22-06-2025

2202CMD303002250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) If two vectors and are parallel to each other then value of λ be :-

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) If , and , then find the angle

between the vectors and .

(1) 0°
(2) 180°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°

3) The area of the parallelogram whose sides are represented by the vector and is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) If a vector is parallel to another vector then the resultant of the vector will be equal to
:-

(1) A
(2)
(3) Zero vector
(4) Zero

5) Vectors and making an angle with each other. Which one of the following relations is
correct ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6)
Which of the following is smallest unit :-

(1) Light year

(2) Angstrom
(3) Fermi
(4) Metre

7) In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the force is 100 dynes. In another system where the
fundamental physical quantities are kilogram, metre and minute, the magnitude of the force is:-

(1) 0.036
(2) 0.36
(3) 3.6
(4) 36

8) One nanometre is equal to :-

(1) 109 mm
(2) 10–6 cm
(3) 10–7 cm
(4) 10–9 cm

9) Which physical quantities have same dimensions :-

(1) Force and power

(2) Torque and energy
(3) Torque and power
(4) Force and Torque

10)

Which of the following quantities cannot enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any system
of units?

(1) Mass, Time and Acceleration

(2) Length, Volume and Linear momentum
(3) Mass, Velocity and Time
(4) Length, Force and Time

11) Force (F) is given in terms of time (t) and distance (x) by
F = A sin Ct + B cos Dx

Then the dimensions of is :-

(1) [ML2T–2]
(2) [MLT–3]
(3) [M2L1T1]
(4) [MLT–2]

12) If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms–2 and the units of length and time are changed in
kilometer and hour respectively, the numerical value of the acceleration is

(1) 360000
(2) 72,000
(3) 36,000
(4) 129600

13) The position of a particle at time t is given by the relation , where v0 is a

constant and α > 0. The dimensions of v0 and α are respectively

0
(1) M L1T–1 and T–1
0 0
(2) M L1T and T–1
(3) M L1T–1 and T–2
0
(4) M L1T–1 and T

14) 2 dyne = _____ N.

(1) 2 × 105
(2) 2 × 10–5
(3) 105
(4) 10–5

15) The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum in the experiment is recorded as 2.63 s, 2.56 s,
2.42 s, 2.71 s and 2.80 s respectively. The average absolute error is :-

(1) 0.1 s
(2) 0.11 s
(3) 0.01 s
(4) 1.0 s

16) In each of the following expressions A,B and C represent lengths

I. A + B II. AB III. IV.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) One of them has dimensions of volume

(2) One of them has dimensions of area
(3) Two of them have dimensions of length
(4) One of them is dimensionless

17) For the pitch of a screw gauge 0.1 cm and 200 divisions on circular scale. The least count will be
:-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.005 mm
(4) 0.0005 mm

18) A vernier calliper has 1 mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisios on the vernier scale
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this vernier calliper, the least count is :-

(1) 0.02 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.05 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

19) What is the reading of vernier scale shown is figure (Least count of vernier calliper is 0.1mm).

(1) 54.6 mm
(2) 53.3 mm
(3) 50.50 mm
(4) 52.6 mm

20) The length of a rod is (11.05 ± 0.05) cm. What is the length of combination of two such rods ?

(1) (22.1 ± 0.05) cm

(2) (22.1 ± 0.1) cm
(3) (22.1 ± 0.05) cm
(4) (22.10 ± 0.01) cm

21) A body goes 20 km north and then 10 km due east. The displacement of body from its starting
point is-

(1) 30 km
(2) 25.2 km
(3) 22.36 km
(4) 10 km

22) A cyclist complets one round of a square track of side 2 m in 40 s. What will be the displacement
at the end of 3 minutes ?

(1) 52 m
(2) 0
(3) 16 m
(4)

23) A person first goes m in East direction. Then after he goes 10 m in north direction and
finally he goes m 60° south of west. Net displacement of person will be :-

(1) 20 m, in north
(2) 10 m, in north
(3) 20 m, in south
(4) 10 m, in south

24) Three particles P, Q and R are situated at point A on the circular path of radius 10 m. All three
particles move along different paths and reach point B as shown in figure. Then the ratio of distance

traversed by particles R and Q is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A particle moves along a straight line from A to B and then from B to C. If AC is the diameter of

the circle, the distance covered by the particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2r

(4)

26) A particle starts from the origin, goes along x-axis to the point (10m, 0) and then returns along
the same line to the point (–5, 0), the distance and displacement of the particle during the trip are
respectively

(1) 25, 0
(2) 25, –5
(3) 15, –5
(4) 5, –5

27) An insect starts climbing a conical birthday hat of radius 5 cm at base. It starts from point A and
reaches point B, taking spiral path on the hat. Find out its displacement if height is 12 cm:-

(1) 12 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 13 cm
(4) 25 cm

28) A particle moves along a path ABCD as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the displacement

of the particle from A to D is -

(1)

(2) 10 m
(3)
(4) 15m

29) What is the unit vector perpendicular to the following vectors and ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

30) The value of is :-

(1) 0
(2) A2 – B2
(3)

(4)

31) If and are two adjacent sides of a triangle, then its area is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) In nuclear power plant, energy released (E) depends on the mass of uranium sample (m), length
of oscillator (ℓ) and frequency (f) of oscillation E = mxℓyfz then x + y + z =

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 4

33) Find dimensions of an unknown quantity ϕ. If relation is given . Where m

= mass, a = acceleration and ℓ = length:-

(1) [MLT2]
(2) [MT–2]
0 0
(3) [M LT ]
(4) [ML–3]

34) An object covers m distance in second. Find out its speed with absolute
error limits.

(1) m/s
(2) m/s
(3) m/s
(4) m/s

35) The force F is given by expression : F = A cos (Bx) + C sin (Dt).

Where x is the displacement and t is time. Then dimensions of is same as

(1) Velocity
(2) Angular velocity
(3) Angular momentum
(4) Pressure

36) N vernier scale division coincide with (N–1) division of main scale then find out the least count in
centimetre (1 MSD = 1mm) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) An experiment measures quantities x, y, z and then t is calculated from the data as . If
percentage errors in x, y and z are respectively 1%, 3%, 2%, then percentage error in t is :-

(1) 10%
(2) 4%
(3) 7%
(4) 13%

38) A point moves 6m east then 8m north, the resultant displacement from its initial point is :-

(1) 10m, 53° north of east

(2) 10m, 53° east of north
(3) 14m, 37° east of north
(4) 14m, 37° north of east

39) A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 8 steps forward and 6 steps backward, following
again by 8 steps forward and 6 steps backward and so on. Each step is 1 m long and requires 1s.
Determine how long the drunkard takes to fall in a pit 18 m away from the start:-

(1) 48 s
(2) 126 s
(3) 78 s
(4) 162 s
40) An ant starts its motion from one corner of a cube of side length 1 cm when moves on three
different mutually perpendicular sides of cube and stops at another corner then displacement of the
ant is :-

(1) 3 cm
(2) 1 cm
(3) cm
(4) cm

41) The incorrect statement about displacement is :-

(1) Displacement is the shortest length of path between the final and initial positions of the particle
(2) Displacement is a vector quantity
(3) Displacement can be negative, zero or positive
(4) The magnitude of displacement is always equal to distance

42) The figure shows a vernier (whose least count = 0.1 mm) with jaws of vernier are touching each
other. The zero error in the vernier caliper is :-

(1) + 0.5 mm
(2) – 0.5 mm
(3) + 0.5 cm
(4) – 0.5 cm

43) Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale.
The total number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge
has a zero error or –0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main
scale reading 3 mm and the number of circular scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The
diameter of the wire is

(1) 3.32 mm
(2) 3.73 mm
(3) 3.67 mm
(4) 3.38 mm

44) The reading of screw gauge will be if pitch is 1 mm and L.C is 0.01 mm.
(1) 3.20 mm
(2) 3.25 mm
(3) 3.35 mm
(4) 3.40 mm

45) If energy E, velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as the fundamental quantities, then the
dimensions of mass will be -

(1) EV–2T –1
(2) EV–1T –2
0
(3) EV–2T
(4) E–2V–1T–3

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which of the following is arranged in decreasing order of size?

(1) Mg2+ > Al3+ > O2–

(2) O2– > Mg2+ > Al3+
(3) Al3+ > Mg2+ > O2–
(4) Mg2+ ≈ Al3+ > O2–

2) From the ground state, electronic configuration of the elements given below, pick up the one with
highest value of second ionization energy :

(1) 1s22s22p63s2
(2) 1s22s22p63s1
(3) 1s22s22p6
(4) 1s22s22p5

3) In which one of the following pairs the radius of the second specie is greater than that of the
first ?

(1) O–2, N–3

(2) Na, Mg
(3) Al, Be
(4) Li+, Be+2
4) Lanthanoid contraction will not have any influence when we compare size of :-

(1) Zr & Hf
(2) Y & La
(3) Mo & W
(4) Tc & Re

5) Which of the following configuration belongs to s-block elements

(1) 1s22s22p6 3s23p63d10 4s1

(2) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

6) Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2–. The correct order of increasing order of
their radii is.

(1) F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+

(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(4) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+

7) Arrange N, O and S in order of decreasing electron affinity :-

(1) S > O > N

(2) O > S > N
(3) N > O > S
(4) S > N > O

8) The first four I.E. values of an element are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJ mol–1. The number of
valence electrons in the element are :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

9) The size of the species, Pb, Pb2+, Pb4+ decreases as :-

(1) Pb4+ > Pb2+ > Pb

(2) Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+
(3) Pb > Pb4+ > Pb2+
(4) Pb4+ > Pb > Pb2+

10) Which of the following have nearly same atomic radius :-

(1) Na, K, Rb, Cs
(2) Li, Be, B, C
(3) Fe, Co, Ni
(4) F, Cl, Br, I

11) [Ar] 3d6 4s2 configuration belongs to which group :-

(1) 2nd
(2) 6th
(3) 8th
(4) 10th

12) The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on
its outer shell electron is :-

(1) s < p < d < f

(2) s > p > d > f
(3) s > p > f > d
(4) p > s > d > f

13) Among the following configuration, the elements which has the highest EA is :-

(1) [Ne] 3s1 3p2

(2) [Ne] 3s2 3p5
(3) [Ne] 3s2 3p4
(4) [Ne] 3s2 3p6 3d5, 4s1

14) The element having least electron affinity is

(1) H
(2) F
(3) He
(4) B

15) Which of the following is most basic?

(1) BeO
(2) MgO
(3) CaO
(4) SrO

16) Identify correct statements

(1) All ionisation enthalpy value are positive

First electron gain enthalpy value of representative elements are negative, except those of Be,
(2)
N and Mg
(3) First electron gain enthalpy value of Noble gases are high positive
(4) All are correct statements

17) IP is influenced by -

(1) Size of atom

(2) Effective nuclear charge
(3) Electrons present in inner shell
(4) All

18) Assertion A : Atomic radius of Ga is smaller the Al.

Reason R : Poor screening effect of 3d orbitals in Ga which increases effective nuclear charge.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

19) Which of the following is an Amphoteric hydroxide?

(1) Zn(OH)2
(2) Be(OH)2
(3) Al(OH)3
(4) All of these

20) Which of the following processes involves absorption of energy ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21)

Column-I Column-II

(A) Cl2O7 (p) Amphoteric

(B) Na2O (q) Basic

(C) Al2O3 (r) neutral

(D) N2O (s) Acidic

(1) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q
(2) A-s, B-q, C-p, D-r
(3) A-q, B-s, C-r, D-p
(4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
22) The formula for effective nuclear charge is (if σ is screening constant)

(1) Z – σ
(2) Z + σ
(3) Z σ–1
(4) Z σ

23) Which of the sets of atomic number define non-transition element ?

(1) Fe, Co, Zn, Cd

(2) Fe, Co, Sc, V
(3) Zn, Cd, Hg, Uub
(4) None of these

24) The compound X – O – H is likely to act as a base, if compared to hydrogen, X has :-

(1) Higher ionization potential

(2) Lower electron negativity
(3) Higher electronegativity
(4) Lower atomic radius

25) Second electron affinity of an element is :-

(1) Always exothermic

(2) Endothermic for few elements
(3) Exothermic for few elements
(4) Always endothermic

26) The ionization energy will be higher when the electron is removed from :

(1) s-orbital
(2) p-orbital
(3) d-orbital
(4) f-orbital

27) Resonance structures can be written for :

(1) O3
(2) NH3
(3) CH4
(4) H2O

28) Which is the correct order of electronegativity :-

(1) Cl > S > P > Si

(2) Si > Al > Mg > Na
(3) F > Cl > Br > I
(4) All

29) Which of the following is affected by stable configuration of an atom :-

(i) Electronegativity
(ii) Ionisation potential
(iii) Electron affinity
Correct answer is :-

(1) Only electronegativity

(2) Only ionisation potential
(3) Electron affinity and ionisation potential
(4) All of the above

30) Which of the following is general configuration of carbon family :-

(1) ns2
(2) ns2np1
(3) ns2np2
(4) ns2np3

31) Highest ionisation potential in a period is shown by

(1) Alkali metals

(2) Noble gases
(3) Halogens
(4) Representative elements

32) Electron addition would be easier in :-

(1) O
(2) O+
(3) O–
(4) O+2

33) Match the oxide given in column A with its property given in column B:

Column - A Column - B

(i) Na2O (a) Neutral

(ii) Al2O3 (b) Basic

(iii) N2O (c) Acidic

(iv) Cl2O7 (d) Amphoteric

Which of the following options has all correct pairs?
(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(4) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)

34) Which of the following electronic configuration belongs to inert gas elements :-

(1) ns2 (n - 1)d10

(2) ns2 (n - 1)s2p6
(3) ns2np6
(4) None

35) The formation of the oxide ion, O2– (g), from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then
an endothermic step as shown below :

Thus process of formation of O2– in gas phase is unfavourable even thought O2– is isoelectronic with
neon. It is due to the fact that,

(1) Oxygen is more electronegative

(2) Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion
(3) Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration
(4) O– ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom

36) The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order :-

(1) C < N < Si < P

(2) Si < P < C < N
(3) N < C < P < Si
(4) C < Si < N < P

37) Maximum electronegativity of element on Pauling scale is–

(1) Cl
(2) Ne
(3) F
(4) O

38) What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ if IE1 of Na = 5.1 eV ?

(1) + 0.2 eV
(2) – 5.1 eV
(3) – 10.2 eV
(4) + 2.55 eV
39) Which of the compound is hypervalent :–

(1) IF7
(2) NH3
(3) BeF2
(4) CH4

40) Which of the following is odd electron species?

(1) Cl2
(2) PCl3
(3) NO
(4) CO2

41) Variable covalency is exhibited by:-

(1) P and S
(2) N and O
(3) N and P
(4) F and Cl

42) In which of the following set all compounds does not exist?

(1) PCl5, NF3, NH3

(2) PF5, PH3, SiH4
(3) H2O, OF2, OF4
(4) XeF5, NF5, PCl4

43)

Octet rule is not valid for :

(1) CO2
(2) H2O
(3) O2
(4) OF2

44)

Which is not an exception to octet rule :-

(1) BF3
(2) SiCl4
(3) BeCl2
(4) ClO2
45) Which of the following statements does not agree with Lewis dot structure concept?

(1) Each bond is formed as a result of sharing of an e– pair between the atoms.
(2) Each combining atom contributes atleast one e– to the shared pair.
The combining atoms attains the outer most shell halogen configurations as a result of sharing
(3)
of e–.
(4) All statements are correct.

BIOLOGY

1) Answer the following questions :-

(A) – Identify the figure
(B) – Identify the parts labelled a, b & c

A B

a- Pellicle
Dividing
(1) b- Cell membrane
Euglena
c- DNA

a- DNA
Dividing
(2) b- Cell membrane
bacteria
c- Cell wall

a- DNA
(3) Paramecium b- Cell membrane
c-glycocalyx

a- Mesosome
(4) Mycoplasma b- Cell membrane
c- Cell wall
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Which of the following bacterial structure is related with attachment?

(1) Flagella
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Mesosome
(4) Cell membrane

3) Choose the incorrect statement from the followings:-

 Compared to many other organisms, bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic
(1)
diversity.
(2) Many bacteria have small circular chloroplast for photosynthesis
(3) Mesosomes are infloldings of cell membrane
(4) Bacteria have thin filamentous extensions from their cell membrane.

4) Extensions of cell membrane inside a prokaryotic cell; that are involved in respiration are called ?

(1) Mesosome
(2) Chromatophore
(3) Nucleoid
(4) Plasmid

5) Prokaryotic flagella are made up of:

(1) Flagellin, a non contractile protein

(2) Flagellin, a contractile protein
(3) Tubulin, a contractile protein
(4) Pilin, a contractile protein

6) Which of the following is a non essential part of prokaryotic cell?

(1) Genomic DNA

(2) Mitochondria
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Ribosome

7) Which of the following is correct with respect to the given figure?

(1) This organism belongs to fungi

(2) This organism belongs to algae
(3) This organism belongs to BGA
(4) This organism belongs to archeabacteria

8) Which of the following kind of bacteria is considered to be most abundant in nature ?

(1) Chemosynthetic autotroph

(2) Heterotrophic
(3) Photosynthetic
(4) Nitrogen fixing
9) Which of the following is true for Mycoplasma :-

(1) They have cell wall made up of peptidoglycan

(2) They can survive without oxygen
(3) They have nuclear membrane
(4) They are autotrophic

10) Which one of the following is present in the gut of several ruminant animals such as cow and
buffaloes ?

(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Methanogen
(4) Spirulina

11) Nitrogen fixing bacteria convert :-

(1) N2 → NH3
+
(2) NH4 → Nitrates
(3) NO2 → NO3
(4) NO3 → N2

12) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bacteria are grouped under four categories based on their shape: Coccus, Bacillus,
Vibrium, and Spirillum.
Statement II: The vast majority of bacteria are autotrophic, i.e., they synthesise their own food from
inorganic substrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

13) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Eubacteria are characterised by the presence of a rigid cell wall and, if motile, they
possess cilia.
Statement II: The cyanobacteria, also known as blue-green algae, are photosynthetic autotrophs with
chlorophyll a similar to green plants.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

14) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Some cyanobacteria like Nostoc and Anabaena can fix atmospheric nitrogen in
specialised cells called heterocysts.
Statement II: Heterotrophic bacteria are less abundant in nature than chemosynthetic autotrophic
bacteria.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

15) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bacteria play a crucial role in the nitrogen fixation in legume roots.
Statement II: Diseases like cholera, typhoid, and tetanus are not caused by bacteria but by other
pathogens.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

16) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission and sometimes produce spores under
unfavourable conditions.
Statement II: Mycoplasma, being the smallest living cells known, have a cell wall and can survive
without oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

17)

Which statement is/are wrong with respect to Archaebacteria?

(a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure
(b) Feature of cell wall is responsible for their survival in extreme condition
(c) Methanogens are present in the guts of ruminant animal such as cow & buffalo
(d) They are responsible for the production of methane.

(e) Archaebacteria are sole members of monera.

(1) a and e
(2) b and e
(3) a, b and c
(4) only e
18) Which of the following is true for prokaryotic DNA?

(1) Extra chromosomal DNA

(2) Single stranded circular DNA
(3) Double stranded linear DNA
(4) Double stranded circular DNA

19) Glycocalyx in bacteria is composed of :-

(1) Polysaccharides and polypeptides

(2) Lipoproteins
(3) Fatty acids
(4) Nucleic acids

20) Which is the most common method of bacterial reproduction ?

(1) Conjugation
(2) Endospore formation
(3) Binary fission
(4) Transduction

21) Assertion :- Nostoc and Anabaena can fix atmospheric nitrogen. Reason :- These organisms
have specialised cell called heterocysts.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

22) Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding chemosynthetic bacteria?

(1) Chemosynthetic bacteria depends on living organism for their food.

(2) Chemosynthetic bacteria can oxidise nitrates, nitrites and ammonia.
Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy for ATP production by oxidizing various inorganic
(3)
substances.
(4) Chemosynthetic bacteria can recycle nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorous.

23) Select Incorrect statement (w.r.t. Mycoplasma)

(1) Completely lack cell wall

(2) Are smallest living cells known
(3) Can survive without oxygen
(4) Are pathogenic to animals only

24) Match the following column

 A B

(i) Halophiles (a) Marshy area

(ii) Methanogens (b) Hot springs

(iii) Thermoacidophiles (c) Salty area

(1) i-c, ii-b, iii-a
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-a
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b

25) Select incorrect statement

(1) Eubacteria are characterised by the presence of a rigid cell wall and if motile, a flagellum
(2) The colonies of BGA are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant in nature
(4) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria are important decomposers

26) Which of the following is not a bacterial disease?

(1) Cholera
(2) Tetenus
(3) Citrus canker
(4) Small pox

27) The cyanobacteria are:

(1) Unicellular, colonial of filamentous marine of terrestrial algae

(2) Available only in the form of colonies
(3) Sometimes surrounded by mucilagenous/gelatinous sheath
(4) Not associated with algae bloom

28) Outermost layer of cell envelope which provides protection and help in colony formation.

(1) Mesosome
(2) Glycocalyx
(3) Peptidoglycan
(4) Pili

29) Choose the correct option for the given below figure
(1) B - Most common bacteria
(2) A - Most resistant bacteria
(3) D - It causes cholera disease
(4) All are correct

30) Which of the following bacteria form food with the help of chemical energy.

(1) Nitrosomonas
(2) Nitrobactor
(3) Nitrococcus
(4) All of the above

31) Bacterial structure and behaviour are respectively.

(1) simple, simple

(2) complex, simple
(3) simple, complex
(4) complex, complex

32) Which of the following option is incorrect about bacterial pili?

(1) They are made up of pilin protein

(2) They are shorter than flagella
(3) They help in genetic recombination
(4) They play an important role in movement

33) Bacterial group which play a great role in recycling of nutrient

(1) Are photoautotroph

(2) Oxidises inorganic substance
(3) Release energy through oxidation of organic substance
(4) Fix atmospheric nitrogen

34) Cyanobacteria, mycoplasma and archaebacteria are similar in presence of

(1) Photosynthetic pigments

(2) N2 fixation structure
(3) Type of ribosome
(4) Structure of cell wall

35) Which of the following are correct function of Heterotrophic bacteria?

i. Used to make curd from milk
ii. Production of antibiotic
iii. Nitrogen fixation in legume root
iv. Some are pathogenic causing disease

(1) i and iii only

(2) ii and iv only
(3) i, iii and iv only
(4) i, ii, iii and iv

36) State true (T) or false (F) for the following statements.
A. The plasma membrane is permeable in nature and interacts with the outside world.
B. Mesosome is formed by the extensions of the plasma membrane into the bacterial cell.
C. Bacterial cells may be motile or non-motile.

A B C

(1) T F T

(2) F T T

(3) T T F

(4) T T T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37)

Which bacteria show symbiotic association

(1) Clostridium botulinum

(2) Azotobacter
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Nitrosomonas
38) Match the following

Column I Column II

A. Coccus i. Rod-shaped

B. Bacillus ii. Spherical

C. Spirillum iii. Spiral

D. Vibrium iv. Comma-shaped

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iiii
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

39) Plasmid are

(1) Virus
(2) New types of micro organism
(3) Extra chromosomal genetic material of bacteria
(4) Essential bacterial genetic materials

40) Read the following statements

(A) The site of respiration in bacteria is mesosome
(B) The DNA of Escherichia coli is double stranded and linear
(C) Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in chromatophore
(D) Archaebacteria are oldest living beings
How many of the above statements are correct

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

41) Choose the incorrect statement from following :-

(1) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis

(2) Pili do not play any role in motility
(3) Inclusion bodies are bounded by membrane
(4) Cell wall prevent the bacterium from bursting and collapsing

42) Which of the following lack cell wall but is prokaryotic in nature?

(1) Protozoans
(2) Slime moulds
(3) Mycoplasma
(4) Archaebacteria
43) Infoldings of plasma membrane in bacteria are called as :-

(1) Episomes
(2) Plasmid
(3) Pili
(4) Mesosomes

44) Bacteria is a group of prokaryotic organism which is characterized by.

(1) 70s ribosome

(2) Peptidoglycan cell wall
(3) Simple structure and complex behaviour
(4) More than one option is correct

45) Find out the incorrect match of the following :

(1) Eubacteria - True bacteria

(2) Archaebacteria - production of methane
(3) Cyanobacteria - cell wall of heterocyst is thin & made up of lignin
(4) Mycoplasma - Pathogenic in animals & plants

46) Among the following which is correct for Echinodermatea :-

(1) Mouth on the ventral side

(2) Anus on the dorsal side
(3) Mouth on the dorsal side
(4) 1 and 2 both are correct

47) A file like rasping organ for feeding, called radula, present in the phylum ______ in which body is
covered by ______ shell and animals are _____.

(1) Mollusca, siliceous, segmented

(2) Mollusca, calcareous, segmented
(3) Mollusca, calcareous, unsegmented
(4) Mollusca, siliceous, unsegmented

48) Assertion (A) : In Mollusca, feathers like gill are present in the mantle cavity.
Reason (R) : These gills have respiratory and excretory functions.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

49) Sexes are seperate in _________

(1) Earth worm
(2) Leech
(3) Neries
(4) Sycon

50) Which is the gregarious pest of phylum Arthropoda?

(1) Cockroach
(2) Scorpion
(3) Prawn
(4) Locusta

51) Assertion (A) : Aschelminths and Annelids possess bilateral symmetry.

Reason (R) : Both Aschelminths and Annelids are coelomates.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

52) Chitinuous exoskeleton is found in which phylum?

(1) Annelida
(2) Porifera
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Echinodermata

53) Coxal glands are the excretory structures of :

(1) Cockroach
(2) Scorpion
(3) Prawn
(4) Leech

54) In which phylum body is unsegmented with distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump ?

(1) Mollusca
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Hemichordata
(4) Annelida

55) Given below are the four figures of arthropods, which of the following arthropod has five pairs of
legs and green gland for excretion?
(1) Locusta
(2) Scorpion
(3) Butterfly
(4) Prawn

56) Consider the following statement for Balanoglossus

(a) It is a complete chordata.
(b) It is a worm like animal of hemichordata class.
(c) Enterocoelomate animal.
(d) It has a collar in its body.
(e) Circulation is open.
(f) Excretion by proboscic gland and external fertilisation.

(1) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) Only (b) is incorrect
Only (a) and (b) are incorrect
(3)

(4) All are correct

57) Water vascular system is the characteristic of which group of the following ?

(1) Porifera
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Chordata

58) During course of evolution, which of the following (a-e) character appeared first in phylum-
annelida :
(a) Bilateral symmetry
(b) Mesodermal layer in embryo
(c) Coelom
(d) Segmentation
(e) Close circulatory system

(1) b and c only

(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b, c and e
(4) c, d and e

59) Mark the incorrect matched pair :

(1) 8 ciliary comb plates – Ctenophora

(2) Muscular pharynx – Ancylostoma
(3) Closed circulation – Fishes
(4) Book gills – Scorpion

60) How many points are correct about the diagram given below ? (a) Member of
phylum- Mollusca
(b) Close type circulatory system
(c) Parapodia is present
(d) Bilaterally symmetrical
(e) diploblastic

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Three

61) How many animals are related with echinodermata

Asterias, Echinus, Sea lily, Ophiura, Cucumaria, Saccoglossus, Cuttle fish, Sea hare, Culex, Chiton

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

62) A file-like rasping organ for feeding is :-

(1) Radula
(2) Visceral hump
(3) Parapodia
(4) Comb plates

63) Match column-I with column-II :

 Column-I Column-II
(a) A vector of disease (i) Bombyx
(b) A gregarious pest (ii) Limulus
(c) A living fossil (iii) Locusta
An economically
(d) (iv) Culex
important insect
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

64) Match column I with column II and select correct option about them :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Aplysia (i) Cuttle fish

(B) Sepia (ii) Squid

(C) Pila (iii) Sea hare

(D) Loligo (iv) Apple snail

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

65) In which of the following phyla, excretory organ is proboscis gland?

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Mollusca
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Arthropoda

66) Identify the animals shown in the given figures A, B, C and D from the options given below
 A B C D

(1) Pila Octopus Asterias Ophiura

(2) Octopus Pila Asterias Ophiura

(3) Asterias Ophiura Pila Octopus

(4) Ophiura Asterias Pila Octopus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) In phylum echinodermata , the adult echinoderms are_______a________

Whereas larva are ________b_________

(1) a - radially symmetrical , b - bilaterally symmetrical

(2) a - bilaterally symmetrical , b - radially symmetrical
(3) a - bilaterally symmetrical , b - asymmetrical
(4) a - radially symmetrical , b - asymmetrical

68) These animals have an endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles. All are marine with organ-system
level of organisation. The adults are radially symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally symmetrical, such
organisms are included under :-

(1) Phylum molusca

(2) Phylum echinodermata
(3) Phylum arthropoda
(4) Phylumn hemichordata

69) In aquatic annelids like Nereis, which of the following structures help in osmoregulation and
excretion?

(1) Parapodia
(2) Closed circulatory system
(3) Nephridia
(4) Paired ganglia

70) Statement-I: Roundworms are dioeciuos.

Statement-II: Male Ascaris is longer than male with curved end.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

71) Which of the following features is not characteristic of the Phylum Annelida?
(1) Bilateral symmetry
(2) Acoelomate body plan
(3) Metamerically segmented body
(4) Organ-system level of body organisation

72) Statement-I : The most distinctive features of echinoderms is the presence of water canal
system.
Statement-II : A specialised excretory system is present in echinoderm.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

73) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus, the circulatory system is of closed type.
Statement II: Respiration in Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus takes place through gills.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

74) Muscular pharynx is a characteristic feature of :

(1) Taenia
(2) Hydra
(3) Ascaris
(4) Sycon

75) Following diagram represent which animal ?

(1) Pheretima
(2) Hirudinaria
(3) Nereis
(4) Ascaris

76) Parapodia are locomotary structures found in :

(1) Terrestrial annelida

(2) Aquatic annelida
(3) Parasitic annelida
(4) Aquatic arthropoda

77) Assertion: The water vascular system of echinoderms helps in locomotion, capture, and
transport of food and respiration..
Reason: Echinoderms are spiny bodies animals in which development is indirect with free-
swimming larva.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

78) Which of the following option is correct for given figure ?

(1) female ascaris - shorter and narrower than male

(2) Excretion by malpighian tubules
(3) Anus and gonopore not separated
(4) It is female ascaris

79) Identify the mis-matched pair :

(1) Apple snail - Pila

(2) Pearl oyster - Pinctada
(3) Cuttle-fish - Sepia
(4) Squid - Octopus

80) Which organism among the following exhibits water vascular system?

(1) Cucumaria
(2) Balanoglossus
(3) Dentalium
(4) Loligo

81) Which of the following animal is called "Living fossil" :

(1) King crab

(2) Prawn
(3) Locust
(4) Cyclops

82) Book lungs are respiratory structures of :

(1) Cockroach
(2) Limulus
(3) Scorpion
(4) Prawn

83) Which of the following phylum is pseudocoelomate ?

(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Annelida
(4) Platyhelminthes

84) In which one of the following organism its respiratory organs are correctly matched ?

(1) Starfish - Pharyngeal Gills

(2) King Crab - Book Gills
(3) Mollusca - Lungs
(4) Earthworm - Tracheal system

85) What is not true for a generalised mollusc?

(1) Body is divided into head, visceral hump and foot

(2) A rasping tongue like organ- radula present
(3) Mantle cavity with gills
(4) Excretory structures-protonephridia

86) Excretory organ of the animal is

(1) A-Proboscis
(2) B-Collar
(3) C-Trunk
(4) Excretory organs are absent

87) Assertioin :- Body of hemichordata divided into proboscis, collar and trunk.
Reason :- Probcoscis gland helps in digestion.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

88) Assertion (A):- Annelids, Arthropods and Molluscs are protostomial coelomates.
Reason (R):- All the three phyla include members with bilateral symmetry and true coelom.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

89) Assertion (A) :- Echinodermates are spiny bodied animals with segmented body.
Reason (R) :- Body divided into head, visceral mass and arms.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) Both (A) & (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

90) Assertion :- 'Neries' is a metamerically segmented animal.

Reason :- Body of Neries is divided into segments which are externally as well as internally alike
and shown the repeatetion of organs.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) Both (A) & (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 2 3 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 4 1 2 2 1 3 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 3 4 4 2 3 4 3 4 2 3 3 4 1 2 4 1 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 4 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 1 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 3 4 4 4 1 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 3 2 4 1 1 4 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 2 3 2 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 2 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 4 1 4 4 4 4 4 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 4 4 4 4 1 2 4 4 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 2 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 4 4 3 4 3 2 3 4 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 4 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 4 4 1 1 1 2 3 2 2 4 4 3 3 2 2 4 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 1 2 4 1 3 2 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
λ=2

2)

Angle between is given by

= = 0 ⇒ θ = 90°

3)

Area =

4)
for patallel vectors θ = 0° or 180°, sin θ = 0
∴

5)

Cross product of and is given by,

So the option (b) is not correct.

As cross product is noncommutative

6)

Explanation :
Given ⇒ Four different units of length are provided in options.
To find ⇒ Which of the given units is the smallest ?

Solution :
Concept ⇒ Comparison of different units of the length.
Formula ⇒ No formula is required.
Calculation :
Option analysis (one by one)-
Option (1) Light Year
It is the distance light travels in one year.
1 Light Year 9.461015 metre
Used for measuring astronomical distances.
Option (2) Angstrom
1 Angstrom = 10-10 metre
Used to measure atomic-scale distances, like the size of atoms and wavelengths of light.
Option (3) Fermi
1 Fermi = 10-15 metre
Used to measure the size of atomic nuclei.

Option (4) Metre

A. Standard SI unit of length.

B. 1 metre = 1 metre

As we can see that, the Fermi is the smallest unit out of all the othergiven units. Hence, this is
the required answer.

7)

n2 =

8)

1 nanometer = 10–9 m = 10–7 cm

9) 1. Question Explanation:
We are asked to determine which of the following pairs of physical quantities have the same
dimensions. We need to check the dimensional formulas of each pair and compare them.

2. Concept-Based:
The subtopic is Dimensional Analysis. Dimensional analysis helps us understand the
 relationship between physical quantities by comparing their dimensions. The dimensions of
physical quantities are expressed in terms of fundamental quantities like mass (M), length (L),
and time (T)

3. Formulas for Dimensional Analysis:

A. Force (F): The dimension of force is given by

B. Power (P): Power is the rate of doing work and its dimension is
C. Torque( ): Torque is the product of force and distance, so its dimension is
D. Energy (E): Energy is the work done, and its dimension is

4. Calculation:
Let's check the dimensions of each pain

A. Option 1 (Force and Power):

B. Force:
C. Power:
D. Not the same dimensions.
E. Option 2 (Torque and Energy):
F. Torque:
G. Energy:
H. Same dimensions.
I. Option 3 (Torque and Power):
J. Torque:
K. Power:
L. Not the same dimensions.
M. Option 4 (Force and Torque):
N. Force:
O. Torque:
P. Not the same dimensions.

Answer:
Option 2: Torque and Energy have the same dimensions .

10)

(1) M, T,A - Not depends on each other

(2) L,V,P-Volume=(length)3,Volume depends on length
(3) M,V,T-Not depends on each other
(4) L,F,T-Not depends on each other

11)

12)
13) Dimension of αt = ∴[α]

Again so

14)

Conceptual.

15) Average value

= 2.62 sec.
Now

ΔT5 = 2.80 – 2.62 = 0.18

Mean absolute error

16) [A+B] = [L], [AB] =[L2], =[L]

0

and = [L ]

17)

L.C. =

L.C. =

L.C = 0.005 mm

18) Explanation : The question describes a vernier caliper main scale divisions, Vernier scale
divisions: and Vernier scale matching. find the least count (LC) of this vernier caliper.
Concept : The least count of a vernier caliper.
Formula :
Least Count (LC) = Value of 1 Main Scale Division (MSD) - Value of 1 Vernier Scale Division
(VSD)
Calculation :
20 VSD = 16 MSD
1 VSD = (16/20) MSD = (16/20) × 1 mm = 0.8 mm
Least Count (LC) : = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
= 1 mm – 0.8 mm = 0.2 mm

Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

19)

Reading = M.S.R + V.S.R

= (53 × 1 mm) + (3 × 0.1 mm)
= 53.3 mm

20)

(11.05 ± 0.05) + (11.05 ± 0.05)

= (22.10 ± 0.1) cm

21)

B. Given Data:

A. Distance traveled north: 20 km

B. Distance traveled east: 10 km

C. Concept:

A. Displacement: The shortest distance between the initial and final positions of an object.
It's a vector quantity.

B. Pythagorean Theorem: In a right-angled triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal

to the sum of the squares of the other two sides (c² = a² + b²).

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Visualize: The motion forms a right-angled triangle.

A. Northward distance: 20 km (one leg)

B. Eastward distance: 10 km (other leg)

 C. Displacement: Hypotenuse of the triangle

B. Apply Pythagorean Theorem:

A. Displacement = √(Northward distance² + Eastward distance²)

B. Displacement = √(20² + 10²)

C. Displacement = √(400 + 100)

D. Displacement = √500

E. Displacement ≈ 22.36 km

E. Final Answer:

The displacement of the body from its starting point is approximately 22.36 km. option 3

22)

Time taken to complete 1 round = 40 sec.

in 3 min (180 sec) i.e., will complete 4.5 turn.
displacement = meter.

23)

= –20
20 m south

24) Distance travelled by Q = AO + OB = 2Rm

Distance travelled by R= Length of arc AOB =

25)

Distance covered
= AB + BC

26)
Distance = d1 + d2 = 10 + 15 = 25

27)

= 13 cm

28)

| | = 15m

29)

=
Unit vector perpendicular to both and

30)
 =

31)

32)

E = mxℓyfz
Write down the dimension
ML2T–2 = Mx Ly (T–1)z
Comparing powers of M, L and T both the sides,
We get,
; ; –2 = –z or

Therefore, x + y + z = 1 + 2 + 2 = 5

33) input = 1 +

α = [MT–2]

[ϕ] =

34) Δd = 0.4 , d = 16
Δt = 0.2 , t = 4
As we know that

⇒ ΔV = (∵ V = )

⇒ ΔV = 4 = = 0.3

0 0 0
35) Dimensions of Bx = [M L T ]
[B] = [L–1]
0 0 0
Dimensions of Δ t = [M L T ]
[D] = [T–1]
for = [LT–1] ⇒ same as velocity

36) N VSD = (N –1) MSD

VSD =
L.C. = 1MSD – 1VSD

L.C. = 1MSD –

L.C. =

37)

= 10–2 + 2 × 3 × 10–2 + 3 × 2 × 10–2

= 13 × 10–2 = 13%

38)

39) The net distance moved by the drunkard in 14s = 2m.

In five such repetitions, he travels 10 m towards the pit and takes, 14 × 5 = 70s
Now, when he takes 8 steps forward, he would fall into the pit 18 m away.
So, time taken = (70 + 8) s
= 78 s

40)

41) Magnitude of displacement is not always equal to distance. Magnitude of displacement is

equal to distance only when particle moves along a straight line without reversing its
direction.

42) zero of vernier scale is right to the zero of main scale. So, here is positive zero error.
 43) 1. Explanation (30 words)
We are given the main scale reading, circular scale reading, zero error, and the total number
of divisions on the circular scale. We need to find the diameter of the wire.
2. Concept (20 words)
The diameter of the wire is calculated using the main scale reading, circular scale reading,
least count , and zero error.
3. Formula
The formula to calculate the measured diameter is:

Diameter - Main scale reading + x Least count + Zero

error
Where:

A. Least count 0.01 mm

B. Zero error = -0.03 mm

4. Calculation (Minimum Steps)

A. Main scale reading (MSR) = 3 mm

B. Circular scale reading (CSR) = 35 divisions
C. Zero error= -0.03 mm
D. Least count = 0.01 mm

Now, calculate the circular scale contribution:

Circular scale contribution - 35 x 0.01 mm - 0.35 mm
Now, calculate the total diameter:
Diameter - 3 mm+ 0.35 mm - 0.03mm - 3.38mm
Thus, the diameter of the wire is 3.38 mm.

44) R = 3 × 1 mm + 25 × 0.01 mm
R = 3 mm + 0.25 mm = 3.25 mm

45) Explain: express the dimensions of mass (M) in terms of energy (E), velocity (V), and time
(T)

Concept : Dimensional analysis

Formula :
Energy (E) = ML2T–2
Velocity (V) = LT–1

Calculation : [M] = [ExVyTz]

M = (ML2T–2)x (LT–1)y(T)z
M1L°T° = (ML2T–2)x (LT–1)y (T)z
M1L°T° = MxL2x+yT–2x–y+z
Compare for M : 1 = x
For L : 0 = 2x + y
For T : 0 = - 2x - y + z

Solve for x, y, and z :

x=1 y=-2 z=0
 Substitute the values of x, y, and z :
M = E1E–2T° = EV–2T°

Final Answer : (3)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Theory Based

47)

(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
For IP2 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
1s2 2s2 2p6
Max. stable
elec. conf.
Max. IP2
2 2 6
(3) 1s 2s 2p
(4) 1s2 2s2 2p5
1s2 2s2 2p5
1s2 2s2 2p4

48)

Atomic radius
(1)O2– < N3–
(2)Na > Mg
(3)Al > Be
(4)Li+ > Be2+

49)

(1) Zr ≈ Hf → Lanthanide contraction

(2) Y < La → No Lanthanide contraction
(3) Mo ≈ W → Lanthanide contraction
(4) Tc ≈ Re → Lanthanide contraction

50) Asking about : s-block elements

Concept : e– configuration

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
1s22s22p63s23p64s1 → 'K' (19)
 belongs to s-block
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

51)

Among isoelectronic species,

ionic radii

52) due to half filled stable configuration N has least EA.

53)

54) Pb > Pb+2 > Pb+4

55) Explanation :- The question asks which set of elements has similar atomic sizes.
Concept- :- Fe, Co, Ni, transition metals in the same period, have similar radii due to
lanthanide contraction and d-orbital filling. Alkali metals (Na, K, Rb, Cs) and halogens (F, Cl,
Br, I) show increasing radii down their groups. Elements Li, Be, B, C show decreasing radii
across their period, thus, only Fe, co, ni have nearly the same atomic radius.
Answer-3 (Fe, Co, Ni)

56)

Group no.: - (n–1)d e– + nse–

6+2=8

57)

Theory Based

58) Answer - Option(2 )

Explanation -To determine which element has the highest Electron Affinity (EA), let's first
understand what Electron Affinity.
Concept - The element with the highest electron affinity among these options is Chlorine (Cl),
which has the configuration [Ne] 3s2 3p5.

59)

Theory Based
 60)

Theory Based

61)

Theory Based

62)

Concept:

(i)
(ii)
(iii) Shielding effect - As the shielding effect increases, the ionization potential decreases.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
In this question we have to observe the effect of which affect I.P.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

63) Asking for: Determining the correctness of the assertion and reason, and if the reason
correctly explains the assertion.
Concept:

A. Trends in atomic radii down a group.

B. Screening effect of inner electrons.
C. Effective nuclear charge.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Assertion A: Generally, atomic radii increase down a group. However, Gallium (Ga) has a
smaller atomic radius than Aluminum (Al). So, the assertion is correct.
B. Reason R: Ga follows the 3d transition series. The 3d electrons have a poor screening effect
compared to s and p electrons. This poor screening allows the nuclear charge to have a
greater pull on the outer electrons, resulting in a smaller atomic radius. Therefore the reason
is also correct.
C. The poor screening effect of the 3d orbitals is the direct cause of the increased effective
nuclear charge, which in turn leads to the smaller atomic radius of Ga compared to Al.

Answer :
Option : 1

64)

Theory Based

65) Second electron gain enthalpy is always positive because after first e– ion will have
negative charge shows repulsion towards new electron.
66)

Theory Based

67)

Theory Based

68)

Theory Based

69) Lower electron negativity

∴ eg. → NaOH
Electronegativity of H = 2.2
Electronegativity of Na = 0.93
and we know NaOH is a strong base.

70)

Theory Based

71)

's'-subshell is more closer to nucleus. So more energy will be required to remove an electron
from s-subshell in comparison to p, d and f-subshell electrons. Order of penetration power : s
> p > d > f.

72) Resonance structures can be written for O3.

73)

Theory Based

74)

Theory Based

75) Question Explanation: General Configuration of carbon family.

Concept : Outermost shell (nth) prossess four electrons.
Solution : In carbon family, the valence shell/outermost shell (nth) has total of four electrons
Two electrons in S-subshell and Two electrons in p-subshell.
Therefore their outermost shell configuration will be ns2 np2

Final Answer : option (3). ns2np2

76)

Explain Question : Identify the group of elements, which have highest I.P.
Concept : This Question is based on Ionization potential
Solution :
Highest IP in a period is shown by noble gases because an electron is to be removed from
completely filled orbital. This breaks the stable electronic configuration ns² np⁶ and required a
large amount of energy.
Final Answer option (2)

77) NCERT, Pg. # 89

78)

Theory Based

79)

Theory Based

80)

Theory Based

81) N = 3.0 P = 2.1 Si < P < C < N

C = 2.5 Si = 1.8

82)

Theory Based

83)

Theory Based

84)

hypervalent IF7

85)
 Theory Based

86)

Due to presence of vacant d-orbital

P = 3, 5
S = 2, 4, 6

87)

Explanation:

A. Existence of compounds depends on factors like the central atom's ability to expand its
octet, availability of d-orbitals, electronegativity differences, and steric hindrance.

Concept:

A. PCl₅, NF₃, NH₃: All exist. P can expand its octet. N cannot expand its octet but forms
stable NF₃ and NH₃ due to size and electronegativity.

B. PF₅, PH₃, SiH₄: All exist. P and Si can expand their octets. N cannot, but P can.

C. H₂O, OF₂, OF₄: H₂O and OF₂ exist. OF₄ does not exist. Oxygen cannot expand its octet.

D. XeF₅, NF₅, PCl₄:

A. XeF₅ does not exist. Xe typically forms even-numbered fluorides due to its
electron configuration.

B. NF₅ does not exist. Nitrogen cannot expand its octet.

C. PCl₄ does not exist as a stable monomer. It exists as [PCl₄]⁺ salts.

Answer option 4, (XeF₅, NF₅, PCl₄).

88)

Theory Based

89)

Theory Based
 90) The Lewis dot structures can be written for other molecules also, in which the combining
atoms may be identical or different. The important conditions being that:
Each bond is formed as a result of sharing of an electron pair between the atoms.
Each combining atom contributes at least one electron to the shared pair.
The combining atoms attain the outer-shell noble gas configurations as a result of the sharing
of electrons.

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Pg. # 20

92) solution-
The bacterial structure that is related to attachment is:
Fimbriae
Fimbriae are short, hair-like projections on the surface of many bacteria. They play a key role
in helping bacteria attach to surfaces, tissues, or other cells.
Flagella (Option 1) are involved in movement, not attachment.
Mesosome (Option 3) is an invagination of the cell membrane and is related to processes like
cell division, not attachment.
Cell membrane (Option 4) is essential for many functions, but it's not directly related to
attachment.
So, the correct answer is 2. Fimbriae.

93)

NCERT-XI; Page-90, 91

94)

NCERT-XI; Page-90

95)

NCERT-XI; Page-90

96)

NCERT-XI; Page-90

97)

The correct answer is 3. This organism belongs to BGA

Explanation: The given example belongs to Blue green algae i.e., Nostoc.
BGA (Blue-Green Algae) also known as cyanobacteria, these are photosynthetic prokaryotes
that often appear in aquatic environments.

98) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 19

99)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20

100) NCERT Pg. # 19

101)

NCERT-XI; Page-13

102) Statement I: Correct. Bacteria are indeed classified into four categories based on their
shape: spherical Coccus (pl.: cocci), rod-shaped Bacillus (pl.: bacilli), comma-shaped Vibrium
(pl.: vibrio), and spiral Spirillum (pl.: spirilla).
Statement II: Incorrect. While some bacteria are autotrophic, either photosynthetic or
chemosynthetic, the vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophic, meaning they rely on other
organisms or dead organic matter for food, not synthesizing their own food from inorganic
substrates.

103) Statement I: Incorrect. Eubacteria, if motile, typically have a flagellum, not cilia, for
movement.
Statement II: Correct. Cyanobacteria, also known as blue-green algae, are indeed
photosynthetic autotrophs that contain chlorophyll a, which is similar to that found in green
plants.

104) Statement I: Correct. Cyanobacteria such as Nostoc and Anabaena have specialised cells
called heterocysts that can fix atmospheric nitrogen, which is essential for the survival of these
organisms in nitrogen-deficient conditions.
Statement II: Incorrect. Heterotrophic bacteria are actually the most abundant in nature
because they decompose organic material and are integral to the nutrient cycle, unlike
chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria, which are less abundant but play a crucial role in
recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron, and sulphur.

105) Statement I: Correct. Bacteria are indeed involved in the nitrogen fixation process in the
roots of legumes, which is essential for converting atmospheric nitrogen into a form that
plants can use.
Statement II: Incorrect. Cholera, typhoid, and tetanus are well-known diseases caused by
different bacteria, not by other pathogens.

106) Statement I: Correct. Bacteria primarily reproduce by fission and can form spores under
unfavourable conditions as a survival mechanism.
Statement II: Incorrect. Mycoplasma lack a cell wall, which is one of their defining
characteristics. They are indeed the smallest living cells known and can survive without
oxygen, but the statement is false regarding the presence of a cell wall.

107) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 19

Bacteria are sole members of monera not archaebacteria

108)

NCERT-XI; Page-90

109)

NCERT-XI; Page-90

110)

NCERT-XI; Page-14

111) NCERT XI Pg. # 19

Heterocysts cell is fix atmospheric nitrogen in BGA

112)

NCERT Pg # 19

113)

NCERT-XI; Page-14

114)

NCERT-XI; Page-13

115)

NCERT-XI; Page-13, 90

116)

NCERT-XI; Page-14

117)

NCERT-XI; Page-13
118)

NCERT-XI; Page-90

119)

NCERT-XI; Page-12

120)

NCERT-XI; Page-13

121)

NCERT-XI; Page-13

122)

NCERT-XI; Page-90

123)

NCERT-XI; Page-13

124)

NCERT-XI; Page-13
Chemoaulotroph show recycling of nutrient by oxidised in organic substance

125)

NCERT-XI; Page-13, 14

126)

NCERT-XI; Page-90
Plasma membrane selective permeable in nature

127)

NCERT-XI; Page-13

128) Explaining the Question:

The question asks you to match the shapes of bacteria.

Concept:
 Topic : Biological classification

Solution:

A. Coccus : Spherical
B. Bacillus : Rod-shaped
C. Spirillum : Spiral
D. Vibrium : Comma-shaped

Final Answer:
Option (2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

129)

NCERT-XI; Page-90

130) Explanation :
Read the following statements and find how many are correct.

Concept :
Kingdom Monera

Solution :
A - Correct - mesosome is the site of respiration in bacteria
B - Correct - Photosynthetic bacteria emtain pigments in chromatophores.
D - Correct - Archaebacteria are considered the oldest living beings.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

131) NCERT-XIth, Pg#128,129

132)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20

133)

NCERT-XI; Page-90

134)

NCERT-XI; Page-12

135)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 18
136)

Mount-ventral
Anus-dorsal

137) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 53

138)

NCERT-XI, Page # 44

139)

Nereio - Unisexual

140) NCERT Pg. # 42

141)

NCERT-XI, Page # 43

142)

Explaining: Identify the phylum characterized by a chitinous exoskeleton.

Concept: This question is based on Arthropods have an external skeleton made of chitin,
providing protection and support.
Solution: Only phylum Arthropoda has a chitinous exoskeleton.
Others like Annelida (segmented worms), Porifera (sponges), and Echinodermata (calcareous
plates) do not.

143) NCERT Pg. # 53

144)

The correct answer is 1. Mollusca.

In the phylum Mollusca, organisms typically have an unsegmented body with a distinct head, a
muscular foot, and a visceral hump (the region containing most of the internal organs).
Mollusks include animals like snails, clams, and octopuses.

145) NCERT Pg. # 53, Para-4.2.7, Fig.-4.12 a,b,c,d

146)

Hemichordata is a phylum not a class

147)

The water vascular system is a characteristic feature of the Echinodermata group.

So, the correct answer is:

3. Echinodermata

148)

NCERT-XI, Page # 43

149)

Book Gills present in Limulus

150) NCERT Pg. # 53, Para = 4.2.8 fig. 4.13(b)

151) Asterias, Echinus, Sea lily, Ophiura, Cucumaria are echinoderms.

152) NCERT-XI, Pg # 53

153)

Culex - Vector of filauasis

Locusta - Gregauous
Bombyx - Silk

154) Aplysia → Sea hare

Sepia → Cuttle fish
Pila → Apple snail
Loligo → Squid

155)

Hemichordata contain proboscis gland in its proboscis region.

156)

A - Pila
B-Octopus
C-Asterias
D-Ophiura

157) Question Explanation :

Identify symmetry differences between adult and larval echinoderms.

Concept :
This question is based on Echinodermata.

Solution : Adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical, whereas their larvae are bilaterally
symmetrical.
Hence,
Option (1) is correct : a - radially symmetrical , b - bilaterally symmetrical

158)

As larva of echinodermata has bilateral symmetry.

159) In aquatic annelids such as Nereis, nephridia play a crucial role in osmoregulation and
excretion. While parapodia assist in swimming, the closed circulatory system is involved in the
transport of nutrients and gases, and paired ganglia are part of the neural system.

160) Allen Module Pg. No. 24

161) Members of Phylum Annelida are characterized by having a coelomate body plan, not an
acoelomate body plan. They exhibit organ-system level of body organization, bilateral
symmetry, and a metamerically segmented body. An acoelomate body plan is one where the
body cavity is not lined with mesoderm, which is not the case for annelids as they are
coelomates.

162) NCERT - [Link] 45

163) Statement I: Incorrect. The circulatory system in Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus is of

open type, not closed type as mentioned in the statement.
Statement II: Correct. Respiration in these organisms does indeed take place through gills as
stated.

164) NCERT Pg. # 43

165) NCERT Pg. # 43

166) NCERT Pg. # 52

167)

NCERT XI, Page No. # 43

168)
As it is longer and straight. The caudal end of male is curved.

169)

Loligo is squid
Octopus is devil fish

170)

Cucumaria is echinodermata : has water vascular system

171)

King crab - (limulus) Living fossil

172) NCERT Pg. # 53

173)

The correct answer is 1. Aschelminthes.

• Aschelminthes (also known as Nemathelminthes or roundworms) are characterized by
having a pseudocoelom. A pseudocoelom is a body cavity that is not fully lined with mesoderm,
unlike a true coelom.

174)

NCERT-XI, Page # 43, 44

175) Protonephridia are excretory cells in flatworms. Molluscs use metanephridia or organ of
Bojanus for excretion

176)

A - Proboscis has proboscis gland for excretion

177)

NCERT-XI, Page # 45

178)

NCERT-XI, Page # 43, 44

179) NCERT Pg. # 54

180)

NCERT-XI, Page # 43