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The document contains a series of questions divided into three sections: Mental Ability, Physics, and Chemistry, each with multiple-choice answers. The questions assess various skills including logical reasoning, mathematical calculations, and scientific knowledge. Each section presents a range of problems from coding letters to understanding physical principles and chemical reactions.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
6 views31 pages

Solution

The document contains a series of questions divided into three sections: Mental Ability, Physics, and Chemistry, each with multiple-choice answers. The questions assess various skills including logical reasoning, mathematical calculations, and scientific knowledge. Each section presents a range of problems from coding letters to understanding physical principles and chemical reactions.

Uploaded by

kumkumthakor222
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

05-01-2025

9610APA801536250002 PA

SECTION-A : MENTAL ABILITY

1)

The capital letter in each of the following words are coded and written in small letters on the right
side of each word. But these letters are not in order. Find out the codes for letters and answer the
question.

What is the code for letter M ?

(1) t
(2) f
(3) c
(4) z

2) In the following question consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D and E called the Problem
Figures followed by four other figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 called the Answer Figures. Select a figure
from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five
Problem Figures. PROBLEM FIGURES

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3) When the minute hand covers a distance of 20 min, then what is the angular distance covered by
it?

(1) 110°
(2) 120°
(3) 180°
(4) 125°

4) Find the number of triangles ?

(1) 21
(2) 37
(3) 51
(4) 49

5) In the following figure, the solid cube is painted on all sides by a single colour, Observe the given
solid and choose the correct alternative for the following question. (Given figure is symmetrical).

Find the total number of blocks whose three surface are coloured?

(1) 8
(2) 12
(3) 18
(4) 24

6) One evening before sunset two friends Amit and Sunil were talking to each other face to face. If
Sunil's shadow was exactly to his left side, which direction was Amit facing?

(1) North
(2) South
(3) West
(4) Data inadequate

7) Mohan was born on August 22. Arvind is younger than Mohan by 10 days. This year independence
day falls on Tuesday. On which day Arvind birthday fall ?

(1) Tuesday
(2) Wednesday
(3) Thursday
(4) Friday

8)

In the following question, you are given a figure (X) followed by four alternative figures (1), (2), (3)
and (4) such that figure (X) is embedded in one of them. Trace out the alternative figure which
contains figure (X) as its part.

(X)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Below question is based on the information given :


Six girls are sitting in a circle. Sonia is sitting opposite to Radhika. Poonam is sitting right of
Radhika but left of Deepti. Monika is sitting left of Radhika. Kamini is sitting right of Sonia and left
of Monika. Now Deepti and Kamini, Monika and Radhika mutually exchange their positions.
Who will be sitting left of Deepti ?

(1) Sonia
(2) Monika
(3) Radhika
(4) Poonam
10) Observe the figure given below. Find out the water reflection of the figure from the
given alternatives.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B : PHYSICS

1) A person pulls a body on a horizontal surface by applying a force of 5.0 N at an angle of 30° with
the horizontal. Find the work done by this force in displacing the body through 2.0 m.

(1) 5 J
(2) 6 J
(3) 7 J
(4) 4 J

2) A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the
goal. This enables the goal keeper to

(1) exert larger force on the ball.


(2) reduce the force exerted by the ball on hands.
(3) increase the rate of change of momentum.
(4) none of the above.

3) If the earth suddenly shrinks (without changing mass) to half of its present radius, the
acceleration due to gravity

(1) will increase by 300%


(2) will decrease by 300%
(3) will increase by 400%
(4) will decrease by 400%

4) Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other. A ray is incident on mirror M1 at an angle i with
normal and parallel to M2. The reflected ray from M2 is parallel to mirror M1 as shown. The angle of
incidence i is

(1) 20o
(2) 10o
(3) 30o
(4) 40o

5) Two stones are projected from the top of a tower 100 m high each with a velocity 10 ms–1. One is
projected vertically up and the other vertically down. Find the ratio of the speeds with which they
strike the ground.

(1) 1 : 10
(2) 10 : 1
(3) 1 :1
(4) 2 :1

6) An object is placed at a distance equal to 2f from a concave lens, the image formed will be at

(1) 2f

(2)

(3) f

(4)

7) A force of 10 N displaces an object by 10 m. If work done is 50 J, then angle between directions of


force and displacement is

(1) 120°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 30°

8) Which one will be the easier to lift ?

(1) 10 kg of iron.
(2) 10 kg of loosely packed feathers.
(3) 10 kg of water.
(4) There will be no difference in either
9)

A body falls from a height h = 200 m. The ratio of distance travelled in each 2 s, during t = 0 to t =
6 s of the journey is

(1) 1 : 4 : 9
(2) 1 : 2 : 4
(3) 1 : 3 : 5
(4) 1 : 2 : 3

10) A boy stands straight in front of a mirror at a distance of 30 cm away from it. He sees his erect
image whose height is 1/5th of his real height. The mirror he is using is

(1) plane mirror


(2) convex mirror
(3) concave mirror
(4) never possible

11) A mass of 10 kg at point A on a table is moved to point B. If the line joining the A and B is
horizontal, the work done by the body is [a = 10 ms–2]

(1) 10 kg × AB
(2) 10 N × AB
(3) 100 N × AB
(4) 50 N × AB

12) A person cannot see objects distinctly at a distance less than 1 m. The power of the spectacles
that he should use in order to read a paper at a distance of 0.25 m is

(1) +4 D
(2) +3 D
(3) +0.5 D
(4) –3 D

13) A body of mass ‘m’ kg accelerates uniformly from rest and travels a distance of ‘s’ m in ‘t’
seconds. The force acting on it is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Calculate the force of gravity between a 3 kg newborn baby and a 75 kg doctor standing 1 m
away.
(1) 3.5 × 10–7 N
(2) 6 × 10–4 N
(3) 2 × 10–6 N
(4) 1.5 × 10–8 N

15) Which of the following statements is NOT correct ?

A medium with larger refractive index is optically denser than a medium with smaller refractive
(1)
index.
(2) The speed of light is less in a rarer medium than a denser medium.
(3) Refraction is due to the change in speed of light as it enters from one medium to another.
(4) The absolute refractive index of a medium is simply called its refractive index.

16) Figure shows a ray of light P striking a mirror AB. The mirror AB and the mirror CD make an

angle of 120° with each other. The angle of reflection of ray P at CD is

(1) 20°
(2) 30°
(3) 50°
(4) 70°

17) The focal length of a convex lens is 30 cm and the size of image is quarter of the object, then the
distance between object and it's image is :

(1) 150 cm
(2) 187.5 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 40 cm

18) Which of the following colour is least scattered?

(1) violet
(2) blue
(3) green
(4) red

19) A particle is in motion with uniform velocity. A force is not required

(1) to increase its speed.


(2) to decrease its speed.
(3) to keep its velocity unchanged.
(4) to change its direction of motion.

20) A car and a motor cycle are moving with the same momentum. When equal retarding forces are
applied, the car comes to halt in t1 seconds and the motor cycle in t2 seconds. If the mass of the car
is five times more than the mass of the motor cycle, then____.

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 = 5t2

(3)

(4) t1 = 25t2

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY

1) Consider the following statements:


(a) On mixing aqueous solution of silver nitrate and sodium bromide no precipitate is formed.
(b) Oxidation reaction always occurs in company of a reduction reaction.
(c) Rancidity of oils and fats is because of their oxidation.
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) only (a) and (b)


(2) only (a) and (c)
(3) only (b) and (c)
(4) All are correct

2) Four metal pieces W, X, Y and Z are added in different beakers as shown in the given figure :

Observe the amount of H2 gas formed in each beaker carefully and identify metals W, X, Y and Z.

(1) (W) - Na, (X) - Mg, (Y) - Al, (Z) - Pt


(2) (W) - Ca, (X) - Au, (Y) - Zn, (Z) - Mn
(3) (W) - Ag, (X) - Pt, (Y) - Al, (Z) - Mg
(4) (W) - Mg, (X) - Au, (Y) - Na, (Z) - Mn

3) Two salts 'X' and 'Y' are taken in two test tubes 'A' and 'B' respectively and subjected to heating.
After that, water is added to two test tubes, in case of 'A', salt regains its original colour and in case
of 'B', boiling of water is observed. Then 'X' and 'Y' may be respectively

(1) Blue vitriol and limestone


(2) Blue vitriol and baking soda
(3) Nitre and limestone
(4) Nitre and washing soda

4) For the given redox reaction Identify p, q, r and s.

(1) p-5, q-10, r-oxidation, s-reduction


(2) p-8, q-4, r-reduction, s-oxidation
(3) p-6, q-3, r-oxidation, s-reduction
(4) p-10, q-5, r-reduction, s-oxidation

5) Choose the correct sets which represent the oxides as acidic : basic : neutral : amphoteric
respectively
(i) CO2 : MgO : N2O : ZnO
(ii) SO2 : NO : CO : Al2O3
(iii) P2O5 : ZnO : NO : Al2O3
(iv) SO3 : CaO : N2O : PbO

(1) i & ii
(2) ii & iii
(3) iii & iv
(4) i & iv

6) Match the column-A and column-B.

Column-A (Compound) Column-B (Used in)


A. Magnesium hydroxide {Mg(OH)2} i. Manufacture of washing soap
B. Bleaching powder {CaOCl2} ii. Used in soda fire extinguishers
C. Sodium bicarbonate {NaHCO3} iii. Disinfectant
D. Sodium hydroxide {NaOH} iv. Acts as an antacid
(1) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

7) Atoms consist of electrons, protons and neutrons. If the mass attributed to neutrons were halved
and that attributed to the electrons were doubled the atomic mass of 6C12 would approximately be :
(1) same
(2) doubled
(3) halved
(4) reduced by 25%

8) Which of the following statements about pH and H+ ions concentration is incorrect?

(1) Addition of one drop of conc. HCl in NH4OH solution decreases pH of the solution
(2) A solution of the mixture containing equal moles of each of CH3COOH and NaOH has a pH of 7.
(3) pH value depends on the concentration of H+ ion
+
(4) A concentrated H2SO4 has higher H ion concentration than a dilute solution of H2SO4.

9) An element X combines with oxygen to form compounds P and Q. If the ratio of valency of element
X in P to element X in Q is 3 : 5 respectively. What could be the probable compound P and Q ?

(1) (P) CO (Q) CO2


(2) (P) N2O3 (Q) N2O5
(3) (P) H2O (Q) H2O2
(4) (P) CH4 (Q) C3H8

10)

Which of the following would weigh the most?

(1) 0.2 mole of Sucrose [C12H22O11]


(2) 2 moles of CO2
(3) 2 moles of CaCO3
(4) 10 moles of H2O

11) Identify the set of elements with the same number of valence electrons.

23 39
(1) 11X , 19Y
24 23
(2) 12X , 13Y
17 16
(3) 7X , 8Y
9 10
(4) 4X , 5Y

12) Which particle is represented in the diagram shown?


(1) Ne
(2) CO3+
(3) Al
(4) Al3+

13) A sample of CaCO3 has Ca = 40%, C = 12% and O = 48%. If the law of constant proportions is
true, then the mass of Ca in 5 g of CaCO3 from another source will be

(1) 2.0 g
(2) 0.2 g
(3) 0.02 g
(4) 20.0 g

14) A brief information about two atoms P and Q is given below.


P : Atomic number = 8, Mass number = 16
Q : Atomic number = 8, Mass number = 18
Which of the following is correct about these two atoms ?

(1) Electronic configuration of P is 2, 4, 2 while that of Q is 2, 6.


(2) Both P and Q contain same number of neutrons.
(3) P and Q both have 2 electron shells.
(4) Both P and Q have 4 valence electrons.

15) If Bromine atom is available in the form of say two isotopes 35Br79 (49.7%) and 35Br81 (50.3%)
calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom.

(1) 79
(2) 80.006
(3) 81.02
(4) 79.5

16) In which of the following solutions iron gets oxidized?


(a) Silver nitrate
(b) Zinc sulphate
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) Copper sulphate
(1) (b) and (d)
(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (d)

17) A small amount of light green coloured compound X is heated in a test tube. In the beginning, it
loses some water and then gases A and B with suffocating smell comes out. The vapours of gas are
collected and dissolved in water. The solution turns blue litmus red. The residue Y left in the test

tube turns reddish brown. Identify X, Y, A and B.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) In a dried test tube, 1g of solid NaCl is taken and then added a few drops of concentrated
Sulphuric acid to it. A gas is coming out during reaction. Which of the following is true for this gas?

(1) It does not change colour of dry blue litmus paper.


(2) It neither changes colour of dry nor wet red litmus paper.
(3) It changes colour of wet blue litmus paper to Red.
(4) All of the above

19) Choose the correct code regarding Roasting process.


(I) It is used after the concentration of ore.
(Il) It is used for hydrated oxide and oxysalt ore.
(III) It is an exothermic process.
(IV) It is the process of heating ore in air to obtain the oxide.

(1) II, III and IV only


(2) I, II and IV
(3) I, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV
20)

When copper turnings are added to silver sulphate solution, a blue coloured solution is formed after
some time. It is because, copper :

(1) displaces water from the solution.


(2) forms a blue coloured complex with AgNO3.
(3) is oxidized to Cu2+.
(4) is reduced to Cu2+.

SECTION-B : BIOLOGY

1) A person met with an accident in which two long bones of his hand were dislocated. Which among
the following may be the possible reason for this?

(1) Tendon breaks


(2) Break of skeletal muscles tissue
(3) Ligament breaks
(4) Areoelar tissue breaks

2) More energy is produced in aerobic respiration than anaerobic respiration because in anaerobic
respiration.

(1) Food is incompletely oxidized


(2) Very few enzymes are involved
(3) Oxygen is not required
(4) Alcohol is produced

3) What is true for labelled parts (P) and (Q)?

P is Bowman's capsule and it lies in renal cortex whereas Q is collecting duct which receive the
(1)
collecting tubules of several nephrons.
(2) P is PCT and it lies in renal medulla whereas Q is collecting duct and it lies in renal cortex.
(3) P is Bowman's capsule and Q is DCT and both of them lie in renal cortex.
(4) P is glomerulus and Q is Distal convoluted tubule and both of them lie in renal medulla.

4) If the twig of a tree is put in eosin solution

(1) Leaves remain fresh but ascent of sap stops


(2) Phloem gets coloured because of ascent of sap
(3) Xylem elements get stained showing ascent of sap through them
(4) Ascent of sap stops

5) The given figure is a demonstration of an experiment to show that CO2 is essential for

photosynthesis. X absorbs CO2. What is 'X' ?

(1) Potassium hydroxide


(2) Sodium bicarbonate
(3) Sodium carbonate
(4) Potassium sulphate

6) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Fermentation is a form of aerobic respiration.


(2) Aerobic respiration involves mitochondria.
(3) Lactic acid is formed in human muscle cells during aerobic respiration.
(4) Pyruvate can be converted into ethanol in mitochondria.

7) If you chew a piece of bread long enough, it will begin to taste sweet because -

(1) maltase is breaking down maltose.


(2) lipases are forming fatty acids.
(3) amylase is breaking down starch into disaccharides.
(4) disaccharides are forming glucose.

8) Figure given here shows blood circulatory system in human body. Which of the paths I, II, III and

IV contain oxygenated blood?

(1) I and IV only


(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II and III
9) The figures given are various types of simple tissues of a plant stem.

Identify the parenchymatous tissue from the given


labelled figures.

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S

10) Identify the labelled part of internal structure of kidney.

(1) a- Cortex, b- Renal pelvis, c- Medulla, d- Ureter, e- Renal vein


(2) a- Cortex, b- Renal pelvis, c- Medulla, d- Ureter, e- Renal Artery
(3) a- Medulla, b- Renal pelvis, c- Cortex, d- Ureter, e- Renal vein
(4) a- Cortex, b- Renal pyramid, c- Medulla, d- Ureter, e- Renal vein

11) Example of ureotelic organisms are all except

(1) Frogs
(2) Mammals
(3) Sharks
(4) Insects

12) Assertion: ATP acts as the energy currency of the cell.


Reason: ATP can be broken down to release energy wherever and whenever energy needs to be
utilised.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

13) To make a plant free of starch, it is :-

(1) Kept in darkness for 72 hours


(2) Kept in light for 72 hours
(3) Kept in alternating light dark conditions for 48 hours
(4) Kept covered with coloured polythene in a shady place

14) In the circulatory system which is correct

(1) Right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary artery, Lungs


(2) Left ventricle, Aortic valve, Pulmonary artery, Lungs
(3) Right ventricle, Pulmonary valve, Pulmonary vein, Lungs
(4) Left ventricle, Pulmonary valve, Pulmonary vein, Lungs

15) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Fertilizers add a great amount of organic matter in the form of humus in the soil.
Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite
(2)
pattern.
Both abiotic and biotic factors are responsible for causing damage to harvested grains during
(3)
storage.
(4) Both (2) and (3).

16) Shown below are four parts of a slide of an epidermal peel marked I, II, III and IV. Which part
out of these four should be focused under high power to view complete stomata.

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

17) Study the diagram and answer the question that follow
What are the labelled parts A and B?

(1) A-aorta, B-Pulmonary vein


(2) A-Pulmonary artery, B-aorta
(3) A-aorta, B- Pulmonary artery
(4) A-Pulmonary vein, B- aorta

18) Observe the diagram and find out the proper labelling of the neuron from a to d.

(1) (a) cytoplasm, (b) nucleus, (c) dendrite, (d) axon


(2) (a) protoplasm, (b) nucleus, (c) dendron, (d) dendrite
(3) (a) cytoplasm, (b) nucleus, (c) dendron, (d) dendrite
(4) (a) plasma membrane, (b) nucleus (c) dendrite, (d) axon

19) Desert animals, which live in scarcity of water needed to conserve water for survival, which part
of their nephrons will be longer to conserve more water?

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule


(2) Distal convoluted tubule
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) Collecting ducts
20) Nitrogenous waste products are eliminated mainly as :–

(1) Urea in tadpole & ammonia in adult frog


(2) Ammonia in tadpole and urea in adult frog
(3) Urea in both tadpole & adult frog.
(4) Urea in tadpole and uric acid in adult frog.

21) What happens when structure P contracts and flattens?

(1) Air is forced out of the lungs.


(2) The volume of the thoracic cavity increases.
(3) The rib cage moves downwards and inwards.
(4) The air pressure in the lungs increases.

22) Which statement is best describing the role of the oesophagus in digestion?

(1) It releases acid and mixes it with food.


(2) It aids in absorption of nutrients from food.
(3) It carries food from the mouth to the stomach.
(4) It carries food from the stomach to the intestine.

23) The diagram shows the human heart. Which two chambers contract at the
same time?

(1) W and X
(2) W and Z
(3) X and Z
(4) X and Y

24) Which of the following is the desirable agronomic characteristic?

(1) Cereal crops should be dwarf


(2) Fodder crops should be tall.
(3) Cereal crops should withstand strong winds
(4) All of the above

25) Read the statement and select correction option.


Statement 1 : Parenchyma and collenchyma tissues have thick walls and living cells.
Statement 2 : Parenchyma forms hard grit of pear fruit and collenchyma forms hard walls of nuts.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.


(2) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
ANSWER KEYS

SECTION-A : MENTAL ABILITY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A. 1 3 2 2 4 1 4 2 1 3

SECTION-B : PHYSICS

Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 2 1 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 2 1 4 2 3 2 4 3 1

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY

Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 1 4 4 2 4 2 2 3 1 4 1 3 2 4 2 4 3 3

SECTION-B : BIOLOGY

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 1 1 3 1 2 3 3 1 1 4 1 1 1 4 3 4 1 3 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75
A. 2 3 1 4 4
SOLUTIONS

SECTION-A : MENTAL ABILITY

1)

The code for letter 'M' is t.

2) By observation, fig. (A) is same as fig. (B).


So, fig. (B) will be same as the desired fig. in the next.

3) In 1 min, minute hand covers 6º


So, 20 min, minute hand covers
Minute hand covers 6 degrees for 1 min , so for 20 min minute hand will cover 120 degrees.

4) In each box
Single image triangles = 4
numbers of diagonal = 2
So, total numbers of triangles = 4 × 2 = 8
So, total numbers of triangles in all three boxes = 8 × 3 = 24
Now triangles in triangle =

Triangles on base line


⇒ 10 + 3 = 13 triangles
Total triangles = 24 + 13 = 37

5)

By the counting and observation option (4) is the answer.

6) Amit was facing North direction.

7) Mohan was born on 22nd August


So, Arvind was born on = 22nd August + 10 days
= 1st September
Given that, day on 15th August = Tuesday
Day on Mohan's birthday = Tuesday + 7 days = Tuesday
∴ Day on Arvind's birthday = Tuesday + 10 days = Friday

8) By Observation,
9) Explanation :

10) is correct water image a .

SECTION-B : PHYSICS

11) W = FS cosθ
= 5 × 2 × cos30°

12) This enables the goal keeper to reduce the force exerted by the ball on hands, as F =
on pulling the hands backwards, the goalkeeper increases the time to change the final
momentum to zero.

13) ∵ g =

When radius becomes


Then g becomes 4 times of its initial value i.e. 300% increase

14)
3x = 180
x = 60
r = 30o

15)
Given: For body A
u = 10 m/s a=+g

= (10)2 + 2 × 10 × 100

For body B
u = 10 m/s a=+g
2 2
v = u + 2gh
= (10)2 + 2 × 10 × 100

then
v1 : v2 = 1 : 1

16)

17) From W = Fs cosθ

cos θ =
θ = 60°.

18) Because mass of all objects are same so there will be no difference in either.
19)
Given : u=0 g = 10 m/s2 journey = 6 sec.
In first 2sec.

In 4 sec.

or In next 2 sec = 80 – 20 = 60 m
In 6 sec.

or In next 2 sec = 180 – (80) = 100 m


then \(\eqalign{ & {s_1}\,\,\,\,:{s_2}\,\,\,:{s_3} \cr & 20\,\,:60:100 \cr} \) ⇒ 1 : 3 : 5

20)

Boy is using convex mirror because convex mirror can form diminished and erect image.

21)

Given m = 10kg, distance = AB, a = 10m/s2,


Workdone = ?
Formula W = F x S = m x a x S = 10 x 10 x AB
W = 100 N x AB

22) Here person is suffering from hypermetropia.


Given u = –25 cm, v = –100 cm.
from lens formula.

Solving we get f = cm = .

Now P = = + 3 D.

23)

Given : Mass = m ; Initial velocity, u = 0 ; Distance = s ; Time = t ; Force, F = ?


From 2nd equation of motion

Force F = ma ⇒ or

24)

F = Gm1m2/R2 = (6.67 x 10-11) (3)(75)/(1)2= 1.5 x 10-8 N

25) The speed of light is higher in a rarer medium than in a denser medium.

26)
In ΔABC
20° + 120° + θ = 180°
θ = 40°
so angle of incidence at second mirror
90° – 40° = 50°
so angle of reflection = 50°

27) m = – (real image is inverted)

⇒ u = –5f = – 150 cm
So, the object distance is 150 cm.

Then v = = +37.5 cm
So the distance between object and image is 187.5 cm.

28) Light having maximum wavelength will scatter minimum.


Since red colour has maximum wavelength.
So, Red colour is least scattered.

29)

When a particle is in straight line motion with uniform velocity i.e., acceleration is zero.
From newton’s 2nd law of motion F = ma
a = 0, F=m×0=0
F=0
then object will have move with same speed.

30) As we know
Here initial momentum and final momentum (zero) is same.
So change in momentum is same.
Also equal retarding force is applied.
So time taken will be same i.e. t1 = t2.

SECTION-B : CHEMISTRY

31) On mixing aqueous solution of silver nitrate and sodium bromide, precipitate of silver
bromide is formed.

32)

In the first case maximum bubbles are formed so here W will be calcium metal.
In the second case no bubbles are formed because gold do not react with acid so here X will be
Gold (Au) metal.
In the third case no bubbles are formed because zinc do not react with cold water so here Y
will be zinc.
In the fourth case maximum bubbles are formed so here Z will be magenese.

33) Blue vitriol(X) that is copper sulphate regains its original colour after adding water. On
heating limestone (Y), it releases CO2 gas, leaving behind calcium oxide. On addition of water,
CaO reacts with it to form slaked lime which is exothermic reaction and results in boiling of
water.

34)

Conversion of KMnO4 to MnSO4 is reduction due to gain of 2 electrons and conversion of


FeSO4 to Fe2(SO4)3 is oxidation due to loss of 1 electron.

35) Acidic oxides - SO2, SO3,CO2


Basic oxides - CaO, MgO
Neutral oxides - N2O, NO, CO
Amphoteric oxides - Al2O3, ZnO, PbO
Thus, correct sets are (i) and (iv)
36) Magnesium hydroxide {Mg(OH)2} - Acts as an antacid
Bleaching powder {CaOCl2} - Disinfectant
Sodium bicarbonate {NaHCO3} - Used in soda fire extinguishers
Sodium hydroxide {NaOH} - Manufacture of washing soap

37) Mass of electron is negligible, thus doubling it will not change anything.
We know that, Mass of atom = mass of proton + mass of neutron.
12
6C has 6 protons and 6 neutrons.
Atomic mass of 6C12 = 6 ×1 + 6 ×1 = 12 u {Since Mass of proton ≃ mass of neutron ≃ 1 u}
Now, the mass of the neutron is halved i.e. the mass of one neutron = 0.5 u
Then, new atomic mass of 6C12 = 6 × 1 + 6 × 0.5 = 6 + 3 = 9 u

Thus, reduction in the mass of 6C12 = = 25 %

38)

A solution of the mixture containing equal moles of each of CH3COOH and NaOH has a pH
more than 7.

39) 'X' and oxygen form compounds P and Q.


N2O3 N2O5
Ratio 3 : 5

40) mole =
For calcium carbonate
Given mass = mole × molar mass
= 2 × 100
= 200 g
For H2O
10 × 18 = 180 g
For C12H22O11
0.2 × 346 = 69.2 g
For CO2
2 × 44 = 88 g

41) = 2, 8, 1
= 2, 8, 8, 1

42) 13Al → 2, 8, 3
+3
Al → 2, 8

43) Since mass percentage of Ca in CaCO3 = 40% and law of constant proportion is true. So,
the mass percentage of Ca in 5 g CaCO3 will also be 40%.
Hence, 40% of 5 g =
= 2 g.

44) P and Q have same atomic number (8). Configuration K L


2 6
∴ P and Q have 2 electron shells

45) Average atomic mass of Bromine =

=
= 80.006

46) Iron is more reactive than silver and copper, hence it will displace them from their salt
solutions and get oxidised.

47)

48)

NaCl (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → NaHSO4 (aq) + HCl (g)


Dry HCl gas is not acidic but HCl solution is acidic. This is because in the presence of water,
HCl dissociates to give H+ ions.
So, dry HCl gas does not change the colour of any (blue or red) dry litmus paper. As it is acidic
in nature, it changes the colour of wet blue litmus paper to red but it does not change the
colour of wet red litmus paper.

49)

Roasting is the process of heating ore in air to obtai the oxide. It is an exothermic reaction. It
is used after the concentration of ores.

50)

Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) → Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag (s)


Ionic equations: Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → Cu2+ (aq) + 2Ag (s)
Copper is oxidised to Cu2+ and Ag+ is reduced to Ag.

SECTION-B : BIOLOGY

51) Ligament breaks (ligaments connects bone to bone).

52) More energy is produced in aerobic respiration than anaerobic respiration because in
anaerobic respiration food is incompletely oxidized.

53) P is Bowman's capsule present in cortex region while Q is collecting duct present in renal
medulla.

54) Because xylem is responsible for the transportation of water and minerals, so that ascent
of sap gets coloured.

55)

X is potassium hydroxide (KOH). It absorbs CO2.

56) Aerobic respiration involves mitochondria.

57) If you chew a piece of bread long enough, it will begin to taste sweet because salivary
amylase is breaking down starch into maltose (disaccharides).

58)

Path I and III contain oxygenated blood.

59)

P represent parenchymatous tissue.

60)

a- Cortex, b- Renal pelvis, c- Medulla, d- Ureter, e- Renal vein

61)

Insects like ants, grasshoppers are uricotelic. They convert nitrogenous waste into uric acid to
conserve water and excrete it as a solid waste.
62) ATP acts as the energy currency of the cell because ATP can be broken down to release
energy wherever and whenever energy needs to be utilised.

63)

To make the plant free of starch, it is kept in darkness for 72 hrs.

64) Right ventricle, pulmonary valve, pulmonary artery, lungs.

65)

Following statements is correct -


(1) Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite
pattern.
(2) Both abiotic and biotic factors are responsible for causing damage to harvested grains
during storage.

66) The complete stomata is shown in figure III.

67) A-Pulmonary vein, B- aorta

68) (a) cytoplasm, (b) nucleus, (c) dendrite, (d) axon

69) Loop of Henle of a nephron is specialized for concentration of urine by counter current
flow of filtrate in both the limbs.

70) Tadpole is an aquatic organism which is Ammonotelic in nature, but adult frog excrete
urea and it is an ureotelic organism.

71)

In the given figure P is diaphragm which when contracts gets flattened and thus increases the
volume of the thoracic cavity.

72) Oesophagus carries food from the mouth to the stomach.

73) Left atrium and right atrium contract at the same time.
W → Right atrium
X → Left atrium

74) Desirable agronomic characters of cereal crops are that they should be short heighted and
capable of withstanding strong winds whereas fodder crop need to be tall so as to provide
more quantity of food.
75)

Statement 1 : Parenchyma is living and have thin cell wall where as collenchyma tissues have
thick walls and living cells.
Statement 2 : Sclerenchyma forms hard grit of pear fruit and also forms hard walls of nuts.

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