Review Ques
Review Ques
CLINICAL
14. Which of the following value is not needed in
determination of LDL concentration?
CHEMISTRY:
- VLDL
15. Which statement is correct?
- X-AXIS (ABSCISSA), INDEPENDENT
VARIABLE, HORIZONTAL LINE (HAXI)
- Y-AXIS (ORDINATE), INDEPENDENT
1. Investigation of rape cases. Vaginal washing (+) VARIABLE, VERTICAL LINE (VDOY)
4 days. 16. Exogenous Triglycerides (TAG)
- ACP - CHYLOMICRONS
2. HEPA stands for: Endogenous TAG
- HIGH-EFFICIENCY PARTICULAR AIR - VLDL = transport protein of TAG which is
3. Proteins greatest in concentration in plasma. HEPATIC in origin
- ALBUMIN 17. A driver has a blood alcohol level of 50 mg/dL
4. Renal threshold for GLUCOSE. - NOT LEGALLY INTOXICATED
- 160-180 18. Delivery of drugs to the tissues and different
5. Collection used for newborn screening. location of the body:
- CAPILLARY - DISTRIBUTION
Specimen used for newborn screening. Removal in body:
- DRIEDBLOOD SPOT - EXCRETION
6. 10% contamination with 5% dextrose can Change in chemical:
increase blood glucose level by: - METABOLISM
- 500 mg/dL Administration to blood:
7. Hours required for LIPID det. - ADSORPTION
- 12-15 hours 19. pO2 will fall by 7% and pCO2 will rise by 3%
FBS (venous and plasma) 20. Biosafety cabinet II
- 8-10 hours - LAMINAR FLOW
8. Uricase method in determination of Uric Acid is 21. Increased BUN due to renal perfusion,
the simplest and specific: otherwise kidney function is normal
- ENZYMATIC: UV - PRE- RENAL
9. Which of the following enzyme is the most 22. Sodium and associated ions accounts for how
unspecific? many percent osmolality
- LD - 90%
10. Which of the following drugs used in treatment 23. Proper way in opening an ampoule
of petit mal seizure? - Cover with gauze and break at the
- VALPORIC ACID or ETHOSUXIMIDE indicated line
(ZARONTIN) 24. Organs that produces hormones
11. It is the midpoint of the distribution - ANTERIOR PITUITARY, HYPOTHALAMUS,
- MEDIAN THYROID GLAND AND PARATHYROID
12. Directly proportional to concentration of GLAND
ENZYME as measured by reaction rate. 25. Type of water in preparation for standards
- ZERO ORDER KINETIC - TYPE I
Directly proportional to concentration of Hema, Micro, Immuno: TYPE II
SUBSTRATE as measured. 26. 350nm light is a:
- FIRST ORDER KINETIC - ULTRAVIOLET REGION
13. Best describe of Gaussian (normal) distribution 400-700nm: VISIBLE SPECTRUM
curve (bell shape curve) >700nm: INFRARED REGION
- MEAN=MEDIAN=MODE
61. Triple test for Down Syndrome 79. The physician must be notified immediately
- DECREASE AFP when fasting glucose level is
- DEACREASE UNCONJUGATED ESTRIOL - <40 mg/dL or >500 mg/dL
- INCREASE BETA HCG 80. Sinking pre-beta lipoprotein
- INCREASE INHIBIT A - LIPOPROTEIN A
62. Increase serum albumin Floating beta-lipoprotein
- DEHYDRATION - BETA-VLDL
63. Hydrolysis of sucrose 81. Difference between chylomicrons & VLDL and
- FRUCTOSE AND GLUCOSE LDL & HDL?
64. Ceruloplasmin freely binds with: - TRIGLYCERIDE CONTENT
- COPPER 82. Elevated characteristic changes in ECG pattern
65. Turbid and milky appearance of serum - POTASSIUM
- CHYLOMICRON 83. Caraway method
66. How many mEq/L is there in a 116mmol/L - BUA
potassium? Conway
- 116 - AMMONIA
67. Convert 70 mg/dL of glucose to SI 84. Allantoin + tungsten blue
- 3.89 mmol/L - URIC ACID
68. In converting g/dL to g/L, what factor should be Picric Acid (NaCl)
used? - BUN
- 10 85. Serum beta-HCG assays has a detection limit of
69. Most commonly used venipunture needle - 1-2 mIU/mL
length 86. Detected during neonatal thyroid screening
- 1-1.5 inches or 2.54-3.81cm - NEONATAL HYPOTHYROIDISM
70. A sample blank corrects for the absorbance 87. Synthetic function of the liver
interferences caused by which of the following - ALBUMIN, PROTEINS, PT/PTT
substances? 88. Paracetamol is a
- BILIRUBIN AND HEMOGLOBIN - ANALGESIC
71. Tourniquet is applied: 89. Benzoylecgonine is a metabolite of
- 3-4 inches above for 1 minute - COCAINE
72. Done before radial artery/before ABG 90. Blood alcohol level of 0.09-0.25 can lead to
- MODIFIED ALLEN TEST - MILD EUPHORIA
73. Highest in the morning; low at night 91. Edwards Syndrome
- CORTISOL - TRISOMY 18
74. Iron (Fe3+) is transported by Down Syndrome – TRISOMY 21
- TRANSFERRIN Patau Syndrome – TRISOMY 11
75. In which condition does LDH exhibit a moderate 92. Michaelis-Menten Law
elevation (3-5 times normal) - ENZYME KINETICS
- MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION 93. Increase in menstruation
76. Substrates for lipase assay - ESTRADIOL
- OLIVE OIL AND TRIOLEIN 94. Convert 116 mmol/L of glucose to SI unit
77. ALP method of p-nitrophenylphosphate - 6.44
- BESSY, LOWRY AND BROCK 95. Most commonly used needle length
- BOWERS- McCOMB - 1.0-1.5 inch
78. Requirement in OGTT 96. Tourniquet is applied 3-4 inch above the site of
- AT LEAST 150g OF CARBOHYDRATE LOAD venipuncture and should not exceed
INTAKE FOR 3 CONSECUTIVE DAYS - 1 MINUTE
- OVERNIGHT FASTING 97. What test should be done before collecting
- 75g CARBOHYDRATE LOAD arterial blood
HEMATOLOGY:
13. In Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia, which cell
is/are affected
a. Erythrocytes
b. Granulocytes – Monocytes
1. While performing reticulocyte count, 25 retic
c. Megakaryocyte
is seen in 1000 RBC, reticulocyte is
- ALL OF THE ABOVE
- SLIGHTLY INCREASE
14. Is not an end type cell
2. Platelet count of 100,000-149,000
- MONOCYTE
- SLIGHTLY DESCREASE
15. Electromechanical in detection of clot
3. What is staining reaction of Acute Lymphocytic
- FIBROSYSTEM
Leukemia in Sudan Black B and
16. Used in manual detection of clot
Myeloperoxidase?
- TILT TUBE METHOD
- BOTH NEGATIVE
- WIRE LOOP
4. Acute Myelocytic Leukemia with maturation
17. Test tube used for manual clotting time test
- M2
- 100 x 10 mm GLASS
5. Acute Megakaryocytic Leukemia
18. In WBC count using WBC Thoma Pipette, what
- M7
is the dilution used if WBC count is more than
6. Prekallikrein is also known as
30,000/mL
- FLETCHER FACTOR
- 1:100
7. There is >20 per hpf of target cell seen under
19. In manual WBC count using Thoma Pipette,
microscope, it is graded
what is the dilution used if WBC count is 0.1 x
- +3
10⁹
8. Which of the following parameter is derived
- 1:20
from RBC histogram?
20. Wintrobe tube used for determination of ESR
- MCV AND RDW
and Hct is 115mm long with an internal bore
Platelet histogram
of 3mm
- MPV AND RDW
21. A screening test in which turbidity is compared
9. Seen in lead poisoning
against a card with black lines to determine
- BASOPHILIC STIPPLING
the presence of abnormalities
10. Which of the following is/are correctly
- DITHIONITE TUBE TEST
matched?
22. Stains used for the presence of glycogen and
a. Acanthocytes – spur cells
mucoproteins
b. Target cells – thin
- PERIODIC ACID SCHIFF (PAS)
cells/leptocytes/codocytes/bulls
23. Autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and
eye
granulocyte hyposegmentation
c. Echinocyte – burr cells
- PELGER HUET ANOMALY
- ALL OF THE ABOVE
24. Mucopolysaccharides
11. Which of the following is/are correctly method
- ALDER-REILLY
a. Sickle cell – drepanocyte
25. Defects of lysosome and associated with
b. Schistocyte – helmet cell
Albinism
c. Target cell – thin cell
- CHEDIAK-HIGASHI
- ALL OF THE ABOVE
26. Cell counting instrumental errors can cause a
12. In autoanalyzer, which of the following cell
negative error
count is affected when there is WBC cytoplasm
- EXCESSIVE LYSIS OF RBC
fragments
27. Positive error
- PLATELET AND RBC
a. Bubbles
b. Extrenous electrical
c. Aperture plugs
- ALL OF THE ABOVE (BEA)
28. How many nucleated RBC is needed for WBC 44. Relationship between the degree of
corrected thrombocytopenia
- 5 - DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL
29. Three part differential 45. Effect of RBC autoagglutination in the RBC
- LYMPHOCYTES, MONOCYTES, count when automated cell counter are used
GRANULOCYTES - DECREASE RBC COUNT
30. What is the MCV if Hct is 33%, RBC is 2.5 x 46. Factors that cause falsely increased ESR result
10⁶/µL and the Hgb is 6/dL? - TUBE TILTING
- 132fL - ANEMIA
31. Parameters computed 47. Defect in heme synthesis
a. MCH - SIDEROBLASTIC ANEMIA
b. MCV 48. Negative for Philadelphia chromosome
c. MCHC - DON’T RESPOND PARTICULARLY WELL TO
- ALL OF THE ABOVE CHEMOTHERAPY
32. After activation of Factor X 49. Kidney/bean shape
- CONVERSION OF PROTHROMBIN TO - METAMYELOCYTE
THROMBIN 50. Demarcating membrane stage
33. Maturation of BM: 9 days - PROMEGAKARYOCYTE
Lifespan in the circulation: 120 days 51. Form of purpura
- RBC - ECCHYMOSIS
34. Platelet lifespan 52. Fuzzy coating external surface of the platelet
- 10 days - GLYCOCALYX
35. Neutrophil that is bind to iron to prevent 53. Not affected by icteric samples
bacteria - FIBROMETER
- LACTOFERRIN 54. 401,000-599,00 platelet count
36. During tissue injury, the 1st wave of neutron - SLIGHTLY INCREASED
comes ffrom 55. 5 or more aggregates of RBC is graded as
- NEUTROPHILS ADHERING TO THE - 2+ (5-10)
VASCULAR WALLS 56. Either (+) ot (-) error
37. Stage of megakaryocyte through platelet - IMPROPER SETTING OF APERTURE
shedding CURRENT
- MATURE MEGAKARYOCYTE 57. Normal value bleeding time
38. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation - 4-6 minutes
- INCREASE PT, PTT, TT 58. Components of scatterplot, except
- DECREASE FIBRINOGEN + D-DIMER - FLUIDICS
39. Stages of megakaryocyte is best differentiated 59. CBC means
by - COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT
- NUCLEUS NUMBER, SHAPE OF NUCLEUS, 60. Stain for phospholipids and lipoproteins
GRANULES - SUDAN BLACK B
40. Blood be drop to make a smear 61. Automated instrument not directly measured
- 0.25 inches - HEMATOCRIT
41. Capillary tube 62. Neutrophils stained, size of granules
- 7cm and 1mm - LAP
42. Secondary granules appear 63. Components of scatterplot
- MYELOCYTE - LIGHT, CONDUCTIVITY, ELECTRICITY
43. Received numerous units of blood. Degree of 64. Primary granules
this patient’s thrombocytopenia? - PROMYELOCYTE
- INCREASE 65. T lymphocyte
- CD3
66. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) 85. Similar appearance to plasma cells
- HYPERCELLULAR BONE MARROW - OSTEOBLASTS
- HOMOGENOUS, SMALL, HYPERCLUMPED 86. Cyanmethemoglobin hgb wavelength
- PRESENCE OF SMUDGE CELLS - 540nm
- EXCEPT: absolute monocytosis 87. Holly leaf appearance
67. Wedge smear drop of blood - METASULFATE TEST
- 2-3 mm 88. Extraneous electrocyte pulses
68. Platelet dysfunction which interfere with - POSITIVE ERROR
cyclooxygenase enzyme preventing 89. Philadelphia chromosome, CML
Thromboxane A₂ synthesis - GOOD PROGNOSIS
- ASPIRIN 90. Sets of reagent with APTT
69. 6 to 10 keratocytes - KAOLIN, PHOSPHOLIPID, CALCIUM,
- 2+ CHLORIDE
70. 3 to 10 target cells 91. APTT activator
- 1+ - MICRUNIZESILICA, ELLAGE ACID, CELITE,
71. Microhematocrit method KAOLIN
- USED CAPILLARY TUBE WITH 1.2 mm BORE 92. Platelet count 150,000-199,000
72. COSS grading (Codocyte, Ovalocyte, - LOW NORMAL
Stomatocyte, Spherocyte) 93. DIC, d-dimer + after
- WNL = 0-2, 1+ = 2-10, 2+ = 10-20, 3+ = 20- - 4 HOURS
50, 4+ = >50 94. >10% polychromatic RBC in severe anemia
73. ASC grading (Acanthocyte, SChistocyte) - 4+
- WNL = <1, 1+ = 2-5, 2+ = 5-10, 3+ = 10-20, 95. Hypochromic grading; observable grading
4+ = >20 - 4+
74. Anemia in ESR causes 96. Major cause of death in sickle cell anemia
- INCREASE - BACTERIAL INFECTION
75. Most fragile cell 97. 3-4 aggregates
- LYMPHOCYTE - 1+
76. Rouleaux grading 98. Bleeding time
- 1+ = AGGREGATES 3-4 RBC, 2+ = 5-10 RBC, - 4-6 MINUTES
3+ = NUMEROUS AGGREGATES 99. 5≤ aggregates; rouleaux
77. Alpha thalassemia - 2+ CELL GRADING
- HB H, BART’S HGB 100. Not used in evaluation of anemia
78. MCV, MCHC, MCH - MCH
- ALL COMPUTED 101. Platelet per field in 20 fields
79. Blood in skin, not in tissue - 4
- ECCHYMOSIS 102. Ecchymosis; deficient in
80. Statistically significant standard deviation in 2 - HEMOPHILIA A COAGULATION FACTORS
groups 103. Stain to differentiate ALL with AML
- F TEST - SBB AND FRESH MPO
81. 2-3, DPG regulator affinity for O2 104. ALL in Philadelphia chromosome
- LUBERING RAPAPORT PATHWAY - POOR PROGNOSIS
82. 5-10 Acanthocytes 105. Fresh sample needed
- 2+ - MPO, LAP; ENZYMES
83. Increase LAP score 106. BLOOD SMEAR SIZE IS 2-3 mm or 0.25 in
- LAST TRIMESTER OF PREGNANCY 107. Normocytic, Normochromic
- ANEMIA OFCHRONIC DISEASE, ACUTE
84. Cell marker for Hematopoietic cells BLOOD LOSS, APLASTIC ANEMIA, SICKLE
- CD34 CELL ANEMIA
IMMUNOLOGY,
15. Test for Treponema pallidum that is design
by the Venereal Disease Research
SEROLOGY AND
Laboratory
- VDRL
16. Not a bloodborne disease
BLOOD BANKING - TUBERCULOSIS
17. Centrifugation time for the blood typing
tube
1. The blood bag prepared in open system - 20 SECONDS
- MUST BE USED WITHIN 24 HOURS 18. Cell card method of crossmatching
2. SAG anticoagulated blood has a shelf life of centrifugation
- 42 DAYS - 10 MINUTES
3. Donor who lives in Palawan with his family 19. HLA B8 is associated with what disease?
for 10 years - MYASTHENIA GRAVIS AND CELIAC
- DEFFERED FOR 3 YEARS 20. CPDA-1
4. A blood can be taken from a donor in RBC - 35 days
pheresis 21. Next thing to do after whole blood
- 180mL converted to packed RBC using open system
5. Used to microlymphocytotoxicity test - CHANGE THE LABEL TO PRBC AND ALSO
- PHASE CONTRAST MICROSCOPE CHANGE THE EXPIRATION DATE
6. TRALI stand for 22. The minimum interval allowed between
- TRANSFUSION RELATED ACUTE LUNG plateletpheresis component collection
INJURY procedure is
7. Cased by deficiency in complement C3 - 48 HOURS
component 23. Sugar responsible for A-specificity
- RENAL TUBULAR DISEASE - N-ACETYL-GALACTOSAMINE
8. Manual reading of Rapid Plasma Reagin 24. What is the possible offspring phenotype of
Test a heterozygous “A” mother and
- CHARCOAL heterozygous “B” father?
9. You are asked by your lab supervisor to - A, B, AB, O
prepare 1L of NSS. How many grams of NaCl 25. Forward: A= 2+, B= 4+
will you use? Reverse: A= 4+, B= 3+
- 9 grams in 1L of water - COLD AGGLUTININ DISEASE (CAD)
10. 250mL of blood is collected in a 450mL of 26. What virus is isolated in patient with
blood bag, what is ratio of anticoagulant to hairycell leukemia?
blood? - HTLV II
- 1:4 27. PFC, PHP and SFHS is an
11. What is the dilution in the tube number 2, - BLOOD SUBSTITUTES
3, and 4 if the sample from the tube 28. Purpose of agitation in platelet storage
number 1 has a dilution of 1:10 and is - TO FACILITATE CONTINUOS EXCHANGE OF
subjected into a four-fold dilution? GAS
- 1:40, 1:160, 1:640 29. The patient need an urgent transfusion and
12. Mycoplasma pneumonia crossmatching cannot be done because
- ANTI-I there is no available type O negative blood.
13. Antibody present in Rheumatoid Arthritis What will you give to the patient who is
- RHEUMATOID FACTOR bleeding profusely in the ER?
14. A blood bag was positive for RPR test. What - CRYSTALLOIDS
will you do with it?
- DISCARD/THROW A WAY AT ONCE
30. What enzyme is used to fragment 49. Blood bank laboratory room temperature is
antibodies into crystallizable fracment monitored every
(Fc)and Fab? - SHIFT
- PAPAIN 50. What is the region of immunoglobin
31. pRBC utilizing the open system should be determines whether an immunoglovin can
issued within fix complement?
- 24 HOURS - CH2
32. Bombay phenotype antibodies include 51. What CD marker is responsible for E-rosette
- ANTI-A, ANTI-B, ANTI-H formation between T-cells and sheep RBC
33. Blood given to patients with HDN - CD2
- TYPE O, NEGATIVE 52. Most common error in severe reaction
34. Fibrin glue that is used in surgical - GROUP A ADDED TO GROUP O PATIENT
procedures made up of 53. Also known as “great pretender” causative
- THROMBIN AND CRYOPRECIPITATE agent of syphilis?
35. What is HLA-B27? - TREPONEMA PALLIDUM
- ANKYLOSING SPONDYLYTIS 54. Most common contaminant of blood
36. NK cells is component of products?
- INNATE IMMUNITY - YERSINIA ENTEROLITICA
37. Transfusion reaction with 1 degree rise in 55. The complement with the largest molecular
temperature is termed as weight?
- FEBRILE - C1
38. What is TRALI 56. Transfusion reaction in which 1 degree rise?
- TRANSFUSION RELATED ACQUIRED LUNG - FEBRILE
INJURY 57. Which of the following blood group have
39. In 1936, Karl Landsteiner wrote a book . the the highest amount of H substance?
title of the book is - O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B
- THE SPECIFICITY OF SEROLOGIC REACTIONS 58. Who was the first to receive blood from a
40. Private antigens are rarely found antigens. blood transfusion?
What is the other name of private antigens? - POPE INNOCENT VII
- LOW INCIDENCE ANTIGENS 59. HRP2 Ag is used for the detection of?
41. What tubes are needed for the - PLASMODIUM FALCIPARUM
investigation of post transfusion 60. Non-specific plasma protein that exerts
investigation? bactericidal and viricidal effects in the
- RED AND LAVENDER TOP presence of Mg
42. ISBT #4 is designated as - PROPERDIN
- RH 61. Non-specific serum proteins that enhances
43. Major composition of important the effect of antibody. It is activated by Ag-
lymphocytes Ab complex
- T-CELLS - COMPLEMENT
44. Function of the normal flora of the skin 62. Ant-i is associated with
- BARRIER AGAINST MICROORGANISMS - INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS
45. Citrate in ACD function as 63. Anti-I is associated with
- ANTICOAGULANT - MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE
46. Phosphate in CPD function as - ATYPICAL PNEUMONIAE
- SOURCE OF ATP 64. ISBT # assigned for ABO Blood Group
47. What type of immunoglobulin causes HDN System
- IgG - ISBT 1
48. CA 19 is associated with 65. C4 complement is associated with
- PANCREATIC ADENOCARCINOMA - CHIDO RODGERS
66. Blood component given to patient who are 87. 10% treponema is immobilized
unresponsive to antibiotics - NEGATIVE RESULT
- LEUKOCYTE CONCENTRATE 88. ACD discovery
67. Blood group antibodies are - 1943
- IgM, IgA, IgG 89. Group A by nature
68. Discovered syphilis - ACQUIRED B PHENOMENON
- CHRISTOPHER COLUMBUS 90. Rh in Asians
69. What type of test is used to detect - DCe
hemolytic transfusion? 91. Structure of Duffy associated with
- DAT Plasmodium knowlesi
70. ISBT 7? - Fy⁶
- LEWIS 92. 1 (Fab)₂ and 1 Fc – PEPSIN
71. Blood type given to HDN patients 2 Fab and 1 Fc – PAPAIN
- TYPE O NEGATIVE 93. C2=O (carbon molecule combined oxygen)
72. What type of blood group is associated with - COMPONENT COMPLEMENT IS
the drug Aldomet ASSOCIATED WITH AUTOIMMUNE
- KIDD DISORDER
73. How many times will you wash cord blood 94. Reactive QUALITATIVE VDRL should be
cells? followed by QUANTITATIVE VDRL
- 6 TO 8 TIMES 95. Western blot
74. When was the T-cell receptor gene - NITROCELLULOSE PAPER
discovered? 96. Drug Aldomet is associated with blood type
- 1984 - KIDD
75. Cytotoxic cell 97. Disease associated with anti-i
- CD8 - IM
76. T-helper cell 98. TCR discovery date
- CD4 - 1984
77. Blood group associated with C4 99. Blood group associated with C4
- CHIDO RODGERS - CHIDO RODGERS
78. Mongolian Ancestry blood group 100. Blood component given to patients with
- DIEGO bacterial infections unresponsive to
79. What will you do to a component previously antibiotics
labeled as whole blood and was converted - LEUKOCYTE CONCENTRATE
to pRBC? 101. For tropical surgical bleeding
- CHANGE THE EXPIRATION DATE - THROMBIN + CRYOPRECIPITATE
80. Papain can cleave fragments 102. Other half of blood bag
- 3 - USED WITHIN 24 HOURS
81. Pepsin can cleave fragments 103. Saline adenine glucose anticoagulant blood
- 2 shelf life
82. Principle of PCR - 42 DAYS
- AMPLIFICATION 104. Palawan for 10 years
83. Associated with HLA B8 - DEFERRED FOR 3 YEARS
- MYESTNENIA GRAVIS AND CELIAC DISEASE 105. Maximum amount of blood taken from
84. Cord blood washing donor
- 6 TO 8 TIMES - 2 UNITS, 180-250mL
85. CD marker for E-rosette formation 106. Microlymphocytotoxicity test microscope
- CD2 - PHASE CONTRAST
86. Storage where syphilis can be transmitted 107. Disease with decrease complement C3
- WHOLE BLOOD WITHIN 2 DAYS AT 1-6⁰C - RENAL TUBULAR DISEASE
MICROBIOLOGY AND
10. Eggs are hard to distinguish
- CLONIRCHIS AND OPISTORCHIS
43. To view spirochetes, use 60. A fungus like bacteria that is partially acid fast
- DARKFIELD MICROSCOPE - NOCARDIA
44. Cystine Tellurite Agar isolates 61. Failure to add decolorizer in the gram stain will
- C. DIPHTHERIAE make the bacteria color
45. Organism associated with pseudomembranous - VIOLET
colitis 62. The best way to demonstrate a pinworm
- CLOSTRIDIUM DIFFICILE infection
46. Chocolate Agar can grow - CELLOPHANE TAPE PREPARATION
- HAEMOPHILUS AND NEISSERIA 63. Influenza A viruses can be detected in cell
47. What is the result of negative CAMP Test cultures by
- NO ENHANCEMENT OF HEMOLYSIS - HEMADSORPTION ASSAY
48. To confirm the presence of E. coli O157H7, it 64. Bile esculin test is used to differentiate
should be planted on a medium with - GROUP D FROM THE OTHER STREP
- SORBITOL 65. What virus is the most frequent cause of
49. Larva of nematode that can be seen in sputum gastroenteritis in children during winter
sample months
- A. LUMBRICOIDES - ROTAVIRUS
50. What is the proper specimen to be collected to 66. Tincture of iodine is composed of
diagnose a patient infected with the blood fluke - IODINE AND ALCOHOL
S. haematobium 67. What is the concentration of CO2 needed by
- URINE capnophilic oraganism
51. Chromatoid bodies on trichrome stain is - 5%
colored as 68. Which of the following mycobacteria is niacin
- BRIGHT RED and nitrate reduction positive
52. What is Schistosomule - M. TUBERCULOSIS
- CERCARIAE MINUS TAIL 69. Agent of louse-borne relapsing fever
53. Intestinal flagellate is described as - BORRELIA RECURRENTIS
- PEAR SHAPED 70. Acetamide test is used for the identification of
54. What method is utilized in acid fast staining in - P. AERUGINOSA
tissues 71. Acetamide utilization test media is incubated at
- KINYOUN COLD METHOD - 35°C FOR 7 DAYS
55. Late Chlamydia must be 72. Clumping factor is elaborated by
- REJECTED - S. AUREUS
56. Tube coagulase detects 73. MPT64 is associated with
- FREE COAGULASE - M. TUBERCULOSIS
57. P. aeruginosa grows at what temperature 74. Hermaphroditic parasites includes
- 35-42°C - FLUKES AND CESTODES
58. Golden yellow colonies in BAP 75. Strep associated with colon cancer
- S. AUREUS - S. BOVIS
59. The preferred method of differencing S. aureus 76. Kills TB
from S. epidermidis - DRIED SPUTUM: 6-8 HOURS
- COAGULASE - 5% PHENOL: 24 HOURS
CLINICAL
9. If fructose testing in semen cannot be perform
immediately, specimen must be
Calcium – 10% HCL +NAOH = WHITE WBC – GLITTER CELL IN HPOTONIC URINE
Uric Acid – 20% SODIUM CARBONATE + FOLIN 15. Renal lithiasis can be found in
REAGENT = DEEP BLUE - BLADDER, RENAL PELVIS, CALYCES,
URETERS
Magnesium – P-NITROBENZENE-AZORESORCINOL =
16. Increase renin during
BLUE COLOR
- HYPOTENSION
Ammonium – NESSLER’S = ORANGE-BROWN 17. POCT for malaria detects
PRECIPITATE - ALL MALARIA SPP.
18. Sharps logo
Cystine – SODIUM NITROPUSSIDE = BEET RED
23. Histamine is administered in gastric fluid 39. Largest cell in the urinary sediment
collection in order to - SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL CELL
- STIMULATE PRODUCTION 40. Major organic substance in the urine
24. R in race stands for - UREA
- RESCUE 41. Glitter cells is also known as
25. Major constituent of NPN - NEUTROPHILS
- UREA (45%) 42. Chemical used to detect renal calculi made of
26. Bilirubin in amniotic fluid is measured using PO4
- SPECTROPHOTOMETRIC ANALYSIS - AMMONIUM MOLYBDATE IN NITRIC ACID
27. Causes glucosuria in pregnant women 43. Primary urinalysis finding in patient with renal
- MATERNAL HORMONAL CHANGES calculi
28. Colorless dumbbell crystals in alkaline urine - MICROSCOPIC HEMATURIA
- CALCIUM CARBONATE 44. Concentric striations of collagen like material in
29. Best specimen for bacterial culture of MOBILE peritoneal fluid associated with ovarian and
PATIENT thyroid malignancy
- MID-STREAM CLEAN CATCH - PSAMMONA BODIES
30. The acrosomal cap of the sperm 45. STAT specimen should be done
- ½ OF THE HEAD - IMMEDIATELY
31. Curschmann’s spirals are 46. Amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity should be
- THIN THREADS COMMONLY SEEN WITH stored at
CHARCOAT LEYDEN CRYSTALS - REFRIGERATOR TEMP
47. What additional test must be done for elevated
Dittrich plugs – FOUL ODOR WHEN CRUSHED
amniotic fluid AFP
Bronchial casts – WHITE OR GRAYISH-YELLOWISH - ACETYL CHOLINESTERASE
BROWN BRANCHING TREE-LIKE CASTS 48. Peritoneal lavage is used in detection of
- INTRAABDOMINAL BLEEDING
32. Bence jones protein 49. 3 CSF tubes
- SOLUBLE ABOVE 60°C - 1 = CHEM/SERO, 2 = MICRO, 3 = HEMA
33. What is the use of renin secreted by the 50. Refers the fluid accumulation serous
nephron membrane
- MAINTAIN BLOOD PRESSURE - EFFUSION
34. What should be used in analytes with diurnal 51. Gastric tube inserted through the MOUTH
variation in urine - REIFUSS TUBE
- TIMED SPECIMEN 52. Gastric tube inserted through the NOSE
35. What should be done if pink sediments in urine - LEVINE
is seen after refrigeration 53. Most representative time sample for the
- RETURN TO ROOM TEMPERATURE quantification of fecal fats
36. COC requirements for urine drug analysis - 72 HOUR SPECIMEN WITHIN 3 DAYS
- 45-50 mL 54. White foam produced after vigorous shaking of
37. What additive is added to Addis count urine is due to
- FORMALIN - PROTEIN
38. SG of glomerular filtrate
- 1.010
55. It is a tablet test that detects glucose by copper 69. A turbid synovial fluid is most commonly cased
reduction by
- CLINITEST - INCREASED WBC
56. Oily layer on the top of urine signifies the 70. What does 2 buttery like stool indicates
presence of oval fat bodies. This is seen in cases - CYCTIC FIBROSIS
of 71. What is the acceptable disinfectant for blood
- NEPHROTIC SYNDROME and body fluid decontamination
57. Home based HCG pregnancy test kits are based - SODIUM HYPOCHLORITE
on the principle of 72. Print cannot be seen through urine
- ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY - TURBID
58. Volume of urine needed for urinometer 73. pH of feces
- 15 mL - 7-8.0
59. Lemon shaped crystals 74. Vomiting >8 hours Ph
- URIC ACID - ALKALINE
60. Neutral alpha glucosidase is associated with
Diarrhea pH – ACID
- SEMEN
61. What is the most difficult procedure when 75. Regulates intensity of light
testing an outpatient for 24 hour urine crea - RHEOSTAT
clearance 76. Adjust interpupillary distance
- OBTAINING 24 HOUR URINE SPECIMEN - OCULARIS
62. Degenerative form of all casts 77. Primary hyperparathyroid crystals
- WAXY - INCREASE CALCIUM, INCREASE CALCIUM
63. Song of handwashing PHOSPHATE
- HAPPY BIRTHDAY 78. Kidney stone
64. How will the medtech differentiate red cell - CONSUMED IN FLAME = ORGANIC
from yeast cell 79. With tails and tapering ends
- PRESENCE OF BUDDING - CYLINDROIDS; CAST IN URINE
65. Also known as renal failure cast 80. Meconium color
- BROAD CAST - GREEN (first baby feces)
66. Found in urine sample of patient who is no 81. Urinary bladder cancer
protein diet - NMP (NUCLEAR MATRIX PROTEIN)
- KETONES 82. Seminal fluid viscocity
67. The precipitate caused by Bence Jones protein - 0 = WATERY, 4 = GEL LIKE
DISSOLVES at 83. Degree of hazard “O” indicates
- 100°C - NO MINIMAL HAZARD
68. 3 glass of sample send to the lab for possible
prostatic infection. All 3 specimen have 1 – SLIGHT HAZARD
increased bacterial and WBC count. The finding
2 – MODERATE
indicates
- THE PATIENT HAS UTI 3 – SERIOUS HAZARD
4- EXTREME
118. Sperm cell dilution factor 138. Presence of casts in the urine
- 1:20 - CYLINDRURIA
119. Monoliasis 139. Struvite
- YEAST CELL; CANDIDIASIS - TRIPLE PHOSPHATE
120. Dilution of bloody CSF 140. Specimen unlabeled but with request form
- 1:10,000 - DISCARD THE SPECIMEN AND DEMAND
121. Indicator of home based pregnancy kit FOR A NEW ONE
- ALP 141. Substance that converts pepsinogen to pepsin
122. Effects of alkaline hypotonic urine - HYDROCHLORIC ACID
- CAST DISINTEGRATES 142. Sputum
123. Stains with PAS - <10 EC, >25 PUS
- FUNGAL CELL 143. Inability of semen to liquefy within 60 minutes
124. Major contributor of amniotic fluid after third is caused by
trimester - INADEQUATE PROTEOLYTIC ENZYME
- FETAL URINE 144. Non pathologic cause of black stool
125. Triple phosphate - IRON THERAPY
- FEATHERY, FERN LEAF, COFFIN-LID, PRISM
126. No clot
- INTRACRANIAL HEMORRHAGE
127. Melena
- BLACK STOOL (upper)
128. CTAP test
- MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDE
129. Ammonium biurate
- THORNY APPLE
130. Utilized for differentiating casts
- PHASE CONTRAST MICROSCOPE
131. Urine should be centrifuge for
- 5 MINUTES AT 400 RCF
132. Preferred collection method
- MIDSTREAM
133. Many particulates, print BLURRED
- CLOUDY
134. Isosthenuric urine
- 1.010
135. (+) for protein in reagent strip
- GREEN-BLUE
136. Reagent strip reaction least affected
- PROTEIN
137. False (-) nitrite in urine strip
- PRESENCE OF ASCORBIC ACID
HISTOTECHNIQUE,
14. A certain instrument needs to be autoclaved.
What is the setting of the autoclave