RTO(R)-T006 (Final)
TOPFLYER PILOT TRAINING ACADEMY PVT LTD
PAPER SET 1
RADIO TELEPHONE OPERATOR’S(RESTRICTED)
MAX MARKS: 110
TIME: 90 MINS
QUESTIONS: 55
Q1. ATC issues:
“Climb FL180, traffic crossing FL170.”
You are at FL160 and TCAS shows no TA/RA. What is the correct ICAO-compliant readback and action?
A. “Climbing FL180.”
B. “Roger, climbing.”
C. “Climbing FL180, traffic in sight.”
D. “Climbing FL180, maintaining visual separation.”
Q2. ATC: “Expect descent after passing waypoint KILO.”
What is the legal status of this transmission?
A. Clearance
B. Instruction
C. Advisory information
D. Conditional clearance
Q3. You hear:
“…ABC123 cleared to land Runway 09.”
Callsign partially blocked. Correct response?
A. “Roger.”
B. “Confirm clearance for <your callsign>?”
C. “Say again.”
D. “ABC123 landing.”
Q4. Which pilot reply subtly transfers separation responsibility to the pilot (and is therefore incorrect)?
A. “Traffic not in sight.”
B. “Maintaining visual separation.”
C. “Roger.”
D. “Wilco.”
Q5. ATC: “Reduce speed to minimum approach speed.”
Which reply is ICAO-compliant?
A. “Minimum speed.”
B. “Reducing to minimum approach speed.”
C. “Wilco.”
D. “Slowing.”
Q6. Which phrase creates ambiguity between intention and execution?
A. “Holding short.”
B. “We will hold short.”
C. “Hold short Runway 27.”
D. “Unable hold short.”
Q7. ATC: “Turn right heading 360, vectors for spacing.”
Which part of this transmission requires mandatory readback?
A. Entire transmission
B. Heading only
C. Reason only
D. None
Q8. Which phrase is incorrect because it may be interpreted as a request?
A. “Ready for departure.”
B. “Ready for immediate departure.”
C. “Request departure.”
D. “Ready.”
Q9. ATC: “Vacate runway when able.”
Which pilot action is implied?
A. Immediate high-speed exit
B. Pilot discretion without rushing
C. Stop on runway and wait
D. Exit at first taxiway only
Q10. Which response is legally weakest to an altitude clearance?
A. “Climbing FL120.”
B. “Maintain FL120.”
C. “Roger.”
D. “Leaving FL100 for FL120.”
Q11. ATC: “Report established.”
This instruction is incomplete unless paired with:
A. Altitude
B. Frequency
C. Navigation reference
D. Time
Q12. Which RT error most commonly leads to runway incursion?
A. Incorrect QNH
B. Incomplete callsign usage
C. Failure to read back runway number
D. Late frequency change
Q13. ATC: “Hold position.”
Which pilot action is incorrect?
A. Stop taxi
B. Maintain brake pressure
C. Continue slowly
D. Await further clearance
Q14. Which phrase indicates receipt but NOT compliance?
A. Wilco
B. Roger
C. Affirm
D. Correct
Q15. ATC corrects itself mid-sentence without using “Correction.”
What is the pilot’s safest response?
A. Comply with latest part
B. Ask for confirmation
C. Read back assumed clearance
D. Say “Roger”
Q16. Which phrase appears compliant but is operationally unsafe?
A. “Climbing FL100 now.”
B. “Leaving FL080.”
C. “Passing FL090.”
D. “Climbing.”
Q17. ATC: “Taxi via Alpha, cross Runway 18.”
What makes this clearance incomplete?
A. Missing speed restriction
B. Missing runway designator in readback
C. Missing conditional traffic reference
D. Nothing — it is complete
Q18. Which phrase incorrectly assumes ATC approval?
A. “Request descent.”
B. “Descending now.”
C. “Ready to copy.”
D. “Unable.”
Q19. ATC: “Maintain present speed.”
Correct pilot response?
A. “Roger.”
B. “Maintaining speed.”
C. “Speed unchanged.”
D. Any of the above
Q20. Which situation requires the pilot to proactively challenge ATC?
A. ATC gives a non-standard phrase
B. ATC instruction conflicts with aircraft limitations
C. ATC speaks fast
D. ATC uses accent
Q21. Which RT phrase is designed to reduce frequency congestion?
A. “Standby”
B. “Roger”
C. “Wilco”
D. “Say again”
Q22. ATC: “Expect further clearance at time 25.”
This implies:
A. Clearance is issued
B. Pilot must act at time 25
C. Advisory only, no action
D. Clearance will auto-activate
Q23. Which pilot reply subtly adds information not requested (and should be avoided)?
A. “Roger.”
B. “Wilco.”
C. “Roger, we are heavy.”
D. “Unable.”
Q24. ATC uses “Immediately”. What does ICAO intend?
A. Without delay, subject to safety
B. Within 30 seconds
C. As soon as practical
D. When able
Q25. Which phrase should never be used to acknowledge a clearance?
A. Roger
B. Wilco
C. Affirm
D. Correct
Q26. ATC: “Continue approach.”
This does NOT mean:
A. You are cleared to land
B. Maintain present clearance
C. Expect landing clearance later
D. Continue current profile
Q27. Which phrase causes confusion between ATC instruction and pilot report?
A. “Stop climb.”
B. “Stopping climb at FL120.”
C. “Climb FL140.”
D. “Leaving FL100.”
Q28. ATC: “Traffic is a Cessna at 2 o’clock.”
Pilot replies: “Traffic in sight.”
This means:
A. Pilot accepts visual separation
B. Pilot acknowledges traffic only
C. ATC can cancel separation
D. Pilot requests clearance
Q29. Which RT mistake most often leads to wrong-aircraft execution?
A. Similar call signs + incomplete readback
B. Wrong QNH
C. Late descent
D. Poor English accent
Q30. Which phraseology change MOST improves safety in high-workload environments?
A. Using full callsign every time
B. Shortening readbacks
C. Speaking faster
D. Avoiding clarification
31. Ohm’s Law is:
A. V = IR
B. P = VI
C. I = PR
D. R = VI
32. Unit of electrical resistance:
A. Ampere
B. Volt
C. Ohm
D. Watt
33. If voltage is doubled and resistance remains constant, current will:
A. Halve
B. Remain same
C. Double
D. Become zero
34. Electrical power is given by:
A. P = I/R
B. P = V/I
C. P = VI
D. P = IR
35. SI unit of electric current:
A. Coulomb
B. Volt
C. Ampere
D. Watt
36. If resistance increases in a circuit supplied by constant voltage, current will:
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. Oscillate
37. Which component stores electrical energy?
A. Resistor
B. Capacitor
C. Inductor
D. Fuse
38. In series circuit, total resistance is:
A. Less than smallest resistance
B. Greater than any individual resistance
C. Equal to largest resistance
D. Zero
39. In parallel circuit, voltage across each branch is:
A. Different
B. Zero
C. Same
D. Inversely proportional
40. Power dissipated in a resistor can be written as:
A. P = I²R
B. P = V²I
C. P = IR²
D. P = V/R
41. Aircraft electrical systems primarily use:
A. AC only
B. DC only
C. Both AC and DC
D. Neither
42. Which device protects a circuit from excessive current?
A. Capacitor
B. Transformer
C. Fuse
D. Relay
43. If current is zero in a circuit, the circuit is:
A. Shorted
B. Overloaded
C. Open
D. Grounded
44. Electrical energy unit used for billing (conceptually):
A. Joule
B. Watt
C. Kilowatt-hour
D. Ampere-hour
45. Resistance of a conductor depends on:
A. Length and cross-section
B. Colour
C. Voltage applied
D. Current flowing
46. TCAS Resolution Advisory has priority over:
A. ATC instructions
B. GPWS warnings
C. Company SOP
D. Weather radar
47. Mode S transponder improves SSR by:
A. Higher power
B. Selective interrogation
C. HF transmission
D. Voice capability
48. ADS-B position information comes from:
A. ATC radar
B. GNSS onboard aircraft
C. DME/DME
D. VOR
49. Annex 10 primarily deals with:
A. Licensing
B. Rules of the air
C. Aeronautical telecommunications
D. Search and rescue
50. Loss of GNSS integrity without SBAS is detected by:
A. TCAS
B. RAIM
C. SSR
D. GPWS
51. TCAS uses which altitude reference?
A. Radio altitude
B. GPS altitude
C. Pressure altitude
D. Geometric altitude
52. Which system uses multilateration?
A. VOR
B. GPS
C. MLAT
D. DME
53. EGPWS differs from GPWS mainly by using:
A. Higher power
B. Terrain database and GPS
C. HF signals
D. ATC radar
54. SSR replies are transmitted on:
A. 1030 MHz
B. 1090 MHz
C. 121.5 MHz
D. 118 MHz
55. Primary purpose of SELCAL:
A. Navigation
B. Continuous HF listening
C. Alert crew to incoming HF call
D. Emergency signalling