02-02-2026

1001CBS12250002 BS

PHYSICS

1) In the circuit shown in figure the reading of ideal ammeter is :-

(1) 1A
(2) 2A
(3) 3A
(4) 4A

2) Diagram shows 6 identical air capacitors connected to an ideal battery (V). In this condition,
charge on capacitor C6 is Q1. Now a dielectric whose dielectric constant is 2, is put between the
plates of C4 so that it occupies the entire space between the plates. Now charge on C6 becomes Q2.

Then should be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Wires are used to form the following letters. In each case the wire used have same cross-section
area and resistivity. Length of each of straight portion of wire is same. Which letter will show
maximum resistance between P & Q.

(1) Letter A
(2) Letter B
(3) Letter C
(4) Letter D

4) A ball of mass 3 kg and radius 3 cm moving with velocity of 10 m/s collides obliquely with another
ball of mass 2 kg & radius 2 cm, kept at rest. The impact parameter is 3 cm. It is found that after
collision, the 3 kg ball has a velocity component of 2 m/s along the common normal. Find the

coefficient of restitution.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The over-bridge of a river is in the form of a circular arc of radius of curvature r. If m is the
combined mass of the motorcycle and the rider crossing the bridge at a speed v at highest point. The
normal on the bridge at the highest point will be :

(1)

(2) mg

(3)

(4)

6) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s moduli of steel and brass wires in the figure are a, b and

c respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths is :–

(1) 2a2c/b
(2) 3a/2b2c
(3) 2ac/b2
(4) 3c/2ab2
7) The metal rod of length ℓ = 0.2 m hung horizontally on two light wires of length L = 0.1 m in the
vertical magnetic field with induction B = 1 Tesla. It is initially at α = 60° from the equilibrium
position and released (Fig.). Find the potential difference between the ends of the conductor at a

time when it passes the lowest position.

(1) Zero
(2) 0.1 V
(3) 0.2 V

(4)

8) In an a.c. circuit the voltage applied is E = E0 sin ωt. The resulting current in the circuit is I = I

sin . The power consumption in the circuit is given by

(1)

(2)

(3) P = zero

(4)

9) Two short electric dipoles are placed as shown (r is the distance between their centres). The
energy of electric interaction between these dipoles will be : (C is centre of dipole of moment P2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)
A charge +q is fixed at each of the points x = x0, x = 3x0, x = 5x0 .... ad Inf. on the x-axis, and a
charge –q is fixed at each of the points x = 2x0, x = 4x0, x = 6x0, .... ad inf. Here x0 is a positive
constant. Take the electric potential at a point due to a charge Q at a distance r from it to be
Then, the potential at the origin due to the above system of charges is.

(1) Zero

(2)

(3) ∞

(4)

11) A charge q is placed inside a spherical cavity made in uncharged conducting sphere of radius R
as shown. A point charge q0 is placed at a separation d from centre of the solid sphere. Electric field

at P due to all the induced charges on sphere will be.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

12) A vertical U-tube of uniform cross-section contains mercury in both sides of its arms as shown

below : Glycerin column of 20cm is introduced into one of its arms and
oil of density 0.8g/cc is poured into other arm until the upper surface of oil and glycerin are at same
horizontal level [ρHg = 13.6 g/cc, ρglycerine = 1.3 g/cc] length of oil column is :

(1) 20.8 cm
(2) 19.2 cm
(3) 17.2 cm
(4) 20 cm

13) A body of elliptical cross - section is made up of material of refractive index n2. The body is
surrounded by a liquid of refractive index n1. The figure here shows a cross - section of this body. If
any ray parallel to major axis of the cross - section passes through focus of the cross - section (as
shown), then the eccentricity of the elliptical cross - section is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Two thin symmetrical lenses of different nature have equal radii of curvature R = 20 cm. The
lenses are put close together and immersed in water. The converging focal length of the system is 24

cm. Find the difference between refractive indices of the two lenses. (refractive index for water = )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Two stars of mass m and 3m separated by distance r are moving in circular path about their
centre of mass due to mutual gravitation force. The angular velocity of any star will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The rod connecting two reservoir and connected to a source is as shown in diagram. The rod is
in steady state. Find the temperature of source, so that rate of melting of ice is 16 times that rate of
vaporization. (Latent heat of vaporization is 540 Cal/gm and latent heat of fusion is 80 Cal/gm)

(1) 540° C
(2) 580° C
(3) 640° C
(4) 740° C

17)

A monatomic gas goes through cyclic process shown in P-V curve. The efficiency of cycle is :
[Process BC is isothermal]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A toy plane is flying horizontally at 10 m/s at height 80 m above the ground towards a man on
the ground as shown. When plane is 60m away horizontally from man, a ball is dropped by the plane.
Find speed of man (assumed uniform) so that he is able to catch the ball just before it strikes the

ground (g = 10 / s2) :-

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 7.5 m/s

19) The trajectory of two projectiles 1 and 2 as shown in the figure (T is time of flight, V0 is projected

speed)

T1 = T2 &
(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

20) A solid cylinderical wire of radius 'R' carries a current 'I'. The magnetic field is 5μT at a point,
which is '2R' distance away from the axis of wire. Magnetic field at a point which is R/3 distance
inside from the surface of the wire is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A symmetric star shaped conducting wire loop is carrying a steady state current I as shown in
the figure. The distance between the diametrically opposite vertices of the star is 4a. The magnitude
of the magnetic field at the center of the loop is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) A stationary singly ionised helium atom emits a photon corresponding to the first line of Lyman
series. The emitted photon is then absorbed by a stationary hydrogen atom in the ground state. Point
correct statements/s from the following :-

(1) The emitted photon from He+ ion excites the hydrogen atom to sixth excited state.
The kinetic energy of recoiling of He+ of mass m when it emits a photon of frequency v is given
(2)
by .
The emitted photon from He+ ion ionises the hydrogen atom with liberated electron carrying
(3)
kinetic energy of about 20 eV.
(4) The transition energy during the emission of photon from He+ ion is about 54.4 eV.

23) A free particle with initial kinetic energy E and zero potential energy and de-broglie wavelength
λ, enters a region in which it has potential energy V. What is the particle's new wavelength?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Ring of mass “5kg” and radius 1 m is placed on a smooth incline plane. If the ring is in

translatory equilibrium find the mass of the block shown in diagram :-

(1) 3 kg
(2) 7.5 kg
(3) 10 kg
(4) This situation is not possible

25) A sphere of mass M and radius R is attached by a light rod of length ℓ to a point P. The sphere
rolls without slipping on a circular track as shown. It is released from the horizontal position. The
angular momentum of the system about P when the rod becomes vertical is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) In a Zener regulated power supply a Zener diode with VZ = 6.0 V is used for regulation. The load
current is to be 4.0 mA and the unregulated input is 10.0 V. What should be the value of series

resistor RS? Choose zener current to be 20mA.

(1) 163 Ω
(2) 167 Ω
(3) 175 Ω
(4) 186 Ω

27) In the shown arrangement, the coefficient of friction between the blocks is µ and no friction
between ground surface and block 2m. The blocks are displaced slightly and released. They move
together without slipping on each other. The time period will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

28)

A wave is represented by the equation

x is in metres and t is in seconds. The speed of the wave is

(1) 175 m/s

(2) 49 π m/s
(3) 49/π m/s
(4) 0.28 π m/s

29) At a point P on the screen at distance D from the slits in standard YDSE experiment, 3rd maxima
is observed at t = 0. Now screen is slowly moved with constant speed away from the slits in such a
way that the centre of slits and centre of screen always lie on same line and at t = 1 sec, the

intensity at point P is observed to be of maximum intensity in between 2nd and 3rd maxima.
The speed of screen can be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A force of 0.5 N is applied on the upper block as shown in figure. The coefficient of static friction
between the two blocks is 0.1 and that between the lower block and the surface is zero. The work
done by the lower block on the upper block for a displacement of 3 m of the upper block is :-

(1) 1 J
(2) –1 J
(3) 2 J
(4) –2 J

CHEMISTRY
1) What is the major product formed by HI on reaction with ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Match List-I and List-II.

List-I List-II

(a) Valium (i) Antifertility drug

(b) Morphine (ii) Pernicious anaemia

(c) Norethindrone (iii) Analgesic

(d) Vitamin B12 (iv) Tranquilizer

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i)
(4) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)

3) The correct order of acid character of the following compounds is :

(1) III > II > I > IV
(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) I > II > III > IV
(4) II > III > IV > I

4) Choose the correct name for compound given below :

(1) (4E)-5-Bromo-hex-4-en-2-yne
(2) (2E)-2-Bromo-hex-4-yn-2-ene
(3) (2E)-2-Bromo-hex-2-en-4-yne
(4) (4E)-5-Bromo-hex-2-en-4-yne

5) Which one of the following pairs of isomers is an example of metamerism ?

(1)

CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 and

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : 2-methylbutane on oxidation with KMnO4 gives 2-methylbutan-2-ol.
Statement-II : n-alkanes can be easily oxidised to corresponding alcohol with KMnO4.
Choose the correct option :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

7) For the given reaction :

(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) In the following reaction the reason why meta-nitro product also formed is :

(1) low temperature

(2) –NH2 group is highly meta-directive
(3) Formation of anilinium ion
(4) –NO2 substitution always takes place at meta-position

9) Which one of the following carbonyl compounds cannot be prepared by addition of water on an
alkyne in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4 ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10)
Maleic anhydride
Maleic anhydride can be prepared by :

(1) Heating trans-but-2-enedioic acid

(2) Heating cis-but-2-enedioic acid
(3) Treating cis-but-2-enedioic acid with alcohol and acid
(4) Treating trans-but-2-enedioic acid with alcohol and acid

11) Which of the following graph is/are inconsistent with ideal gas behaviours?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) Select incorrect statement:

(1) We can condense vapour simply by applying pressure

To liquefy a gas, one must lower the temperature below it’s critical temperature (TC) and also
(2)
apply pressure
At critical temperature (TC), there is no distinction between liquid and vapour state. Hence,
(3)
density of the liquid is nearly equal to density of the vapour
(4) Whatever the pressure applied, a gas cannot be liquified below it’s critical temperature (TC)

13)

In an experiment, 50 mL of 0.1 M solution of a metal salt reacted with 25 mL of 0.1 M solution of

sodium sulphite. The half equation for the oxidation of sulphite ion is

If the oxidation number of metal in the salt was 3,

what would be the new oxidation number of metal ?
(1) Zero
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

14) Element X react with oxygen to produce a pure sample of X2O3. In an experiment it is found that
1.00 g of X produces 1.16 g of X2O3. Calculate the atomic weight of X. Given atomic weight of
oxygen, 16.0 g mol–1.

(1) 67
(2) 100.2
(3) 125
(4) 150

15) Which of the following statement is incorrect -

(1) During electrophoresis, colloidal particle move under influence of electric field
(2) Higher is the coagulating power of an electrolyte, higher is its coagulation value.
(3) Less is the gold number, better is protective power of lyophilic colloid
(4) Sorption process is a combination of adsorption and absorption process.

16)

Which one is correct among the following ?

If
(1) Cu+ disproportionates
(2) Cu and Cu2+ can not co-exist with each other in solution

(3) is positive
(4) = 0.2 V

17) For first order reaction A → 2B initial concentration of A was 0.8 M and after 1 min. conc. of [B]
was 0.8 M. Half-life period for reaction is :

(1) 60 sec.
(2) 120 sec.
(3) 180 sec.
(4) 30 sec.

18) The following mechanism has been proposed for the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr :
NO(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ NOBr2(g)
NOBr2(g) + NO(g) → 2NOBr(g)
If the second step is the rate determining step, the order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 3

19) At 25°C and 1 atm pressure, the enthalpies of combustion are as given below :

Substance H2 C(graphite) C2H6(g)

–286.0 –394.0 –1560.0

The enthalpy of formation of ethane is :

(1) +54.0 kJ mol–1
(2) –68.0 kJ mol–1
(3) –86.0 kJ mol–1
(4) +97.0 kJ mol–1

20) Which of the following aqueous solutions is isotonic with 15 % glucose aqueous solution with
specific gravity of 1.2 ?

(1) 1 M CaCl2
(2) 1 N CaCl2
(3) 0.5 M NaCl
(4) 0.5 M urea

21) Select correct order.

(1) F– > Cl– : Ionisation energy
(2) O > Cl : 1st Electron affinity
(3) O > F > N : 2nd ionisation energy
(4) H– < Cl– : ionic size

22)

Consider the structure of Al2Cl6 and choose correct statement

(1) It is planar molecule

(2) Hybridisation state of Al is sp3
(3) It has 3c-2e– and 2c-2e– bonds
(4) Al2Cl6 is electron deficient molecule

23) The xenon compound(s) that are iso-structural with (linear) and (trigonal pyramidal)
respectively are :

(1) Linear XeF2 and pyramidal XeO3

(2) Bent XeF2 and pyramidal XeO3
(3) Bent XeF2 and planar XeO3
(4) Linear XeF2 and trigonal planar XeO3

24) Which of the following complex is colourless ?

(1) Zn2[Fe(CN)5(NOS)]
(2) [Cu(NH3)4SO4]
(3) K3[Cu(CN)4]
(4) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3

25) 2[M(CN)2]–(aq.) + Zn(s) → [Zn(CN)4]2– (aq.) + 2M (s)

In above reaction "M" may be -

(1) Ag
(2) Pb
(3) Mg
(4) Hg

26) Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same
atomic radii ? (Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic numbers).

(1) Zr (40) and Nb (41)

(2) Zr (40) and Hf (72)
(3) Zr (40) and Ta (73)
(4) Ti (22) and Zr (40)

27) ; X is :

(1) CO2
(2) C3O2
(3) SO2
(4) N2O5

28) When 'A' salt solution is added carefully to a saturated solution of Fe(II) sulphate acidified with
dilute H2SO4 a brown ring is formed at the junction of two liquids. The compound A is

(1) NaNO3
(2) NaNO2
(3) NaCl
(4) Na2SO3

29) Which of the following is INCORRECT :

(1) BeCO3 is kept in the atmosphere of CO2 since, it is thermally unstable

(2) Sodium peroxy borate used in washing powder as brightener
Sodium hydrogen carbonate is made by saturating a solution of sodium carbonate with carbon
(3)
dioxide
(4) Gypsum when added to cement makes the setting of the cement faster.

30) CFCl3 is responsible for the decomposition of ozone to form oxygen. Which of the following
reacts with ozone to form oxygen ?

(1) Cl2
(2) Cl–
(3) F–
(4)

ENGLISH PROFICIENCY

1) Directions : in each of the following questions, choose the most appropriate alternative to fill in
the blanks.
Riya looked tired, but she said she ____ finish the project before midnight if necessary.

(1) can
(2) could
(3) might
(4) would
2) Identify the sentence that uses the relative pronoun correctly.

(1) The scientist which discovered the particle won international recognition.
(2) The conference, what was scheduled for April, has been postponed.
(3) The woman whom you spoke to yesterday is leading the research now.
(4) This is the painting what my grandmother gifted me.

3) Choose the correct form of the verb:

Neither of the solutions offered by the committee ____ acceptable to the panel.

(1) were
(2) have been
(3) is
(4) are

4) Choose the correctly spelled word.

(1) Accomodation
(2) Accommmodation
(3) Accommodation
(4) Acommodation

5) Choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in capital
letters. “CIRCUMSPECT.”

(1) Lazy
(2) Cautious
(3) Reckless
(4) Ambitious

6) Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capital letters.
“FORTIFY”

(1) Strengthen
(2) Secure
(3) Weaken
(4) Intensify

7) Directions : Read the follow carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Despite significant technological advancement, modern societies continue to face challenges in
balancing productivity with well-being. Studies indicate that individuals who allocate even brief
intervals of time to reflection or mindful disengagement experience improved focus and emotional
resilience. Interestingly, organizations that encourage such practices often report higher levels of
creativity among employees. However, a persistent misconception remains: many assume that
constant activity equates to greater efficiency. Researchers argue that this belief not only
undermines long-term performance but also contributes to burnout, suggesting that sustainable
productivity emerges from a harmonious blend of effort and recuperation.
According to the passage, what misconception exists in modern workplaces?

(1) Employees prefer reflection over activity.

(2) Constant activity automatically increases efficiency.
(3) Creativity is unrelated to well-being.
(4) Only long breaks improve productivity

8) Directions : Read the follow carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Despite significant technological advancement, modern societies continue to face challenges in
balancing productivity with well-being. Studies indicate that individuals who allocate even brief
intervals of time to reflection or mindful disengagement experience improved focus and emotional
resilience. Interestingly, organizations that encourage such practices often report higher levels of
creativity among employees. However, a persistent misconception remains: many assume that
constant activity equates to greater efficiency. Researchers argue that this belief not only
undermines long-term performance but also contributes to burnout, suggesting that sustainable
productivity emerges from a harmonious blend of effort and recuperation.
In the passage, the word “harmonious” most nearly means:

(1) Conflicted
(2) Balanced
(3) Artificial
(4) Gradual

9) Directions : Read the follow carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Despite significant technological advancement, modern societies continue to face challenges in
balancing productivity with well-being. Studies indicate that individuals who allocate even brief
intervals of time to reflection or mindful disengagement experience improved focus and emotional
resilience. Interestingly, organizations that encourage such practices often report higher levels of
creativity among employees. However, a persistent misconception remains: many assume that
constant activity equates to greater efficiency. Researchers argue that this belief not only
undermines long-term performance but also contributes to burnout, suggesting that sustainable
productivity emerges from a harmonious blend of effort and recuperation.
Which of the following best summarizes the central idea of the passage?

(1) Productivity is improved by working for longer hours without interruption.

(2) Reflective breaks can enhance resilience, creativity, and long-term efficiency.
(3) Technological advancements have eliminated workplace burnout.
(4) Organizations cannot influence employee well-being.

10) Directions : Read the follow carefully and answer the questions that follow :
Despite significant technological advancement, modern societies continue to face challenges in
balancing productivity with well-being. Studies indicate that individuals who allocate even brief
intervals of time to reflection or mindful disengagement experience improved focus and emotional
resilience. Interestingly, organizations that encourage such practices often report higher levels of
creativity among employees. However, a persistent misconception remains: many assume that
constant activity equates to greater efficiency. Researchers argue that this belief not only
undermines long-term performance but also contributes to burnout, suggesting that sustainable
productivity emerges from a harmonious blend of effort and recuperation.
Which linker would BEST replace the underlined words to maintain logical flow?
Constant activity may seem productive, but in reality, it can hinder long-term efficiency.

(1) Therefore
(2) Nevertheless
(3) Meanwhile
(4) As a result

LOGICAL REASONING

1) Direction : In each of the following questions, there are two words to the left of the sign :: which
are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third word and one of the
four alternatives under it. Find the correct alternative in each question.
Man : Walk :: Fish : ?

(1) Swim
(2) Eat
(3) Live
(4) Sleep

2) Direction : In each of the following questions, there are two words to the left of the sign :: which
are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third word and one of the
four alternatives under it. Find the correct alternative in each question.
Import : Export :: Expenditure : ?

(1) Deficit
(2) Revenue
(3) Debt
(4) Tax

3) Direction : In each of the following questions, four alternatives are given, out of which three are
alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(1) Rose
(2) Lotus
(3) Marigold
(4) Lily

4) Direction : In each of the following questions, four alternatives are given, out of which three are
alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(1) 9611
(2) 7324
(3) 2690
(4) 1754

5) Which one of the numbers will complete the series ?

8, 13, 10, 15, 12, 17, 14 … ?

(1) 19
(2) 22
(3) 16
(4) 20

6) Find the next term of series :

DILQTYBG?

(1) H
(2) I
(3) J
(4) P

7) Direction : In the following question, one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong
term.
1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 96

(1) 4
(2) 32
(3) 64
(4) 96

8) Directions : Find the missing character in each of the following questions.

1 12 10

15 2 ?

8 5 3
(1) 9
(2) 11
(3) 4
(4) 6

9) Directions : Find the missing character in each of the following questions.

6 9 15

8 12 20

4 6 ?
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 21
10) Direction : In each of the following questions, a part of the figure is missing. Find out from the

given options (1, 2, 3 and 4) the right figure to fit in the missing place.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Direction : In each of the following questions, a part of the figure is missing. Find out from the

given options (1, 2, 3 and 4) the right figure to fit in the missing place.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

12) Direction : In the following question, select that combination of parts (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
which if fitted together will form an equilateral triangle.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(1) ABE
(2) BCE
(3) ADE
(4) BDE

13) Direction : In the following question, select that combination of parts (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
which if fitted together will form a square.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(1) ABD
(2) BCE
(3) ACD
(4) BDE

14) Direction : If a square sheet of paper is folded two times from the centre and cuts are made as
shown in the problem figure how will it appear when it is opened ? Select the appropriate figure

from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Direction : In the following question, a set of three figures A, B and C showing a sequence of
folding of a piece of paper. Fig. (C) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut These
three figures are followed by four answer figures from which you have to choose a figure which
would most closely resemble the unfolded form of fig, (C).

(P) (A) (B) (C)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Direction : In each of the following questions, select the answer figure that will fit in the blank
space in the question figure, maintaining the pattern in the proper sequence.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Direction : In each of the following questions, select the answer figure that will fit in the blank
space in the question figure, maintaining the pattern in the proper sequence.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

18) Direction : In the following question, contains four rows of figures. As four alternatives. Each
row contains four of five different designs. You have to study carefully each row and judge which
series of figures follows the stated rule exactly.
Rule : The number of sides decreases in closed figures and the number of sides increases in open
figures.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Direction : In the following question, contains four rows of figures. As four alternatives. Each
row contains four of five different designs. You have to study carefully each row and judge which
series of figures follows the stated rule exactly.
Rule : Closed figure becomes more and more open.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Direction : Read the following information to answer the given question. Following are the
criteria for selecting a marketing officer by a company. The candidate must
(A) be a graduate with at least 50% marks.
(B) have secured at least 40% marks in the written test.
(C) not be less than 24 years and not more than 29 years as on 10th December, 1996.
(D) should have work experience of at least two years as a Marketing officer.
However, if a candidate :
(I) Fulfils all other criteria except at D above, but has a diploma in Marketing Management,
his/her case is to be referred to General Manager, Marketing.
(II) Fulfils all other criteria except at C above, but has worked as Marketing officer at least for
three years, his/her case is to be referred to Director, Marketing.
Based on the above criteria and the information given in each of the following questions, you have to
take the decision in regard to each case. You are not to assume anything. These cases are given to
you as on 10th December, 1996. Mark you answer as :
Sudha Mirchandani is a 1st class graduate and has secured 50% marks in the written test. She was
23 years old as on 5th November 1995. She has done a diploma in Marketing Management.

(1) if the candidate is to be appointed

(2) if the candidate is not to be appointed
(3) if the case is to be referred to General Manager, Marketing
(4) if the case to be referred to Director, Marketing

MATHEMATICS

1) The set is equal to

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) A, B, C are three sets such that n(A) = 25, n(B) = 20, n(C) = 27, n(A ∩ B) = 5, n(B ∩ C) = 7, n(A ∩
C) = 0 then n(A ∪ B ∪ C) is equal to

(1) 60
(2) 65
(3) 67
(4) 72

3) If equations x3 + 2x2 + 5x + m = 0 and x3 + 2x2 + 3x + n = 0 has exactly one common root and
product of their uncommon roots is –1, then value of m + n is -

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) –1
(4) 2

4) Let S = + ...... upto ∞. Then S is equal to :-

(1) 38/81
(2) 4/19
(3) 36/171
(4) None of these

5) The 5th & 8th term of GP are 7! and 8! respectively. If the sum of n terms is 2205 then n is equal to

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) cos (α–β) = 1 and cos (α + β) = 1/e, where α, β ∈[– π, π]. Number of pairs of (α, β) which satisfy
both the equations is :-

(1) 0
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 7

7) If π < α < , then the expression

equals :-

(1) 2 + 4sin α
(2) 2 – 4sin α
(3) 2
(4) 0

8)

(1) 3x + 5y
(2) 2y
(3) 0
(4) 1

9)

The straight line x = a and x2 – 3y2 = 0 encloses a triangle which is-

(1) isosceles
(2) right angled
(3) equilateral
(4) None of these

10) The equation of the smallest circle passing through the intersection of the line x + y = 1 and the
circle x2 + y2 = 9 is -

(1) x2 + y2 + x + y – 8 = 0
(2) x2 + y2 – x – y – 8 = 0
(3) x2 + y2 – x + y – 8 = 0
(4) none of these

11) If a ≠ 0 and the line 2bx + 3cy + 4d = 0 passes through the points of intersection of the
parabolas y2 = 4ax and x2 = 4ay, then

(1) d2 + (2b + 3c)2 = 0

(2) d2 + (3b + 2c)2 = 0
(3) d2 + (2b – 3c)2 = 0
(4) d2 + (3b – 2c)2 = 0

12) Consider the parabola with vertex and the directrix . Let P be the point where the

parabola meets the line . If the normal to the parabola at P intersects the parabola again at
2
the point Q, then (PQ) is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The locus of point of intersection of two perpendicular tangent of the ellipse is :-

(1) x2 + y2 = 4
(2) x2 + y2 = 9
(3) x2 + y2 = 13
(4) x2 + y2 = 5

14) The locus of the middle points of chords of hyperbola 3x2 – 2y2 + 4x – 6y = 0, parallel to y = 2x is

(1) 3x – 4y = 4
(2) 3y – 4x + 4 = 0
(3) 4x – 4y = 3
(4) 3x – 4y = 2
15) If (1 + x)n = , then

..... =

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) The number of distinct term in the expansion of (x + y2)13 + (x2 + y)14 is :-

(1) 27
(2) 28
(3) 29
(4) 25

17) Consider 4 boxes, where each box contains 3 red balls and 2 blue balls. Assume that all 20 balls
are distinct. In how many different ways can 10 balls be chosen from these 4 boxes so that from each
box at least one red ball and one blue ball are chosen ?

(1) 85536
(2) 21816
(3) 12096
(4) 156816

18) If f : R → R , f(x) = x3 + 3 then the value g : R → R, g(x) = 2x +1 of (f–1og–1)(23) is equal to

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16

19) If y = 2[x] + 3 and y = 3 [x – 2] + 5 then [x + y] is equal :- (where [.] is GIF)

(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 25

20) The graph of function y = ƒ(x) is shown below.

The value of

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) does not exist

21) Let f(x) be twice differentiable function and f''(0) = 5, then is equal to

(1) 30
(2) 120
(3) 40
(4) –120

22) If is differatiable in (0, 5) then (a + b) is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 8
(4) 9

23) For let and . Then, equals

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) x + C

25) If I1 = , I2 = , I3 = and I4 = then

(1) I3 > I4
(2) I3 = I4
(3) I1 > I2
(4) I2 > I1

26) is equal to:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The area of the region is

(1) 512

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) = (x3 – 2xsin–1y)

General solution will be

(1) 2sin–1y = (x2 – 1) +

(2) 2cos–1y = (x4 + 1) + C
(3) sin–1y = (x2 – x) + C
(4) 2cos–1y = (x2 – 1) +C

29) If Aλ = ; λ ∈ N then |A1| + |A2| + ---- |A300| is equal to :-

(1) (299)2
(2) (300)2
(3) (301)2
(4) None of these

30) If A = and B = then (A + B)2 = ? :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) I
(4) A2 + B2

31) Let and Then is equal to

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 2

(4)

32)

If and = , then x + y + z is equal to

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Projection of the line segment joining the points (–1, 0, 3) and (2, 5, 1) on the line whose Dr's are
6, 2, 3 :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Let the plane 2x + 3y + z + 20 = 0 be rotated through a right angle about its line of intersection

with the plane x – 3y + 5z = 8. If the mirror image of the point in the rotated plane is B(a,
b, c), then :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) If = ......... = = 1, then the value of is :-

(1) 1
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

36) Let z, w be complex numbers such that and arg(zw) = π ; Then arg(z) is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The probability that the birthdays of six different persons will fall in exactly two calendar months

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

38) A student appears for a quiz consisting of only true-false type questions and answers all the
questions. The student knows the answers of some questions and guesses the answers for the
remaining questions. Whenever the student knows the answer of a question, he gives the correct
answer. Assume that the probability of the student giving the correct answer for a question, given

that he has guessed it, is . Also assume that the probability of the answer for a question being

guessed, given that the student's answer is correct, is . Then the probability that the student
knows the answer of a randomly chosen question is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The mean of 100 items is 50 and their S.D. is 4. The sum of all the items and also the sum of the
squares of the items is :-

(1) 5000, 251600

(2) 4000, 251600
(3) 5000, 261600
(4) None of these

40) If x = sin (2 tan–1 2), y = sin , then –

(1) x = 1 – y
(2) x2 = 1 – y
(3) x2 = 1 + y
(4) y2 = 1 – x
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 3 3 4 2 3 3 2 4 3 2 1 3 3 3 1 3 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 2 2 4 2 4 2 1 1 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 4 3 4 3 4 3 3 2 1 4 3 4 2 1 1 1 3 3
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 2 1 3 1 2 3 2 4 4

ENGLISH PROFICIENCY

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 3 3 3 2 1 2 2 2 2

LOGICAL REASONING

Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 2 2 1 2 4 3 2 1 1 3 2 1 2 1 4 1 1 4

MATHEMATICS

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 1 1 3 2 3 3 3 2 1 2 3 1 4 2 2 1 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 2 1 3 3 2 1 2 4 1 4 2 1 3 3 3 3 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Explain Question : To find current as shown in figure.

Concept : This question is based on voltage and cements in simple circuit.

Solution :

The equivalent resistance between A and B = 4Ω.

Current I =
The current divides into different branches as shown in the figure. It is clear that the ammeter will

read . So the correct choice is (1)

Final Answer : option (1)

2)

Initially Qi =

Finally Qf =
Qi : Qf = 3 : 4

3) By circuit analysis,
Req in letter C is maximum.

4)
From figure
sin θ =
θ = 37°
by momentum conservation along the line of impact.
3×8=3×2+2×v
v=9

∴e=

5) Explain question : The problem is about the normal contact force between motorcycle and
bridge (in the form of circular arc) at the heighest form.
Concept : This question is based on dynamics of circular motion.
Solution :
Required centripital force equation is given by

mg – N =

∴ Normal contact force (N)

=
Final answer : 4

6) TS = 3mg

= yS ×

= yb ×

7)
v2 = 0.1 × 10 ⇒ v = 1 m/s

8)

Power in ac circuit is p = VI cos

Where is angle between v and I
Voltage is denoted by E in given question
V = E = Eo sin ωt
 I = Io sin (ωt - )
angle or phase difg between V and I = π/2

p = VI cos
P=o

11)

Einduced =

12)

Explanation Question: A u-tube contains glycerin, mercury and oil in such a way that bath
arms have same top level. We need to find length of oil column
Concept: This question is based on pascal’s law
Solution:

h = 19.2cm

h = 19.2 cm
Final Answer
The correct option is (2)

14) Lenses are of opposite nature, so,

in water,

focal length of the system is

So,

15)
16)

17)

W = WAB + WBC + WCA

= 0 + 2P0V0ln2 – P0V0

Qin = QAB + QBC =

18)

80 = ⇒ t = 4 sec
10 × 4 + v × 4 = 60 ⇒ v = 5 m/s

19)

Hmax = Same
T1 = T 2
θ1 > θ2
v1 sinθ1 = v1 < v2

20) r = 2R, 5µT =

At distance from surface means from centre

=
Final Answer : The correct option is (2)

21)

22) Explain Question:

Analyzing photon emission from He+ and its interaction with a Hydrogen atom.

Concept:
Bohr's Model and Conservation of Momentum.

Solution:
A singly ionized helium atom is "hydrogen-like" with z = 2.
The first line of the Lyman series corresponds to a transition from n = 2 to n = 1.
The emitted photon's energy is compared to the ionization energy of Hydrogen (13.6 eV) to
determine the effect.
Additionally, since the atom is stationary, emission causes recoil to conserve momentum.

Calculation:

• Transition Energy (ΔE) for He+: ΔE = 13.6 × Z2 = 13.6 × 4 × = 13.6 ×

4 × = 40.8 eV.
• Ionization of Hydrogen: to ionize Hydrogen from ground state (n = 1), 13.6 eV is needed.
• Kinetic Energy of Electron: K.E. = Photon Energy – Ionization Energy = 40.8 eV = 27.2 eV.

• Recoil Kinetic Energy (K): Momentum of photon .

Momentum of atom patom = p.

Final answer: Option(2)

23)

24)
T = mg sin θ; T = 30
a = 6 rad/sec2
acceleration of block is 6
10 m – T = 6m
m = 7.5

25) Explanation : We are given, a sphere attached by a light rod and it rolls without slipping
on a circular track as shown. Calculate the angular momentum of the system about P when the
rod becomes vertical.
Concept : Energy conservation and angular momentum about a point.
Solution :

LP = mvcmℓ –

= mvcmℓ – ⇒ mvcm

mgℓ =

Final answer : Option (4) is the correct answer.

26) Question Explanation: Calculate the value of the series resistor RS​ for a Zener regulated
power supply given voltages and currents.

Concept: Zener diode

Solution:
Total current = (4 + 20)mA
voltage across load = 6 volt
voltage across RS = 10 – 6 = 4V
This gives RS = 4.0 V/(24 × 10–3) A = 167 Ω.
Final Answer : Option (2)

27) Explanation: In this question two blocks connected with spray are placed one oves others,
both blocks moving without slipping it is asked to find time period of oscillation.
Concept: Time period of SHM
Solutoin:
Both springs are is
Parallel keq = k + 2k = 3k
Total mass = 2m+m = 3m

Final Answer: Time period of oscillation is option (1)

28) Question Explanation: Find the speed of a wave from its equation.
Concept: Wave Parameters
Solution: A traveling wave is described by the equation y(x,t)=Asin(ωt−kx+ϕ). The
wave speed is the ratio of the angular frequency (ω) to the wave number (k).
Calculation: The given wave equation is y=7sin

By comparing this to the standard form y=Asin(ωt−kx+ϕ), we can identify the angular
frequency and wave number.
Angular frequency ω=7π rad/s. Wave number k=0.04π rad/m.
The speed of the wave is v

29) Δϕ = &

y1 =
Now for y2

Imaxcos2 ⇒ Δϕ =

& this can be or

⇒ y2 =

∵ y1 = y2

finally & D2 =
 v=

30)

0.5 = 3a ⇒ a = 5/30
f = 2a = 2(5/30)= 1/3N
fmax = 0.1 × 10 = 10N
∴ f = 1/3 N will act
work done by lower block
= –f(s)
= –1/3(3) = –1 Joule

CHEMISTRY

31)

32) (a) Valium – Tranquilizer (a)-(iv)

(b) Morphine – Analgesic (b)-(iii)
(c) Norethindrone – Antifertility Drug (c)-(i)
(d) Vitamin B12 – Pernicious anaemia (d)-(ii)

33)
2>3>4>1
34)
2E –2- bromo hex –2- en–4-yne

35) are metamers.

36) Alkane are very less reactive, tertiary hydrogen can oxidise to alcohal with KMnO4.

37)

38)
Aniline on protonation gives anilinium ion which is meta directing. So considerable amount of
meta product is formed.

39) Reaction of HgSO4/dil.H2SO4 with alkyne gives addition of water as per markonikoff's rule.

(1) HC≡CH
(2)

(3) CH3–C≡CH

Hence cannot be form.

(4)

CH3–C≡C–CH3

40) Cis but 2-enoic acid

41)

42)

Above critical temperature gases can not be liquified whatever the pressures applied. Below
the critical temperature (TC) gases can be liquified.

43)

M+3 → M+n (Reduction)

n-factor = (3 – n) e– gain
(oxidation)
n-factor = (+ 4 to + 6)
= 2e– loss
 Total loss = Total gain
0.1 M × (3 – n) × 50 ml = 0.1 M × (2) × 25 ml
3–n=1

n=2

44) Question Explanation:

Question is asking about atomic weight of X.

Concept:
This question is based on stoichiometry.

Solution:

Apply POAC on X
moles of X =

M=150

Final Answer: The correct option is (4).

45)

(B) Higher is the coagulating power of an electrolyte, higher is its coagulation value.

47) For 1st order reaction A → 2B

Initial conc. 0.8 –
After t = 1 min. 0.8–0.8x 1.6x [x dissociation]
It is given after 1 min. conc. of [B] = 1.6x = 0.8
x = 0.5
Hence Remaining conc. of [A] = 0.8 – 0.8 (0.5) = 0.4 M.

For 1st order

48)

r = k[NOBr2] [NO]
[NO Br2] =

49) C2H6(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(ℓ)

ΔCH(C2H6) – 2ΔfHCO2(g) + 3ΔfH(H2O, ℓ) – ΔfH(C2H6, g)
–1560 = 2(–394) + 3(–286) – ΔfH(C2H6, g)
ΔfH(C2H5, g) = –86 kJ/mol

50) Explain Question :

Which is isotonic with 15% glucose solution.

Concept :
Isotonic solution
Solution :
for glucose i = 1
π = iCRT

πglucose =

isotonic solution i.e same osmotic pressure

0.5M ⇒ πNaCl = iCRT = 2 × 0.5 RT = RT

1N ⇒ = iCRT =
1M ⇒ = iCRT = 3 × 1 × RT = 3RT
0.5 ⇒ πurea = iCRT = 1 × 0.5 RT = 0.5RT
Final Answer option (3)

51)

I.E. : F– < Cl–

E.A. : O < Cl
ionic size : H– > Cl–

52) In Al2Cl6 hybridisation of Al is sp3

 53)

54) K3[Cu(CN)4] have no unpaired electron

55) Solution: Both Ag and Au are processed by this cyanide method.

56) Solution Zr and Hf has nearly same radius due to lanthanide contraction.

57)
x = SO2 gas.

58)

NO2⊖ will give brown ring test with dil. H2SO4 .

59) The purpose of adding gypsum is only to slow down the process of setting of cement

60)

CFCl3 •Cl + •CFCl3

ENGLISH PROFICIENCY

61) The correct answer is (2)

62) The correct answer is (3)

63) The correct answer is (3)

64) The correct answer is (3)

65) The correct answer is (2)

 66) The correct answer is (1)

67) The correct answer is (2)

68) The correct Answer is (2)

69) The correct answer is (2)

70) The correct answer is (2)

LOGICAL REASONING

71) The correct answer is (1)

72) The correct answer is (2)

73) The correct answer is (2)

74) The correct answer is (2)

75) The correct answer is (1)

76) The correct answer is (2)

77) The correct answer is (4)

78) The correct answer is (3)

79) The correct answer is (2)

80) The correct answer is (1)

81) The correct answer is (1)

82) The correct answer is (3)

83) The correct answer is (2)

 84) The correct answer is (1)

85) The correct answer is (2)

86) The correct answer is (1)

87) The correct answer is (4)

88) The correct answer is (1)

89) The correct answer is (1)

90) The correct answer is (4)

MATHEMATICS

91)

By Venn diagram it can be visualized.

92) ∵ n(A ∩ C) = 0 ⇒ n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 0

Now n(A ∪ B ∪ C) = n(A) + n(B) + n(C)
–n(A ∩ B) – n(B ∩ C) – n(C ∩ A) + n(A∩B∩C)
⇒ n(A ∪ B ∪ C) = 25 + 20 + 27 – 5 – 7 – 0 + 0
= 60

93)
x3 + 2x2 + 3x + n = 0

and product of un common roots

⇒m+n=0

94)
 ⇒ S=

95) T5 = 7! = ar4
T8 = 8! = ar7
r3 = 8 ⇒ r = 2
7! = a.24 ⇒ a = 315
Sn = 2205 = 315(2n – 1)
7 = 2n – 1
n=3

96) Given that cost(α – β) = 1 and cos(α + β) = 1/e

where α, β∈ [–π , π]
Now cos(α – β) = 1 ⇒ α – β = 0 or α = β
∴ cos (α + β) = 1/e ⇒ cos 2α = 1/e
0 < 1/e < 1 and 2a ∈ [–2π, 2π] Therefore, there will be four values of α in [–2π, 2π] and
correspondingly four values of β. Hence, there are four sets of (α, β).

97) ∵ ∴ sinα < 0 & cosα < 0 & tanα >0

=
= –2sinα + 2 + 2sinα = 2.

98) =
[R23(-1), R12(-1)] = 0 ( R2 = R3)

99)
100) Any circle passing through the points of intersection x2 + y2 – 9 + λ(x + y – 1) = 0

It's centre
The circle is smallest

If is on the chord x + y = 1

101)

P(0, 0), Q(49, 49)

Line PQ ⇒ y = x
2bx + 3cy + 4d = 0

102) ... (1)

For x = –

Now
Equation of Normal is

Now put y in equation (1)

⇒ Q(2, 3)

Now (PQ)2 =

103)
a2 = 9 & b2 = 4
Director circle
x2 + y2 = 9 + 4
x2 + y2 = 13

104) by T= S1
3xh – 2yk + 2(x + h) – 3(y + k)
= 3h2 – 2k2 + 4h – 6k
⇒ x(3h + 2) + y(–2k – 3)
= 3h2 – 2k2+ 2h – 3k
If is parallel to y = 2x

⇒ 3x – 4y = 4 Ans.

105)

106)
No. of distinct terms
= Total terms – No. of common terms
Let common terms are
and resp. expn.
Tr+1 =
2r2–r1 = 15
3r1 = 15 ⇒ r1 = 5 and r2 = 10
So there is one common terms.
⇒ 14 + 15 – 1 = 28
107)
Case I 4 Balls 2 Balls 2 Balls 2 Balls

Clase II 2 Balls 2 Balls

4
C1 [3 Red 1 Blue 2 Red 2 Blue] + Case II.
= 4C1 [2C1 + 3C2] (3C1 2C1)3 + 4C2 [3C2 2C1 + 3C1 2C2]2 [3C1 2C1]2
= 4(5) (6)3 + 6(3 × 2 + 3)2 (6)2
= 4320 + 17496
= 21816

108) f(x) = x3 + 3 & g(x) = 2x + 1

(gof)(x) = g(f(x)) = g(x3 + 3) = 2(x3 + 3) + 1
(gof)(x) = 23
2(x3 + 3) + 1 = 23
x3 + 3 = 11
x3 = 8

(f–10g–1)(23) = 2

109)

So, that

110) From graph, limit does not exist.

111)

= 24f"(0) = 24(5) = 120

112)

2a = 3b + 2 ....(1)
 ....(2)
equation (1) & (2)

2a =

=2

113)

114)

115) I1 = , I2 = ,

I3 = and I4 =
0<x<1
x>1

116)
=

117)

Now
y2 = (x – y)2

and x = 0

Now area

118) = x3 – 2x sin–1y

+ 2x sin–1y = x3
let sin–1 y = t

I.F. =
∴ solution is given by

let x2 = t

sin–1y = +c 2ndx = dt
⇒ 2sin–1 y + 2C
–1 2
⇒ 2sin y = (x – 1) +K
–1 2
⇒ 2sin y = (x –1) + K

119) = (300)2

120)

AB = BA = =0

121) , ,
…………………..(1)
Taking dot with in (1)

Taking dot with in (1)

122)

x+y+z:

123)
direction vector
projection =

124)

Let equation of rotated plane be :

(2x + 3y + z + 20) + λ(x – 3y + 5z – 8) = 0
(2 + λ)x +(3 – 3λ)y + (1 + 5λ)z + 20 – 8λ = 0
Above plane is perpendicular to 2x + 3y + z + 20 = 0
So, (2 + λ).2 + (3 – 3λ).3 + (1 + 5λ).1 = 0 ⇒ λ = 7
⇒ Equation of rotated plane : x – 2y + 4z – 4 = 0

Mirror image of in rotated plane is B(a, b, c)

Equation of AB :

Let coordinate of B be (2 + k, , 2 + 4k) midpoint of AB is

which will lie on the plane x – 2y + 4z – 4 = 0

Hence

Therefore B is

So,

125) We have = 1, where k = 1, 2, ........, n

⇒ ⇒ ⇒
∴ = (∵ |z| = | |)
=

126) ⇒
⇒ z – iw = 0
Now, arg (zw) = π

⇒ arg =π
⇒ arg(z2) – arg(i) = π

⇒ arg(z) =
127) n(S) = 126 Now, any two months can be chosen
in 12C2 ways. The six birthday can fall in
these two months in 26 ways. Out of these
26 ways there are two ways when all the six
birthdays fall in one month so favourable
number of ways in 12C2 × (26 – 2).
Hence required probability is

128) C → Correct
G → Guess
K → Knows

Let required probability = x

⇒ Option (C) is correct.

129) Here n = 100, A = 50, σ = 4

Now, ; ∴ Σx = nA = 100 × 50 = 5000

Again, from the formula,

, we get Σx2 = n (σ2 + A2)

∴ Σx2 = n(σ2 + A2) = 100 (16 + 2500) = 251600

130) x = sin 2θ = 2 sinθ cos θ = , (where tan θ = 2)

y = sin ; y > 0, where tan ϕ =

⇒ y2 = sin2 = = =1–x
2
⇒ y =1–x