12-11-2025

7101CMD303021250023 MD

PHYSICS

1) For shown circuit :-

(1) Current in circuit is 10A

(2) Voltage across inductor is 100V
(3) Voltage across capacitor is 200V
Voltage on capacitor is more than that of supply voltage because the phase difference between
(4)
VL and VC is 180°

2) In the series LCR circuit as shown in figure, the heat developed in 80 seconds and amplitude of

wattless current is :

(1) 4000 J, 3A
(2) 8000 J, 3A
(3) 4000 J, 4A
(4) 8000 J, 5A

3) A wire of resistance R is stretched until its length is increased by 40% then find the percentage
change in its resistance :-

(1) 40%
(2) 96%
(3) 80%
(4) Not

4) In the given arrangement, the reading of ammeter is same in each case when either k1 or k2 is
closed. The reading of the ammeter is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Data given is not sufficient

(4) None of above

5) Two metals plates are placed in parallel, capacitance of capacitor is C then what will be potential

energy stored in the region between two plates :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

6) Determine the current through the battery in the circuit shown, Immediately after the key K is

closed.

(1) 1.5 A
(2) 2A
(3) 1.7A
(4) 2.5A

7) A parallel plate capacitor has two layers of dielectric as shown in figure. This capacitor is
connected across a battery. The graph which shows the variation of electric field (E) and distance (x)
from left plate :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A ring of radius R has charge –Q distributed uniformly over it. Calculate the charge that should be
placed at the center of the ring such that the electric field becomes zero at a point on the axis of the
ring distant 'R' from the center of the ring.

(1) + Q

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Refer to the arrangement of charges in Fig. and a Gaussian surface of radius R with Q at the
centre. Then

(1)
total flux through the surface of the sphere is
field on the surface of the sphere is
(2)

(3) flux through the surface of sphere due to Q is zero.

(4) field on the surface of sphere due to –2Q is same everywhere.

10) As per this diagram a point charge +q is placed at the origin O. Work done in taking another
point charge –Q from the point A (0, a) to another point B (a, 0) along the straight path AB is:

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) In the following figure. Equipotential lines are shown :

EA =
(1)

(2) EB = 1 V/cm
(3) EC = 2 V/cm
(4) All of the above

12) A current is flowing in a hexagonal coil of side a (Fig.). The magnetic induction at the centre of
the coil will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Two straight long conductors AOB and COD are perpendicular to each other and carry currents
i1 and i2. The magnitude of the magnetic induction at a point P at a distance a from the point O in a
direction perpendicular to the plane ACBD is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Equal current i flows in two segments of a circular loop in the directions shown in fig. Radius of

the loop is a. Magnetic field at the centre of the loop is :-

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Statement-1 : for a closed Amperian loop of any shape is zero.

Statement-2 : , where i is the current crossing the Amperian loop, according to

ampere's circuital law.
(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true
(2) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is false
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

16) A small rod of bismuth is suspended freely between the poles of a strong electromagnet. It is
found to arrange itself at right angles to the magnetic field. This observation establishes that
bismuth is

(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Paramagnetic
(3) Ferri-magnetic
(4) Antiferro-magnetic

17) The correct I–H curve for paramagnetic materials is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

18) Figure shows two equipotential lines in xy-plane for an electric field. The x-component Ex and y-
component Ey of the field in the electric space between these equipotential lines are, respectively -

(1) + 100 V/m, –200 V/m

(2) –100 V/m, + 200 V/m
(3) + 200 V/m, 100 V/m
(4) –200 V/m, –100 V/m

19) A uniform but time-varying magnetic field B(t) exists within a circular region of radius 'a' and is
directed into the plane of the paper as shown in figure. The magnitude of the induced electric field

at the point P at a distance 'r' from the centre of the circular region :-

(1) Is zero

(2)
Decreases as
(3) Increases as r

(4)
Decreases as

20) Two solenoids have identical geometrical construction and same number of turns but one is
made of thick wire and other of thin wire. Which of the following quantities are different for
two solenoids - (a) Self inductance.
(b) Rate of joule heating if the same current goes through them.
(c) Magnetic potential energy if the same current goes through them . (d) Time constant.

(1) b, d
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) All above

21) A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal
magnetic induction B. At the position MNQ, the speed of the ring is V and the potential difference

developed across the ring is

(1) Zero
(2) BvπR2/2 and M is at higher potential
(3) πRBV and Q is at higher potential
(4) 2RBV and Q is at higher potential

22) For the given incident ray as shown in figure, the condition of total internal reflection of this ray

the minimum refractive index of plate will be :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A telescope has an objective lens of focal length 200 cm and an eye piece with focal length 2 cm.
If this telescope is used to see a 50 meter tall building at a distance of 2 km, what is the height of the
image of the building formed by the objective lens ?

(1) 5 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 1 cm
(4) 2 cm

24) The focal lengths of the lenses of an astronomical telescope are 50 cm and 5 cm. The length of
the telescope when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision is :-
(1) 45 cm
(2) 55 cm

(3)

(4)

25) What should be the value of distance d so that final image is formed on the object itself. (focal

lengths of the lenses are written on the lenses).

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) None of these

26) White light is used to illuminate the two slits in Young's slit experiment. The separation between
the slits is d and the distance between the screen and the slit is D (>> d). At a point on the screen
directly in front of one of the slits, certain wavelengths are missing. The missing wavelengths are
(here m = 0, 1, 2, .... is an integer) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Plane wavefronts are incident on a spherical mirror as shown. The reflected wavefronts will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Two polaroids are placed in the path of unpolarised beam of intensity I0 such that no light is
emitted from the second polarioid. If a third polaroid whose polarization axis makes an angle θ with
the polarization axis of first polaroid, is placed between these polaroids then the intensity of light
emerging from the last polaroid will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
4
(4) I0cos q

29) For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in the +Z direction, which one of the following
combination gives the correct possible direction for and field respectively ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A plane electromagnetic wave, Ez = 100 cos (6 × 108t + 3x) V/m propagates in a medium of
dielectric constant: (µr = 1)

(1) 1.5
(2) 2.0
(3) 2.25
(4) 4.0

31) A parallel plate capacitor with circular plates of radius R is being charged as shown. At the
instant shown, the displacement current in the region between the plates enclosed between

radius R/2 and R is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 3i

(4)

32) Three photodiodes : D1, D2 and D3 are made of semiconductors having band gaps of 2.5 eV, 1.8eV
and 3 eV respectively. Which one will be able to detect light of wavelength 6000 Å?

(1) D1
(2) D2
(3) D1 & D2
(4) D1, D2, D3

33) A red LED emits light at 0.4 watt uniformly around it. The amplitude of electric field of light at a
distance of 1 m from the diode is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) If Y =1 then. find the value of A & B.

(1) A = 0, B = 1
(2) A = 1, B = 1
(3) A = 1, B = 0
(4) A = 0, B = 0

35) If NA is number density of acceptor atoms added and ND is number density of donor atoms added
in a single semiconductor, ne and nh are the number density of electrons and holes in it, then
(1) ne = ND, nh = NA
(2) ne = NA, nh = ND
(3) ne + ND = nh + NA
(4) ne + NA = nh + ND

36) The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is the same as that of a photon. If velocity of electron is
25% of the velocity of light, then the ratio of K.E. of electron and K.E. of photon will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37)

From the statements given below :

(A) The angular momentum of an electron in nth orbit is an integral multiple of h.
(B) Nuclear forces do not obey inverse square law.
(C) Nuclear forces are spin dependent.
(D) Nuclear forces are central and charge independent.
(E) Stability of nucleus is inversely proportional to the value of packing fraction.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) only

(2) (A), (C), (D), (E) only
(3) (A), (B), (C), (E) only
(4) (B), (C), (D), (E) only

38) An electron (mass m) with initial velocity is an electric field . If λ0 is initial

de-Broglie wavelength of electron, its de-Broglie wave length at time t is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
39) The dual nature of light is exhibited by

(1) Refraction and interference

(2) Photoelectric effect
(3) Diffraction and reflection
(4) Diffraction and photoelectric effect

40) The figure shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for
three different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) Curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of same frequency having same intensity
(2) Curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities
(3) Curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities
(4) Curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities

41) A dipole having dipole moment p is placed in front of a solid uncharged conducting sphere as
shown in the diagram. The net potential at point A lying on the surface of the sphere is :

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

42) The adjacent diagram shows a charge +Q held on an insulating support S and enclosed by a
hollow spherical conductor. O represents the centre of the spherical conductor and P is a point such

that OP = x and SP = r. The electric field at point P will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 0
(4) None of the above

43) Three ammeters A, B and C of resistances RA, RB and RC respectively are joined as shown. When
some potential difference is applied across the terminals T1 and T2, their readings are IA, IB and IC
respectively. Then which is wrong :-

(1) IA = IB
(2) IARA + IBRB = ICRC

(3)

(4)

44) The curve of angle of incidence versus angle of deviation shown has been plotted for prism. The

i1 is :

(1) 90°
(2) 70°
(3) 68°
(4) 88°

45)

The direct current which would give the same heating effect in an equal constant resistance as the
current shown in figure, i.e. the r.m.s. current, is :-
(1) zero
(2)
(3) 2 A
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following pair contains only ambidenate ligand ?

–
(1) CN , NH3
– –
(2) NO2 , SCN
(3) H2O, en
(4) en, dien

2)
Y1 to Y2 and Y1 to Y3 obtained by respectively :

(1) PCC (CH2Cl2), KMnO4

(2) PCC (CH2Cl2), MnO2
(3) Cu/300°C in both cases
(4) PCC in both cases

3) Which of following is not correct :-

(1) CN of Cr in complex [Cr(CO)(η –C3H5) (η –C5H5)] is = 6

3 5 +1

(2) d5 high spin and low spin complexes related with John-Teller distortion
(3) Charge transfer is responsible for colour of KMnO4 and CrO2Cl2
(4) IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is Xenon hexafluoro platinate (V)

4) Which of the following has least conductivity in aqueous solution :-

(a) [Co(NH3)5Cl].Cl2 (b) [Co(NH3)4Cl2].Cl
(c) CoCl3.4NH3 (d) CoCl3.5NH3
(1) (a) & (c) both
(2) (a) & (b) both
(3) (b) & (c) both
(4) (b) & (d) both

5) In nitroprusside ion and NO exist as FeII and NO+ rather than FeIII and NO. These forms can be
differentiated by

(1) Estimating the concentration of iron

(2) Measuring the concentration of CN–
(3) Measuring the solid state magnetic moment
(4) Thermally decomposing the compound

6) The electronic configuration of four elements are given below. Which element does not belong to
the same family as others ?

(1) [Xe]4f145d106s2
(2) [Kr]4d105s2
(3) [Ne]3s23p5
(4) [Ar]3d104s2

7) In which of the following reaction hydridisation of central atom is not change

(1) PCl5 + 5H2O

SF4 + 4H2O
(2)

(3) XeF6 + 6H2O

(4) SiCl4 + 4H2O

8) The acid having O–O bond is :-

(1) H2S2O3
(2) H2S2O6
(3) H2S2O8
(4) H2S4O6

9)

The geometry with respect to central atom of the following molecules are :-

N(SiH3)3, Me3N, (SiH3)3P

(1) Planar, pyramidal, planar
(2) Planar, pyramidal, pyramidal
(3) Pyramidal, pyramidal, pyramidal
(4) Pyramidal, planar, pyramidal
10) N2 can not obtained by:-

(1) Heating of ammonium nitrite

(2) Heating of ammonium dichromate
(3) Heating of ammonium nitrate
(4) Heating of barium azide

11) The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions SO3–2, S2O4–2, S2O6–2 follow the order

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Biuret test is not given by :-

(1) Proteins
(2) Carbohydrates
(3) Polypeptides
(4) Urea

13)

Standard emf of cell is 0.46 V then keq will be :- (T = 298 K)

Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq.) —→ Cu+2(aq.) + Ag(s)

(1) 2.0 × 1010

(2) 4.0 × 1010
(3) 4.0 × 1015
(4) 2.4 × 1010

14) 2.5 F of electricity are passed through a CuSO4 solution. The number of g-equivalent of Cu
deposited on cathode is :-

(1) zero
(2) 1.25
(3) 2.5
(4) 5.0

15) For some reactions, the standard reduction potentials are given below:-
Zn2+ + 2e → Zn, Eº = –0.762 V
Fe2+ + 2e → Fe, Eº = –0.440 V
Cu2+ + 2e → Cu, Eº = +0.345 V
Ag+ + e → Ag, Eº = +0.800 V
Which one of the following is most easily oxidised ?

(1) Zn
(2) Cu
(3) Fe
(4) Ag

16) For the reaction 2A +B → C, the values of initial rate at different reactant concentrations are
given in the table below. The rate law for the reaction is :

(1) Rate = k [A][B]

(2) Rate = k [A]2[B]2
(3) Rate = k [A][B]2
(4) Rate = k [A]2[B]

17) Which of the following is a reducing sugar:-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a, b, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) b, c
(4) all
18) The rate reaction is expressed in different ways as follows

The reaction is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) Select the incorrect statement among the folloiwng

(1) Acidic hydrolysis of an ester is pseudo first order reaction

(2)
A plot of log k against has slope equal to
(3) Catalyst alters the rate of reaction without itself undergoing any permanent chemical change
Fraction of molecules capable of bringing effective collisions increases on increasing
(4)
temperature

20) In a zero order reaction for every rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature
is increased from to the rate of the reaction will become

(1) 64 times
(2) 128 times
(3) 256 times
(4) 512 times

21)

Which * marked group shows both –I as well as + R / + M effects.

(1) (a)
(2) (b)
(3) (c)
(4) (d)

22) Which of the following molecule is syn Benzaldoxime ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Which one among the following is not diastereomeric pair ?

(1) I and III

(2) I and II
(3) II and III
(4) I and IV
24) Compounds and are linked as :

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Homomers
(4) No isomers

25) The configuration of molecules is respectively :-

(1) S, S
(2) R, R
(3) R, S
(4) S, R

26) has the configuration : –

(1) 2R, 3Z
(2) 2S, 3Z
(3) 2R, 3E
(4) 2S, 3E

27) Which of the following compounds have plane of symmetry (POS)

(1) a, b, c & e
(2) b, c & d
(3) a, b, c & f
(4) b, c, d & f

28)
major product of the reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A B C Which is correct for above reaction :-

(1)

A=
(2)

B=

(3)
C=

(4)
C=

30) Most reactive compound towards SN1 reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Consider the reaction :

(i) (CH3)2CH–CH2Br
 (CH3)2CH–CH2OC2H5 + HBr
(ii) (CH3)2CH–CH2–Br
(CH3)2CH–CH2OC2H5 + Br–
The mechanisms of reaction (i) and (ii) are respectively :-

(1) and

(2) and

(3) and

(4) and

32) Major product of the reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33)
A and B are :-

(1)
and

(2)
and

(3)

and

(4)

and

34)
Compound A can be :-

(1) O2
(2) HCHO
(3) CH3CHO
(4) Oxirane

35)
Structure of (A) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

36) The compound A, B and C in the reaction sequence

CH3–CH2OH A B C
are given by the set :-

(1) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, CH3CHBr2

(2) C2H5Br, CH≡CH, CH2=CHBr
(3) C2H5Br, CH2=CH2, Br–CH2–CH2–Br
(4) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, Br–CH2–CH2–Br

37) In the following reaction

The product ‘C’ will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which is the major product of the following reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

39)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

40) :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None

41) When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH solution, the product(s) obtained is (are)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42)
Product B is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Match List-I and List-II

(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)

(2) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)

44)
The compound [P] is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) :-
Product 'P' will be

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) In the given diagram, labelled parts A, B and C are :

A B C

1 Plumule Cotyledons Hypocotyl

2 Radicle Root cap Hypocotyl

3 Plumule Hypocotyl Radicle

4 Plumule Radicle Root cap

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Drosophila was used by Morgan for his experiments as NCERT Page. No.80

(1) If completes its life cycle, in two months

(2) Large size male can be easily grown on sucrose medium
(3) Hereditary variations can be easily seen with low power microscope
(4) More than one option correct

3)

Identify the correct labelling A, B and C in the given below figure

 A B C

(1) Coleoptile Scutellum Epiblast

(2) Scutellum Coleoptile Epiblast

(3) Epiblast Coleoptile Scutellum

(4) Scutellum Coleoptile Radicle

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Cleistogamous flowers are present in:

(1) Commelina
(2) Mustard
(3) Mirabilis
(4) Catharanthus

5) In a stamen proximal end of filament is attached to

(1) Anther
(2) Thalamus or petals
(3) Sepals
(4) Gynoecium

6) What would be the number of chromosome in aleurone layer if root tip cells having 42
chromosomes ?

(1) 21
(2) 42
(3) 63
(4) 84

7) Statement-I: polyembryony observed in citrus and mango.

Statement-II: Produced fruit without fertilisation called apomixis.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

8) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
Statement-II : Embryo develops at the chalazal end of the embryo sac.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

9) One of the male gamete moves towards the egg cell & fuses with it, the process is known as -

(1) Syngamy
(2) Triple fusion
(3) Double fertilization
(4) Autogamy

10) Monoecious plants with unisexual flowers will prevent :

(1) Autogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) Pollination is not possible

11) Point mutation is

(1) Loss of gene

(2) Change in a base of gene
(3) Addition of a gene
(4) Deletion of a segment of gene

12) From the statements given below choose the correct option :
A, In the case of co-dominance the F1 generation resembles both parents
B. In the case of incomplete dominance the F1 generation resembles both parents
C In the case of dominance the F1 generation resembled either of the two parents
D In the case of incomplete dominance the F1 generation did not resemble either of the two parents
and was in between the two.

(1) All are true

(2) A, C, D are false
(3) Only B is false
(4) Only D is true

13) The strand of DNA, which does not code for anything is referred to as :

(1) Template strand

(2) Antisense strand
(3) Coding strand
(4) Noncoding strand
14) T.H. Morgan crossed yellow bodied-white eyed female Drosophila with brown bodied-red eyed
male and then intercrossed their F1 progeny. Through this experiment he observed that

(1) The gene for eye colour is located on the Y-chromosome

(2) Genes for eye colour and body colour do not segregate independently of each other
The proportion of non-parental type combinations in F2 generation are much higher than
(3)
parental type
(4) Only parental type combination observed

15)

Select the incorrect match.

(1)
– Sex unspecified

(2)
– Affected female

(3)
– Mating

(4)
– Mating between relatives (consanguineous mating)

16) Dihybrid test cross ratio is

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 3: 1
(4) 1 : 1

17) Assertion : A gene controlling shape of seed in garden pea is pleiotropic gene
Reason : It also control size of starch grains

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements

18) Read the following statements (assertion-A and reason-R) and select the correct option.
A: Independent assortment occurs when the genes under study are located on different non-
homologous chromosomes.
R: Unlinked genes show independent assortment.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false statements

19) Match Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Phenylketonuria (i) Complete dominance

(b) Trait of sickle cell anaemia (ii) Pleiotropic gene

(c) Flower colour of snapdragon plant (iii) Incomplete dominance

(d) Pod colour of pea plant (iv) Co dominance

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i)
(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)

20) AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence form the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
sequence of the transcribed mRNA?

(1) AGGUAUCGCAU
(2) ACCUAUGCGAU
(3) UGGTUTCGCAT
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA

21) A bacterium with completely radioactive DNA was allowed to replicate in a non- radioactive
medium for two generations what % of the bacteria should contain radioactive DNA :-

(1) 100 %
(2) 50 %
(3) 25 %
(4) 12.5 %

22) If base order in one chain of DNA is "ATCGA" then how many no. of H–bond found in DNA duplex
:–

(1) 20
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) 11

23) If pure green pod colour pea plant is crossed with pure yellow colour pea plant. In F2 generation
the progeny will show :-
(1) All green pod colour
(2) 75% green and 25% yellow pod colour
(3) 50% green and 50% yellow pod colour
(4) 25% green and 75% yellow pod colour

24) Which is not part of transcription unit in DNA

(1) A promoter
(2) The structural gene
(3) A codon
(4) Terminator

25) The distance between two adjacent base pairs in a DNA helix is approximately

(1) 3.4 nm
0
(2) 34 A
(3) 0.34 nm
(4) Both (1) and (2)

26) Match the given columns I and II and select the correct option.

Column I Column II

i. Removal of
A. Helicase
RNA primer

ii. Unwinding
B. DNA Polymerase I
of DNA helix

iii. Main enzyme

C. DNA Polymerase II
for replication

D. DNA Polymerase III iv. Form short chain

(1) A-ii, B-I, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

27) Assertion: DNA chemically is less reactive and structurally more stable when compared to RNA.
Reason: Presence of thymine at the place of uracil and absence of 2'-OH group in pentose sugar
confers stability to DNA.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct and R is incorrect
(4) A and R both are incorrect

28) Statement-1: The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the negatively charged histone
octamer to form a structure called nucleosome.
Statement-2: ‘Nucleosomes’ constitute the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus called
chromatin.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answers from the options given below:

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

29) The use of radioactive thymidine to detect distribution of newly synthesised DNA in the
chromosomes was performed on __________ by ___________.

(1) E. coli; Meselson

(2) Vicia faba; Taylor
(3) Vicia faba; Franklin Stahl
(4) E. coli; Taylor

30) Use the figure to answer the following questions. In the

late 1950s, Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in a medium containing "heavy" (radioactive) nitrogen
(13N) and then transferred them to a medium containing 14N (non-radioactive). Which of the results in
the figure would be expected after one round of DNA replication in the presence of 14N ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

31) The ecological pyramid of biomass in pond ecosystem is -

(1) Upright
(2) Inverted
(3) May upright or Inverted
(4) First upright then inversed

32) Which one is true among the following for DNA replication :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Assertion (A): Lactose can induce the lac operon in [Link].
Reason (R): Lactose acts as an inducer by inactivating the repressor protein.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

34) Assertion : Human Genome Project (HGP) was called a mega project.
Reason : Human genome have approximately 3 x 109 bp and total estimated cost of the project
would be approximately 9 billion US dollars.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

35) Match Column-l and Column-ll and choose the correct option.

Column-l Column-II

(a) Coding strand (i) Rho factor

(b) Template strand (ii) Sigma factor

(c) Termination of
(iii) 5' → 3 polarity
transcription

(d) Initiation of
(iv) 3' →5 polarity
transcription
Choose the correct match.
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

36) Read the following 4 statement (a-d) How many of the above statement are right :-
(a) Nucleosome contain 200 base pair of DNA
(b) Nucleosome = Binding DNA + Histone Octamer + Linker DNA + NHC
(c) Histone have lots of acidic amino acid.
(d) Histone octamer contain (H2A H2B H3H4)2
How many above statement are right ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

37) What is the role of untranslated regions (UTRs) in mRNA?

(1) They are translated into polypeptides

(2) They code for start and stop codons
(3) They facilitate efficient translation but are not translated into polypeptides
(4) They degrade mRNA after translation

38) Which of the following statements best explains Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment?

(1) The alleles of a single gene segregate equally during gamete formation
The segregation of one pair of alleles is independent of the segregation of another pair of alleles
(2)
during gamete formation
(3) Dominant traits are always inherited together with recessive traits in hybrids
(4) The phenotype ratio of a dihybrid cross is always 3:1

39) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers of
consumers.
Statement II : Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement II is correct

40) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.
Statement II: Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle
in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options. given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

41) Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an ecosystem ?

(1) gm–2
(2) KCal m–2
(3) KCal m–3
(4) (KCal m–2)yr–1

42) Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

(1) National park

(2) Wildlife Sanctuary
(3) Zoos and botanical gardens
(4) Protected areas

43) The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of

(1) inorganic nutrients from Humus

(2) both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
(3) organic nutrients from humus
(4) inorganic nutrients from detrius and formation of humus

44) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II
A. The Evil Quartet I. Cryopreservation
B. Ex situ conservation II. Alien species invasion
C. Lantana camara III. Causes of biodiversity losses
D. Dodo IV. Extinction

Choose the option with all correct matches :

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

45) On a logarithmic scale, the species-area relationship is a straight line described by the equation

(1)

(2)

(3) log S = log C + Z log A

(4) log S = log C = Z log A
46) In following experiment of Stanley Miller A,B,C are simulation of

(A) (B) (C)

Primitive Hot dilute

(1) Raining
atmosphere soup

Hot dilute Primitive

(2) Raining
soup atmosphere

Primitive Hot dilute

(3) Raining
atmosphere soup

Hot dilute Primitive

(4) Raining
soup atmosphere

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

47) Malaria especially

(A) Caused by [Link] if not treated may prove fatal
(R) The load of parasites in the erythrocytic cycle increases massively as there are no hypnozoites

(1) 'A' correct, 'R' correct and 'R' in the correct explanation of 'A'
(2) 'A' correct, 'R' correct but 'R' , is not the correct explanation of 'A'.
(3) 'A' correct, but 'R' is wrong
(4) 'A' is wrong

48) Assertion : Forms of life have arisen and fallen-at different times in the history of earth.
Reason : The fossil study showed that life forms varied over time and certain life forms are
restricted to certain geological time-span.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

49) Assertion: When reptiles came down, mammals took over this earth.
Reason: Mammals were more intelligent in sensing and avoiding danger at least and could protect
their young ones within their bodies.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

50) (A) Thymus is called the primary lymphoid organ

(R) Lymphocytes become antigen sensitive, that is, they differentiate here.

(1) 'A' is correct, 'R' is correct & 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'
(2) 'A' is correct, 'R' is correct but 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A'
(3) 'A' is correct, but 'R' is wrong.
(4) 'A' is wrong.

51)

Read the following examples :-

(a) wings of butterfly and birds
(b) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(c) Potato and sweet potato
(d) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
(e) Fore limbs of whale, bats, cheetah and human
(f) Vertebrate heart

How many of the above examples are of homologous structures in animals ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

52) Statement-I : Branching descent and natural selection are two key concept of Darwinian
Theory of Evolution.
Statement-II : Natural selection is based on certain observation which are factual.

(1) Statement-I correct & Statement-II incorrect.

(2) Statement-I incorrect & Statement-II correct.
(3) Statement-I correct & Statement-II correct.
(4) Statement-I incorrect & Statement-II incorrect.

53) Statement-I : Darwin finches represents one of the best example of convergent evolution.
Statement-II : Another example of convergent evolution is Australian marsupials.
(1) Statement I and II both are correct
(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

54) Statement-I :- The essence of Darwinian theory about evolution is natural selection.
Statement-II :- According to Darwin fitness is reproductive fitness.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

55) Statement-1 : Dryopithecus was more man like.

Statement-2 : Ramapithecus was more ape like.

(1) Both statement are correct

(2) Statement-1 is correct, Statement-2 is incorrect
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect, Statement-2 is correct
(4) Both Statement are incorrect

56) Statement-I :- Pre-historic cave art developed about 18000 years ago by Homo sapiens sapiens.
Statement-II :- Homo sapiens sapiens has cranial capacity of about 1450 cc.

(1) Statement-I & statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct only.
(3) Statement-II is correct only.
(4) Statement-I & statement-II are incorrect.

57) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram.

The given digaram shows LS of testis showing various parts. Identify the parts labelled (A-G) from

the list given below.

(1) A–Urinary bladder, B–Bulbourethral gland, C–Prostate gland, D–Seminal vesicles

(2) A–Urinary bladder, B–Urethra, C–Vas deferens, D–Bulbourethral gland
(3) A–Prostate gland, B–Seminal vesicles, C–Urinary bladder, D–Bulbourethral gland
(4) A–Bulbourethral gland, B–Urinary bladder, C–Seminal vesicles, D–Prostate gland.

58) The correct sequence of coverings around the testes of human from outside to inside is:
A – Tunica vaginalis
B – Tunica albuginea
C – Tunica vasculosa

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, A, C
(3) C, B, A
(4) C, A, B

59) Which of the following correctly represents path of milk?

(1) Mammary alveolus → Mammary duct → Ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Nipple

(2) Mammary alveolus → Mammary duct → Lactiferous duct → Ampulla → Nipple
(3) Mammary alveolus → Lactiferous duct → Mammary duct → Ampulla → Nipple
(4) Mammary alveolus → Mammary lobe → Ampulla → Mammary duct → Lactiferous duct → Nipple

60) The figure shows development of follicles (A,B,C,D), select

the option giving correct. Identification together with its function ?

(1) A-Secondary follicle-Secrete Progesterone

(2) C-Corpus luteum-Secrete Progesterone
(3) D-Corpus luteum-Secrete Estrogen
(4) B- Tertiary follicle-Secrete Relaxin

61)

Calculate the day of ovulation in a human female if she is having menstrual cycle of duration "32"
days-

(1) 12th
(2) 14th
(3) 16th
(4) 18th

62)

How many sperm and ova will be formed from 50 secondary oocytes and 50 secondary
spermatocytes in human :-

(1) 50 ova & 200 sperm

(2) 50 ova & 100 sperm
(3) 100 ova & 200 sperm
(4) 100 ova & 400 sperm

63) A female of age of 24 years attained puberty at the age of 14 years. She has two children born by
normal delivery. How many total polar bodies are formed in her body till date ? (Duration of each
menstrual cycle is 30 days)

(1) 92
(2) 90
(3) 94
(4) 88

64) A female of 45 years have 3 identical children, puberty attains at the age of 12 years old and
duration of m.c. is 30 days. Find the number of total m.c.

(1) 391
(2) 351
(3) 381
(4) 371

65) How many Meiosis Division Required for Formation of 132 Zygotes.

(1) 150
(2) 165
(3) 132
(4) 100

66) Read the following statements and find out option having correct statements :-
(a) Outer layer of blastocyst called trophoblast
(b) The blastocyst become embedded in the myometrium of the uterus
(c) An inner group of cells attached to the trophoblast called the "inner cell mass"

(1) a,b
(2) b,c
(3) a,c
(4) a,b,c

67) Match list-I with list-II carefully :-

List-I List-II

(a) LNG-20 (i) Copper releasing IUD

(b) Tubectomy (ii) Hormone releasing IUD

 (c) Periodic abstinence (iii) Female sterilisation

(d) CuT (iv) Natural method

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :-

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)

68) Pick up the correct match

Embryo transfer done inside uterus after in vitro

(A) I.U.T. (1)
fertilisation

Taking semen from donor and transferred into female

(B) GIFT (2)
genital tract

(C) AI (3) One sperm transferred into ovum

(D) ZIFT (4) Collect gamete and putting in female fallopian tube

(E) I.C.S.I. (5) Zygote put into fallopian tube

(1) A→1, B→2, C→5, D→3, E→4
(2) A→1, B→3, C→5, D→4, E→2
(3) A→1, B→4, C→3, D→5, E→2
(4) A→1, B→4, C→2, D→5, E→3

69) Primary response which is of ____(A)____ intensity. Subsequent encounter with the same
pathogen elicit a ___(B)___intensified ___(C)___ response.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) High Low Anamnestic
(2) Low High Primary
(3) Low High Secondary
(4) High Low Primary
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

70) The lymph nodes

I. are small solid structures along the lymphatic system.
II. filter lymph fluid as it flows through them, trapping bacteria, viruses and other antigens, which
are then destroyed by lymphocytes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) I and II
(4) None of these

71) Match these columns and choose the correct option from given below :-

Active Injection of gamma

A (i)
immunity globulins

First line of
B (ii) Interferons
defence

Passive
C (iii) Antibiotic
immunity

D Second line of defence (iv) Surface barriers

(v) Vaccine
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-v, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-v
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-v, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

72) Both __A__ and ___B__ provide micro environments for development and maturation of __C__.
Choose A, B and C from given options.

A B C

(1) Bone marrow Thymus T-Lymphocytes

(2) Spleen Thymus T-Lymphocytes

(3) Bone marrow Thymus B-Lymphocytes

(4) Lymphnodes Bone marrow T-Lymphocytes

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Common cold (i) Diarrhoea

(B) Typhoid (ii) Haemophilus influenzae

(C) Pneumonia (iii) Stool, mucous, blood

(D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus

(E) Cholera (v) Salmonella typhi

(F) Amoebiasis (vi) Haemozoin granules

(1) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-vi, E-iii, F-i
(2) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-i, E-vi, F-iii
(3) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-vi, E-i, F-iii
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iv, E-iii, F-v

74) Assertion :- HIV and Hepatitis-B are infectious diseases.

Reason :- Both are transmitted through syringes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

75)

Match the following STD with its charactertics?

A B

i AIDS a Inflammation of vagina

ii Syphilis b Nisseria gonorrhoea

iii Gonorrhoea c Slim disease

iv Trichomoniasis d Treponema pallidum

(1) i=a ii=b iii=c iv=d
(2) i=a ii=b iii=d iv=c
(3) i=c ii=d iii=b iv=a
(4) i=c ii=b iii=a iv=d

76) Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t cancer.

(1) Cancer cells show high invasiveness into surrounding tissues.

(2) Cancer is a non-communicable disease.
(3) Proto-oncogenes are active cancer causing genes of the cells regulating rapid mitosis.
(4) Cancer cells appear to have lost the property of contact inhibition.

77) Select the incorrect statement-

(1) Benign tumours do not spread to other parts of body

(2) Malignant tumour grows very rapidly
(3) Benign tumour shows metastasis.
(4) Malignant tumour invades the surrounding normal tissues.

78) Mark the incorrect statements.

(a) Opioid receptors are present in CNS and GIT.
(b) Heroin is white, odourless but not bitter crystaline compound
(c) Cannabinoids are obtained from inflorescences of opium plant.
(d) Cocaine interferes with the transport of neuro transmitter acetylcholine
(e) LSD is obtained from fungus (Claviceps purpurea)

(1) a, d only
(2) b, c, d only
(3) a, d, e only
(4) a, b, c, d, e

79) Which measure would be particularly useful for prevention and control of alcohol and drug
abuse among adolescents
(a) Avoid undue peer pressure
(b) Seeking professional and medical help
(c) Looking for danger sing
(d) Education and counselling
(e) Seeking help from parents and peers

(1) a,d,c,e
(2) a, c, d, e
(3) c, e
(4) a, b, c, d, e

80) Assertion : The specific mRNA is silenced in the nematode and plant is protected from the
parasite.
Reason : In two RNAi being complementary to each other formed a double stranded that initiated
RNAi

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.

81) Assertion (A): Bioreactors are commonly used during the biosynthesis of recombinant proteins.
Reason (R): Small volume cultures cannot yield appreciable quantities of products.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (A) is true, (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false, (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A).

82) After the formation of products in the bioreactors, it undergoes through a series of processes
before it is ready for marketing as a finished product, is called ?

(1) Upstream processing

(2) Downstream processing
(3) Elution
(4) Transformation
83) The number of segments of amplified DNA obtained after 8 cycles of PCR is

(1) 128
(2) 64
(3) 512
(4) 256

84) Select the incorrect statement

(1) C-peptide is removed during maturation of proinsulin into insulin

(2) The functional insulin has A and B chains linked by only one disulphide bond
(3) Humulin is produced in [Link]
(4) Recombinant therapeutics do not induce unwanted immunological responses

85) Which enzyme was targetted during the first clinical gene therapy given in 1990 to a four year-
old girl?

(1) Monoamine oxidase

(2) Tyrosine oxidase
(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(4) Adenosine deaminase

86) The protein products of the following Bt toxin genes Cry I Ac and Cry II Ab are responsible for
controlling

(1) Bollworm
(2) Roundworm
(3) Moth
(4) Fruit fly

87) How many of the following statements are correct?

(a) RNAi acts in all Eukaryotes as a method of cellular defence
(b) Transformation, Transfection, Microinjections, Electroporations are methods of introducing a
chimeric DNA into a Bacterial cell.
(c) Quality control and testing vary from product to product
(d) Mature Insulin is made up of 3 polypeptide chains 'A', 'B', & 'C'

(1) 3 options
(2) 4 options
(3) 2 options
(4) 1 option

88) Match the following column :

(1) Citric acid (a) Biofertilizer

(2) Clot buster (b) Aspergillus niger

 (3) Azotobacter (c) Streptokinase

(4) Cyanobacteria (d) Free living bacteria

(1) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – a
(2) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – a
(3) 1 – d, 2 – a, 3 – c, 4 – b
(4) 1 – d, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – c

89) The source of Statins is :-

(1) Protozoa
(2) Yeast
(3) Bacteria
(4) Virus

90) The diagram given below represents a typical biogas plant. Select the correct option for A, B and
C, respectively.

(1) A-Sludge, B-Dung + Water, C-Gas holder

(2) A-Dung + Water, B-Sludge, C-CH4 + CO2
(3) A-Sludge, B-Gas holder, C-Dung + Water
(4) A-CH4 + CO2, B-Dung + Water, C-Sludge
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 2 1 2 4 1 3 1 1 4 4 3 2 4 1 3 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 4 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 2 1 3 4 2 3 3 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 3 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 3 4 2 3 3 1 3 4 2 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 1 4 2 1 1 2 4 4 4 4 1 4 4 3 2 4 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 1 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 3 3 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 1 2 3 3 1 1 1 1 3 3 2 4 4 3 2 1 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 1 3 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 3 2 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 4 2 4 1 1 2 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Current in circuit :

I=
VL = I XL = 5 × 25 = 125V &
VC = I XC = 5 × 75 = 375V
voltage on capacitor is more than that of supply voltage because the phase difference between
VL and VC is 180°
(i.e. out of phase)

2)

<P> =

= 50 Watt
Heat developed = <P> × t = 50 × 80 = 400 J

Wattles current =

3) R ∝ ℓ2 [vol = constant]
ℓi = ℓ ⇒ Ri = R

ℓf = ℓ + ⇒ ⇒ Rf ⇒ R

% change ⇒ × 100

% change ⇒ × 100
= 96%

4) E1 = E2 – iR

5)
Energy store between two plates. =
where q = charge on capacitor.
∴ q = 3Q

So, energy store =

6) Just after key K closed capacitor behave as short circuit so circuit become

Req = 4W

I= A,
I = 2.5 A

7)

Electric field between plates of capacitor is given by,

(K → Dielectric constant)

8)

9)

total flux through the surface of the sphere is

10) Since A and B are at equal potential so potential difference between A and B is zero.
Hence W=Q.ΔV=0

11) ΔV = EAd
(50 – 40) = EA × 20 cm

EA =
(30 – 20) = EB × 10 cm

EB = 1
(10 – 0) = EC × 5 cm

EC = 2
 12)

13)

14) Magnetic field at O due to arcs ACB and ADC are respectively

and
The net magnetic field is

15)

Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

16)

Question Explanation :
Bismuth is suspended freely in magnetic field if it arrange it self at right angle than bismuth is.

Concept :
This question is based on Magnetic properties of material.

Solution :
Theory :

A. When a material is placed in magnetic field if material aligns parallel to the magnetic field. It
means the material is paramagnetic.
B. If the material aligns perpendicular (at right angle) to the magnetic field, it means material is
diamagnetic.
C. Bismuth is diamagnetic.

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

17)
18) Ex = – , Ex = – = – 100 N/C,

Ey = – = 200 N/C

19)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks about the behavior of the induced electric field at a
point located a distance 'r' from the center of a circular region where a magnetic field that
varies with time is present. Specifically, it wants to know how the magnitude of the induced
electric field changes as the distance 'r' changes.

Underlying Concept: This problem is based on Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction,

which states that a changing magnetic flux through a loop induces an electromotive force
(emf) and consequently an electric field. The induced electric field forms closed loops around
the region where the magnetic flux is changing.

Relevant Formulas: Faraday's law formula used: \[ \oint \vec{E}_{\text{ind}} \cdot

d\vec{\ell} = -\frac{d\phi}{dt} \] where is the magnetic flux through the
circular region of radius , and is the induced electric field at radius .
The resulting expression for the magnitude of the induced electric field at is: \[
E_{\text{ind}} = \frac{a^2}{2r} \frac{dB}{dt}. \] Here, - = radius of the circular region
with magnetic field, - = distance from the center to point P (with ), - = time
derivative of the magnetic field magnitude.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Use Faraday's law: . 2. For a circular loop of

radius , the line integral becomes due to the symmetry. 3. Magnetic flux
because the magnetic field exists only within radius . 4. Differentiate flux:
. 5. Substitute into Faraday's law and solve for : \[ E_{\text{ind}} (2\pi r) =
\pi a^2 \frac{dB}{dt} \Rightarrow E_{\text{ind}} = \frac{a^2}{2r} \frac{dB}{dt}. \] 6. This
shows varies inversely with , i.e., .

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the induced electric field generated by a changing magnetic
field forms concentric circular loops around the region of magnetic flux change. This symmetry
simplifies the integral around the loop.

Common Mistakes: Assuming the induced electric field exists inside the region where the
magnetic field is uniform and static at given time, or misapplying the formula for points inside
versus outside the magnetic field region. Another mistake is neglecting to consider that flux
changes only within the circle of radius 'a'.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options suggesting zero induced field ignore the time-
varying magnetic flux, which induces an electric field. Answers implying the field decreases as
1/(r^2) or increases with r contradict the inverse proportionality derived from Faraday's law
for points outside the affected region.
20)

different (as thickness not same)

21) Rate of decrease of area of the semicircular ring –

According to Faraday's law of induction induced emf

The induced current in the ring must generate magnetic field in the upward direction. Thus Q
is at higher potential.

22)

23)

5 cm

24) Length of the telescope when final image is formed at least distance of distinct vision is

25) Explain Question:

An object is placed 10 cm left of a convex lens ( f = 10 cm), followed by a concave lens (f =
–20cm). Find distance d for image at object position.
Concept:
For image on object, final image distance = object distance. Use lens formula: 1/f = 1/v –1/u
Formula:
For Lens 1: 1/v1 = 1/f1+1/u1
For Lens 2: 1/v2 = 1/f2+1/u2
For object-image coincidence: v2 = – (d + 10).
Calculation:
u1 = – 10cm, f1 = 10 cm
1/v1 = 1/10 + 1/10 = 1/5 → v1 = 5cm
u2 = (d - 5) (distance from concave lens).
 For final image to return to object:
1/f2 = 1/v2 – 1/u2
1/(–20) = 1/(–d –10) –1/(d –5)
Solving gives d = 10cm
Final Answer: 10 cm (Option 1).

26)

The distance of the mth minimum from the centre of the screen is given by

y=
For a point on the screen directly in front of one of the slits. y = d/2. Hence for minima (zeros)
of intensity, we have

or

27) Concept:
According to Huygens' principle and reflection laws, plane wavefronts reflecting from a
concave mirror converge to a focal point, forming spherical wavefronts.
Explanation:

A. Plane wavefronts represent light coming from infinity.

B. Upon reflection, they converge towards the focal point.
C. The reflected wave fronts should be converging spherical wavefronts centered at the mirror's
focal point.

28)

29)

30)

∈r = 2.25

31)

In πR2 displacement current = i

In – displacement current will be

=

32)

D2

33)

34)
Let
Here Y = 1 So A = 1, B = 0

35) On doping acceptor atoms form negative ions and donor atoms form positive ions.
therefore, using charge conservation in doped semiconductor
total negative charge = total positive charge.
ne + NA = nh + ND

36) For photon

For electron

Given ve = 0.25 c

Also

37) Part of theory

38) Given, Initial velocity, u =

Acceleration,
Using ν = u + at

de-Broglie wavelength, λ =

Initial wavelength,
Final wavelength,

So, ⇒λ= ,

39)

Diffraction and photoelectric effect

40)

Curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities

41) In a conductor, potential is same everywhere

∴ Potential at A = potential at centre = Vdue to p + Vdue to induced charges

= =

42)
Apply Gauss theorem
Electric field here due is +Q outer surface charge
 ⇒

43)

44)

i+e-A =δ
40 + i1 - 60 = 68
i1 = 88

45)

2A

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining the question : The question asks you to identify the pair of ligands from the
given options where both ligands are ambidentate.
Concept : Types of ligand
Solution : The pair containing only ambidentate ligands is NO2−​ (nitrite) and SCN−
(thiocyanate), as each can coordinate through two different atoms.

47)

PCC (CH2Cl2), KMnO4

48)

d5 high spin and low spin complexes related with John-Teller distortion

50)

Measuring the solid state magnetic moment

51) [Ni]3s23p5 is the electronic configuration of p-block element whereas other configurations
are those of d-block elements (Zn family).

52)

Explanation – The question asks you to identify the chemical reaction where the central
atom's hybridization state remains unchanged from reactants to products.
Concept (Hybridization & Hydrolysis reaction)

PCl5 (sp3d) + 5H2O → H3PO4 (sp3) + 5HCl (Hybridization change)

SF4 (sp3d) + 4H2O → H2SO3 (sp3) + 4HF (Hybridization change)

XeF6 (sp3d3) + 6H2O → XeO3 (sp3) + 6HF (Hybridization change)

SiCl4 (sp3) + 4H2O → Si(OH)4 (sp3) + 4HCl (No hybridization change)

Final Answer – Option(4)

53)

H2S2O8 (Peroxodisulphuric acid / Marshalls acid)

54)

Planar, pyramidal, pyramidal

55)

Heating of ammonium nitrate

56)

57) It is test of amide linkage.

58)

4.0 × 1015

59)

1 F will deposit 1g eq of Cu+2

2.5 F will deposit 2.5 eq of Cu+2

60)

Zn
61)

Rate = k [A][B]2

62) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Asking About:
B educing sugar.
Concept:
Any sugar containing a hemiacetal is a reducing sugar.
Solution/ Explanation:

⇒ An any with a hemiacetal are is equilibrium with a ring opened form containing
an aldehyde and will react as a reducing agent rowards certain (oxidizing) metal salts such as
Cu2+ (Benedict's test, Fehling's solution) and Ag+ (tollen's tert) are there fore called as
reducing sugar.
⇒ Since all sugar are with hemiacetal group, hence all are reducing sugars.
⇒ Option: (4) is correct answer.

63)

64)

A plot of log k against has slope equal to

65)

512 times

66)

(c)

67)

In oximes if "H" & "OH" are on same side then Assign 'S'.

68)

I and III
69) and

For isomers → molecular formula should be same

70)
[R, R] Ans.

71)

[2R, 3Z]

72)
a, b, c & e

73)

74)

Explanation Question: To select correct option about product A, B and C

Concept: This question is based on Friedel crafts alkylation, halogenation of Toluene and SN2
reaction of alkyl halides with AgCN

Solution:
Final Answer option : (4)

75) SN1 depends on carbocation stability

76) and

77)

78)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking about the direction of the induced currents in
two loops (AB and CD) when the magnetic flux going inward through the loops is increasing. It
wants to know the current flow directions in the loops based on Lenz's law.
 Underlying Concept: The core concept here is Lenz's Law, which states that the induced
current in a closed conducting loop due to a change in magnetic flux will flow in such a way
that it opposes the change in flux. Since the magnetic flux inward is increasing, the induced
currents produce a magnetic field opposing this increase, meaning they produce an outward
magnetic field. This determines the direction of the induced current. Another principle used is
the right-hand rule to relate current direction and magnetic field.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the right-hand grip rule: if thumb points in the direction of the
magnetic field produced by current, the curl of fingers shows current direction. If the flux is
increasing inward, induced current will be anticlockwise when viewed from the same side.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse the direction of the induced current, thinking it
flows to support the increase in magnetic flux rather than opposing it. They may also mix up
clockwise and anticlockwise directions relative to the magnetic field.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices indicating currents flowing from A to B or C to
D would mean the induced fields support the increasing inward flux, which violates Lenz's law.
Hence, such answers are incorrect.

79)

80)

A. This reaction involves dehydration of alcohol .

(1)

(2)

(3)
81)

Question Explanation: Step-wise transformation of alcohol via substitution, elimination, and

addition.

Concept: Conversion of alcohol to alkyl halide, then to alkene, and finally to vicinal dihalide.

Solution: The reaction sequence is analyzed step by step, starting with Ethanol
($\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH}$):

A. $\text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{OH} \xrightarrow{\text{PBr}_3} \mathbf{A}$: The

hydroxyl group ($-\text{OH}$) is replaced by a bromine atom ($-\text{Br}$)
(Nucleophilic Substitution).

$$\mathbf{A} = \text{CH}_3\text{CH}_2\text{Br} \text{ or }

\mathbf{C}_2\mathbf{H}_5\mathbf{Br} \text{ (Bromoethane)}$$

B. $\mathbf{A} \xrightarrow{\text{alc. KOH, Heat}} \mathbf{B}$: Alcoholic

$\text{KOH}$ promotes dehydrohalogenation ($\text{E}2$ elimination) from the alkyl
halide, removing $\text{H}$ and $\text{Br}$ to form an alkene.

$$\mathbf{B} = \text{CH}_2=\text{CH}_2 \text{ (Ethene)}$$

C. $\mathbf{B} \xrightarrow{\text{Br}_2} \mathbf{C}$: Addition of $\text{Br}_2$ across

the double bond of the alkene forms a vicinal dihalide.

$$\mathbf{C} = \text{Br-CH}_2\text{-CH}_2\text{-Br} \text{ (1,2-Dibromoethane)}$$

The correct set of compounds is $\mathbf{A} = \text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{Br}$, $\mathbf{B}

= \text{CH}_2=\text{CH}_2$, and $\mathbf{C} = \text{Br-CH}_2\text{-CH}_2\text{-Br}$.

Final Answer: $\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{Br}$, $\text{CH}_2=\text{CH}_2$, $\text{Br-

CH}_2\text{-CH}_2\text{-Br}$
82)

83) (major product)

When the reaction is carried out in solvents of low polarity such as CHCl3 or CS2 and at low
temperature monobromophenol is formed.

84) In Alkaline medium –OH group directs coupling reaction.

85)

86)

87)
 88)

89)

90)

BIOLOGY

91)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the labeled parts A, B, and C in the diagram
of a dicot embryo.

Concept : Dicot Embryo Structure.

Solution :

The figure shows a dicotyledonous embryo:

A points to the embryonic shoot tip/bud, the Plumule.

B points to the large food-storing leaves, the Hypocotyl.

C points to the embryonic axis below the cotyledons, the Radicle

Final Answer : Option (3)

92)

Hereditary variations can be easily seen with low power microscope

93)

Explain Question : The question asks to Identify the labeled parts A, B, and C in the diagram
of a grass embryo

Concept : Monocot Embryo Structure.

Solution :

The diagram shows the longitudinal section of a grass (monocot) embryo:

A. A points to the single, shield-shaped cotyledon, the Scutellum.

B. B points to the sheath enclosing the plumule/shoot apex, the Coleoptile.

C. C points to the small, remnant cotyledon found opposite the scutellum, the Epiblast.

Final Answer : Option (2)

94) Commelina

95) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XII, Page # 5
It can be attached to thalamus or petals
Final Answer : (2)

96)

63

97)

Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.

98) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 34, 35

99) Calyx and gynoecium are non-essential whorls.

100)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 15

101)

Change in a base of gene

102) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XII, Page # 61
Wrong statements after correction.
B. In the case of co- dominance the F1 generation resembles both parents
Final Answer : (3)

103)

Coding strand

104)

Genes for eye colour and body colour do not segregate independently of each other

105)

NCERT Page no. 88

106)

1:1:1:1

107)

If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

108) The correct answer is (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A .
Independent assortment is a key principle of genetics that occurs when genes are located on
different chromosomes, leading to genetic variation.

109)

(a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i)

110)
AGGUAUCGCAU

111)

50 %

112)

12

113)

75% green and 25% yellow pod colour

114) NCERT page # 107

115) NCERT Pg no: 82.

116) Allen study module no 9, Pg no: 104.

117) NCERT Pg no: 87.

118) NCERT Pg no: 83.

119) NCERT Pg No: 90.

120)

121)

Inverted

122)

123) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 102

124)

Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.

125) NCERT Pg no. 91-92

126) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 99

2

127)

They facilitate efficient translation but are not translated into polypeptides

128)

The segregation of one pair of alleles is independent of the segregation of another pair of
alleles during gamete formation

129) NCERT-XII Pg # 209

130) NCERT-XII Pg # 201, Module

131) NCERT-XII Pg # 207

132) NCERT-XII Pg # 224

133) Ans. (1)

1 is the correct answer

134) NCERT-XII Pg # 221, 222, 223, 224

135) Ans. (3)

3 is the correct answer

136)

NCERT : PAGE 127 (FIG : 7.1)

137)

'A' correct, 'R' correct and 'R' in the correct explanation of 'A'
138)

Question explanation: The question is asking whether the rise and fall of life forms over
Earth’s history is explained by fossil evidence.

Concept: evolution

Solution: Fossil studies show that different life forms existed during specific geological
periods and many became extinct later. This explains why forms of life have arisen and fallen
over time.

Final answer (1)

139) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 140 (E), 152 (H)

140) 'A' is correct, 'R' is correct & 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'

141)

Two

142) NCERT XII Page No. # 118

143) NCERT Page No. 117

144) NCERT Pg. # 118

145) NCERT Pg # 124

146) NCERT-XII Pg. # 140, 141

147)

A–Urinary bladder, B–Urethra, C–Vas deferens, D–Bulbourethral gland

148)

A, B, C

149)

Mammary alveolus → Mammary duct → Ampulla → Lactiferous duct → Nipple

150)
C-Corpus luteum-Secrete Progesterone

151)

18th

152)

50 ova & 100 sperm

153)

92

154)

381

155)

Explain Question : Find the number of meiosis divisions required to form 132 zygotes.

Concept : This question is based on Gametogenesis.

Solution : The correct answer is option 2.

A. Each zygote forms by the fusion of 1 sperm (from male) and 1 ovum (from female).

B. In males, 1 meiosis → 4 sperms, so 132 sperms need 33 meiosis divisions.

C. In females, 1 meiosis → 1 ovum, so 132 ova need 132 meiosis divisions.

Total meiosis = 33 (male) + 132 (female) = 165

Final answer : option (2)

156)

a,c

157)

a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)

158)

Question explanation
The question is asking to correctly match different assisted reproductive techniques
with their respective descriptions.

Concept
Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART).

Solution
IUT involves transfer of embryo into uterus after in vitro fertilization (A→1).
GIFT involves placing gametes into the fallopian tube (B→4).
AI involves introducing semen into the female genital tract (C→2).
ZIFT involves transferring zygote into fallopian tube (D→5).
ICSI involves injecting a sperm directly into the ovum (E→3).Final answer
4. A→1, B→4, C→2, D→5, E→3

159)

160)

I and II

161)

A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

162)

163)

A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-vi, E-i, F-iii

164)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

165)

i=c ii=d iii=b iv=a

166)
NCERT XII Pg # 157

167)

Benign tumour shows metastasis.

168)

b, c, d only

169)

a, b, c, d, e

170) Double stranded RNA initiates RNAi mechanism due to which specific mRNA is silenced
in the nematode and plant is protected from the parasite.

171)

NCERT Reference: XII, Page No. 204

172)

NCERT Page no. 205

173)

256

174)

The functional insulin has A and B chains linked by only one disulphide bond

175)

Adenosine deaminase

176)

Bollworm

177)

3 options
178) NCERT XII - Pg. # 153

179)

NCERT XII Pg. # 176

180)

Question Explanation: Labeling parts of a typical biogas plant

Concept: Biogas plant structure

Solution:

A. A is sludge (settled at the bottom).

B. B is the gas holder (collects biogas at the top).

C. C is dung + water (input mixture).

Final Answer: A–Sludge, B–Gas holder, C–Dung + Water