law of S, is married to X. O’s
mother does not sit adjacent to U. U sits opposite to W, who sits in row 1. One
person sits in between X’s mother and P’s father. Both the children of R are not
in same row. W is nephew of R. Q has three children.
176.
1) Father
ha
How is Q related to the person, who sits second right of Q?
2) Mother 3) Father-in-law
4) Mother-in-law 5) Grandfather
177.

E
What is the position of P’s father with respect to the one who sits immediate right
of U?
d
1) Immediate right 2) Immediate left 3) Facing each other
3) Second to the right 5) Third to the left
ee

178. How many people sit between P’s father-in-law and X’s spouse?
1) One 2) Two 3) Four 4) Either one or two5) Three
179. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group as per
C
the given arrangement. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
1) P-Q 2) U-W 3) R-Z 4) X-T 5) V-S
Sr

180. How many female members are there in the given family?
1) Six 2) Five 3) Three 4) Seven 5) Eight
181. Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
School P which is one of the top schools of the city received about 35% less
admission applications this year as compared to the previous years. This is a first
as the school has always seen a rise in its admissions year after year.
C
Which of the following is a possible reason for the decrease in the number of
admission applications?
1) Quite a few more residential complexes have come up near School P’s vicinity
but the houses are not yet occupied.
2) Last year some of the teachers of school P were accused of forcing students to
come to them for private tuitions and revealing the exam paper to those students.
3) Two new schools have come up in the city but they are far away from the place
where school P is located.
4) The fee charged by school P is at par with only the top ranking schools in the
city but there are many low ranking schools which charge almost 50% less fee as
compared to school P.
5) Until last year one of school P’s students would stand first in the city in the
board exams, but last year the student who stood first in the city was from school
Y.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

Direction: (182-186) Study the given information and answer the given questions:
Certain number of people work at different positions viz. Office boy(OB),
Clerk(CL), Probationary Officer(PO), Relationship Officer(RO), Manager(MG), Senior
Manager(SM), Chief Manager(CM), Assistant General Manager(AGM), Deputy
General Manager(DGM), General Manager(GM), Executive Manager(EM), and
Chairman and Managing Director(CMD). The order of seniority is the same as
given above i.e. CMD is the senior-most designation and OB is the junior-most
designation. Not more than three people work at each position. Some of the positions
are vacant (No person work in that position) but no two vacant positions come one
after the other immediately (e.g. if senior manager place is vacant then manager

r’s
and chief manager place will not be vacant).
(Note: A works with B mean both A and B work at same position).
P is a Manager and only two people work with him. R is junior to P and he
does not work as RO and Office boy. Only two people are in hierarchy between P
and L. Q is junior to P. S works with only A and only three people are in hierarchy
ha
between S and M. B works as Executive Manager and only two people are just
senior to him. The number of people are senior to M is two more than the number
of people are junior to F. No one works as Chief Manager. D works with only O as

E
a Clerk. C and K work at the same position. As many positions are higher than H
as lower than F. Three positions and five people are in hierarchy between E and
D. Only three people are senior to N. Only two people are in hierarchy between H
d
and G, who works as AGM. H is senior to G, who does not work with L.
182. What is the position of ‘H’ and how many of them working with him?
ee

1) CM, One 2) GM, One 3) CM, Two 4) AGM, One 5) PO, Two
183. As many people senior to the position is same as junior to the position of ____.
1) SM 2) CM 3) MG 4) DGM 5) RO
C
184. Who amongst the following people work with C?
1) Q, F 2) N, H 3) P, K 4) E, G 5) M, L
185. In which of the following positions employees doesn’t work?
Sr

1) CM, RO 2) DGM, SM, PO 3) DGM, SM, MG

4) DGM, CM, RO 5) DGM, SM, OB
186. How many people are senior to G?
1) Six 2) Seven 3) Eight 4) Nine 5) Ten
Direction: (187-190) Study the given information and answer the given questions:
Step-1: Five people A, B, C, D and E have different ages. A is elder than C but
C
younger than D. Only one person is elder than B. E is elder than A.
Step-2: Five people F, G, H, I and J scored different runs in a cricket match. Only
two people scored more runs than G. J scored more runs than F but less runs
than H. I scored more runs than G.
Step-3: Five people K, L, M, N and O got different salaries in a company. L got
more salary than O but less salary than only K. M got more salary than N but does
not get the second least salary.
Step-4: Five people P, Q, R, S and T have different weights. As many persons are
heavier than Q as lighter than S. Only three people are heavier than R. P is not
heavier than T but lighter than Q.
The number of people got more salary than N is same as the number of
people scored less runs than H. The number of people are elder than D is same as
the number of people are lighter than O.
• They travel in six different cars numbered Car-1, Car-2, Car-3, Car-4, Car-5
and Car-6.

31
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 9

• At least three persons and not more than five people are travelling in each
car.
• U, V, W, X, Y, and Z are teachers. Six teachers travel in six different cars.
• Same group people not travel in same car (e.g. A, B, C, D, E is related to
same group (age) so, they won’t travel in same car).
• Cars are moving according to the serial number (e.g. Car-2 moves after Car-
1 and Car-3 moves after Car-2 and so on... Car-6 moves after Car-5).
(Note: A travels with B means both A and B travels in same car).
S travels with J in odd numbered car but not in car-3. U travels with Q and

r’s
least number of persons is there in the car. N moves after only L and he travels
with another four persons. E travels with G and no other person travels after him.
L doesn’t travel with S. A travels with H in even number car and his car moves
immediate to K. R travels with Y and he travels immediately before T. No other
person travels before Y. D travels in odd numbered car with I but not travels with
ha
J. O travels with V and no other person travels after him. V travels along with
only three persons. P travels with X and their car moves after F before C. As
many people travel in car-4 same as in car-6. B travels with W before M. K travels

E
neither with L nor with S. The number of people travelling in a car along with Q is
not equal to any other car.
d
187. Who amongst the following people travel with Z as per the given arrangement?
1) BFNM 2) CJMS 3) KQUM 4) LRYM 5) APXM
188. The second eldest person travels in which of the following car?
ee

1) Car-1 2) Car-3 3) Car-4 4) Car-5 5) Car-2

189. How many cars move between the person who has highest salary and person who
C
scored least runs?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
Sr

190. G travels with teacher _____.

1) X 2) U 3) W 4) V 5) Y

KEY
1.3 2.2 3.1 4.5 5.1 6.4 7.1 8.2 9.5 10.3
11.1 12.4 13.1 14.4 15.5 16.2 17.4 18.3 19.4 20.4
21.5 22.1 23.5 24.4 25.5 26.4 27.3 28.4 29.1 30.4
C
31.2 32.4 33.3 34.5 35.1 36.5 37.2 38.5 39.1 40.1
41.4 42.3 43.1 44.3 45.4 46.1 47.5 48.1 49.3 50.4
51.1 52.1 53.5 54.2 55.1 56.2 57.3 58.1 59.1 60.2 SCAN QR FOR
61.1 62.1 63.3 64.4 65.1 66.5 67.5 68.2 69.5 70.4 OUR RESULTS
71.4 72.1 73.2 74.4 75.3 76.1 77.2 78.3 79.3 80.1
81.2 82.4 83.4 84.1 85.3 86.1 87.5 88.2 89.1 90.1
91.5 92.1 93.1 94.3 95.5 96.2 97.4 98.1 99.3 100.5
101.2 102.5 103.2 104.1 105.1 106.1 107.3 108.2 109.3 110.2
111.4 112.3 113.5 114.4 115.3 116.1 117.1 118.3 119.5 120.5
121.3 122.4 123.3 124.2 125.3 126.3 127.3 128.3 129.4 130.4
131.1 132.2 133.1 134.5 135.1 136.1 137.4 138.5 139.4 140.4
141.3 142.4 143.5 144.1 145.3 146.2 147.5 148.2 149.2 150.5
151.5 152.1 153.4 154.3 155.3 156.1 157.5 158.4 159.2 160.3
161.4 162.5 163.1 164.4 165.3 166.3 167.2 168.4 169.1 170.5
171.5 172.1 173.1 174.4 175.2 176.5 177.5 178.3 179.1 180.2
181.5 182.2 183.1 184.3 185.1 186.2 187.2 188.5 189.1 190.4

32