GRE

GRE
Success Guide

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 GRE Introduction

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GRE

Acknowledgment
We wholeheartedly thank all the faculty members who have contributed

to this consummate GRE Success Guide in all the possible ways by working

tirelessly.

We also sincerely extend our gratitude to all the students who served as

an inspiration for me to prod my faculties to bring this “Success Guide” to you.

Their efforts have manifest into this volume to relentlessly guide to score big on

your exam.

We would like to dedicate this book to all the students who repose their

faith in us through our journey to success.

Regards,

Director – Global Tree

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 GRE Introduction

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GRE

INDEX

1. Introduction 1–7

2. Vocabulary Introduction 8 – 15

3. Vocabulary 16 – 51

4. Sentence Equivalence 52 – 85

5. Test Completion 86 – 124

6. Reading Comprehension 125 – 157

7. Analytical writing topics 158 – 178

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 GRE Introduction

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GRE Introduction

GRE® - Graduate Record Examination

The GRE® General test measures verbal reasoning, quantitative reasoning, critical
thinking, and analytical writing skills that are necessary for success in graduate and
business schools.
Prospective graduate and business students all over the world take this test.
The test offers a common measure for comparing candidates’ qualifications. The
scores are used to supplement your undergraduate records, Letters of
recommendation, and other qualifications for graduate-level study.
For most up-to-date information about the GRE general test, visit the GRE
website at [Link]/gre.
The GRE General Test is composed of three measures – Analytical Writing, verbal
reasoning, and Quantitative Reasoning. Each one measures a different skill set and
the candidate is scored on the same basis.

The Analytical Writing Measure assesses the test taker’s ability to articulate and
support complex ideas, examine claims and accompanying evidence, sustain a
focused and coherent discussion, and control the elements of standard written
English.

The Verbal Reasoning measure assesses your ability to analyze and evaluate
written material and synthesize information obtained from it. It also measures your
ability to understand what you read and how you apply your reasoning skills.

The Quantitative Reasoning measure assesses your basic mathematical skills and
your understanding of the few elementary mathematical concepts. It also measures
your ability to understand, interpret, and analyze quantitative information and to solve
problems using mathematical models.

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 GRE Introduction

Typical test structure:

Measure Number of questions Allotted time

Analytical Writing (one One “Analyze an Issue” task 30 minutes per task
section with two separately and
timed tasks) one “Analyze an Argument”
task
Verbal Reasoning (two 20 questions per section 30 minutes per section
sections)
Quantitative Reasoning (two 20 questions per section 35 minutes per section
sections)
Un-scored (position varies) 20 questions Varies
Research (at the end of the Varies Varies
test)

*An unidentified unscored section that does not count toward a score may be included and may appear in any order.
** An identified research section that is not scored may be included, and it will always be at the end of the test.

The Analytical Writing section always comes first in the test. All the other sections
may appear in an order, so every section must be treated as if it counts towards the
score.
The total test time is approximately 3 hours and 45 minutes, including the un-
scored section. Each section time is given accordingly and the time for each section
appears on the screen. Time left in one section cannot be carried out to the next
section.

Adaptive nature of the test: The Verbal reasoning the quantitative measures of
the GRE General test are section level adaptive, which means the second section of a
measure is selected by the computer based on your performance on the first section.

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GRE Introduction

Some of the specific features include:

1. Review option within a section

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 GRE Introduction

2. A “Mark” feature to tag questions so you can skip them and return

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GRE Introduction

3. The ability to change or edit answers with in a section

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 GRE Introduction

4. An on-screen calculator for the Quantitative Reasoning measure.

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GRE Introduction

Scoring:-

1. Analytical Writing measure: In this, each essay receives a score from at least
one trained reader. These readers are trained to assign scores based on the overall
quality of an essay. The essay is then scored by e-rater®, a computerized program
which has the capability of identifying essay features related to writing
proficiency. If the two scores closely agree, the average of the two scores is used
as the final score. If they disagree, a second human score is obtained, and the
final score is the average of the two human scores. Only a single score on the 0-6
score scale, in half-point increments, is reported on this section. Specific scoring
guidelines are present and available for reference at [Link]/gre/scores/how

2. Verbal Reasoning and Quantitative Reasoning Measures: The reported scores

are based on the number of correct responses to the questions in their respective
sections. The Verbal and Quant Reasoning measures are section-level adaptive,
which means the computer selects the second section of an individual measure
based on your performance on the first section. In a section, all questions
contribute equally to the final score. A raw score which equals to the number of
questions answered correctly is computed which indeed is equated again to give a
scaled score which depends on the difficulty level from test to test as well the
differences introduced by the section-level adaptation. The scaled score is
between 130 and 170 in 1-point increments.

The Score Select Option

The ‘ScoreSelect®’ option is available and can be used by anyone with

reportable scores from the last five years since the score is valid for 5 years. This
option equips you to decide which test scores can be reported to the universities you
wish for. You can send scores from your most recent test administration or scores for
all of the times you have taken a GRE test as part of your 4 free score reports. After
test day, Additional score reports can be ordered to send scores from your Most
Recent, All, or Any specific test administrations. The most important thing to
remember is scores for a test administration must be reported in their entirety.

How does this book help you?

The GRE In class course book is the right companion for you to take your
preparation to the next level and help you reach you desired scores. This book is
carefully crafted in such a way it covers all the question types and models that are
probably tested on the GRE. This handbook in along with the Practice bundle equips
you with the skills that are exactly required to crack the exam.

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 GRE Introduction

Chapter 1
Vocabulary
Learning a good number of words is crucial for the GRE aspirants to crack a
decent score on verbal Reasoning section. Approximately 50% of the questions that
appear on GRE test vocabulary in different ways. The questions include sentences
with missing information that can be filled only with considerable vocabulary
knowledge.

Though few questions can be solved by deducing the meaning of the words
through some unconventional methods, the only way to make the questions easy to
solve both Text Completion and Sentence Equivalence questions is to learn the words
that are frequently tested on GRE through different techniques that you learn in this
chapter.

The real challenge is not with the huge number of words that are to be
learned by the student rather it is with the number of days that are in hand to learn the
words. On an average, you have to learn 10 words a day in order to score decently on
the test.

There are two questions that pop up in the student’s mind: What words to be
learned? What are the easy ways to learn the words? Well! The answer is simple.
This in-class course book deals with sufficient number of words and techniques to
crack the vocabulary.

Write 5 words that you know the meanings of and not commonly used.

1. ________________________

2. ________________________

3. ________________________

4. ________________________

5. ________________________

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GRE Introduction

Some of the ways to learn vocabulary are

I. Root Words- A root or root word is a word that does not have a prefix in front of
the word or suffix at the end of the word. The root word is the primary lexical
unit of the word, and of a word family, which carries the most significant aspect
of semantic content and cannot be reduced into smaller constituents. Root words
come handy to you to deduce the meaning of a word if you have never seen the
word before. Also they help you remember the meaning of the word better than
any other methods of learning. However, there is a flip side to the learning of
words through root words: Root words may not be handy all the times. They can
be relied upon only around 60% of the times.

Prefixes
Sl. No. Prefix Meaning Examples
1. un- not; opposite uncover, unlock, unsafe
2. re- Again; back rewrite, reread, return

3. in-, im-, ir-, i Not; into incorrect, insert, inexpensive, illegal, irregular,

4. dis- Not, away, apart, disagree, discord, discomfort, discontent, distrust

5. en-, em- Cause to enjoy, endure, enlighten, entail

6. non- Not nonsense, nonverbal, nonstick, nonspecific

7. in-, im- In, into, not invade, implant, imperfect, immoral, inedible,

8. over - Too much overload, overdo, overact, overboard, overdose

9. mis- Wrongly misjudge, misinterpret, misguided, mismatch,

10. sub- Under submarine, subtext, substandard, substitute,

11. pre- Before preview, pretest, prevent, preplan

12. inter- Between, among interstate, international, intermission, intermingle,

13. fore- before foreshadow, foresight, foreseeable, forecast,

14. de-, dis- Opposite of, not depose, detour, dehydrated, decaffeinated, discord

15. trans- Across; move between transatlantic, transcend, transfer, transact, transport

16. super- Above supersonic, superstar, supernatural, superstore

17. semi- Half semicircle, semiprecious, semicolon, semifinal

18. anti- Against antifreeze, antithesis, antitrust, antidote, antisocial

19. mid- Middle midterm, Midwest, midstream, midway, midnight

20. under- Too little; not enough underfed, underdog, underestimate, underage

21. Ante- Before antebellum, antecedent, anterior

22. Be- To, completely belittle, befriend, bejeweled

23. Bene- Good, well beneficial, benefit, benediction, benevolent

24. Circum- Around, about circumference, circumvent

25. Co-, com-, con- Together, with cooperate, copilot, committee, commit, concur

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 GRE Introduction

Suffixes
Sl. Suffix Meaning Examples

No.
1. -s, -es plural more than one hotels, amendments, wishes, prefixes
2. -ed past tense in the past walked, jumped, helped

3. -ing present tense in the present walking, jumping, helping

4. -ate verb become complicate, hesitate, eradicate, placate,

5. -en verb become, to make enlighten, tighten, frighten, brighten, dampen, fasten

6. -ify, -fy verb make or become terrify, verify, clarify, dignify, rectify, magnify, classify

7. -ize, -ise verb to make; to become hypnotize, fertilize, civilize, rationalize, criticize

8. -ly adverb how something is quickly, easily, happily, majestically, nonchalantly

9. -acy noun state or quality privacy, occupancy, democracy, buoyancy, saliency

10. -ance, -ence noun state or quality of maintenance, eminence, prominence, dominance

11. -dom noun place or state of being freedom, kingdom, wisdom, fiefdom, boredom,

12. -er, -or, -ist, noun one who; what/that/which trainer, teacher, toaster, mentor, survivor, orator

13. -ism noun doctrine, belief communism, socialism, pragmatism, realism

14. -ist noun one who chemist, socialist, biologist, publicist, realist

15. -ity, -ty noun quality of veracity, honesty, clarity, laxity, sanity, vanity, rigidity

16. -ment noun condition of argument, judgment, apartment, contentment,

17. -ness noun state of being heaviness, happiness, openness, harshness

18. -ion, -sion, noun state of being; quality; act concession, transition, action, erosion, vision,

19. o-logy noun study of biology, mineralogy, ecology

20. -age noun result of an action marriage, pilgrimage

21. -hood noun condition of being neighborhood, falsehood, childhood

22. -ary noun place for, collection of; glossary, library, secretary, dignitary

23. -ship noun art or skill of, condition, leadership, citizenship, ownership, companionship

24. -able, -ible able to be, worthy of, comfortable, likable, enjoyable, honorable,

25. -ful adjective notable for, full of fanciful, beautiful, wonderful, colorful, eventful,

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GRE Introduction

Root Words
Sl. Root Meaning Origin Examples
No.
1. Aqua Water Greek aquarium, aqueduct, aquaculture, aquamarine,
2. Aud Hearing Latin audio, audition, audiovisual, auditorium, inaudible
3. Auto Self Greek autograph, autobiography, automobile, autocrat,
4. Astro Star Greek astronomy, astrophysics, astrology, astronaut,
5. Biblio Book Greek Bible, bibliography, bibliophobia, bibliophile, biblioklept
6. Bio Life Greek biography, biology, autobiography, bionic, biotic,
7. Chron Time Greek synchronize, chronology, chronic, chronicle,
8. Cide To kill, a killer Latin homocide, suicide, genocide
9. Corp Body Latin corpse, corporation, corps, incorporate, corporeal,
10. Cred To believe Latin credit, credentials, credulous, incredible
11. Demo, dem The people Greek democracy, demography, demogogue, endemic,
12. Dic, dict Speak, tell Latin dictate, dictation, diction, dictator, verdict, predict
13. Dorm Sleep Latin dormant, dormitory, dormer, dormouse
14. Geo Earth Greek geology, geologist, geometry, geography, geographer,
15. Graph To write, to draw Greek autograph, biography, photograph, telegraph,
16. Homo Same, alike Greek homonym, homogenize, homophone
17. Hydro Water Greek hydroplane, dehydrate, hydroelectric, hydrogen
18. ject throw Latin reject, deject, project, inject, injection, projection
19. Junct To join Latin junction, conjunction, adjunct, juncture
20. Logos, logy Study Greek geology, astrology, biology, numerology, zoology,
21. Luna Moon Latin lunar, lunacy, lunatic, interlunar
22. Meter Measure Greek meter, thermometer, diameter, geometry, optometry,
23. Micro Small Greek microscopic, microscope, microcosm
24. Mega, macro Great, large Greek megaphone, megalith, megatons, megalopolis,
25. Min Small, little Latin minimal, minimize, minimum, mini, miniature,
26. Mit, mis Send Latin mission, transmit, transmission, remit, missile,
27. Path Feeling, suffering Greek pathetic, pathology, apathy, antipathy, sympathy,
28. Ped Foot Latin pedestrian, pedal, peddle, peddler, pedicure,
29. philia Love, friendship Greek philosopher, Philadelphia, philanthropist, philharmonic,
30. Phobia Fear, intense Greek claustrophobia, xenophobic, arachnophobia
31. Phono sound Greek phonograph, microphone, symphony, telephone,
32. Photo Light Greek phonograph, photosynthesis, telephoto, photometer,
33. Port Carry Latin port, transport, transportation, portable, portage, report
34. Psycho Mind, mental Greek psychology, psychic, psychotropic, psychologist
35. Rupt To break Latin disrupt, interrupt, rupture, corrupt
36. Spect See Latin respect, inspection, inspector, spectator, spectacles,
37. scope Look at Greek microscope, telescope, periscope, kaleidoscope
38. Script To write Latin scribble, manuscript, scripture, prescription
39. Sol Sun Latin solar, solar system, solstice, solarium, parasol
40. Struct Build, form Latin instruct, instruction, construction, reconstruction,
41. Therm Heat, warm Greek thermostat, thermal
42. Tele Distant Greek telephone, television, telegraph, telephoto, telescope,
43. Terra Land Latin terrarium, extraterrestrial, Mediterranean Sea,
44. Vert, vers To turn Latin reverse, versatile, invert, convert, divert
45. zoo animal Greek zoology, zoogeography, zootoxin

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 GRE Introduction

II. Mnemonics- A mnemonic device or memory device is any learning technique

that aids information retention or retrieval in the human memory. Mnemonics
make use of elaborative encoding, retrieval cues, and imagery as specific tools to
encode any given information in a way that allows for efficient storage and
retrieval. Mnemonics aid original information in becoming associated with
something more accessible or meaningful- which, in turn, provides better
retention of the information.

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GRE Introduction

III. Synonyms- A synonym is a word or phrase that means exactly or nearly the same
as another lexeme in the same language. Learning words through synonyms
offers a big advantage to the GRE aspirants as synonyms are indirectly tested on
GRE through Sentence Equivalence questions explicitly and Text Completion
questions implicitly.

BUOYANT

GLEEFUL
EUPHORIC

DELIGHTED

HAPPY
ECSTATIC

EXUBERANT

EXHILARATED
BLISSFUL
BLITHE

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 GRE Introduction

IV. Association of words: A word can be associated with different objects or

symbols or people for better remembrance. For instance, the word “laconic”
which literally means “using few words” can be associated with a friend in your
class, a colleague in your office, or a relative in your family who talks very
less; Similarly, a smiley symbol can be associated with words that mean or
closely mean happiness, content, satisfaction, calmness etc. These associations
help you recall the meanings of words that would greatly assist you in the
process of elimination while dealing both Text completion and Sentence
Equivalence questions.

SLUGGISH
LASSITUDE
PONDEROUS
INDOLNET
SOPORIFIC
LISTLESS
TORPOR
TORPID
MALINGERER
LETHARGIC
LAZY
SLOTHFUL

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GRE Introduction

V. Sentences: Learning words by creating sentences gives you two fold

advantages. Not only it makes you remember the words, but also this particular
method helps you to do better on both the sentence equivalence and text
completion questions as the ideology behind those questions closely aligns with
the sentence formation for learning vocabulary. One has to take note that while
forming the own sentences, one has to ensure that the sentence conveys the
meaning of the word that is used in the sentence.

A. Zandu Balm assuages my headache.

B. This has been a typical day for me – with the exception of a nice evening out

C. You are inexperienced, innocent – even naïve, but you are not immature.

D. Being struck by lightning is actually a rather anomalous event, since the chances

of being struck by lightning are so astronomically low.

E. We had such surfeit of food during the holidays that we gave a large proportion

of it to the family across the street.

F. Because fate is capricious, you never know what it will bring into your life.

G. Gregarious people are likely to hang out with friends every weekend while

reserved people keep to themselves.

H. Although I am generally not inquisitive about my neighbors, I am very curious

about the people who moved next door to me yesterday.

I. The lightning was evanescent and disappeared just as quickly as it appeared.

J. Even though the singer earned millions of dollars during her heyday, she was

impecunious and homeless when she died.

K. In order for the contestant to do the vivacious dance, she knew she would need to

improve her stamina and endurance due to all of those wild dance steps.

L. The politician spoke with a fervid intensity that made people want to vote for

him.

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 GRE Vocabulary

Basic Words
Group 1
1. Demure : Quiet and Polite; Not attracting a lot of attention
2. Inundate : To flood or overwhelm
3. Macabre : Gruesome; involving death or violence in a way that is
unpleasant
4. Serendipity : luck that takes the form of finding valuable or pleasant things
that are not looked for
5. Variance : an amount of difference or change
6. Affluent : Very wealthy
7. Slapdash : Quick and careless
8. Indigenous : produced, living, or present naturally in a particular
region/environment
9. Scintillating: Very clever, amusing, and interesting
10. Errant : not going in intended direction
11. Vicarious : felt or undergone as if one were taking part in the experience or
feelings of another
12. Wax : to gradually increase in size and intensity
13. Cogent : clear and persuasive
14. Extenuating : making less severe or less guilty
15. Bellicose : having or showing a tendency to argue or fight
16. Thwart : hinder or prevent
17. Flounder : have difficulties
18. Fledgling : young and inexperienced
19. Ornate : elaborately or excessively decorated
20. Meander : a winding path or course; to wander aimlessly
21. Stolid : showing little or no emotion; not easily excited or upset
22. Quandary : a state of confusion
23. Elusive : hard to find or capture or understand or define or remember
24. Lucid : easily understandable; very clear
25. Credence : belief that something is true

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GRE Vocabulary

Group – 1

1. Esoteric A. Who is unconventional

2. Anomaly B. Very generous
3. Maverick C. Understood only by few; mysterious.
4. Munificent D. To make better; less painful
5. Intrepid E. Something that is unusual
6. Ameliorate F. Fearless

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 GRE Vocabulary

Group 2

1. Profuse : given, produced, or existing in large amounts

2. Thrifty : to spend money wisely
3. Dogged : stubborn or determined
4. Peruse : to examine or read in a very careful way
5. Amiable : friendly and pleasant
6. Inflammatory : causing anger; incendiary; controversial
7. Remiss : not showing enough care and attention; negligent
8. Zenith : the strongest or the most successful period of time
9. Becoming : suitable or appropriate; causing someone to look
attractive
10. Immaterial : not important or significant
11. Cadaverous : looking very thin and pale; resembling a corpse
12. Disparate : dissimilar
13. Preemptive : done to stop an unwanted act
14. Avarice : a strong desire to have or get money
15. Hodgepodge : a confusing mixture of different things
16. Transitory : lasting only for a short time; brief
17. Inclement : physically severe; stormy and unpleasant
18. Respite : an interval of rest or relief
19. Obdurate : stubbornly persistent; resistance to persuasion or
softening influences
20. Renege : to refuse to do something that you promised to do
21. Degrade : to treat poorly and without respect
22. Raffish : not completely acceptable or respectable but interesting
and attractive
23. Incessant : continuing or flowing without interruption
24. Benign : kind or harmless
25. Assuage : make something intense less severe

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GRE Vocabulary

Group – 2

1. Capricious A. Simply or plain ; not fancy

2. Arduous B. Not skillful; very awkward
3. Maladroit C. Composed of elements drawn from
various sources.
4. Austere D. Very difficult
5. Taciturn E. Often changing suddenly, unpredictable
6. Eclectic F. Tending to be quiet

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 GRE Vocabulary

Group 3

1. Underwrite : to give money to support and agree to be responsible for

any losses if it fails
2. Vindictive : to have a strong desire for revenge
3. Affable : friendly and easily to talk to
4. Miser : a very stingy person; a person who hates to spend
money
5. Diabolical : extremely evil
6. Tirade : a long and angry speech
7. Erratic : not consistent or regular; unpredictable
8. Unnerve : to make feel afraid or upset
9. Ingenious : very smart and clever
10. Melee : a confused struggle or fight involving many people
11. Desecrate : to damage a holy place or object; to violate the sanctity
12. Beatific : showing complete happiness
13. Imponderable : not able to be measured or judged exactly
14. Cardinal : a thing of primary importance; fundamental
15. Check : a sudden pause or break in a progression
16. Moot : open to argument or debate
17. Malleable : capable of being easily changed or influenced
18. Jocular : said or done as a joke
19. Deter : to prevent from happening; to cause someone to decide
not to do something
20. Robust : strong and healthy
21. Fete : a large party or celebration
22. Patronize : to give money or support to someone or something; to
talk in a way that shows that you believe you are more
intelligent or better than other people
23. Avid : wanting/showing eagerness to want something very
much
24. Urbane : sophisticated
25. Conducive : tending to promote or assist

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GRE Vocabulary

Group – 3

1. Mundane A. Very small difference or variation

2. Veracity B. Rude or impolite
3. Nuance C. One who dissents from an accepted belief or doctrine
4. Reverent D. Dull and ordinary
5. Insolent E. The quality of being truthful or honest
6. Heretic F. Very respectful

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 GRE Vocabulary

Group 4

1. Spendthrift : a person who spends money in a careless or reckless

way
2. Demean : to insult; to cause someone to lose dignity or respect
3. Reprobate : to condemn strongly as unworthy, unacceptable or evil
4. Screed : a long and angry piece of writing that usually accuses
someone
5. Telltale : an outward sign
6. Hound : very determined to get/achieve something
7. Retiring : quiet and shy
8. Insolvent : not having enough money to pay debts
9. Ingenuous : innocent and unsuspecting
10. Corroborate : to support or help prove by providing information or
service
11. Badger : to pester
12. Raft : a large number of collection
13. Virago : an angry woman who often complains about and
criticizes other people
14. Misanthrope : a hater of mankind
15. Aboveboard : open, honest, and straight forward manner
16. Dearth : a lack of or not having something
17. Proponent : a person who argues for or supports something
18. Pithy : using few words in a clever and effective way
19. Consummate : complete in every aspect; extremely skillful
20. Snide : unkind or insulting in an indirect way
21. Plodding : to progress or develop slowly
22. Endemic : belonging or native to a particular people or country
23. Impede : an obstacle to; a hindrance to
24. Whimsical : unusual in a playful or amusing way
25. Pristine : in perfect condition; unspoiled, untouched

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GRE Vocabulary

Group – 4

1. Nonplussed A. Not capable of being changed; impossible to revoke

2. Posit B. Travelling from place to place
3. Fastidious C. A state of perplexity
4. Irrevocable D. Very talkative
5. Garrulous E. To assume or affirm the existence
6. Itinerant F. Overly concerned with details

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 GRE Vocabulary

Group 5

1. Cornucopia : a great amount of something

2. Tumult : a state of noisy confusion or disorder
3. Debase : to lower the value or reputation of something
4. Perpetuate : cause to continue that should actually be stopped
5. Martial : related to war
6. Altruism : quality of unselfish regard for the welfare of others
7. Vacuous : having or showing a lack of intelligence or serious
thought
8. Malady : a disease or sickness
9. Guffaw : a loud or boisterous burst of laughter
10. Entice : to attract artfully or adroitly or by arousing hope or
desire
11. Apprehension : fearful expectation
12. Ingenuity : the power or skill of design or contrivance
13. Impermeable : not allowing something, such as a liquid, to pass through
14. Morose : very sad or unhappy
15. Archaic : old and no longer useful
16. Ferret : an active and persistent searcher
17. Amok : frenzied or uncontrolled state
18. Exhort : to strongly urge to do something
19. Animosity : a strong feeling of dislike or hatred
20. Checkered : including good parts and bad parts
21. Heyday : used to express elation or wonder
22. Tender : very loving and gentle; to offer formally
23. Indict : to accuse of wrong doing
24. Voracious : very hungry
25. Acme/pinnacle : the highest point of achievement

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GRE Vocabulary

Group – 5

1. Misconstrue A. Interpret in a wrong way

2. Stringent B. hostile
3. Polemic C. A strong writer or spoken attack against someone else’s
opinions etc
4. Accolade D. Very strict or severe
5. Repudiate E. An award or an expression of praise
6. Inimical F. To refuse to accept or support; disown

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 GRE Vocabulary

Group 6

1. Empathetic : the ability to share someone else’s feelings

2. Smattering : scarcity
3. Assail : to attack or criticize in a violent or angry way
4. Contemptuous : feeling or showing deep hatred or disapproval
5. Glib : smooth talk that is not sincere
6. Inadvertent : not intended or planned
7. Buck : resist
8. Pertinent : having a clear decisive relevance to the matter in hand
9. Banish : to send away
10. Fickle : changing options often
11. Grovel : to creep with the face to the ground
12. Hamstrung : made ineffective or powerless
13. Derisive : use of ridicule or scorn to show contempt
14. Commendable : worthy of praise
15. Rankle : to feel anger and irritation
16. Genial : agreeable or favorable to growth or comfort
17. Detrimental : causing harm or injury
18. Illicit : illegal/ forbidden by law
19. Augment : to increase the size or amount of something
20. Spurn : to refuse to accept
21. Bleak : not warm, cheerful, friendly etc
22. Pine : to yearn for
23. Candid/candor : straight forward and honest
24. Embroil : to involve in conflict or difficulties
25. Indignant : very angry; feeling anger because of something that is
unfair or wrong

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GRE Vocabulary

Group – 6

1. Impudent A. Flamboyant confidence

2. Deferential B. To be the end or final result of
3. Lambast C. Showing great respect
4. Panache D. Very rude; lacking modesty
5. Dogmatic E. Highly opinionated
6. Culminate F. criticize severely or angrily

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 GRE Vocabulary

Progressive Words
Group 1
1. Esoteric : limited to a small number of people
2. Timorous : easily frightened
3. Duress : forcible restraint or restriction
4. Anomaly : something that is unusual or unexpected
5. Contrite : regretful
6. Maverick : an independent individual who is unconventional
7. Placate : to soothe or mollify
8. Appease : to make less painful or troubling
9. Dilettante : an admirer or lover of the arts who has superficial
knowledge
10. Munificent : very generous
11. Subversive : in opposition to an established system or institution
12. Arcane : secret or mysterious
13. Sycophant : a person who pleases someone to gain a personal
advantage
14. Intrepid : fearless
15. Myriad : a very large number of things
16. Audacity : a confident and daring quality that is often seen as
shocking or rude
17. Obsequious : exhibiting or flattery/fawning attentiveness
18. Precipitous : done too quickly and without enough thought or
planning
19. Blatant : very obvious and offensive
20. Confound : to surprise and confuse
21. Languid : having very little strength, energy or activity; slow and
relaxed
22. Juxtapose : to place together in order to create an interesting effect
or to show how they are the same or different
23. Jingoism : extreme nationalism marked especially by a belligerent
foreign policy
24. Staunch : very firm
25. Ameliorate : to make better; less painful

GT – PREP 28
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 1

1. Peremptory A. Worthless and irresponsible

2. Sagacious B. Intricate and complex
3. Feckless C. Reluctant; disinclination
4. Byzantine D. To deceive or trick someone
5. Hoodwink E. Sound judgment; mentally shrewd
6. Loath F. Bossy and domineering

GT – PREP 29
 GRE Vocabulary

Group 2
1. Capricious : often changing suddenly in mood or behavior
2. Disseminate : to cause to go to many people; spread widely
3. Arduous : very difficult
4. Askance : in a way that shows a lack of trust
5. Ignominy : deep personal humiliation and disgrace
6. Bolster : to support and strengthen
7. Maladroit : not skillful; very awkward
8. Furtive : done in a quiet and secret way to avoid being noticed
9. Hegemony : the social, or economical influence exerted by a
dominant group
10. Circumscribe : to limit the size or amount of something; to restrict
11. Austere : simple or plain; not fancy
12. Poignant : causing a strong feeling of sadness
13. Pernicious : highly injurious or destructive
14. Prodigious : amazing or wonderful; very impressive
15. Propitious : favorably disposed
16. Taciturn : tending to be quiet
17. Scrupulous : having moral integrity
18. Lionize : to treat as a very important and famous person
19. Hackneyed : not fresh or original; trite
20. Bumbling : lacking physical movement skills, especially with the
hands
21. Jubilant : feeling or expressing great joy; very happy
22. Belligerent : angry and aggressive; engaged in a war
23. Haughty : blatantly proud
24. Quotidian : ordinary or very common; done each day
25. Eclectic : composed of elements drawn from various sources

GT – PREP 30
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 2

1. Vitriolic A. Dull and ordinary

2. Indigent B. Extreme poverty
3. Prosaic C. Harsh and angry word
4. Anathema D. Something that is very strongly disliked
5. Precipitate E. To cause to happen quickly or suddenly
6. Evanescent F. Disappearing, vanishing momentary, ephemeral

GT – PREP 31
 GRE Vocabulary

Group 3

1. Dispassionate : not influenced or affected by emotions

2. Mundane : dull and ordinary
3. Edifying : to teach in a way that improves mind or character
4. Veracity : the quality of being truthful or honest
5. Craven : complete lack of courage; very cowardly
6. Pejorative : expressing disapproval (usually refers to a ‘term’)
7. Sullen : gloomily or resentfully silent
8. Nuance : very small difference or variation
9. Tractable : easily managed or controlled
10. Reverent : very respectful
11. Winsome : cheerful, pleasant, and appealing
12. Prolific : producing a large amount of something
13. Tempered : moderated
14. Resurgent : rising again after a period of dormant
15. Brazen : marked by contemptuous boldness
16. Foment : to promote the growth of a public opinion(bad/harmful)
17. Insolent : rude or impolite
18. Ravenous : very hungry
19. Denigrate : to make seem less important or valuable
20. Iconoclastic : a person who attacks settled beliefs or institutions
21. Contrive : to bring/ to form/ to make happen in a clever way
22. Subsume : to include; consider as a part of general rule
23. Precocious : exceptionally early in development or maturity
24. Heretic : one who dissents from an accepted belief or doctrine
25. Ascetic : practicing strict self-denial

GT – PREP 32
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 3

1. Malapropism A. To give a brief summary

2. Effrontery B. Easily annoyed or angered
3. Recapitulate C. On error that occurs when a person mistakenly uses a
word that sounds like another word but has a very
different meaning
4. Temerity D. A quick and cheerful readiness to do something
5. Truculent E. Shameless boldness
6. Alacrity F. Fearless daring; rash or reckless act

GT – PREP 33
 GRE Vocabulary

Group 4

1. Nonplussed : a state of perplexity

2. Posit : to assume or affirm the existence
3. Banality : something that is boring or ordinary
4. Mendacity : lack of honesty
5. Imprudent : not wise or sensible
6. Fastidious : overly concerned with details
7. Erudite : having or showing knowledge
8. Opulence : wealthy, affluent
9. Efficacious : having ability to produce a desired result or effect
10. Inveterate : habitual; always or often happening
11. Admonish : to speak in a way that expresses disapproval or criticism
12. Antithetical : being in direct and unequivocal opposition
13. Irrevocable : not capable of being changed; impossible to revoke
14. Gauche : lacking social experience or grace
15. Pedestrian : not interesting or unusual
16. Arbitrary : not based on reason or evidence or depending on
individual discretion
17. Trite : boring; not fresh or original
18. Garrulous : very talkative
19. Reconcile : to cause people to become friendly again after an
argument or disagreement
20. Implausible : not believable or realistic
21. Circumvent : to get around in a clever and sometimes dishonest way
22. Incongruous : not harmonious
23. Abstain : to choose not to do
24. Itinerant : travelling from place to place
25. Vilify : to say or write very harsh and critical things about
someone

GT – PREP 34
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 4

1. Gaffe A. The worst or lowest part of something

2. Grandiloquent B. A strong verbal attack against a person / institution
3. Charlatan C. A mistake made in a social situation
4. Nadir D. A remedy for all ills or difficulties
5. Diatribe E. A lofty, extravagantly colorful, pompous, or bombastic
style or manner
6. Panacea F. A flamboyant deceiver

GT – PREP 35
 GRE Vocabulary

Group 5

1. Truncate : reduce the length of something

2. Misconstrue : interpret in a wrong way
3. Deleterious : damaging or harmful
4. Stringent : very strict or severe
5. Harried : bothered by many petty problems or worries
6. Dilatory : tending to be late
7. Antipathy : a strong feeling of dislike
8. Polemic : a strong written or spoken attack against someone else’s
opinions etc
9. Specious : having deceptive action
10. Rescind : to end officially; repeal
11. Sporadic : occurring occasionally, singly, or in irregular or random
instances
12. Ostracize : to exclude from a group
13. Vacillate : to repeatedly change your opinions or desires
14. Accolade : an award or an expression of praise
15. Haphazard : marked by great carelessness
16. Repudiate : to refuse to accept or support; disown
17. Inimical : hostile
18. Inscrutable : difficult to understand; unfathomable
19. Adamant : stubborn; impenetrable
20. Incorrigible : not able to be corrected or changed
21. Vehement : showing strong and often angry feelings; very emotional
22. Refractory : difficult to control
23. Ephemeral : lasting for a short time; brief
24. Delineate : to clearly show or describe
25. Elucidate : to make clear or easy to understand

GT – PREP 36
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 5

1. Lugubrious A. Confuse; mystery or bewildering

2. Approbation B. Very poor
3. Flummox C. Excessively mournful
4. Fractious D. Praise or approval
5. Penurious E. Lively and enthusiastic
6. Ebullient F. Tending to be troublesome

GT – PREP 37
 GRE Vocabulary

Group 6

1. Travesty : a mockery
2. Forlorn : nearly hopeless
3. Impudent : very rude; lacking modesty
4. Glut : to flood; to fill especially with food to satiety
5. Deferential : showing great respect
6. Treacherous : likely to betray trust
7. Insidious : causing harm in a way that is gradual or not easily
noticed
8. Lambast : criticize severely or angrily
9. Gossamer : a very light or delicate material
10. Frivolous : silly and not serious
11. Panache : lots of energy and flamboyance in style or action
12. Spurious : not genuine, sincere or authentic
13. Guileless : very innocent
14. Diffident : lacking confidence; not comfortable around people
15. Dogmatic : highly opinionated
16. Apathy : no emotion or enthusiasm
17. Unequivocal : strong and clear; not allowing or showing any doubt
18. Fallacious : not true or accurate
19. Conspicuous : very clear; completely obvious
20. Prescience : foreknowledge of events
21. Magnanimous : generous and kind nature
22. Tenacious : very determined to do something
23. Mollify : to calm down
24. Vociferous : expressed in a very loud or forceful way
25. Culminate : to be the end or final result of

GT – PREP 38
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 6

1. Turgid A. Sad because a family member or friend has died

2. Oblique B. Confidence and skill shown especially in a different
situation
3. Complaisant C. Become less intense
4. Bereft D. Very complicated and difficult to understand
5. Aplomb E. Not straight forward
6. Flag F. Marked by an inclination to please or oblige

GT – PREP 39
 GRE Vocabulary

Advanced Words
Group 1

1. Peremptory : bossy and domineering

2. Imbroglio : a complex dispute or argument
3. Sinecure : a job in which someone is paid to do little work
4. Anemic : lacking energy and vigor
5. Probity : integrity, strong moral principles
6. Moribund : very close to death; lost all momentum
7. Sagacious : having ability to understand difficult ideas and situations
to make good decisions
8. Anodyne : alleviates pain
9. Pecuniary : of or relating to money
10. Plucky : having a lot of courage and determination
11. Illustrious : admired and respected very much
12. Feckless : worthless and irresponsible
13. Byzantine : intricate and complex
14. Conciliate : to make more friendly or less angry
15. Visage : a person’s face
16. Apogee : the highest point of something
17. Saturnine : very serious; unhappy
18. Chary : cautious about doing something
19. Perfunctory : lacking in interest or enthusiasm
20. Hoodwink : to deceive or trick someone
21. Enamored : to cause to be loved or admired
22. Cataclysm : something that causes great destruction, violence etc
23. Loath : not wanting or willing to do something
24. Eponym : the name derived from a person (real or imaginary)
25. Capitulate : surrender

GT – PREP 40
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 1

1. Errant A. Clear and persuasive

2. Affluent B. Have difficulties
3. Meander C. A winding path or course; to wander aimlessly
4. Slapdash D. Very wealthy
5. Cogent E. Not going in intended direction
6. Flounder F. Quick and careless

GT – PREP 41
 GRE Vocabulary

Group 2

1. Histrionic : too emotional or dramatic

2. Sangfroid : self-possession; the ability to stay calm in difficult or
dangerous situations
3. Maunder : grumble; to wander slowly and aimlessly
4. Semblance : actual or apparent resemblance
5. Provident : careful about planning for the future
6. Derelict : abandoned by the owner or occupant; not doing one’s
duties
7. Impute : to credit to a person or a cause; attribute fault to
something
8. Vitriolic : harsh and angry words
9. Lampoon : harsh satire that mocks an individual
10. Enjoin : to direct or order to do something
11. Industrious : working very hard
12. Indigent : suffering from extreme poverty
13. Prosaic : dull or ordinary
14. Churlish : not polite; lacking manners
15. Turpitude : a very evil way of behaving; a depraved act
16. Lascivious : sexually perverted
17. Anathema : something that is very strongly disliked
18. Supercilious : looking down on others
19. Precipitate : to cause to happen quickly or suddenly
20. Modicum : a small amount
21. Extrapolate : to form an opinion or to make an estimate about
something from known facts
22. Pillory : ridicule or expose to public scorn
23. Evanescent : lasting a very short time
24. Row : an angry dispute
25. Dissipate : to use or spend a lot of resources in a foolish way; to
disperse and scatter

GT – PREP 42
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 2

1. Profuse A. Not showing enough care and attention; negligent

2. Peruse B. An interval of rest or relief
3. Inflammatory C. Dissimilar
4. Remiss D. Abundance, lavish
5. Disparate E. Causing anger; incendiary; controversial
6. Respite F. To examine or read in a very careful way

GT – PREP 43
 GRE Vocabulary

Group 3

1. Sartorial : related to clothes

2. Malapropism : an error that occurs when a person mistakenly uses a
word that sounds like another word but has a very
different meaning
3. Effrontery : shameless boldness
4. Mordant : expressing harsh criticism especially in a way that is
funny
5. Prognostication : to foretell
6. Importune : ask persistently sand urgently
7. Insouciance : light-hearted unconcern
8. Recapitulate : to give a brief summary
9. Litany : a long list of complaints, problems etc
10. Portentous : giving a sign or warning that something usually bad or
unpleasant is going to happen
11. Temerity : fearless daring; rash or reckless act
12. Choleric : made angry easily
13. Truculent : easily annoyed or angered
14. Cow : to intimidate
15. Attenuate : reducing in force, density etc
16. Hector : bully or intimidate or insult
17. Alacrity : a quick and cheerful readiness to do something
18. Arrant : of the worst kind
19. Pariah : one that is despised or rejected
20. Splenetic : very angry and annoyed
21. Countermand : to cancel (an order) especially by giving a new order
22. Obtain : to continue to be accepted or in use
23. Surfeit : an overabundant supply
24. Bastardization : to reduce from a higher state to a lower state or
condition
25. Abrogate : to end or cancel in a formal or official way

GT – PREP 44
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 3

1. Vindictive A. A thing of primary importance; fundamental

2. Diabolical B. To prevent from happing; to cause someone to decide
not to do something
3. Tirade C. To have a strong desire for revenge
4. Ingenious D. Extremely evil
5. Cardinal E. A long and angry speech
6. Deter F. Very smart and clever

GT – PREP 45
 GRE Vocabulary

Group 4

1. Palimpsest : something that has been changed numerous times but on

which traces of former iterations can still be seen
2. Solecism : an impolite or improper behavior
3. Hagiographic : excessively flattering toward someone’s life or work
4. Raconteur : someone who is good at telling stories
5. Gaffe : a mistake made in a social situation
6. Bowdlerize : to change (a book, play, movie etc) by removing pars
that could offend people
7. Perspicacious : acute mental vision or discernment
8. Punctilious : very careful about doing things in a correct and accurate
way
9. Grandiloquent : a lofty, extravagantly colorful, pompous, or bombastic
style or manner
10. Charlatan : a flamboyant deceiver
11. Nadir : the worst or lowest part of something
12. Diatribe : a strong verbal attack against a person/institution
13. Sedulous : diligent in application or pursuit; done diligently
14. Kowtow : to bow in a subservient manner
15. Zeitgeist : the general ideas, beliefs of a time and place
16. Contentious : willing or likely to argue
17. Jingoist : extreme nationalism
18. Exegesis : critical interpretation of a trust
19. Defray : to pay for
20. Exorbitant : too high, expensive etc
21. Concomitant : happening at the same time as something else
22. Promulgate : to make known officially and publicly
23. Infelicitous : not appropriate or well-timed
24. Exiguity : excessively scanty; inadequate
25. Panacea : a remedy for all ills or difficulties

GT – PREP 46
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 4

1. Reprobate A. Complete in every aspect; extremely skillful

2. Ingenuous B. A hater of mankind
3. Misanthrope C. Innocent and unsuspecting
4. Consummate e D. To condemn strongly as unworthy, unacceptable or evil
5. Impede E. An obstacle to; a hindrance to
6. Pristine F. In perfect condition, unspoiled, untouched

GT – PREP 47
 GRE Vocabulary

Group 5

1. Execrate : to dislike and criticize very strongly

2. Cede : to give control of something ton another person; to
relinquish
3. Lugubrious : excessively mournful
4. Quail : to feel afraid and often to show your fear in a way that
can be clearly seen
5. Epiphany : a sudden moment of insight
6. Approbation : praise or approval
7. Flummox : confuse; mystery or bewildering
8. Enthrall : to hold spellbound
9. Prolix : using too many words
10. Umbrage : a feeling of being offended by what someone has said or
done
11. Overweening : too confident or proud
12. Expunge : to remove completely
13. Apostate : a person who has abandoned a religious faith
14. Vicissitude : the quality or state of being changeable
15. Ponderous : very boring or dull
16. Malfeasance : wrongdoing or misconduct especially by a public
official
17. Fractious : tending to be troublesome
18. Factious : produced by internal dissension
19. Penurious : very poor
20. Estimable : deserving respect
21. Chauvinism : excessive or blind patriotism
22. Trenchant : very strong, clear and effective
23. Palaver : talk incessantly about something that is not important or
meaningful
24. Ebullient : lively and enthusiastic
25. Ineluctable : not able to be avoided or changed

GT – PREP 48
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 5

1. Cornucopia A. To attract artfully or adroitly or by arousing hope or

desire
2. Altruism B. An active and persistent searcher
3. Malady C. Quality of unselfish regard for the welfare of others
4. Entice D. Very sad or unhappy
5. Morose E. A great amount of something
6. Ferret F. A disease or sickness

GT – PREP 49
 GRE Vocabulary

Group 6

1. Verisimilitude : the appearance of truth

2. Simulacrum : a poor imitation or resemblance
3. Halcyon : calm and peaceful; tranquility
4. Turgid : very complicated and difficult to understand
5. Malingerer : to pretend to be sick or injured to avoid work
6. Oblique : not straight forward
7. Dissemble : to hide under a false appearance; disguise
8. Canard : a deliberately misleading fabrication or lie
9. Complaisant : marked by an inclination to please or oblige
10. Unimpeachable : very reliable and trusted
11. Veritable : true or real
12. Adjudicate : to make an official decision about who is right in a
dispute
13. Ethereal : very delicate
14. Proscribe : to not allow; to make illegal
15. Inviolable : too important to be ignored
16. Raillery : light teasing; friendly joking
17. Bereft : sad because a family member or friend has died
18. Aplomb : confidence and skill shown especially in a different
situation
19. Hauteur : arrogant
20. Facile : too simple; lacking depth
21. Flag : become less intense
22. Officious : intrusive in a meddling or offensive manner
23. Assiduously : showing great care, attention and effort
24. Transmute : to completely change the form, appearance, or nature
25. Doughty : brave, bold, and courageous

GT – PREP 50
GRE Vocabulary

Group – 6

1. Assail A. Use of ridicule or scorn to show contempt

2. Glib B. Not intended or planned
3. Pertinent C. Smooth talk that is not sincere
4. Inadvertent D. To attack or criticize in a violent or angry way
5. Derisive E. Causing harm or injury
6. Detrimental F. Having a clear decisive relevance to the matter in hand

GT – PREP 51
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

GT – PREP 52
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Sentence Equivalence

GT – PREP 53
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

GT – PREP 54
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Sentence Equivalence
Sentence Equivalence questions test the ability to reach a conclusion about how a
sentence should be completed on the basis of partial or incomplete information, but to
a greater extent they focus on the meaning of the completed whole. Sentence
Equivalence questions consist of a single sentence with just one blank, and they ask
you to find two choices that both lead to a complete, coherent sentence and that
produce sentences that mean the same thing.

Question pattern
It consists of a single sentence, single blank and six answer choices out of which you
are required to select two of the answer choices which will be regarded as your
credited responses. No credit for partially correct answers is given.

Note: These questions are marked with square boxes beside the answer choices, not
circles or ovals.

Model Question:
Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are
alike in the meaning

Because the pandas had already been weakened by the disease and drought, a harsh
winter would have had __________ consequences for them.

Preventive
Regressive
Dire
Unforeseen
Moderate
Fatal

GT – PREP 55
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

Steps to follow

Step 1:
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________

Step 2:
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________

Step 3:
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________

Step 4:
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________

Step 5:
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________

How to get the context clue?

Question 1:
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________

Question 2:
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________

GT – PREP 56
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Sign Posts:
Same Direction:
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

Opposite Direction:
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

Miscellaneous:
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10

GT – PREP 57
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

Lesson 2
Sentence Equivalence Questions
There are 8 sentence equivalence questions that are equally spread between two
sections. Each sentence equivalence question consists of a single sentence with 6
options out of which 2 credited responses are to be given.

Model Sentence Equivalence question

Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are
alike in the meaning.

Although it does contain some pioneering ideas, one would hardly characterize the
work as ____________.

Orthodox
Eccentric
Original
Trifling
Conventional
Innovative

(Source- official guide to the GRE test)

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GRE Sentence Equivalence

Methodology
People who visit the zoos are stunned to see ______________ animals.
Diurnal
Nocturnal
Herbivorous
Carnivorous
Domestic
Cruel

Which two are the answer choices for the above question? ______________
Do you find an anomaly in the question? ______________
Is the question complete? ______________
What could make the question complete? ______________

GT – PREP 59
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

Fill in the following blanks by underlining the context clue and circling the sign
post.

Exercise 1
1. Alexander’s _____________ proved keenest when he accurately predicted that
his books would someday appear in his native Russia.
2. The simple and direct images in Dorothea’s photographs provide _____________
reflection of a bygone social milieu.
3. Kate’s impulsive nature and sudden whims led her friends to label her
_____________
4. Known for her _____________, Miranda eagerly welcomes anyone into her
home
5. Not surprisingly, supporters of the governor’s plan to set aside land for a forest
preserve were disappointed when a court decision _____________the plan.
6. Because playing a musical instrument increases brain activity, it is sometimes
used as a _____________ to promote learning in children.
7. After winning the award, Philip adopted a haughty pose, treating even his best
friends in a _____________ manner.
8. The general was so widely suspected of _____________ during the war that his
name eventually became synonymous with disloyalty.
9. The prose of Richard Wright’s autobiographical Black Boy is _____________,
free of stylistic tricks or evasiveness.
10. The fashion designer favored fabrics that were so _____________ as to be
virtually transparent.

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GRE Sentence Equivalence

Exercise 2

1. Professor Williams disdained tradition: she regularly attacked beliefs and

institutions, earning her a reputation as _____________.
2. The biologist’s description of the wolf pack was truly_____________, devoid of
any emotion or personal prejudice.
3. Although easily angered by our mischievous behavior, our mother e=could be
immediately _____________ by our expressions of remorse.
4. Scientists wonder what to do with the dead satellites, jettisoned rockets, drifting
paint flecks, and other _____________ orbiting Earth.
5. The commentator characterized the electorate as _____________ because it was
unpredictable and given to constantly shifting moods.
6. Geoffrey’s corrupt dealings earned him such disgrace that any possibility of his
being reelected to the city council was completely _____________
7. With its large circulation, Essence magazine has enjoyed _____________ only
recently challenged by new publications aggressively seeking female African
American readers.
8. The judge’s published opinions, though sophisticated and subtle, were
undeniably_____________: they left no doubt of her intentions.
9. Many paintings of the American Southwest convey a feeling of isolation that
mirrors the _____________ landscape they depict.
10. Only recently created, this orchid is a _____________, a plant produced by
deliberately crossbreeding two different varieties of flowers.

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 GRE Sentence Equivalence

Working set 1
1. Players who merely embrace the status quo and do not devote a sizable portion
of their time to improve skills are not likely to compete well with more
___________ players who are not afraid to take risks in order to grow.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Ignoble
Bipolar
Lame
Ingratiate
Doughty
Dauntless

2. The reviewer surreptitiously insisted that the movie was seriously flawed, citing
both its sophomoric plot and indifferent actors, but then wrote a review that
____________ the attempt.
Context Clue : _________________
Sign post : _________________
Castigated
Approbated
Admonished
Testified
Disregarded
Commended

GT – PREP 62
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 63
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

3. Sunspots, now recognized by scientists as areas of reduced solar surface

temperature that are caused by magnetic activity, were once thought to be dwarf
planets due to the ____________ of astronomical knowledge at that time.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Obstruction
Paucity
Deliberation
Scantiness
Censoring
Passivity

4. The torrent of ß-ray emissions generated by the “LHC” during Neutrinos

Collision is __________ in nature; Physicists have found it challenging to
collect sensible data from such a brief time span.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Soporific
Arduous
Ephemeral
Adamant
Fugacious
Imminent

GT – PREP 64
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 65
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

5. The Managing Director’s financial adviser, though lately was castigated for his
sycophancy, was, in the past, admonished for his _________ manner.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Peremptory
Servitude
Unscrupulous
Notorious
Petulant
Overweening

6. The baseball coach’s repute for _______________ his team was well-deserved;
his speeches, most of the time, were usually filled with scathing rebukes.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Wanting
Upbraiding
Exacting
Excoriating
Terminating
Ravening

GT – PREP 66
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 67
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

7. In its _____________ stages, before someone knew about its hawkish designs,
the FDI bill won unanimous approval.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Ascetic
Perilous
Nascent
Pernicious
Incipient
Resurgent

8. Its treasury full with another round of investment funding, the novice company
was inexperienced enough to adopt ____________ spending policy, and it
quickly exhausted its erstwhile surplus.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

A squandering
A parsimonious
A prodigal
An impecunious
A pedantic
An economical

GT – PREP 68
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 69
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

9. By surrounding himself with ___________, the regent was shielded from

criticism and was thus blind to the shortsightedness of many of his decrees until
their effects were manifest.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Sycophants
Pedestrians
Mavericks
Toadies
Distractions
Diversions

10. The difficulty inherent in witnessing one’s thoughts lies in their

______________ nature; but although most thoughts are fleeting, the care
necessary to observe them can be worthwhile.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Ponderous
Ephemeral
Evanescent
Weighty
Arbitrary
Efficient

GT – PREP 70
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 71
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

11. The intrinsic complications of the appropriately named tax code have spawned
an entire industry devoted to its esoteric; it is a small wonder that the layman
often finds himself ___________the code’s intricacies.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Nurtured with
Frustrated with
Beholden to
Emboldened by
Irked by
Awash in

12. The breadth and depth of his masterwork stunned most of Salt’s Contemporaries
and perplexed many of them; indeed, in private, some admitted they found the
work to be ________

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Discriminating
Confounding
August
Bombastic
Recondite
Abstruse

GT – PREP 72
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 73
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

13. Chastised for the _______________ manner by which he conducted his

research, Kopitsky was repeatedly warned by his professor that, if the delays
continued, the funding for the study might be withdrawn.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Ingenious
Breathless
Histrionic
Dilatory
Tardy
Tendentious

14. Modesty, while usually befitting, is not immune to excess; a surfeit of self-
effacement can well be considered ______________

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Conceit
Humility
Avarice
Haughtiness
Meekness
Timorousness

GT – PREP 74
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 75
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

15. Those who knew John was immune to his portrayal in the press as a boor,
knowing that his veneer of churlishness hid a _______________ human being.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Invective
Martinet
Genial
Affable
Protean
Fell

16. Exceedingly _____________ and only reliably produced by one mine in

Australia, red diamonds are second only to jadeite in terms of their rarity.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Diaphanous
Quixotic
Singular
Decorum
Precious
Anomalous

GT – PREP 76
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 77
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

17. Instead of the conventional advice to choose friends with personalities that
contrast yours- for instance, befriending someone histrionic if you are
______________ - you may be happier if you find someone who has a more
similar temperament to your own.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Fervid
Stolid
Phlegmatic
Demonstrative
Vehement
Saccharine

18. The situation was so fraught with uncertainty, the potential of discomfiture, and
the threat of violence that even the most worldly-wise traveler would have
considered it a(n) _____________.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Embroilment
Encomium
Panegyric
Hermitage
Imbroglio
Insinuation

GT – PREP 78
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 79
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

19. Although the sheriff had become accustomed to a certain level of _________
from the town’s officials, he was still surprised by the way the new mayor
quickly acceded to his requests.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Deference
Dissent
Yielding
Disapproval
Bureaucracy
Regulation

20. The positions of electrons in an atom were once thought to be definable;

however, recent research has suggested that, since measuring an electron affects
its positions, their locations are, in fact, ____________

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Nebulous
Enigmatic
Unequivocal
Ubiquitous
Fastidious
Imprudent

GT – PREP 80
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 81
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

21. Dubbed a ‘‘walking contradiction” by his friends, the man offered sweet
compliments from a gruff visage and offered ____________ debate that belied
his usually languid manner.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Placid
Languorous
Erudite
Contentious
Mettlesome
Spirited

22. The saleswoman thought that she had been both friendly and polite to the new
customer; her boss agreed, but pointed out that she had also been overly
_______________ when she inquired about the health of their client’s goldfish.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Solicitous
Felicitous
Inappropriate
Generous
Altruistic
Attentive

GT – PREP 82
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 83
 GRE Sentence Equivalence

23. The politician’s debate strategy, to capitalize on his opponent’s

__________________ by drawing of her favorite topic, tax law, and luring her
into boring their audience, backfired when she explained her ideas about the law
succinctly and powerfully.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Idiosyncrasies
Proclivities
Predilections
Disinclinations
Aversions
Eccentricities

24. Stranded far at sea in a life boat, the survivors of the shipwreck faced a
quandary: they could have hardly ____________ sea water, for they know that it
might hasten their demise, but they could also not go more than another day
without drinking something.

Context Clue : _________________

Sign post : _________________

Consume
Evoke
Avoid
Dispel
Shirk
Drink

GT – PREP 84
GRE Sentence Equivalence

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

F
Remarks:

GT – PREP 85
GRE Text Completion

GT – PREP 86
 GRE Text Completion

Text Completion

GT – PREP 87
GRE Text Completion

TEXT COMPLETION

Set 1

1. The ____________ George had for completing the project was contrasted by the
indifference of his team mates.

apathy

dexterity

curiosity

zeal

cognition

2. Since the office failed to attract candidates for the project, incentives were
planned to ____________ employees into action.

Ostracize

Spruce

Lure

Pry

swindle

GT – PREP 88
 GRE Text Completion

Option Mark Reason

Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

Remarks:

GT – PREP 89
GRE Text Completion

3. The professor was known for his ____________ behavior within the classroom
even though he was gracious in his everyday interactions.

Taciturn

Voluble

Subdued

Contrite

irascible

4. An avowedly self-centered race, humans have only added to the degeneration

of the planet by conveniently continuing to ________ their unwarranted use of
plastic bags.

denigrate

condone

apprise

coax

gesticulate

GT – PREP 90
 GRE Text Completion

Option Mark Reason

Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

Remarks:

GT – PREP 91
GRE Text Completion

5. Irked by her sister’s ________, despite repeated calls to action, Lisa finally
took control of the party planning.

platitude

inkling

ersatz

indolence

melancholy

6. The inalienable instinct of saving is commonly attributed to the ________

businessman of a generation when it was harder to make a fortune.

inimical

Obnoxious

Acrimonious

parsimonious

injurious

GT – PREP 92
 GRE Text Completion

Option Mark Reason

Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

Remarks:

GT – PREP 93
GRE Text Completion

7. To call the area _______ was perhaps hyperbolic at best; even though the open
fields and cozy houses give an impression of an idyllic setting in the wee hours
of the morning, soon after the plethora of cottage factories in the area make up
for the vehicular pollution in the cities.

urbane

bucolic

jejune

rancorous

perfidious

8. Given the demand for an outdoor concert, the organizers were faced with the
challenge of managing the open air theatre during heavy rains; panacea came in
the form of a __________ contrivance, which efficiently shielded the crowds.

fortuitous

spacious

crafty

pellucid

fumigated

GT – PREP 94
 GRE Text Completion

Option Mark Reason

Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

Remarks:

GT – PREP 95
GRE Text Completion

9. The character of Bertha Mason in Jane Eyre, __________ the trope of “the
madwoman in the attic”, which many writers utilized in their feminist writings
for years to come.

obfuscated

galvanized

venerated

precluded

speckled

10. A scientist should harbor open and questioning mind without casting aspersions
on every new idea: rejecting nonconformity and ingenuity reveals _______, but
egotism has never served the cause of knowledge.

parochialism

acerbity

hubris

acumen

erudition

GT – PREP 96
 GRE Text Completion

Option Mark Reason

Remarks:

Option Mark Reason

Remarks:

GT – PREP 97
GRE Text Completion

GT – PREP 98
 GRE Text Completion

Text Completion - Double blanks:-

Fill in the following blanks with appropriate words

1. Neurosurgeon Alexa Canady maintained that choosing a career was a visceral

decision rather than _____________ judgment; that is, it was not so much
rational as _____________.
2. Lewis Latimer’s inexpensive method of producing carbon filaments
_____________ the nascent electric industry by making electric lamps
commercially _____________
3. Although the theory that widespread lead poisoning contributed to the decline of
the Roman Empire has gained _____________, the evidence is still
_____________.
4. A certain additive put in gasoline to reduce air pollution is actually
_____________ groundwater. A finding that shows that even the most well-
intentioned fixes can sometimes _____________.
5. Although aging brings about profound physiological changes, it does not often
alter an individual’s _____________: an irascible thirty year old will probably
still be _____________ at seventy.
6. The professor’s presentation was both _____________ and _____________:
though brief, it was instructive.
7. Some skeptics consider the Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence (SETI) to be
_____________, even foolish; others go so far as to accuse SETI scientists of
outright _____________ in applying skewed data.
8. The discovery of the fossil was _____________ and _____________, surprising
scientists and undermining accepted theories about plant distribution.
9. Far from being_____________, bears in some national parks are surprisingly
_____________ when approached by humans; still, visitors must exercise
caution.
10. Jane was both _____________ and _____________: she was blatantly proud and
offensively bold.

GT – PREP 99
GRE Text Completion

1. Opening to mixed reviews, the new cafe received i) ________ remarks for its
service and ii) ________ remarks for its food.

Blank i Blank ii

unfavorable sonorous

derogatory laudatory

congratulatory aggrandizing

2. Mr. Leed, once known solely for his _______, was in fact found to be part of a
nation-wide ________ scheme.

Blank i Blank ii

Philanthropy Miscarried

Hedonism Hoodwinking

Hypochondriac Deteriorating

GT – PREP 100
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

GT – PREP 101
GRE Text Completion

3. Usually i) ________, Ludovic turns so ii) ________ when placed in an

embarrassing situation, that one can’t edge in a single word when talking to him.

Blank i Blank ii

Phlegmatic Quixotic

Sanguine Glib

Laconic Rational

4. The street plays held outside the university are often i) ____________ in creating
awareness; they lead the audience to form their own opinion without being too ii)
____________.

Blank i Blank ii

effective entertaining

ineffective didactic

tangential serpentine

GT – PREP 102
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

GT – PREP 103
GRE Text Completion

5. Despite the initial i) ____________ response by the reviewer, the restaurant

continued to ii) ____ in profits through the year.

Blank i Blank ii

abstemious burgeon

lukewarm rake

scintillating abscission

6. The classical texts were considered the i) _______ of civilization and knowledge
in the 19th century, and any ii)________ person, by definition, knew them well.

Blank i Blank ii

epitome ambidextrous

aegis cultured

catharsis callous

GT – PREP 104
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

GT – PREP 105
GRE Text Completion

7. Noticing the i) _____________ pieces of information available, Vidya wondered

if she could create a ii) _____________ article.

Blank i Blank ii

germane comprehensive

engaging Exquisite

motley immutable

8. A path breaking novel in the history of American Literature, Huckleberry Finn

made its niche by employing i)________ language; novels in the 19th century
usually used a ii) ________ voice to even narrate the instances of common
people.

Blank i Blank ii

Arcane Jargon

Quotidian High-brow

Grandiloquent illustrious

GT – PREP 106
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

GT – PREP 107
GRE Text Completion

9. The underbelly of 16th century England is known to have devised artful strategies
to avoid detection while carrying on their communication. Among their
i)_______ was the so-called “thieves can’t” language. Ubiquitous then, it is
ii)______ now: only figuring in literature or drama.

Blank i Blank ii

vexation mendacious
machinations novel
encumbrance obscure

10. Some feminists look for opportunities to bemoan the dearth of i)_____ women in
the white and blue collar jobs. They claim that the breaking of the glass ceiling is
a ii)_____ concocted by the men, especially at the top of the corporate ladder.

Blank i Blank ii

consummate idiosyncrasy
Stately Ideology
benign fabrication

GT – PREP 108
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

GT – PREP 109
GRE Text Completion

11. Just as FDR continues to be well-known for his fireside chats, enabling students
and lovers of history to better appreciate the 1930s, an epoch marked by a
i)_________ domestic economic distress and unprecedented foreign conflict, so
too is Lincoln famous among the admirers of history for his famous Second
Inaugural Address, which gives both a layman and an expert alike, a ii)______ to
the challenges of post-Civil War era America.

Blank i Blank ii

Prodigious polemic
Plummeting purport
Riveted rhetoric

12. More than a century after it was first written, A Tale of Two Cities by Charles
Dickens had about 200 million copies in print, giving it the distinction of being in
the i) _______ league of one of the most printed books in the history of English
literature, proving that the portrayal of the ii)_______ under the brutal
subjugation of the French aristocracy still rings a bell with the 21st century
literature lovers.

Blank i Blank ii

elite Proletariat
sacrosanct Denizens
Impeccable gentility

GT – PREP 110
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

Blank I Blank II

Option Mark Option Mark

A A

B B

C C

Remarks:

GT – PREP 111
GRE Text Completion

1. Even though the allegations against the chief were proven to be i) ____________
plot by his adversaries , he wasn’t able to regain his initial ii) ____________ .

Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

undesirable accomplice credulity

ingenuous adversaries alacrity

devious pretention popularity

2. Refusing to admit to their fault, the manufacturers tried to i)____ their case
against the ii)____ customers by using iii)____ statistics.

Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

accost irate prim

caucus connoisseur fraudulent

buttress tyro sagacious

GT – PREP 112
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

GT – PREP 113
GRE Text Completion

3. The movie’s success was i) ____ the critic’s opinion; he believed the movie
wouldn’t ii) ____ to a wide audience because of its iii) ____ character.

Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

In concurrence with endear ludicrous

Not incongruous with palliate staid

Contrary to lure Beguiling

4. A teacher must i) ________ her knowledge and skills to match the digital age; a
ii) ________ attitude would not be commensurate with the iii) ________ of the
profession.

Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

Eudite Lax Exigency

Cultivate Stern Mediocrity

Abrogate Meek amenability

GT – PREP 114
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

GT – PREP 115
GRE Text Completion

5. Relying on his own ____ of the export policies, the VP conducted a meeting with
all the branch managers, but unfortunately he was _____ that the tides of the
market have changed, and that his outdated strategy was _____
Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

Systematic
Dismayed Bound to succeed
deconstruction

Conventional
Unaware Doomed to fail
knowledge

Avant-garde On the verge of

Cognizant
approach acceptance

6. A i) ________ person, Sarah found the Stevenson family too ii) ________
initially. It was only after dinner that she finally iii) ________ to the cacophonous
environment.

Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

Clamorous Convivial Acclimatized

Taciturn Boisterous Congenial

skirmish agitated juxtaposed

GT – PREP 116
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

GT – PREP 117
GRE Text Completion

7. ________ excessive pressure affecting students in both physiological and

psychological ways, many European countries continue to ________ the role of
standardized tests in the favor of examinations which assess an individual
student’s strengths and weaknesses more ________.
Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

Assuming the Applaud Liberally

Placing confidence in Discount Painstakingly

In the wake of subjectively

solicit

8. The parking order for the vehicles outside the new supermarket is so (i)____ that
many customers prefer to (ii)____ the older supermarkets which still use the old,
iii)________ rules. Most people don’t have the patience to learn new, intricate
methods at the cost of convenience.
Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

Fractious Patronize Dogmatic

Puerile Cogitate Pusillanimous

convoluted Purloin expedient

GT – PREP 118
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

GT – PREP 119
GRE Text Completion

9. According to the Committee’s findings, majority of the tribal population has not
been exposed to the mainstream justice delivery system, and has hence remained
out of its i) ____. The benefits of the regular justice system have been ii)___
them in no uncertain terms. As a remedy, the committee iii)____ the Parliament
enact a law to set up a tribal justice court system.

Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

Moratorium Promulgated Recommended

Ambit Abjured Abdicated

Ken denied impugned

10. With the increase in power, a community deems the crimes of a single individual
less i) __________, as a single individual is no longer as grave a threat to the
community as he was before. Rather, the transgressor’s position is often made ii)
_______________ to the anger generated against him, particularly from that of
the person directly affected by the wrongdoing. According to some, this may lead
to the iii)_______________ of the crime from the criminal.

Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

Innocuous Specious Desecration

Fallacious Impervious Collation

severe puerile dissociation

GT – PREP 120
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

GT – PREP 121
GRE Text Completion

11. Even though she holds the distinction of facilitating an unwarranted raise in taxes
when in power, the i)_______________ incumbent politician pledged lower taxes
to the unsuspecting voters, who have only been exposed to her
ii)_______________ publicity drive, iii)_______________ her anti-people
policies.
Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

Mediocre Mercurial Masquerading

Beguiling Bombastic Polarizing

Meritorious mercenary outwitting

12. President George W. Bush, insisting that lower taxes created wealth, and
contending that deregulation promoted innovation, raised taxes, thereby also
raising the i)_______ of the conservative economists who ii)_______ hike in
taxes, in spite of his past categorical and iii)_______ claims that he would in fact
never raise taxes.
Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

Relentless wrath Furtive

Questioned

Justifiable concern Decried Fervent

Dubious doubt equivocal

welcomed

GT – PREP 122
 GRE Text Completion

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

GT – PREP 123
GRE Text Completion

13. As a result of the economic recession which affected the whole of America in
2008, there was a i)_______ of home foreclosures, since most middle class
borrowers could not pay up their loans, leading to an expeditious ii)_______ in
housing prices, this further lead to the devaluation of the securities backed by
mortgage; this vicious cycle lead to a spiraling fear that the situation was a close
iii)_______ of the Great Depression of the 1930s.
Blank i Blank ii Blank iii

Deluge Requiem Atavism

Parsimony Resurgence Simulacrum

Pillage plunge prosaic

Blank I Blank II Blank III

Option Mark Option Mark Option Mark

A A A

B B B

C C C
Remarks:

GT – PREP 124
 GRE Reading Comprehension

Reading Comprehension

GT – PREP 125
GRE Reading Comprehension

Reading Comprehension
Reading Comprehension questions typically contain a passage or a piece of writing
that is drawn from a variety of subjects followed by questions to answer for which
NO specialized knowledge in the respective is required. The questions are designed to
test a wide gamut of abilities required to read and understand the kinds of prose
commonly encountered in graduate school.

Some of the abilities that are tested are

i. Contemplating the meaning of some selected individual words

ii. Contemplating the meaning of individual sentences
iii. Contemplating the meaning and sense of paragraphs and larger bodies of text.
iv. Discretion between trivial and significant points
v. Summarizing and paraphrasing a passage
vi. Deriving inferences from the information provided
vii. Understanding the organization of the passage given and how the paragraphs
are connected to each other.
viii. Discerning the author’s perspective and assumptions

Reading Comprehension passages in GRE are drawn from

1. Physical Sciences
2. Biological Sciences
3. Social sciences
4. Arts and Humanities
5. Everyday topics
6. Material found in books and periodicals (academic and nonacademic)

GT – PREP 126
 GRE Reading Comprehension

A typical Reading Comprehension passage consists of the following types of

questions

1. Standard Multiple-choice questions (the question is followed by 5 options out of

which one credited response is to be marked)
A sample question looks like below
i. The primary purpose of the passage is
o Reflect the contrasting ideas
o Summarize the contemporary theories
o Inform the new trends of the planetary model
o Refute the already existing hypothesis
o Support the existing theory

2. Select Multiple correct answers (the questions are followed by 3 options and
depending on the question and the options given, 1 or 2 or 3 credited responses
must be given- No credit for partially correct answers)

3. Select a sentence from the passage (This type of questions asks you to select a
sentence from the passage as the answer to the question. You cannot select more
than one sentence and also a partial sentence cannot be selected)

Usually, the passages are of 3 different lengths and followed by a different number of
questions.

1. Long passages : ________________________________

2. Medium passages : ________________________________
3. Short passages : ________________________________

There are majorly two types of questions

A. General Questions
B. Specific Questions

GT – PREP 127
GRE Reading Comprehension

Types of General Questions

1. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

3. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

4. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

5. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

Types of Specific Questions

1. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

2. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

3. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

GT – PREP 128
 GRE Reading Comprehension

4. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________
5. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

6. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

7. _________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________

Note: ETS does not create passages. Passages are generally drawn and modified from
published articles. The tool that ETS has is with the answer choices. They construct
the answer choices.

Approach to the Reading Comprehension Questions

Step 1: Map the passage

Step 2: Select the question and decipher it

Step 3: Get the relevant information from the passage

Step 4: Eliminate the wrong answers

GT – PREP 129
GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 1
The common belief of some linguists that language calls forth misunderstandings in
each language is a perfect vehicle for the everyday conversation, and in which,
thoughts of the nation speaking it is in some consequently, a word has to be modified or
ways the exact counterpart of the conviction of defined in order to present the idea intended
the Manchester school of economics that by the speaker: “He took his stick – no, not
supply and demand will regulate everything John’s, but his own.” No language is perfect,
for the best. Just as economists were blind to and if we admit this truth, we must also admit
the numerous’ cases in which the law of that it is not unreasonable to investigate the
supply and demand left actual wants relative merits of different languages or of
unsatisfied, so also many linguists are deaf to different details in languages.
those instances in which the very nature of a

GT – PREP 130
 GRE Reading Comprehension

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) Analyze an interesting feature of the English language
(B) Refute a belief held by some linguists
(C) Show that economic theory is relevant to linguistic study
(D) Illustrate the confusion that can result from the improper use of language
(E) Suggest a way in which languages can be made more nearly perfect

2. In presenting the argument, the author does all of the following EXCEPT
(A) Give an example
(B) Draw a conclusion
(C) Make a generalization
(D) Make a comparison
(E) Present a paradox

GT – PREP 131
GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 2
Directions: Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the
basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
technology, but rather the separation of
It is frequently assumed that the secretarial work, previously seen as an
mechanization of work has a revolutionary apprenticeship for beginning managers, from
effect on the lives of the people who operate administrative work that in the 1880’s created
the new machines and on the society into a new class of “dead-end” jobs, thenceforth
which the machines have been introduced. For considered “women’s work”. The increase in
example, it has been suggested that the the numbers of married women employed
employment of women in industry took them outside the home in the twentieth century had
out of the household, their traditional sphere, less to do with the mechanization of
and fundamentally altered their position in housework and an increase in leisure time for
society. In the nineteenth century, when these women than it did with their own
women began to enter factories, Jules Simon, a economic necessity and with high marriage
French politician, warned that by doing so, rates that shrank the available pool of single
women would give up their femininity. women workers, previously, in many cases,
Friedrich Engels, however, predicted that the only women employers would hire.
women would be liberated from the “social,
legal, and economic subordination” of the Women’s work has changed considerably
family by technological developments that in the past 200 years, moving from the
made possible the recruitment of “the whole household to the office or the factory, and later
female sex… into public industry.” Observers becoming mostly white-collar instead of blue-
thus differed concerning the social desirability collar work. Fundamentally, however, the
of mechanization’s effects, but they agreed conditions under which women work have
that it would transform women’s lives. changed little since before the Industrial
Revolution: the segregation of occupations by
Historians, particularly those gender, lower pay for women as a group, jobs
investigating the history of women, now that require relatively low levels of skill and
seriously question this assumption of offer women little opportunity for
transforming power. They conclude that such advancement all persist, while women’s
dramatic technological innovations as the household labor remains demanding. Recent
spinning jenny, the sewing machine, the historical investigation has led to a major
typewriter, and the vacuum cleaner have not revision of the notion that technology is
resulted in equally dramatic social changes in always inherently revolutionary in its effects
women’s economic position or in the on society. Mechanization may even have
prevailing evaluation of women’s work. The slowed any change in the traditional position
employment of young women in textile mills of women both in the labor market and in the
during the Industrial Revolution was largely home.
an extension of an older pattern of
employment of young, single women as
domestics. It was not the change in office

GT – PREP 132
 GRE Reading Comprehension

1. Which of the following is the main idea of the passage?

(A) The effects of the mechanization of women’s work have not borne out the
frequently held assumption that new technology is inherently revolutionary.
(B) Recent studies have shown that mechanization revolutionizes a society’s
traditional values and the customary roles of its members.
(C) Mechanization has caused the nature of women’s work to change since the
Industrial Revolution.
(D) The mechanization of work creates whole new classes of jobs that did not
previously exist.
(E) The mechanization of women’s work, while extremely revolutionary in its
effects, has not, on the whole, had the deleterious effects that some critics had
feared.

2. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would consider which of the
following to be an indication of a fundamental alteration in the conditions of
women’s work?
(A) Statistics showing that the majority of women now occupy white-collar
positions
(B) Interviews with married men indicating that they are now doing some
household tasks
(C) Surveys of the labor market documenting the recent creation of a new class of
jobs in electronics in which women workers outnumber men four to one
(D) Census results showing that working women’s wages and salaries are, on the
average, as high as those of working men
(E) Enrollment figures from universities demonstrating that increasing numbers
of young women are choosing to continue their education beyond the
undergraduate level

3. The passage states that, before the twentieth century, which of the following was
true of many employers?
(A) They did not employ women in factories.
(B) They tended to employ single rather than married women.
(C) They employed women in only those jobs that were related to women’s
traditional household work.
(D) They resisted technological innovations that would radically change women’s
roles in the family.
(E) They hired women only when qualified men were not available to fill the
open positions.

GT – PREP 133
GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 2
Directions: Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the
basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
technology, but rather the separation of
It is frequently assumed that the secretarial work, previously seen as an
mechanization of work has a revolutionary apprenticeship for beginning managers, from
effect on the lives of the people who operate administrative work that in the 1880’s created
the new machines and on the society into a new class of “dead-end” jobs, thenceforth
which the machines have been introduced. For considered “women’s work”. The increase in
example, it has been suggested that the the numbers of married women employed
employment of women in industry took them outside the home in the twentieth century had
out of the household, their traditional sphere, less to do with the mechanization of
and fundamentally altered their position in housework and an increase in leisure time for
society. In the nineteenth century, when these women than it did with their own
women began to enter factories, Jules Simon, a economic necessity and with high marriage
French politician, warned that by doing so, rates that shrank the available pool of single
women would give up their femininity. women workers, previously, in many cases,
Friedrich Engels, however, predicted that the only women employers would hire.
women would be liberated from the “social,
legal, and economic subordination” of the Women’s work has changed
family by technological developments that considerably in the past 200 years, moving
made possible the recruitment of “the whole from the household to the office or the factory,
female sex… into public industry.” Observers and later becoming mostly white-collar instead
thus differed concerning the social desirability of blue-collar work. Fundamentally, however,
of mechanization’s effects, but they agreed the conditions under which women work have
that it would transform women’s lives. changed little since before the Industrial
Revolution: the segregation of occupations by
Historians, particularly those gender, lower pay for women as a group, jobs
investigating the history of women, now that require relatively low levels of skill and
seriously question this assumption of offer women little opportunity for
transforming power. They conclude that such advancement all persist, while women’s
dramatic technological innovations as the household labor remains demanding. Recent
spinning jenny, the sewing machine, the historical investigation has led to a major
typewriter, and the vacuum cleaner have not revision of the notion that technology is
resulted in equally dramatic social changes in always inherently revolutionary in its effects
women’s economic position or in the on society. Mechanization may even have
prevailing evaluation of women’s work. The slowed any change in the traditional position
employment of young women in textile mills of women both in the labor market and in the
during the Industrial Revolution was largely home.
an extension of an older pattern of
employment of young, single women as
domestics. It was not the change in office

GT – PREP 134
 GRE Reading Comprehension

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most probably believes which
of the following to be true concerning those historians who study the history of
women?
(A) Their work provides insights important to those examining social phenomena
affecting the lives of both sexes.
(B) Their work can only be used cautiously by scholars in other disciplines.
(C) Because they concentrate only on the role of women in the workplace, they
draw more reliable conclusions than do other historians.
(D) While highly interesting, their work has not had an impact on most
historians’ current assumptions concerning the revolutionary effect of
technology in the workplace.
(E) They oppose the further mechanization of work, which, according to their
findings, tends to perpetuate existing inequalities in society.

5. Which of the following best describes the function of the concluding sentence of
the passage?
(A) It sums up the general points concerning the mechanization of work made in
the passage as a whole.
(B) It draws a conclusion concerning the effects of the mechanization of work
which goes beyond the evidence presented in the passage as a whole.
(C) It restates the point concerning technology made in the sentence immediately
preceding it.
(D) It qualifies the author’s agreement with scholars who argue for a major
revision in the assessment of the impact of mechanization on society.
(E) It suggests a compromise between two seemingly contradictory views
concerning the effects of mechanization on society.

GT – PREP 135
GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 3
Warm-blooded animals have elaborate iron and thus to multiply. Cold-blooded
physiological controls to maintain constant animals were used to test this hypothesis
body temperature (in humans, 370 C). Why because their body temperature can be
then during sickness should temperature rise, controlled in the laboratory. Kluger reported
apparently increasing stress on the infected that of iguanas infected with the potentially
organism? It has long been known that the lethal bacterium A. hydrophilia, more
level of serum iron in animals falls during survived at temperatures of 420C than at
infection. Garibaldi first suggested a 370C, even though healthy animals prefer the
relationship between fever and iron. He found lower temperature. When animals at 420C
that microbial synthesis of siderophores – were injected with an iron solution, however,
substances that bind iron – in bacteria of the mortality rates increased significantly.
genus Salmonella declined at environmental Research to determine whether similar
0
temperatures above 37 C and stopped at phenomena occur in warm-blooded animals is
0
40.3 C. Thus, fever would make it more sorely needed.
difficult for an infecting bacterium to acquire

GT – PREP 136
 GRE Reading Comprehension

1. The passage is primarily concerned with attempts to determine

(A) The role of siderophores in the synthesis of serum iron
(B) New treatments for infections that are caused by A. hydrophilia
(C) The function of fever in warm-blooded animals
(D) The mechanisms that ensure constant body temperature
(E) Iron utilization in cold-blooded animals

2. According to the passage, Garibaldi determined which of the following?

(A) That serum iron is produced through microbial synthesis
(B) That microbial synthesis of siderophores in warm-blooded animals is more
efficient at higher temperatures
(C) That only iron bound to other substances can be used by bacteria
(D) That there is a relationship between the synthesis of siderophores in bacteria
of the genus Salmonella and environmental temperature
(E) That bacteria of the genus Salmonella require iron as a nutrient

3. Which of the following can be inferred about warm-blooded animals solely on

the basis of information in the passage?
(A) The body temperatures of warm-blooded animals cannot be easily controlled
in the laboratory.
(B) Warm-blooded animals require more iron in periods of stress than they do at
other times.
(C) Warm-blooded animals are more comfortable at an environmental
temperature of 370C than they are at a temperature of 420C.
(D) In warm-blooded animals, bacteria are responsible for the production of
siderophores, which, in turn, make iron available to the animal.
(E) In warm-blooded animals, infections that lead to fever are usually traceable to
bacteria.

4. If it were to be determined that “similar phenomena occur in warm-blooded

animals”, which of the following, assuming each is possible, is likely to b e the
most effective treatment for warm-blooded animals with bacterial infections?
(A) Administering a medication that lowers the animals’ body temperature
(B) Injecting the animals with an iron solution
(C) Administering a medication that makes serum iron unavailable to bacteria
(D) Providing the animals with reduced-iron diets
(E) Keeping the animals in an environment with temperatures higher than 370C

GT – PREP 137
GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 4
Of the thousands of specimens of great that no meteorites of lunar origin have
meteorites found on Earth and known to been discovered.
science, only about 100 are igneous; that is, While some scientists speculate that
they have undergone melting by volcanic shergotttites derive from Io (a volcanically
action at some time since the planets were first active moon of Jupiter), recent measurements
formed. These igneous meteorites are known suggest that since Io’s surface is rich in sulfur
as achondrites because they lack chondrules – and sodium, the chemical composition of its
small stony spherules found in the thousands volcanic products would probably be unlike
of meteorites (called “chondrites”) composed that of the shergottites. Moreover, any
primarily of unaltered minerals that condensed fragments dislodged from Io by interbody
from dust and gas at the origin of the solar impact would be unlikely to escape the
system. Achondrites are the only known gravitational pull of Jupiter.
samples of volcanic rocks originating outside The only other logical source of
the Earth-Moon system. Most are thought to shergotttites is Mars. Space-probe photographs
have been dislodged by interbody impact from indicate the existence of giant volcanoes on
asteroids, with diameters of from 10 to 500 the Martian surface. From the small number of
kilometers, in solar orbit between Mars and impact craters that appear on Martian lava
Jupiter. flows, one can estimate that the planet was
Shergottites, the name given to three volcanically active as recently as a half-billion
anomalous achondrites so far discovered on years ago – and may be active today. The great
Earth, present scientists with a genuine objection to the Martian origin of shergottites
enigma. Shergottites crystallized from molten is the absence of lunar meteorites on Earth. An
rock less than 1.1 billion years ago (some 3.5 impact capable of ejecting a fragment of the
billion years later than typical achondrites) and Martian surface into an Earth-intersecting orbit
were presumably ejected into space when an is even less probably than such an event on the
object impacted on a body similar in chemical Moon, in view of the Moon’s smaller size and
composition to Earth. closer proximity to Earth. A recent study
While most meteorites appear to suggests, however, that permafrost ices below
derive from comparatively small bodies, the surface of Mars may have altered the
shergottites exhibit properties that indicate that effects of impact on it. If the ices had been
their source was a large planet, conceivably rapidly vaporized by an impacting object, the
Mars. In order to account for such an unlikely expanding gases might have helped the ejected
source, some unsusual factor must be invoked, fragments reach escape velocity. Finally,
because the impact needed to accelerate a analyses performed by space probes show a
fragment of rock to escape the gravitational remarkable chemical similarity between
field of a body even as small as the Moon is so Martian soil and the shergottites.

GT – PREP 138
 GRE Reading Comprehension

Consider each of the choices separately and select all that apply
1. The passage implies which of the following about shergottites?
They are products of volcanic activity.
They derive from a planet larger than Earth.
They come from a planetary body with a chemical composition similar to
that of Io.

2. According to the passage, a meteorite discovered on Earth is unlikely to have come

from a large planet for which of the following reasons?
(A) There are fewer large planets in the solar system than there are asteroids.
(B) Most large planets have been volcanically inactive for more than a billion
years.
(C) The gravitational pull of a large planet would probably prohibit fragments from
escaping its orbit.
(D) There are no chondrites occurring naturally on Earth and probably none on
other large planets.
(E) Interbody impact is much rarer on large than on small planets because of the
density of the atmosphere on large planets.

3. According to the passage, the presence of chondrules in a meteorite indicates that

the meteorite
(A) has probably come from Mars
(B) is older than the solar system itself
(C) has not been melted since the solar system formed
(D) is certainly less than 4 billion years old
(E) is a small fragment of an asteroid

4. It can be inferred from the passage that each of the following is a consideration in
determining whether a particular planet is a possible source of shergottites that
have been discovered on Earth EXCEPT the
(A) planet’s size
(B) planet’s distance from Earth
(C) strength of the planet’s field of gravity
(D) proximity of the planet to its moons
(E) chemical composition of the planet’s surface

GT – PREP 139
 GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 5
Directions: Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis
of what is stated or implied in that passage.

The transplantation of organs from one state of donor-specific unresponsiveness in which

individual to another normally involves two major subsequent transplants of other organs, such as
problems; (1) organ rejection is likely unless the skin, from that donor are accepted permanently.
transplantation antigens of both individuals are Our hypothesis is that (1) many strains of rats
nearly identical, and (2) the introduction of any simply cannot mount a sufficiently vigorous
unmatched transplantation antigens induces the destructive immune-response (using lymphocytes)
development by the recipient of donor-specific to outstrip the liver’s relatively great capacity to
lymphocytes that will produce violent rejection of protect itself from immune-response damage and
further transplantations from that donor. However, that (2) the systematic unresponsiveness observed
we have found that among many strains of rats is due to concentration of the recipient’s donor-
these “normal” rules of transplantation are not specific lymphocytes at the site of the liver
obeyed by liver transplants. Not only are liver transplant.
trans-plants never rejected, but they even induce a

GT – PREP 140
 GRE Reading Comprehension

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to treat the accepted generalizations about
organ transplantation in which of the following ways?
(A) Explicate their main features
(B) Suggest an alternative to them
(C) Examine their virtues and limitations
(D) Criticize the major evidence used to support them
(E) Present findings that qualify them

2. According to the hypothesis of the author, after a successful liver transplant, the
reason that rats do not reject further transplants of other organs from the same
donor is that the
(A) transplantation antigens of the donor and the recipient become matched
(B) lymphocytes of the recipient are weakened by the activity of the transplanted
liver
(C) subsequently transplanted organ is able to repair the damage caused by the
recipient’s immune-response reaction
(D) transplanted liver continues to be the primary locus for the recipient’s
immune-response reaction
(E) recipient is unable to manufacture the lymphocytes necessary for the immune
response reaction

GT – PREP 141
 GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 6

Directions: Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the
basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

The deep sea typically has a sparse fauna large sedentary organisms associated with vents
dominated by tiny worms and crustaceans, with are also found at ordinary deep-sea temperatures
an even sparser distribution of larger animals. many meters from the nearest hydrothermal
However, near hydrothermal vents, areas of the sources. This suggests that bacterial
ocean where warm water emerges from chemosynthesis is not a sufficient source of
subterranean sources, live remarkable densities of nutrition for these creatures. Another difficulty is
huge clams, blind crabs, and fish. that similarly dense populations of large deep-sea
animals have been found in the proximity of
Most deep-sea faunas rely for food on
“smokers” – vents where water emerges at
particulate matter, ultimately derived from
temperatures up to 3500C. No bacteria can
photosynthesis, falling from above. The food
survive such heat, and no bacteria were found
supplies necessary to sustain the large vent
there. Unless smokers are consistently located
communities, however, must be many times the
near more hospitable warm-water vents,
ordinary fallout. The first reports describing vent
chemosynthesis can account for only a fraction of
faunas proposed two possible sources of
the vent faunas. It is conceivable, however, that
nutrition: bacterial chemosynthesis, production of
these large, sedentary organisms do in fact feed
food by bacteria using energy derived from
on bacteria that grow in warm-water vents, rise in
chemical changes, and advection, the drifting of
the vent water, and then rain in peripheral areas
food materials from surrounding regions. Later,
to nourish animals living some distance from the
evidence in support of the idea of intense local
warm-water vents.
chemosynthesis was accumulated: hydrogen
sulfide was found in vent water; many vent-site Nonetheless, advection is a more likely
bacteria were found to be capable of alternative food source. Research has
chemosynthesis; and extremely large demonstrated that adjective flow, which
concentrations of bacteria were found in samples originates near the surface of the ocean where
of vent water thought to be pure. This final suspended particulate matter accumulates,
observation seemed decisive. If such astonishing transports some of that matter and water to the
concentrations of bacteria were typical of vent vents. Estimates suggest that for every cubic
outflow, then food within the vent would dwarf meter of vent discharge, 350 milligrams of
any contribution from advection. Hence, the particulate organic material would be advected
widely quoted conclusion was reached that into the vent area. Thus, for an average-sized
bacterial chemosynthesis provides the foundation vent, advection could provide more than 30
for hydrothermal-vent food chains – an exciting kilograms of potential food per day. In addition,
prospect because no other communities on Earth it is likely that small live animals in the advected
are independent of photosynthesis. water might be killed or stunned by thermal
and/or chemical shock, thereby contributing to
There are, however, certain difficulties
the food supply of vents.
with this interpretation. For example, some of the

GT – PREP 142
 GRE Reading Comprehension

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) describe a previously unknown natural phenomenon
(B) reconstruct the evolution of a natural phenomenon
(C) establish unequivocally the accuracy of a hypothesis
(D) survey explanations for a natural phenomenon and determine which is best
supported by evidence
(E) entertain criticism of the author’s research and provide an effective response

2. Which of the following does the author cite as a weakness in the argument that
bacterial chemosynthesis provides the foundation for the food chains at deep-sea
vents?
(A) Vents are colonized by some of the same animals found in other areas of the
ocean floor.
(B) Vent water does not contain sufficient quantities of hydrogen sulfide.
(C) Bacteria cannot produce large quantities of food quickly enough.
(D) Large concentrations of minerals are found in vent water.
(E) Some bacteria found in the vents are incapable of chemosynthesis.

3. Which of the following is information supplied in the passage that would support
the statement that the food supplies necessary to sustain vent communities must
be many times that of ordinary fallout?
Large vent faunas move from vent to vent in search of food.
Vent faunas are not able to consume food produced by photosynthesis.
Vents are more densely populated than are other deep-sea areas.

4. The author refers to “smokers” most probably in order to

(A) show how thermal shock can provide food for some vent faunas by stunning
small animals
(B) prove that the habitat of most deep-sea animals is limited to warm-water
vents
(C) explain how bacteria carry out chemosynthesis
(D) demonstrate how advection compensates for the lack of food sources on the
seafloor
(E) present evidence that bacterial chemosynthesis may be an inadequate source
of food for some vent faunas

GT – PREP 143
 GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 6

Directions: Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the
basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.

The deep sea typically has a sparse fauna large sedentary organisms associated with vents
dominated by tiny worms and crustaceans, with are also found at ordinary deep-sea temperatures
an even sparser distribution of larger animals. many meters from the nearest hydrothermal
However, near hydrothermal vents, areas of the sources. This suggests that bacterial
ocean where warm water emerges from chemosynthesis is not a sufficient source of
subterranean sources, live remarkable densities of nutrition for these creatures. Another difficulty is
huge clams, blind crabs, and fish. that similarly dense populations of large deep-sea
animals have been found in the proximity of
Most deep-sea faunas rely for food on
“smokers” – vents where water emerges at
particulate matter, ultimately derived from
temperatures up to 3500C. No bacteria can
photosynthesis, falling from above. The food
survive such heat, and no bacteria were found
supplies necessary to sustain the large vent
there. Unless smokers are consistently located
communities, however, must be many times the
near more hospitable warm-water vents,
ordinary fallout. The first reports describing vent
chemosynthesis can account for only a fraction of
faunas proposed two possible sources of
the vent faunas. It is conceivable, however, that
nutrition: bacterial chemosynthesis, production of
these large, sedentary organisms do in fact feed
food by bacteria using energy derived from
on bacteria that grow in warm-water vents, rise in
chemical changes, and advection, the drifting of
the vent water, and then rain in peripheral areas
food materials from surrounding regions. Later,
to nourish animals living some distance from the
evidence in support of the idea of intense local
warm-water vents.
chemosynthesis was accumulated: hydrogen
sulfide was found in vent water; many vent-site Nonetheless, advection is a more likely
bacteria were found to be capable of alternative food source. Research has
chemosynthesis; and extremely large demonstrated that adjective flow, which
concentrations of bacteria were found in samples originates near the surface of the ocean where
of vent water thought to be pure. This final suspended particulate matter accumulates,
observation seemed decisive. If such astonishing transports some of that matter and water to the
concentrations of bacteria were typical of vent vents. Estimates suggest that for every cubic
outflow, then food within the vent would dwarf meter of vent discharge, 350 milligrams of
any contribution from advection. Hence, the particulate organic material would be advected
widely quoted conclusion was reached that into the vent area. Thus, for an average-sized
bacterial chemosynthesis provides the foundation vent, advection could provide more than 30
for hydrothermal-vent food chains – an exciting kilograms of potential food per day. In addition,
prospect because no other communities on Earth it is likely that small live animals in the advected
are independent of photosynthesis. water might be killed or stunned by thermal
and/or chemical shock, thereby contributing to
There are, however, certain difficulties
the food supply of vents.
with this interpretation. For example, some of the

GT – PREP 144
 GRE Reading Comprehension

5. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the particulate
matter that is carried down from the surface of the ocean?
(A) It is the basis of bacterial chemosynthesis in the vents.
(B) It may provide an important source of nutrition for vent faunas.
(C) It may cause the internal temperature of the vents to change significantly.
(D) It is transported as large aggregates of particles.
(E) It contains hydrogen sulfide.

GT – PREP 145
GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 7
Throughout human history there have been an additional element with a much more
many stringent taboos concerning watching fundamental importance. In prehistoric times,
other people eat or eating in the presence of when food was so precious and the on-lookers
others. There have been attempts to explain so hungry, not to offer half of the little food one
these taboos in terms of inappropriate social had was unthinkable, since every glance was a
relationships either between those who are plea for life. Further, during those times, people
involved and those who are not simultaneously existed in nuclear or extended family groups,
involved in the satisfaction of a bodily need, or and the sharing of food was quite literally
between those already satiated and those who supporting one’s family or, by extension,
appear to be shamelessly gorging. Undoubtedly preserving one’s self.
such elements exist in the taboos, but there is

GT – PREP 146
 GRE Reading Comprehension

1. If the argument in the passage is valid, taboos against eating in the presence of
others who are not also eating would be LEAST likely in a society that
(A) had always had a plentiful supply of food
(B) emphasized the need to share worldly goods
(C) had a nomadic rather than an agricultural way of life
(D) emphasized the value of privacy
(E) discouraged overindulgence

2. The author’s hypothesis concerning the origin of taboos against watching other
people eat emphasizes the
(A) general palatability of food
(B) religious significance of food
(C) limited availability of food
(D) various sources of food
(E) nutritional value of food

3. In developing the main idea of the passage, the author does which of the
following?
(A) Downplays earlier attempts to explain the origins of social prohibition.
(B) Adapts a scientific theory and applies it to a spiritual relationship.
(C) Simplifies a complex biological phenomenon by explaining it in terms of
social needs.
(D) Reorganizes a system designed to guide personal behavior.
(E) Codifies earlier, unsystematized conjectures about family life.

GT – PREP 147
GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 8
Directions: Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the
basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
That Louise Nevelson is believed by Her works have been compared to the
many critics to be the greatest twentieth-century Cubist constructions of Picasso, the Surrealistic
sculptor is all the more remarkable because the objects of Micro, and the Merzbau of Schwitters.
greatest resistance to women artists has been, Nevelson would be the first to admit that she has
until recently, in the field of sculpture. Since been influenced by all of these, as well as by
Neolithic times, sculpture has been considered African sculpture, and by Native American and
the prerogative of men, partly, perhaps, for pre-Columbian art, but she has absorbed all
purely physical reasons: it was erroneously these influences and still created a distinctive art
assumed that women were not suited for the that expresses the urban landscape and the
hard manual labor required in sculpting stone, aesthetic sensibility of the twentieth century.
carving wood, or working in metal. It has been Nevelson says, “I have always wanted to show
only during the twentieth century that women the world that art is everywhere, except that it
sculptors have been recognized as major artists, has to pass through a creative mind.”
and it has been in the United States, especially Using mostly discarded wooden objects like
since the decades of the fifties and sixties, that packing crates, broken pieces of furniture, and
women sculptors have shown the greatest abandoned architectural ornaments, all of which
originally and creative power. Their rise to she has hoarded for years, she assembles
prominence parallels the development of architectural constructions of great beauty and
sculpture itself in the United States: while there power. Creating very freely with no sketches,
had been a few talented sculptors in the United she glues and nails objects together, paints them
States before the 1940’s, it was only after 1945 – black, or more rarely white or gold, and places
when New York was rapidly becoming the art them in boxes. These assemblages, walls, even
capital of the world – that major sculpture was entire environments create a mysterious, almost
produced in the United States. Some of the best awe-inspiring atmosphere. Although she has
was the work of women. denied any symbolic or religious intent in her
By far the most outstanding of these works, their three-dimensional grandeur and
women is Louise Nevelson, who in the eyes of even their titles, such as Sky Cathedral and
many critics is the most original female artist Night Cathedral, suggest such connotations. In
alive today. One famous and influential critic, some ways, her most ambitious works are closer
Hilton Kramer, said of her work, “For myself, I to architecture than to traditional sculpture, but
think Ms. Nevelson succeeds where the painters then neither Louise Nevelson nor her art fits into
often fail.” any neat category.

GT – PREP 148
 GRE Reading Comprehension

1. The passage focuses primary on which of the following?

(A) A general tendency in twentieth-century art
(B) The work of a particular artist
(C) The artistic influences on women sculptors.
(D) Critical responses to twentieth-century sculptors
(E) Materials used by twentieth-century sculptors

2. Which of the following statements is supported by information given in the

passage?
(A) Since 1945 women sculptors in the United States have produced more
sculpture than have men sculptors.
(B) Since 1950 sculpture produced in the United States has been the most
original and creative sculpture produced anywhere.
(C) From 1900 to 1950 women sculptors in Europe enjoyed more recognition for
their work than did women sculptors in the United States.
(D) Prior to 1945 there were many women sculptors whose work was ignored by
critics.
(E) Prior to 1945 there was little major sculpture produced by men or women
sculptors working in the United States.

3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes which of the following
about Nevelson’s sculptures?
(A) They suggest religious and symbolic meanings.
(B) They do not have qualities characteristic of sculpture.
(C) They are mysterious and awe-inspiring, but not beautiful.
(D) They are uniquely American in style and sensibility.
(E) They show the influence of twentieth-century architecture.

4. The author regards Nevelson’s stature in the art world as “remarkable” (para 1) in
part because of which of the following?
(A) Her work is currently overrated.
(B) Women sculptors have found it especially difficult to be accepted and
recognized as major artists.
(C) Nevelson’s sculptures are difficult to understand.
(D) Many art critics have favored painting over sculpture in writing about
developments in the art world.
(E) Few of the artists prominent in the twentieth century have been sculptors.

GT – PREP 149
GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 9
Volcanic rock that forms as fluid lava chills pillow flows from two-dimensional cross
rapidly is called pillow lava. This rapid sections of eroded pillows in land
chilling occurs when lava erupts directly into outcroppings. Virtually any cross section cut
water (or beneath ice) or when it flows across through a tangled mass of interconnected flow
a shoreline and into a body of water. While the lobes would give the appearance of a pile of
term “pillow lava” suggests a definite shape, discrete ellipsoidal masses. Adequate three-
in fact geologists disagree. Some geologists dimensional images of intact pillows are
argue that pillow lava is characterized by essential for defining the true geometry of
discrete, ellipsoidal masses. Others describe pillowed flows and thus ascertaining their
pillow lava as a tangled mass of cylindrical, mode of origin. Indeed, the term “pillow,”
interconnected flow lobes. Much of this itself suggestive of discrete masses, is
controversy probably results from unwarranted probably a misnomer.
extrapolations of the original configuration of

GT – PREP 150
 GRE Reading Comprehension

1. Which of the following is a fact presented in the passage?

(A) The shape of the connections between the separate, sack like masses in
pillow lava is unknown.
(B) More accurate cross sections of pillow lava would reveal the mode of origin.
(C) Water or ice is necessary for the formation of pillow lava.
(D) No three-dimensional examples of intact pillows currently exist.
(E) The origin of pillow lava is not yet known.

2. In the passage, the author is primarily interested in

(A) analyzing the source of a scientific controversy
(B) criticizing some geologists’ methodology
(C) pointing out the flaws in a geological study
(D) proposing a new theory to explain existing scientific evidence
(E) describing a physical phenomenon

3. The author of the passage would most probably agree that the geologists
mentioned in the sentence “Some geologists” have made which of the following
errors in reasoning?
Generalized unjustifiably from available evidence.
Deliberately ignored existing counterevidence.
Repeatedly failed to take new evidence into account.

4. The author implies that the “controversy” might be resolved if

(A) Geologists did not persist in using the term “pillow”
(B) Geologists did not rely on potentially misleading information
(C) Geologists were more willing to confer directly with one another
(D) Two-dimensional cross sections of eroded pillows were available
(E) Existing pillows in land outcroppings were not so badly eroded

GT – PREP 151
GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 10
Flatfish, such as the flounder, are The ease with which a fish can reverse
among the few vertebrates that lack the effect of the sideness of its eye asymmetry
approximate bilateral symmetry (symmetry in simply by turning around has caused biologists
which structures to the left and right of the to study internal anatomy, especially the optic
body’s midline are mirror images). Most nerves, for the answer. In all flatfish the optic
striking among the many asymmetries evident nerves cross, so that the right optic nerve is
in an adult flatfish is eye placement: before joined to the brain’s left side and vice versa.
maturity one eye migrates, so that in an adult This crossing introduces an asymmetry, as one
flatfish both eyes are on the same side of the optic nerve must cross above or below the
head. While in most species with asymmetries other. G.H. Parker reasoned that if, for
virtually all adults share the same asymmetry, example, a flatfish’s left eye migrated when
members of the starry flounder species can be the right optic nerve was on top, there would
either left-eyed (both eyes on the left side of be a twisting of nerves, which might be
head) or right-eyed. In the waters between the mechanically disadvantageous. For starry
United States and Japan, the starry flounder flounders, then, the left-eyed variety would be
populations vary from about 50 percent left- selected against, since in a starry flunder the
eyed off the United States West Coast, through left optic nerve is uppermost.
about 70 percent left-eyed halfway between The problem with the above
the United States and Japan, to nearly 100 explanation is that the Japanese starry flunder
percent left-eyed off the Japanese coast. population is almost exclusively left-eyed, and
Biologists call this kind of gradual natural selection never promotes a purely less
variation over a certain geographic range a advantageous variation. As other explanations
“cline” and interpret clines as strong proved equally untenable, biologists concluded
indications that the variation is adaptive, a that there is no important adaptive difference
response to environmental differences. For the between left-eyedness and right-eyedness, and
starry flounder this interpretation implies that that the two characteristics are genetically
a geometric difference (between fish that are associated with some other adaptively
mirror images of one another) is adaptive, that significant characteristic. This situation is one
left-eyedness in the Japanese starry flounder commonly encountered by evolutionary
has been selected for, which provokes a biologists, who must often decide whether a
perplexing question: what is the selective characteristic is adaptive or selectively neutral.
advantage in having both eyes on one side As for the left-eyed and right-eyed flatfish,
rather than on the other? their difference, however striking, appears to
be an evolutionary red herring.

GT – PREP 152
 GRE Reading Comprehension

1. According to the passage, starry flounder differ from most other species of
flatfish in that starry flounder
(A) are not basically bilaterally symmetric
(B) do not become asymmetric until adulthood
(C) do not all share the same asymmetry
(D) have both eyes on the same side of the head
(E) tend to cluster in only certain geographic regions

2. The author would most likely to agree with which of the following statements
about left-eyedness and right-eyedness in the starry flounder?
They are adaptive variations by the starry flounder to environmental
differences.
They do not seem to give obvious selective advantages to the starry flounder.
They occur in different proportions in different locations.

3. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage as a whole?
(A) A phenomenon is described and an interpretation is presented and rejected.
(B) A generalization is made and supporting evidence is supplied and weighted.
(C) A contradiction is noted and a resolution is suggested and then modified.
(D) A series of observations is presented and explained in terms of the dominant
theory.
(E) A hypothesis is introduced and corroborated in the light of new evidence.

4. Which of the following is most clearly similar to a cline as it is described in the

second paragraph of the passage?
(A) A vegetable market in which the various items are grouped according to place
of origin
(B) A wheat field in which different varieties of wheat are planted to yield a crop
that will bring the maximum profit
(C) A flower stall in which the various species of flowers are arranged according
to their price
(D) A housing development in which the length of the front struts supporting the
porch of each house increases as houses are built up the hill
(E) A national park in which the ranger stations are placed so as to be
inconspicuous, and yet as easily accessible as possible

GT – PREP 153
GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 11
Directions: Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a
passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following a passage on the
basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
If a supernova (the explosion of a This line of reasoning underlies an
massive star) triggered star formation from exciting new theory of spiral-galaxy structure.
dense clouds of gas and dust, and if the most A computer simulation based on this theory
massive star to be formed from the cloud has reproduced the appearance of many spiral
evolved into a supernova and triggered a new galaxies without assuming an underlying
round of star formation, and so on, then a density wave, the hallmark of the most widely
chain of star-forming regions would result. If accepted theory of the large-scale structure of
many such chains were created in a spiral galaxies. That theory maintains that a
differentially rotating galaxy, the distribution density wave of spiral from sweeps through
of stars would resemble the observed the central plane of a galaxy, compressing
distribution in a spiral galaxy. clouds of gas and dust, which collapse into
stars that form a spiral pattern.

GT – PREP 154
 GRE Reading Comprehension

1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) describe what results when a supernova triggers the creation of chains of star-
forming regions
(B) propose a modification in the most widely accepted theory of spiral-galaxy
structure
(C) compare and contrast the roles of clouds of gas and dust in two theories of
spiral-galaxy structure
(D) describe a new theory of spiral-galaxy structure and contrast it with the most
widely accepted theory
(E) describe a new theory of spiral-galaxy structure and discuss a reason why it is
inferior to the most widely accepted theory
2. The passage implies that, according to the new theory of spiral-galaxy structure, a
spiral galaxy can be created by supernovas when the supernovas are
(A) producing an underlying density wave
(B) affected by a density wave of spiral form
(C) distributed in a spiral pattern
(D) located in the central plane of a galaxy
(E) located in a differentially rotating galaxy
3. Which of the following, if true, would most discredit the new theory as described
in the passage?
(A) The exact mechanism by which a star becomes a supernova is not yet
completely known and may even differ for different stars.
(B) Chains of star-forming regions like those postulated in the new theory have
been observed in the vicinity of dense clouds of gas and dust.
(C) The most massive stars formed from supernova explosions are unlikely to
evolve into supernovas.
(D) Computer simulations of supernovas provide a poor picture of what occurs
just before a supernova explosion.
(E) A density wave cannot compress clouds of gas and dust to a density high
enough to create a star.
4. The author’s attitude toward the new theory of spiral-galaxy structure can best be
described as
(A) euphoric
(B) enthusiastic
(C) concerned
(D) critical
(E) disputatious

GT – PREP 155
GRE Reading Comprehension

Passage 12
The first mention of slavery in the overshadow evidence from the 1630’s on that
statutes of the English colonies of North points to racial discrimination without using
America does not occur until after 1660 – the term slavery. Such discrimination
some forty years after the importation of the sometimes stopped short of lifetime servitude
first Black people. Lest we think that slavery or inherited status – the two attributes of true
existed in fact before it did in law, Oscar and slavery – yet in other cases it included both.
Mary Handlin assure us that the status of The Handlins’ argument excludes the real
Black people down to the 1660’s was that of possibility that Black people in the English
servants. A critique of the Handlins’ colonies were never treated as the equals of
interpretation of why legal slavery did not White people.
appear until the 1660’s suggests that This possibility has important
assumptions about the relation between ramifications. If from the outset Black people
slavery and racial prejudice should be were discriminated against, then legal slavery
reexamined, and that explanations for the should be viewed as a reflection and an
different treatment of Black slaves in North extension of racial prejudice rather than, as
and South America should be explanded. many, historians including the Handlins have
The Handlins explain the appearance argued, the cause of prejudice. In addition,
of legal slavery by arguing that, during the the existence of discrimination before the
1660’s, the position of White servants was advent of legal slavery offers a further
improving relative to that of Black servants. explanation for the harsher treatment of Black
Thus, the Handlins contend, Black and White slaves in North than in South America. Freyre
servants, heretofore treated alike, each and Tannenbaum have rightly argued that the
attained a different status. There are, lack of certain traditions in North America –
however, important objections to this such as a Roman conception of slavery and a
argument. First, the Handlins cannot Roman Catholic emphasis on equality –
adequately demonstrate that the White explains why the treatment of Black slaves
servant’s position was improving during and was more severe there than in the Spanish
after the 1660’s; several acts of the Maryland and Portuguese colonies of South America.
and Virginia legislatures indicate otherwise. But this cannot be the whole explanation
Another flaw in the Handlins’ interpretation since it is merely negative, based only on a
is their assumption that prior to the lack of something. A more compelling
establishment of legal slavery there was no explanation is that the early and sometimes
discrimination against Black people. It is true extreme racial discrimination in the English
that before the 1660’s Black people were colonies helped determine the particular
rarely called slaves. But this should not nature of the slavery that followed.

GT – PREP 156
 GRE Reading Comprehension

1. Which of the following statements best describes the organization of (The first
mention…….. until the) of the passage?
(A) A historical trend is sketched and an exception to that trend is cited.
(B) Evidence for a historical irregularity is mentioned and a generalization from
that evidence is advanced.
(C) A paradox about the origins of an institution is pointed out and the author’s
explanation of the paradox is expounded.
(D) A statement about a historical phenomenon is offered and a possible
misinterpretation of that statement is addressed.
(E) An interpretation of the rise of an institution is stated and evidence for that
interpretation is provided.

2. Which of the following is the most logical inference to be drawn from the
passage about the effects of “several acts of the Maryland and Virginia
legislatures” passed during and after the 1660’s?
(A) The acts negatively affected the pre-1660’s position of Black as well as of
White servants.
(B) The acts had the effect of impairing rather than improving the position of
White servants relative to what it had been before the 1660’s.
(C) The acts had a different effect on the position of White servants than did
many of the acts passed during this time by the legislatures of other colonies.
(D) The acts, at the very least, caused the position of White servants to remain no
better than it had been before the 1660’s.
(E) The acts, at the very least, tended to reflect the attitudes toward Black
servants that already existed before the 1660’s.

GT – PREP 157
 GRE Analytical Writing

GT – PREP 158
GRE Analytical Writing

Analytical Writing Topics

GT – PREP 159
 GRE Analytical Writing

GT – PREP 160
GRE Analytical Writing

ANALYTICAL WRITING ASSESSMENT

The Analytical Writing Measure primarily assesses your critical thinking and analytical
writing skills. It assesses your ability to articulate and support complex ideas, construct and
evaluate arguments, and sustain a focused and coherent discussion. It does not assess
specific knowledge.
The AWA section consists of 2 seprately timed analytical writing tasks:
• “Analyze an issue” task – 30 minutes
• “Analyze an argument” task – 30 minutes
ETS publishes the entire pool of both issue and argument tasks from which test takers’ tasks
will be selected.
The published pools can be seen at [Link]/gre/awatopics

Analyze an Issue task:

This task assesses your ability to think critically about a topic of general interest according
to specific instructions and to clearly express your thoughts abput it in writing. It is
important that you address the central issue according to the specific instructions. Each task
is accompanied by one of the following sets of instructions.
a. Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with
the statement and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and
supporting your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or
might not hold true and explain how these considerations shape your position.
b. Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with
the recommendation and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing
and supporting your position, describe specific circumstances in which adopting the
recommendation would or would not be advantageous and explain how these examples
shape your position.
c. Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with
the claim. In developing and supporting your position, be sure to address the most
compelling reasons and/or examples that could be used to challenge your position.
d. Write a response in which you discuss which view more closely aligns with your own
position and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and
supporting your position, you should address both of the views presented.
e. Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with
the claim and the reason on which the claim is based.
f. Write a response in which you discuss your views on the policy and explain your
reasoning for the position you take. In developing and supporting your position, you
should consider the possible consequences of implementing the policy and explain how
these consequences shape your position.

GT – PREP 161
 GRE Analytical Writing

Let us look at an example on how to deal with an Issue task.

1. People's behavior is largely determined by forces not of their own making.
Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the
statement and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and
supporting your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or might
not hold true and explain how these considerations shape your position.

Understand the task:

Get examples on both the sides:

Agree Disagree

Reason 1

Reason 2

`
Example 1

Example 2

GT – PREP 162
GRE Analytical Writing

2. Laws should be flexible enough to take account of various circumstances, times, and
places.

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the
statement and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and
supporting your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or might
not hold true and explain how these considerations shape your position.

Understand the task:

Get examples on both the sides:

Agree Disagree

Reason 1

Reason 2

`
Example 1

Example 2

GT – PREP 163
 GRE Analytical Writing

3. College students should base their choice of a field of study on the availability of jobs in
that field.

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the
claim. In developing and supporting your position, be sure to address the most compelling
reasons and/or examples that could be used to challenge your position.

Understand the task:

Get examples on both the sides:

Agree Disagree

Reason 1

Reason 2

`
Example 1

Example 2

GT – PREP 164
GRE Analytical Writing

4. The increasingly rapid pace of life today causes more problems than it solves.

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the
statement and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and
supporting your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or might
not hold true and explain how these considerations shape your position.

Understand the task:

Get examples on both the sides:

Agree Disagree

Reason 1

Reason 2

`
Example 1

Example 2

GT – PREP 165
 GRE Analytical Writing

5. If a goal is worthy, then any means taken to attain it are justifiable.

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the
statement and explain your reasoning for the position you take. In developing and
supporting your position, you should consider ways in which the statement might or might
not hold true and explain how these considerations shape your position.

Understand the task:

Get examples on both the sides:

Agree Disagree

Reason 1

Reason 2

`
Example 1

Example 2

GT – PREP 166
GRE Analytical Writing
The template:
Introduction:
1. ______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

2. ______________________________________________________________________
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3. ______________________________________________________________________
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4. ______________________________________________________________________
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Body paragraphs:

1. ______________________________________________________________________
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2. ______________________________________________________________________
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3. ______________________________________________________________________
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4. ______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

Conclusion:

1. ______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

2. ______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

3. ______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________

GT – PREP 167
 GRE Analytical Writing
Space to write a task:
-
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GT – PREP 168
GRE Analytical Writing
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
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_____________________.

Score:

GT – PREP 169
 GRE Analytical Writing
Can

1. _________________________________________________________________
2. _________________________________________________________________
3. _________________________________________________________________
4. _________________________________________________________________
5. _________________________________________________________________
6. _________________________________________________________________
7. _________________________________________________________________
8. _________________________________________________________________
9. _________________________________________________________________
10. _________________________________________________________________

Do not
1. _________________________________________________________________
2. _________________________________________________________________
3. _________________________________________________________________
4. _________________________________________________________________
5. _________________________________________________________________
6. _________________________________________________________________
7. _________________________________________________________________
8. _________________________________________________________________
9. _________________________________________________________________
10. _________________________________________________________________

GT – PREP 170
GRE Analytical Writing
"Analyze an Argument"
This task assesses your ability to understand, analyze, and evaluate arguments according to
specific instructions and to clearly convey your evaluation in writing. In reading the
argument, you should pay special attention to
• What is offered as evidence, support, or proof
• What is explicitly stated, claimed, or concluded
• What is assumed or supposed, perhaps without justification or proof
• What is not stated, but necessarily follows from what is tasted
Indeed here as well, it is paramount to address the task with specific instructions. Each task
is accompanied by one of the following instructions.
• Write a response in which you discuss what specific evidence is needed to evaluate the
argument and explain how the evidence would weaken or strengthen the argument.
• Write a response in which you examine the stated and/or unstated assumptions of the
argument. Be sure to explain how the argument depends on these assumptions and what
the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove unwarranted.
• Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in
order to decide whether the recommendation is likely to have the predicted result. Be
sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to evaluate the
recommendation.
• Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in
order to decide whether the recommendation and the argument on which it is based are
reasonable. Be sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to
evaluate the recommendation.
• Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in
order to decide whether the advice and the argument on which it is based are reasonable.
Be sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to evaluate the advice.
• Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in
order to decide whether the prediction and the argument on which it is based are
reasonable. Be sure to explain how the answers tho these questions would help to
evaluate the prediction.
• Write a response in which you discuss one or more alternative explanations that could
rival the proposed explanation and explain how your explanation(s) can plausibly
account for the facts presented in the argument.
• Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be addressed in
order to decide whether the conclusion and the argument on which it is based are
reasonable. Be sure to explain how the answers to the questions would help to evaluate
the conclusion.

GT – PREP 171
 GRE Analytical Writing

1. The following appeared in a letter from a homeowner to a friend.

"Of the two leading real estate firms in our town—Adams Realty and Fitch Realty—
Adams Realty is clearly superior. Adams has 40 real estate agents; in contrast, Fitch has
25, many of whom work only part-time. Moreover, Adams' revenue last year was twice
as high as that of Fitch and included home sales that averaged $168,000, compared to
Fitch's $144,000. Homes listed with Adams sell faster as well: ten years ago I listed my
home with Fitch, and it took more than four months to sell; last year, when I sold
another home, I listed it with Adams, and it took only one month. Thus, if you want to
sell your home quickly and at a good price, you should use Adams Realty."

Write a response in which you examine the stated and/or unstated assumptions of the
argument. Be sure to explain how the argument depends on these assumptions and what
the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove unwarranted.

Understand the task:

Get the following:

• Carefully read the argument and the specific instructions – you might want to read them
over more than once.
• Identify as many of the agument’s claims, conclusions, and underlying assumptions as
possible
• Alternative explanations and counterexamples as you can
• Specific additional evidence that might weaken or lend support to the claims
• What changes in the argument would make the reasoning more sound

GT – PREP 172
GRE Analytical Writing

2. The following is a recommendation from the Board of Directors of Monarch Books.

"We recommend that Monarch Books open a café in its store. Monarch, having been in
business at the same location for more than twenty years, has a large customer base
because it is known for its wide selection of books on all subjects. Clearly, opening the
café would attract more customers. Space could be made for the café by discontinuing
the children's book section, which will probably become less popular given that the
most recent national census indicated a significant decline in the percentage of the
population under age ten. Opening a café will allow Monarch to attract more customers
and better compete with Regal Books, which recently opened its own café."

Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in
order to decide whether the recommendation is likely to have the predicted result. Be
sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to evaluate the
recommendation.

Understand the task:

Get the following:

• Carefully read the argument and the specific instructions – you might want to read them
over more than once.
• Identify as many of the agument’s claims, conclusions, and underlying assumptions as
possible
• Alternative explanations and counterexamples as you can
• Specific additional evidence that might weaken or lend support to the claims
• What changes in the argument would make the reasoning more sound

GT – PREP 173
 GRE Analytical Writing

3. Nature's Way, a chain of stores selling health food and other health-related products, is
opening its next franchise in the town of Plainsville. The store should prove to be very
successful: Nature's Way franchises tend to be most profitable in areas where residents
lead healthy lives, and clearly Plainsville is such an area. Plainsville merchants report
that sales of running shoes and exercise clothing are at all-time highs. The local health
club has more members than ever, and the weight training and aerobics classes are
always full. Finally, Plainsville's schoolchildren represent a new generation of potential
customers: these schoolchildren are required to participate in a fitness-for-life program,
which emphasizes the benefits of regular exercise at an early age.

Write a response in which you examine the stated and/or unstated assumptions of the
argument. Be sure to explain how the argument depends on these assumptions and what
the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove unwarranted.

Understand the task:

Get the following:

• Carefully read the argument and the specific instructions – you might want to read them
over more than once.
• Identify as many of the agument’s claims, conclusions, and underlying assumptions as
possible
• Alternative explanations and counterexamples as you can
• Specific additional evidence that might weaken or lend support to the claims
• What changes in the argument would make the reasoning more sound

GT – PREP 174
GRE Analytical Writing
The template:
Introduction:
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Conclusion:

1. ______________________________________________________________________
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2. ______________________________________________________________________
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3. ______________________________________________________________________
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GT – PREP 175
 GRE Analytical Writing
Space to write a task:
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GT – PREP 176
GRE Analytical Writing
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Score:

GT – PREP 177
 GRE Analytical Writing
Can
1. _________________________________________________________________
2. _________________________________________________________________
3. _________________________________________________________________
4. _________________________________________________________________
5. _________________________________________________________________
6. _________________________________________________________________
7. _________________________________________________________________
8. _________________________________________________________________
9. _________________________________________________________________
10. _________________________________________________________________

Do not
1. _________________________________________________________________
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9. _________________________________________________________________
10. _________________________________________________________________

GT – PREP 178
GRE Index

INDEX

1. Number system 179 – 191

2. Factors, Multiple, Decimals & Fractions 192 – 204

3. Percentages, profit & loss 205 – 227

4. Simple interest & Compound interest 228 – 239

5. Ratio & proportions 240 – 252

6. Time & work, Time & Distance 253 – 268

7. Algebraic expressions and exponents, Linear and

quadratic equations 269 – 290

8. Inequalities and absolute values 291 – 305

9. Functions & graphs, defined functions, sequences and series 306 – 326

[Link], angles, parallel lines, polygons & Triangles 327 – 357

[Link] and circles 358 – 382

[Link]-ordinate and 3D Geometry 383 – 404

[Link] & Normal distribution 405 – 429

[Link], permutations, combinations & probability 430 – 448

[Link] Interpretation 449 – 459

GT – PREP
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Quantitative Reasoning

GT – PREP 179
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

NUMBER SYSTEM
Numbers:
In Hindu Arabic system, we have ten digits, namely 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 called
zero, one, two, three, four, five, six, seven, eight and nine respectively.
A Number is denoted by a group of digits, called Numeral.

Classification of numbers:
1. Natural Numbers:
All the counting numbers are classified under natural Numbers.
{1, 2, 3…….. n}
2. Whole Numbers:
All the Natural numbers and the number zero are classified under whole
numbers. {0, 1, 2, 3...… n}
3. Integers: {0, ±1, ±2, ±3........±n}
4. Rational Numbers:
{P/q; p and q being integers, q≠0} Any terminating or recurring decimal is a
Rational Number.
p
1. Irrationals: Numbers that cannot be written in the form . Any non-
q
terminating and non- recurring decimal is an irrational number.
Example: 2 , 3 5 etc.
π and ‘℮’ (exponential function) are also irrational numbers.
2. Real numbers: All the Rational and Irrational numbers together are
2
classified under real numbers. Example: -2, , 0.7, 4, ….
3
3. Even numbers: Numbers that are divisible by 2 are even numbers.
Example: 2, 20, 100, -26, etc.
The sum of any number of even numbers is always even.
The product of any number of even numbers is always even.

4. Odd numbers: Numbers that are not divisible by 2 are odd numbers.
Example: 3, 9, 19, 21, etc.,
The sum of odd number of odd numbers (i.e. the sum of 3 odd numbers, the
sum of 7 odd numbers, etc.) is always odd. The sum of even number of odd
numbers (i.e. the sum of 4 odd numbers, the sum of 6 odd numbers, etc.) is
always even.
The product of any number of odd numbers is always odd.
Consecutive numbers can be generalized as n, n+1, n+2 etc.
Consecutive even numbers can be generalized as 2n, 2n+2, 2n+4 etc.
Consecutive odd numbers can be generalized as 2n±1, 2n±3, 2n±5 etc.
5. Prime numbers: Numbers that do not have any factors apart from one and
the numbers itself.
Example: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23 etc.,
6. Composite numbers: Numbers that have more than 2 factors.
Example: 4, 10, 225, 100 etc.
7. Co - prime numbers: Numbers that do not have any factor common to them
except 1.
Example: 5 and 12 are Co primes

GT – PREP 180
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Divisibility Rules:
Divisibility by 2:
A number is divisible by 2, if it has an even number as its last digit.
Example: 20, 100, 1256.
Divisibility by 3:
A number is divisible by 3, if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 3.
Example: 27, 129, 3726.
Divisibility by 4:
A number is divisible by 4, if the number formed with its last two digits is
divisible by 4.
Example: 124, 600, 76984.
Divisibility by 5:
A number is divisible by 5, if its last digit is 5 or zero.
Example: 100, 625, 1025.
Divisibility by 6:
A number is divisible by 6, if it is divisible both by both 2 and 3.
Example: 12, 720, 3366
Divisibility by 7:
A number is divisible by 7, if the difference between the number of tens in the
number and twice the unit’s digit is divisible by 7.
Example: 392
The numbers of tens are 39.
So, 39-2×2=35
Since 35 is divisible by 7,392 is also divisible by 7.
If the number is large, the rule may be repeatedly applied till a number
identifiable as divisible by 7 is obtained.
Example: 59734
5973-2×4= 5965
596-2×5=586
58-2×6=46
Since 7 do not divide 46, 7 does not divide 59734.
Divisibility by 8:
A number is divisible by 8, if the number formed with the last 3 digits of the
number is divisible by 8.
Example: 1148, 11640, 25000.
Divisibility by 9:
A number is divisible by 9, if the sum of its digits is a multiple of 9.
Example: 81, 729, 90099
Divisibility by 10:
A number is divisible by 10 if its last digit is zero. Example : 70, 200, 300
Divisibility by 11:
A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of digits in odd
places in the number and the sum of the digits in the even places in the number
should be equal to zero or a multiple of 11.
Example: 132, 1001, 3245

GT – PREP 181
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
1. Find the least value of ‘K for which (8967K12) is
divisible by 3.

2. What is the units digit in the product

(782 × 559 × 416 × 678)?

GT – PREP 182
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
3. Find the total number of prime factors in
the product [811 × 75 × 114 ]?

4. Find the remainder when 231 is divided by 10.

GT – PREP 183
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
5. When 3 consecutive odd integers, each greater
than 74 are added, what is the smallest possible sum?

6. What is the remainder, if 5 divides 211?

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4

GT – PREP 184
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
7. Which of the following pair of numbers could NOT
be relatively prime?
A) (2, 5)
B) (3, 1)
C) (5, 7)
D) (9, 25)
E) (9, 10)

8. x is an integer greater than 1

Quantity A Quantity B
1 1 1
−
𝑥𝑥 2 2

A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 185
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
Cindy earns $5 per hour and Tom earns $6 per hour
9. Quantity A Quantity B
The amount Cindy earns The amount Tom
6 ½ hour earns in 5 ½ hour
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

9𝑥𝑥 2 = 81
10. Quantity A Quantity B
x 3
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 186
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
11. How many positive integers less than 40 are equal to
the sum of positive multiples of 5 and positive
multiples of 4?
A) 1
B) 12
C) 15
D) 16
E) 20

12. If p, q and r are consecutive positive integers,

with p < q < r and the value of p + q + r neither
positive nor negative. Which of the following
could be p2 + r?
A) - 2
B) – 1
C) 0
D) 1
E) 2

GT – PREP 187
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
n is a positive integer
13. Quantity A Quantity B
2n
Units digit of (737) Units digit of (849)n
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

14. If sum of 5 consecutive positive integers is 80,

then what would be the middle value in the series?
A) 15
B) 16
C) 17
D) 18
E) 19

GT – PREP 188
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
An integer p in subtracted from an integer q and the
result is greater than q
15. Quantity A Quantity B
p 0
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

16. The product of two integers is 15. Which of the

following could be sum of the two integers?
(Indicate all possible choices)
-16
-14
-8
-2
2
8
16

GT – PREP 189
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
17. The product of two integers is 15. Which of the
following could be difference of the two integers?
(Indicate all possible choices)
-14
-8
-2
0
2
8
14

18. Which of the following is closest to 3 70 ?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6

GT – PREP 190
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
19. In a particular poker game, a player had five successful
turns in a row, and after each one the number of points
added to his total score was doubled and was added to
the preceding turn. If the player scored a total of 465
points, how many points did he score on the first play?
A) 15
B) 31
C) 93
D) 155
E) 270

20. Find the unit’s digit in (677)345 + (598)379

GT – PREP 191
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

FACTORS, MULTIPLES, DECIMALS & FRACTIONS

Factors and multiples
In the problem 3×4=12, 3 and 4 are Factors and 12 is the product or multiple.
Factoring is like taking a number apart. It means to express a number as the product
of its factors. Factors are either Composite numbers or Prime numbers
(0 and 1 are neither prime nor composite numbers).
The number 12 is a multiple of 3, because it can be divided evenly by 3.

3×4=12

3 and 4 are both factors of 12

12 is a multiple of both 3 and 4

Here are lists of all the factors of 16, 20, and 45.

16  1, 2, 4, 8, 16

20  1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20

45  1, 3, 5, 9, 15, 45

Greatest Common factor (GCF)

The greatest common factor, or GCF, is the greatest factor that divides two numbers.
To find the GCF of two numbers:

1. List the prime factors of each number.

2. Multiply those factors both numbers have in common. If there are no common
prime factors, the GCF is 1.

GT – PREP 192
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Example:
Find the GCF of these pairs of numbers.

a) 14,49
Solution: list the prime factors of each.
14: 2×7
49: 7×7
7 is the common factor; therefore, 7 is the GCF.

b) 15,75
Solution: list the prime factors of each.
15: 5×3
75: 5×3×5
5 and 3 are common; therefore 3× 5=15 is the GCF.

Least Common Multiple (LCM)

• A common multiple is a multiple of two or more numbers. The common
multiples of 3 and 4 are 0, 12, 24...
• The least common multiple (LCM) of two numbers is the smallest number (not
zero) that is a multiple of both.

Example:
Let’s find the LCM of 30 and 45.

Solution: to find the LCM of two numbers is to first list the prime factors of each
number.

30= 2 × 3 × 5

45= 3 × 3 × 5

LCM: 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 = 90

Note: after you have calculated LCM, always check to be sure that your answer can
be divided evenly by both numbers.

GT – PREP 193
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Fractions:
In a fraction, the denominator tells us how many parts the whole is divided into, and
the numerator tells us how many of those parts we’re dealing with.

Types of fractions:
1. Proper fraction: numerator is less than the denominator.
3 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
Example: =
4 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

2. Improper fraction: numerator is greater than or equal to denominator

4 3 400
Example: , ,
3 2 97

3. Mixed fractions: whole number and fraction.

1 3
Example: 3 , 9
3 4
1
To convert 3 to an improper fraction:
3
1 (3×3)+1 10
3 = =
3 3 3

4. Equivalent fractions: fractions that represent the same number.

1 2 4
Example: , , are equivalent fractions.
2 4 8

5. Reciprocal fractions:
When the product of two numbers is one, they are called reciprocals
or multiplicative inverses of each other. Every non zero fraction has a reciprocal.
It is easy to determine the reciprocal of a fraction since all you have to do switch
the numerator and denominator.
6 8 7 5
Example: and ; and
8 6 5 7

GT – PREP 194
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Place value:
In our decimal number system, the value of a digit depends on its place, or position,
in the number. Each place has a value of 10 times the place to its right.
| ten thousands | thousands | hundreds | tens | ones
The place value

Decimal numbers:
The zero and the counting numbers {1, 2, 3, 4........} make up the set of whole
numbers. But not every number is a whole number. Our decimal system lets us write
numbers of all types and sizes, using a clever symbol called a “decimal point”.
As you move right from the decimal point, each place value is divided by 10.

Signed numbers:
An integer is a whole number that can be either greater than 0, called positive, or less
than 0, called negative. Zero is neither positive nor negative.
Two integers that are the same distance from zero in opposite directions are called
opposites.
You can visualize positive and negative integers using the number line.
negative numbers (-1, -2 ......,) orgin (0) positive numbers (1, 2, 3 ......)

-4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4

GT – PREP 195
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

An entire 8-pound bag of dry paint is to be divided

equally among 3 students in a play school class.
1. Quantity A Quantity B
11
The number of pounds of a
2
dry paint that each of the
students will receive.
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

1
2. In 2018, state Y produced th and state Z produced
10
1
th of all the steel produced in country X. If all the
15

other states combined production is 310 million tons,

how many million tons did state Y produced?
A) 27.5
B) 37.2
C) 54.6
D) 72.8
E) 162.2

GT – PREP 196
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
0<x<y<z
3. Quantity A Quantity B
x+z y
y+z z

A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

p is an integer, and the remainder when 3p in divided by 6?

4. Quantity A Quantity B
The remainder when p 0
is divided by 3
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 197
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
n=2×3×4×5×6
5. Quantity A Quantity B
Number of distinct 28
positive factors of n
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

6. Quantity A Quantity B
The remainder when The remainder when 24100
25100 is divided by 24 divided by 25
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 198
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. When a certain number is divided by 6, the remainder is
zero. If the remainder is not zero when the number is
divided by 12, then the remainder must be
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 6

8. The number 210 . 520 is divisible by which of the

following?
Select ALL that apply
15
25
30
250
275
310
345

GT – PREP 199
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
9. The number 0.1 is how many times as great as the
number (0.01)3?
A) 102
B) 105
C) 106
D) 108
E) 1010

10. What is 0.423568 rounded to the nearest thousandth?

A) 0.42
B) 0.423
C) 0.424
D) 0.4236
E) 0.4237

GT – PREP 200
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
11. Quantity A Quantity B
1.2310−5 0.423 × 10−4
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

1
12. If p, q, r are integers and p & q are each th more than
5
r, then (pq)/(p+q)is what fraction of r?

GT – PREP 201
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
13. Quantity A Quantity B
25% of 120 120% of 25
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

4
14. In a weekend, Best Bakery used th of 50 pound bag of
5
1
Cocoa. Of this, th of the quantity used for chocolate
4
cake. How many pounds of Cocoa were used for
Chocolate cake?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 8
D) 10
E) 15

GT – PREP 202
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
15. Quantity A Quantity B
The digit in the 56th place to 3
the right of the decimal point
5
when is represented as a
37
decimal
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

2
16. When th of the votes on a certain resolution have been
9
3
counted, th of those counted are in favor of the
4
resolution. What fraction of the remaining votes must be
against the resolution so that the total count will result in
vote of 2 to 1 against the resolution?

11
A)
14
13
B)
18
4
C)
7
3
D)
7
3
E)
14

GT – PREP 203
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
1
17. In a county poll, N people were interviewed. If th of
4

1
them answered "yes" to question 1, and of those, rd
3
answered "yes" to question 2. Which of the following
expressions represents the number of people interviewed
who did not answer "yes" to both questions?

A) N
7

B) 6 N
7
5N
C)
12
7N
D)
12
11N
E)
12

3
18. th of the people of a fitness club have passed the
10
fitness test. Among the members who have not passed
the test, 12 have taken the preparatory course and 30
have not taken the course. How many members are there
in the fitness club?
A) 60
B) 80
C) 100
D) 120
E) 140

GT – PREP 204
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

2. PERCENTAGES
Percentages:
Percent means “out of 100”. We can use the symbol (%) as a handy way to write a
fraction with a common denominator of 100.

A percent can always be written as a decimal by moving the decimal point two places
to the right like this:

0.85 = 0.85 = 85%

We use percent symbol (%) to express percent. Here are three ways to write the same
thing:

26
26% = = 0.26
100

Note: The word ‘per cent ‘means ‘per hundred’.

19
19 per cent means, 19 parts out of 100 parts. This can also be written as .
100

Fraction to rate per cent:

𝑎𝑎
To convert (or express) any fraction to rate per cent, multiply it by 100 and put (%)
𝑏𝑏
sign.
𝑎𝑎 𝑎𝑎
= × 100%
𝑏𝑏 𝑏𝑏
𝑎𝑎 𝑎𝑎
Here is a fraction and × 100% is a rate per cent.
𝑏𝑏 𝑏𝑏

Rate per cent to fraction:

To convert a rate per cent a fraction, divide it by 100 and delete the % sign.

Rate per cent of a number:

Rate per cent of a number is the product of equivalent fraction (of rate per cent) and
the number.
𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝
Value of rate percent of a number = × number
100

𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
Number = × 100
𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝𝑝

Example: To find out 25% of 500.

Required value = 25% of 500

=  25  × 500
 100 

= 125.

GT – PREP 205
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Converting a percentage into Decimals:

Case 1:
If the percentage be a positive integer, then

Place a decimal point after two places from the extreme right of the integer to convert
it into a decimal. If the percentage is a single digit number, add one zero to the left of
it and then place the decimal point for its conversion. % sign is removed after
conversion.

Example: 67% may be converted into decimals as 0.67, because

67
67% = = 0.67
100

Case 2:
Let the percentage be a decimal fraction
The percentage, being a decimal fraction, shifts decimal by two places to the left. Add
zero to the left of the fraction, if needed.
Example: 3.5% may be written as 0.035
Example: 0.7% may be written as 0.007

Case 3:
Let the percentage be a fraction.
𝑎𝑎
If the percentage is a fraction in the form , then convert it into decimal fraction and
𝑏𝑏

then follow the rule detailed in case 2.

1
Example:
4
% is equivalent to 0.25% which may be converted into decimals as
0.0025.

GT – PREP 206
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Converting a decimal into a percentage:

In this case, the method of 10.6 is reversed, i.e., shift the decimal point two places to
the right. Add zero to the extreme right if required. Then add %sign.

Example: 0.45 may be expressed as 45%

Percentage change:
If a number or quantity increases or decreases to a new number, then

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
% increase or % decrease = 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣
×100%

Here original value indicates the base value compared to which the % increase or %
decrease is calculated.

Note: This % increase or % decrease has wide application in solving the problems on
data interpretation. It helps to find the % growth or % decline over a certain period.

Example: A person invested $32000 and $ 40000 respectively in 2010 and 2011.
What is the percentage increase in the year 2011 from the previous year?

Percentage change and new number:

If any number (quantity) is increased by x %, then

New number (quantity) = original number ×  100 + x 

 100 

or
Similarly, if any number (quantity) is decreased by x%, then

New number (quantity) = original number ×  100 − x 

 100 

Note: In case of percentage decrease, a (-) ve sign is put before x, otherwise the
formulae is same.

Example: The present salary of A is $3000. This will be increased by 20% in the next
year. What will be the increased salary of A?

GT – PREP 207
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Two step change of percentage for a number:

In the first step, a number is changed (increased or decreased) by x%, and in the
second step, this changed number is again changed (increased or decreased) by y%,
then net percentage change on the original number can be conveniently found out by
using the following formula,

𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
Net % change = x + y +
100

(+ or -)

If x or y indicates decrease in percentage, then put a (-) ve sign before x or y,

otherwise positive sign remains.

Example: If a number is increased by 12% and then decreased by 18%, then find the
net percentage change in the number.

Note: (-) sign signifies that there is percentage decrease in the result. Therefore -8.16
indicate net 8.16% decrease of the given number as a result of 12% increase and 18%
decrease.
It also implies that 12% increase and 18% decrease are equivalent to 8.16% decrease.

Product to remain fixed:

We know that
Rate × consumption = expenditure (product)
Length × breadth = area (product)
Now, if rate increases, then consumption should decrease, so that expenditure
remains fixed. Hence if rate decreases, the consumption increases, similarly, if length
increases, breadth decreases & vice-versa for constant area.
Fraction rule:
1 1
If one variable changes by , then second variable changes by so that product
𝑥𝑥 1+𝑥𝑥

remains fixed.

Percentage rule:
1
If one variable changes by x%, then second variable changes by × 100% so
100+𝑥𝑥

that product remains fixed.

Note: Put (-x) if there is a decrease, and x for a % decrease.

GT – PREP 208
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
1. p is 25% of 200. What is the value of p?
A) 40
B) 50
C) 60
D) 800
E) 1000

2. After a 14% increase, the population was 5,700. What

was the population before the increase?
A) 3000
B) 4000
C) 5000
D) 6000
E) 7000

GT – PREP 209
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
3. An iron rod measures 100m. In summer, it expands to
100.1m. What is the percentage increase in its length?

4. In 2018, at New York State University, 40% of the

numbers of students are freshmen. If 30% of the
freshmen are enrolled in humanities and, of these, 50%
are history majors. What percent of the students at the
University are Freshmen Humanities majors enrolled for
History?

GT – PREP 210
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
5. The population of a town X is 1000. If the population
increases by 10% every year. What is its population after
3 years?
A) 1200
B) 1300
C) 1331
D) 1400
E) 1541

6. In an orange county high school graduating classes, 25%

of the students started formal employment and the rest
pursued higher education. 40% of those who pursed
higher education went to community colleges. If 150
students in the class went to community colleges, how
many students were in the graduating class?

GT – PREP 211
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
Certain class has 150 boys and 250 girls
7. Quantity A Quantity B
Percent of the of boys
in the class 40%
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

8. In a fifth grade class of 400 students, 40% received

grade A. In another fifth grade class of 500 students,
40% received grade A. What percent of the total number
of students in both classes received grade A?
A) 30
B) 35
C) 40
D) 45
E) 50

GT – PREP 212
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

3. PROFIT, LOSS, DISCOUNT

The price at which an article is bought by a store is called Cost Price (C.P.).

The price at which an article is sold by store is called Selling Price (S.P.).

If S.P > C.P , then a profit occurs, given by

Profit= S.P – C.P

S.P−C.P
Profit % = × 100
C.P

Just similar to % increase in a value.

If S.P < C.P, then a loss occurs, given by

Loss = C.P – S.P

C.P−S.P
Loss % = × 100
C.P

Just similar to % decrease in a value.

Discount = M.P – S.P

M .P − S .P
Discount % = × 100
M .P

GT – PREP 213
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space

1. 10 pens are bought for $16 and sold at $2.4 each. What
is the profit percentage?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 35%
D) 40%
E) 50%

A shopkeeper sells an article for $10 and makes profit of

$2
2. Quantity A Quantity B
Profit percentage 20%
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 214
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
3. Quantity A Quantity B
C.P when S.P = $40; C.P when S.P = $51.70;
loss = 16% gain = 12%
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

4. A fruit seller bought every 60 bananas for $100 and sold

every 40 of them for $60. Find his gain or loss percent?
A) Gain 10%
B) loss 10%
C) Gain 12%
D) Loss 12%
E) Loss 14%

GT – PREP 215
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space

5. If the cost price is 90% of the selling price, then what is

the profit percent? Round off your answer to two
decimal places.

6. When a watch is sold for $1870, the loss is 15%. At

what price must that watch be sold in order to gain 15%?
A) $2100
B) $2250
C) $2530
D) $2580
E) $2690

GT – PREP 216
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
7. By selling a watch for $100, a person gains $19. Then
his gain % approximately is?
A) 13
B) 15
C) 17
D) 24
E) 26

8. A bakery sold 10 candies for $2.4 and gained 20%. On

another day it sold ‘x’ candies for $4.5 and made a loss
of 10%. What is the value of x?
A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35
E) 40

GT – PREP 217
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
On selling 12 apples at $5, there is a profit equal to the
cost price of 3 apples
9. Quantity A Quantity B
Cost price of one apple $20
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

10. The profit made on a sale is 25% when the discount

given is 20%. What is the profit, approximately, if the
discount is 10%?
A) 24
B) 26
C) 30
D) 35
E) 40

GT – PREP 218
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
3
Selling price of an article is times its cost price.
2
11. Quantity A Quantity B
Profit percentage 40%
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

In each of the years 2000 and 2001, the total number of

automobiles sold in the United States was 1 million
more than the previous year
12. Quantity A Quantity B
Percent increase in the Percent increase in the
number of auto mobiles number of auto mobiles sold
sold in 2001 over 2000 in 2002 over 2001
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 219
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space

13. Quantity A Quantity B

2 % of (0.3 + 2.2) 3 % of (2 + 0.3)
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

14. Quantity A Quantity

The Percentage amount 6623 %
spent on 40 trips across the
bridge using a token
instead of paying each strip
$0.15
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 220
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
A football team won 80% of the 30 games it played.
15. Quantity A Quantity B
The number of games the 25
football team won
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

Sheryl purchased flower pots and wall decorations for a

total of $200. She received a 20% discount on the price
of the flower pots and a 25% discount on the price of
wall decoration.
16. Quantity A Quantity B
The amount Sheryl saved on The amount Sheryl
the flowers saved on the purchase
of wall decorations.
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 221
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
17. If the tax on an refrigerator priced at $400 is between 6%
and 11%, then the cost (price plus tax) of the refrigerator
could be (Select all that apply)
o $410
o $424
o $428
o $438
o $445
o $448

18. Business women sold a certain article at $100 with a loss

of $10. In this transaction, her loss percentage would be?
A) 10%

B) 9 1 %
11
1
C) 11 %
9

D) 9%
E) 8%

GT – PREP 222
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
19. For every 1 dollar transaction, a commission agent gives
90 cents in the form of 1 cent denomination. What is his
gain %?

[Link] bought an electric range oven on the

installment plan. The cash price of the range oven was
$450. She paid a $150 initial payment and 12 monthly
installments of $30 each.
20. Quantity A Quantity B
The amount she paid for $60
the electric range oven in
excess of the cash price
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 223
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
A discount of 40% of the original selling price of an
item reduces the price to $72.
21. Quantity A Quantity B
The original selling price $120
of the item
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

22. Four individuals contributed $800 each towards the

purchase of a computer. If they had bought the computer
on sale for $1800 plus 8% sales tax. How much money
should have been refunded to each individual?
A) $265
B) $314
C) $305
D) $300
E) $225

GT – PREP 224
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
23. If 45% of n is 405, what is 35% of n?
A) 61
B) 64
C) 142
D) 250
E) 315

The price of an article of clothing was reduced from $50

to $40. The reduced price of the article was then
increased by x percent to return it to $50.
24. Quantity A Quantity B
x 20
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 225
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
A hardware store purchased identical snow shovels at a
cost of $9 a piece and sold each of them for 30% above
cost.
25. Quantity A Quantity B
The price at which the $11.70
hardware store sold each
shovel
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

26. If 5 bouquets cost a total of $11.50, then at this rate,

what is the cost of 3 bouquets?
A) $6.75
B) $6.90
C) $7.50
D) $8.50
E) $9.45

GT – PREP 226
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
27. If Tom’s hourly wage were to increase by 10% and
Tom’s weekly hours were to decrease by 10% from last
week’s total hours, what would be the change, if any, in
Tom’s total weekly wage?
A) An increase of 1%
B) An increase of 0.55%
C) No change
D) A decrease of 0.55%
E) A decrease of 1%

GT – PREP 227
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

5. SIMPLE INTEREST AND COMPOUND INTEREST

Simple Interest (S.I):
• Principal: The money borrowed or lent out for a certain period is called the
principal or the sum.
• Interest: Extra money paid for using other’s money is called Interest.
• Simple interest (S.I): If the interest on a sum borrowed for a certain period is
reckoned uniformly, then it is called “S.I”.
Let Principal = P, rate = R% per annum (p.a) and time = T years. Then,
P ×R ×T
Simple interest (S.I) = � �
100
100×S.I 100×S.I 100×S.I
Here P =� �; R =� �; and T =� �.
R×T P×T R×P

Compound Interest (C.I.):

Sometimes it so happens that the borrower and the lender agree to fix up a certain
unit of time, say yearly or half-yearly or quarterly to settle the previous account. In
such cases, the amount after first unit of time becomes the principal for the third unit
and so on.

After a specified period, the difference between the amount and the money borrowed
is called the Compound interest (C.I.) for that period.

Let Principal = P, Rate = R% per annum, Time = n years.

• When interest is compound annually:

R 𝑛𝑛
Amount = P × �1 + �
100

• When interest is compound half-yearly:

R 2𝑛𝑛
Amount = P × �1 + 2
100
�

• When interest is compounded quarterly:

R 4𝑛𝑛
Amount = P × �1 + 4
100
�

• Present worth of Rs. x due ‘n’ years hence is given by:

x
Present worth = R n
�1+ �
100

GT – PREP 228
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
1. If Pat has $7700 in a bank that pays 3.5% simple interest
per annum for three years, approximately, how much
interest will he earn in three years?
A) $ 750
B) $ 790
C) $ 808
D) $ 860
E) $ 900

2. At what simple interest rate percent per annum will a

sum of money double in 12 years?

GT – PREP 229
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. A sum of money lent out at simple interest amounts to
$1300 after 3 years and to $1700 after a further period of
4 years. Find the sum?

4. Find the compound interest on $12,000 at 10% per

annum for 9 months, compounded quarterly.

GT – PREP 230
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. Mary invests $500 in a fixed deposit scheme (FDS) that
yields 6% simple interest annually. How much money
will Mary have in her account after six months?

Part of $17,000 inheritance is invested at 7%, and the

remainder is invested at 10%. The total simple annual
interest earned on the $17,000 at the end of 1 year is $1400.
6. Quantity A Quantity B
Amount invested at 7% Amount invested at 10%
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 231
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. Quantity A Quantity B
The total interest earned on
10 𝑝𝑝
‘p’ dollars (p> 0) invested for � � 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
3 100

4 months at 10% simple

annual interest
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

8. If $5,500 was invested in a bond fund when the price

per share was $11 and $3,000 was invested in the same
fund when price per share was $7.5. What was the
average price per share purchased?
A) $9.37
B) $9.44
C) $9.60
D) $9.75
E) $10.00

GT – PREP 232
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
At R% per annum computed at simple interest, $650
amounts to $800 in 5 years
9. Quantity A Quantity B
R 20
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

10. If the simple interest on a sum of money at 18 % p.a. for

a period of 5 years is $900, what is the amount invested?
A) $800
B) $900
C) $1000
D) $1100
E) $1200

GT – PREP 233
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

11. A sum when reckoned at simple interest at 2.5% per

annum amounts to $645 after 3 years. Find the sum?
A) $600
B) $690
C) $750
D) $780
E) $890

12. The simple interest on a certain amount of money is

$1600 over $2500 of the sum. If time and rate percent
are equal, find the rate percent?
A) 8
B) 8.5
C) 9
D) 10.4
E) 12.6

GT – PREP 234
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

13. A Shopkeeper borrowed a sum of $2500 from two

money lenders. For one loan, he paid 5% p.a. and for
other he paid 7%. The total interest paid for two years
$265. How much did the shopkeeper borrow at 7%?
A) $375
B) $625
C) $750
D) $1000
E) $1250

1 1
14. Out of a certain sum, rd is invested at 3%, th at
3 6
6% and the rest at 8%. If the simple interest for 2
years from all these investments amounts to $600,
find the original sum?
A) $2500
B) $3000
C) $3700
D) $4000
E) $5000

GT – PREP 235
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
15. At what rate of interest per annum a sum of $1800 will
become $2700 in 10 years?
A) 5%
B) 6%
C) 6.75%
D) 10%
E) 12.5%

16. A sum of money ‘P’ triples itself in 3 years

compounded annually. What is the amount after 12
years?
A) 16P
B) 20P
C) 27P
D) 64P
E) 81P

GT – PREP 236
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

2<p<6
5 < q < 11
17. Quantity A Quantity B
The average of p and q 6
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

The arithmetic mean of 9 numbers is 90 and

arithmetic mean of the first 5 of these numbers is 50.
18. Quantity A Quantity B
The arithmetic mean 140
of the last 4
numbers
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 237
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Average of test scores in class R
Average score of the boys 90
Average score of the girls 81
Average score of the class 84
19. Quantity A Quantity B
The number of boys The number of girls
in the class who took in the class who
the test. took the test.
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
The information given.

20. The interest charged on a loan is P dollars per $1000 for

the first month and Q dollars per $1000 for each month
after first month. How much interest will be charged
during the first 3 months on a loan of $10,000?
A) 30P
B) 30Q
C) 9 + 2Q
D) 20P + 10Q
E) 10P + 20Qs

GT – PREP 238
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

21. Rickey invests $5000 in a bond which gives interest at

4% per annum during the first year, 5% during the
second year and 10% during the third year. How much
does he get at the end of third year?
A) $5026
B) $6000
C) $6006
D) $7000
E) $7007

22. Divide $3300 into two parts so that the simple interest on the
one for 3 years at 4.5% would be equal to the simple interest
on the other for 5 years at 2.25%?
A) $1350, $1950
B) $1600, $1700
C) $1650, $1650
D) $1200, $2100
E) $1500, $1800

GT – PREP 239
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

4. RATIO, PROPORTION, VARIATION AND

ALLIGATIONS AND MIXTURES.
Ratio:
𝑎𝑎
The ratio of two quantities ‘a’ and ‘b’ in the same units, is the fraction and we write
𝑏𝑏
it as a : b or a to b.

In the ratio a : b, we call ‘a’ the first term or “antecedent” and ‘b’ the second term or
“consequent”.

• We use ratios to make comparisons between two things. When we express ratios
in words, we use the word “to” - we say “the ratio of something to something
else”
• Rule: The multiplication or division of each term of a ratio by the same non-zero
number does not affect the ratio.

Example: The ratio 2 : 4 is equal to the ratio 1 : 2.

Proportion:
The equality of two ratios is called a proportion.

If a : b = c : d, we write , a : b :: c : d and we say that a, b, c, d are in proportion. Here

‘a’ and ‘d’ are called “extremes”, while ‘b’ and ‘c’ are called “mean terms”.

Product of means = product of extremes.

Thus, a: b :: c : d  (b × c) = (a × d).

Mean Proportional: Mean proportional between ‘a’ and ‘b’ is √𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎.

Comparison of ratios:
𝑎𝑎 𝑐𝑐
We say that (a : b) > (c : d)  > .
𝑏𝑏 𝑑𝑑

Compound ratio:
The compounded ratio of the ratios (a : b), (c : d),(e : f) is (ace: bdf).

• Duplicate ratio of (a : b) is (𝑎𝑎2 : 𝑏𝑏 2 )

• Triplicate ratio of (a : b) is ( 𝑎𝑎3 : 𝑏𝑏 3 )
• Sub – duplicate ratio of (a : b) is (√𝑎𝑎 ∶ √𝑏𝑏)
𝑎𝑎 𝑐𝑐 𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏 𝑐𝑐+𝑑𝑑
• If = , then = . (Componendo and Dividendo).
𝑏𝑏 𝑑𝑑 𝑎𝑎−𝑏𝑏 𝑐𝑐−𝑑𝑑

GT –PREP 240
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Variation:
We say that ‘x’ is directly proportional to ‘y’, if x = ky for some constant ‘k’ and we
write, x ∝ y

We say that ‘x’ is inversely proportional to ‘y’ , if xy = k for some constant ‘k’ and
1
write, x ∝ .
𝑦𝑦

Examples:
1) If x:y = 3:4, find (4x + 5y) : (5x – 2y).

Explanation:

x : y = 3 : 4, here we can take x = 3, y = 4 because given expression is

homogeneous
4 x + 5 y 5 ( 3) + 5 ( 4 )
Since, =
5 x − 2 y 5 ( 3) − 2 ( 4 )

15 + 20 35
= = = 5
15 − 8 7
2) If 10% of x = 20% of y, then x:y is equal to?

Explanation:

x : y = 3 : 4, here we can take x = 3, y = 4 because given expression is

homogeneous
4 x + 5 y 5 ( 3) + 5 ( 4 )
Since, =
5 x − 2 y 5 ( 3) − 2 ( 4 )

15 + 20 35
= = = 5
15 − 8 7
3) In a certain library the ratio of arts to science books is 2:3. If the library contains
a total of 4000 arts and science books, how many of the books are science books?

Explanation:

Given, arts books: Science books is 2 : 3

3
∴ Science books = × 4000
( 3)
2 +
3
= × 4000
5
= 2400

GT – PREP 241
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Alligation:
It is the rule that enables us to find the ratio in which two or more ingredients/
solutions at the given price/percent are must be mixed to

Alligations Rule
When two quantities, one is cheaper and other is costlier, are mixed to make a new
mixture then

Quantity of cheaper CP of costilier-mean price

=
Quantity of costilier mean price-CP of cheaper

Diagrammatic Method

Cost price of Cost price of

Cheaper costlier

Mean Price

Cost price of Mean price -

Costlier cost price of
- Mean price cheaper

GT –PREP 242
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
Ratio of boys to girls in a class is 3:5.
1. Quantity A Quantity B
The numbers of boys were The number of girls were
what % less than the number what % more than
of girls. the number of boys
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

a c e 3
Let = = =
b d f 5

2. Quantity A Quantity B
2a − 3e + c 3
f + 2b − 3 f 5

A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 243
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
3. The ratio of number of boys and girls in a school is 2: 5.
If there are 27 more girls than boys. What is the total
number of boys and girls?
A) 49
B) 56
C) 63
D) 70
E) 84

4. The ratio of number of class A students to class B

students is 5:7. The sum of the number of students of
class A and class B could be
Select ALL that apply
A) 10
B) 12
C) 18
D) 24
E) 36

GT –PREP 244
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space

5. The marks obtained by Peter in English, Mathematics and

1 1 3
Science are in the ratio : : . If his total score is 860.
2 3 5
What are the marks obtained by him in English?
A) 160
B) 300
C) 228
D) 312
E) 320

6. The sum of present ages of Peter, Robert, and Peterson

is 90 years. Six years ago, their ages were in the ratio
1:2:3. What is the present age of Robert?
A) 12
B) 24
C) 30
D) 36
E) 42

GT – PREP 245
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space

7. A man divides his property so that the ratio of his

son’s share to his wife’s share is 3: 1 and the ratio of
his wife share to his daughter’s share is also 3 : 1. If
the daughter gets $10,000 less than son’s share, then
the total worth of his property is:
A) $16250
B) $25000
C) $32000
D) $65000
E) $91000

8. The ratio of milk and water in a mixture of 35 liters is

1:4. How much milk, in liters , must be added to the
mixture so that the ratio of milk and water is 3:2?

GT –PREP 246
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space

1 1
9. In two equal glasses , and capacities of it filled
3 4
with milk and then left over fractions filled with water
respectively . If the contents of both glasses are mixed
in a tumbler, the ratio of the milk and water in the
tumbler is:
A) 7:5
B) 7 : 17
C) 9 : 21
D) 11 : 23
2 3
E) :
3 4

Royal Cashew nut costs $4.75 per pound and popular cashew
nut costs $3.25 per pound. Both are mixed and form a new
brand cashew C that costs $3.75 per pound

10. Quantity A Quantity B

The number of pounds of .75 pounds
Royal cashew nut in a 2 pounds
of new brand cashew C.
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 247
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
11. In a hot tubs factory, the number of hot tubs rejected by
quality control in January was 3% of the total number of
the hot tubs produced and in February, 7% of the total
number of the hot tubs produced. If the percent of hot
tubs rejected in both January and February combined
was 4.5%, then what was the ratio of the total number of
the hot tubs produced in January to the total number of
hot tubs produced in February?
A) 1: 4
B) 4 : 1
C) 3 : 5
D) 5 : 3
E) 3 : 4

12. One week a S-120 peanut harvesters alone rental lot had
a total of 30 harvesters, all of which were at the lot
Monday morning. If 60 percent of the harvesters that
were rented out during the week were returned to the lot
on or before Saturday morning of that week, and if there
were at least ½ of harvesters at the lot that Saturday
morning, what is the greatest number of harvesters that
could have been rented out during the week?
A) 30
B) 25
C) 24
D) 20
E) 18

GT –PREP 248
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space

13. If y varies inversely with x (both are positive integers)

and y = 15 when x = 4 , find y when x > 4?
Select ALL that apply
18
15
12
10
6

14. If a Taxi charges $d in 15 miles. How many miles, in

terms of d it charges for $40?
600
A)
𝑑𝑑
𝑑𝑑
B)
600
1200
C)
𝑑𝑑
15𝑑𝑑
D)
4
4𝑑𝑑
E)
15

GT – PREP 249
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
15. Let 3 times of x as equal as 2 times of y and 5 times of z
as equal as 4 times of y. What is the ratio of z : x ?
A) 5: 4
B) 5 : 6
C) 4 : 5
D) 6 : 5
E) 2:3

16. In what ratio must a shopkeeper mix two types of coffee

powdered worth $17/ kg and $24/ kg, so that the average
cost of the mixture is $ 21/ kg?
A) 1: 4
B) 4 : 3
C) 4 : 5
D) 5 : 4
E) 3:4

GT –PREP 250
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
17. How many milliliters of pure sugar solution must be
added to a 500milliliters solution that is 40 percent sugar
in order to produce a solution that is 60 percent sugar?
A) 100 ml
B) 150 ml
C) 200ml
D) 250ml
E) 300ml

18. In what ratio should a 15% sulphuric acid solution be

mixed with a 30% sulphuric acid solution so that the
resultant solution has 24% sulphuric acid in it?
A) 3: 4
B) 4 : 3
C) 2 : 3
D) 3 : 2
E) 3: 4

GT – PREP 251
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
19. If two liters of Thumsup cans fill either 6 large cans or
10 small cans , then how many small cans can be filled by
2 large cans ?
A) 5
10
B)
3

C) 4
5
D)
2

E) 3

20. If ‘c’ pounds of Cashew nut costs‘ d’ dollars, how many

pounds of Cashew nut can be purchased for x + 10
dollars?
𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
A)
𝑥𝑥+10
𝑥𝑥+10
B)
𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
10𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
C)
𝑑𝑑
c(𝑥𝑥+10)
D)
d
10cd
E)
𝑥𝑥

GT –PREP 252
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

6. TIME & DISTANCE

Important formulas:
𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷 𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷𝐷
• Speed = � �, Time = � � , Distance = (Speed × Time).
𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠

• If the ratio of the speeds of A and B is a:b, then the ratio of the taken by them to
1 1
cover the same distance is ∶ or b : a.
𝑎𝑎 𝑏𝑏

• Suppose a man covers a certain distance at x mph and an equal distance at y mph.

2𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥
then, the average speed during the whole journey is � � mph.
𝑥𝑥+𝑦𝑦

GT – PREP 253
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

1. Bill cycling from home to school at the rate of 10 mph

and return journey by walking from school to home at
the rate of 4 mph. What is his average speed of whole
journey ?

2. How many minutes does Aditya can travel a distance of

400 meters, if he runs at a speed of 20 mph? (1 mile =
1600 meters approximately)

GT – PREP 254
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3 17
3. A man performs 𝑡𝑡ℎ of the total journey by rail, 𝑡𝑡ℎ
5 20

by bus and the remaining 6.5 miles on foot. Find his

total journey , in miles?

4. Mary jogs 9 miles at a speed of 6 miles per hour. At

what speed would she need to jog during the next 1.5
hours to have an average of 9 miles per hour for the
entire jogging session?

GT – PREP 255
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. An athlete runs 40 miles race in 150 minutes. His speed
is :
A) 6 m/hr
B) 8 m/hr
C) 10 m/hr
D) 16 m/hr
E) 20 m/hr

Tracey drove for first 2 hours at a rate of 40 miles per hour

and next 5 hours at 15 miles per hour.

6. Quantity A Quantity B
Tracey’s average speed for the 20 mph
whole journey
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 256
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. Two trains start from P and Q respectively and travel
towards each other at a speed of 50 miles per hour and
40 miles per hour respectively. By the time they meet,
the first train has travelled 100 miles more than the
second. The distance between P and Q is:
A) 500 miles
B) 630 miles
C) 660 miles
D) 900 miles
E) 924 miles

8. Quantity A Quantity B
The number of hours does The number of hours does
a moving object travels a a moving object
distance of 1,500 miles travels a distance of 200
at an average speed of miles at an average speed of
400 miles per hour. 50 miles per hour.
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 257
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
9. Usually Bill travels from home to city a distance of 24
miles in 4 hours if Alica travels three times as far in half
the time of Bill, what was Alicas’s average speed, in
miles per hour?
A) 5
B) 15
C) 30
D) 36
E) 45

An aviator in Singapore flew 500 miles in a straight line

due east from point S to point T and then 1200 miles in
a straight line due north to point R
10. Quantity A Quantity B
The shortest distance 1500 miles
from point S to point R
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 258
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Trains T and R are 80 miles apart and are approaching
towards each other at constant rates with T moving at
45 miles per hour. It takes 20 minutes for them to meet.
11. Quantity A Quantity B
Rate of train R 195 miles per hour
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

7
12. If by walking th of my usual speed, I missed a train
8
by 8 minutes then my usual time taken to catch the
train is?
A) 8 min.
B) 16 min.
C) 32 min.
D) 56 min.
E) 64 min..

GT – PREP 259
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

13. The speed of boat while going up-stream is reduced by

20% as compared to its speed in still water. What is the
speed of boat if the speed of current is 20 miles per
hour?
A) 100 miles per hour
B) 120 miles per hour
C) 80 miles per hour
D) 60 miles per hour
E) 75 miles per hour

14. A lifeboat can cover 25 miles distance in 40 minutes in

still water and in 30 minutes with tide. Approximately
how long the lifeboat will take to cover the same
distance against the tide.
A) 50 minutes
B) 1 hour
C) 1 ½ hour
D) 1 hour 40 minutes
E) 2 hours

GT – PREP 260
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

GT – PREP 261
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

7. TIME & WORK

Time and work formulas:
1
• If ‘A’ can do a piece of work in ‘n’ days, then A’s 1 day’s work = .
𝑛𝑛
1
• If A’s 1 day’s work = , then A can finish the work in ‘n’ days.
𝑛𝑛

• If ‘A’ is thrice as good a workman as B, then :

Ratio of work done by A and B = 3:1.
Ratio of times taken by A and B to finish a work = 1: 3.
• If ‘r’ and ‘s’ are the number of hours taken by two workers ‘A’ and ‘B’
respectively to complete a job when working alone and ‘h’ is the no. of hours it
takes ‘A’ and ‘B’ to do the job working together. Then

1 1 1 rs
= + . h=
h r s r+s

Example:
A can do a piece of work in 5 days. ‘B’ can do the same work in 8 days.
Working together what is the time taken by both of them to complete the
work?

1
Ans: A’s 1 day work =
5

1
B’s 1 day work =
8

1 1 5 + 8 13
1 day work of (A + B) = += =
5 8 5 × 8 40

w 40
Time taken = = days
efficiency 13

GT – PREP 262
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
1. Ann takes 8 hours to do a job. Baker takes 10 hours to
do the same job. How long should it take both Ann and
Becker, working together, to do the same job?
4
A) 4 hours
9

1
B)4 hours
9

C) 4 hours
5
D) 4 hours
7

E) 9 hours

Mary can do a certain job X in 8 days. Peter is 60%

more efficient than Mary

2. Quantity A Quantity B
The number of days taken by 5
Peter alone to finish the job X

GT – PREP 263
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. Working alone his constant rate, Robinson can do a
piece of work in 5 days, but with the help of his son, he
can do it in 3 days. How many days can his son do it
alone?

4. John is twice as fast as Peterson to do certain piece of

work. Peterson can do independently it in 12 [Link]
both working together , how many days it will take to
finish the work?

GT – PREP 264
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. A, B, C together can earn $310 per day, while A and C
together can earn $220, and B and C together earn $162.
The daily earning of C is?

6. If 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of work in 5 days;

13 men and 24 boys can do it in 4 days. Then the ratio of
the daily work done by a man to that of a boy is:
A) 2:1
B) 3:1
C) 3:2
D) 5:4
E) 6:7

GT – PREP 265
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. A, B, and C can separately do a work in 12, 15, and 20
days respectively. They started to work together but C
left after 2 days. In how many days the remaining work
will be finished?
A) 4 days
B) 6 days
C) 8 days
D) 10 days
E) 12 days

8. Kim can alone audit the company’s account in 12 days,

while Sony alone takes 3 more days than Kim. Kim and
Sony undertook to do it for a contract of $10,800 and
with the help of Vinod they finish it in 5 days. How
much is paid to Vinod?
A) $ 4,500
B) $ 2,700
C) $ 3,600
D) $ 4,200
E) $ 3,000

GT – PREP 266
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
9. An Inlet pipe A fills a tank in 6 hours and outlet pipe B
empty the same tank in 10 hours. If both valves opened
same time , how many hours it will take to fill the tank?
A) 2 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 8 hours
D) 15 hours
E) E) 20 hours

Working at constant rates printing machine L completely

presses x records in 0.5 hour and printing machine M
completely presses x records in 0.75 hours
(x > 0).
10. Quantity A Quantity B
The number of records The number of records
completely pressed by completely pressed by
L in 3 hours M in 4 hour
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 267
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
11. Machine S can produce x units in 1/3 of the time it takes
by machine T to produce x units. Machine T can
produce x units in 3/5 the time it takes machine R to
produce x units. If all the three machines are working
simultaneously, what fraction of the total output is
produced by machine T?
5
A) of total
23

1
B) of total
9

23
C) of total
45

1
D) of total
3

1
E) of total
23

12. If a women working a hours per day can do a units of

work in a days, then a women working a hours per day
would be able to complete how many units of work in y
days?
𝑎𝑎 2
A) 𝑏𝑏 3
𝑎𝑎 3
B)
𝑏𝑏 2
𝑏𝑏 2
C) 𝑎𝑎 3
𝑏𝑏 3
D) 𝑎𝑎 2
𝑎𝑎 2
E) 𝑏𝑏 2

GT – PREP 268
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

1. Equations –linear & Quadratic and Exponents

Algebraic expressions:
An algebraic expression is one or more algebraic terms in a phrase. It can include
variables, constants, and operating symbols, such as plus and minus signs. It’s only a
phrase, not the whole sentence, so it doesn’t include an equal sign.

Example: 4𝑥𝑥 2 + 2𝑦𝑦 + 8𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 + 5

Variables:

In these expressions, the letters represent variables. The variables are ‘x’ and ‘y’.

Co-efficient:

Co-efficient is the number part of the terms with variables. In the expression 4𝑥𝑥 2 +
2𝑦𝑦 + 8𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 + 5, the co-efficient of the first term is 4. The coefficient of second term is
2 and the co-efficient of the third term is 8.

If a term consists of only variables, its co-efficient is 1.

Constants:

Constants are the terms in the algebraic expression that contain only numbers. That is,
they’re the terms without variables. We call them constants because their value never
changes, since there are no variables in the term that can change its value. In the
expression 4𝑥𝑥 2 + 2𝑦𝑦 + 8𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 + 5 the constant term is “5”.

Writing Equations:

In the language of algebra, an equation is the basic number “sentence”. An equation

is a mathematical expression that contains an ‘equal to’ sign.

Examples: 3z + 2 = 14; x – 9 = 20; p + 2p = 3.

Above Equations are “linear equations”.

GT – PREP 269
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Different types of equations:

Quadratic Equations:

Concept Symbol Words Example Translation

= Is equals is the 2 plus 3 is 5 2+3=5

Equality same as C minus 2 C–2=5
equals 5

x plus z equals x+z=n

Addition + Plus add increase n x + 13 = j
j adds x to 13 n + 0.03n
n is increased
by 3%
Subtraction – Minus difference x minus y x–y
Multiplication × Times product of x is 125% of y x = 125%y
Division / Quotient x divided by y x/y = 4
dividend is 4

• An equation of the second degree is called a “Quadratic equation”. The general

form of the quadratic equation in one variable is
• 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 2 + 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 + 𝑐𝑐 = 0
Where a, b, c are real numbers and a ≠ 0.
• If the quadratic member of the equation 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 2 + 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 + 𝑐𝑐 = 0 is not factorable, we
apply the quadratic formula:
−b±√b 2 −4ac
𝑥𝑥 =
2a
The quantity under radical sign (b2 − 4ac) is called the discriminant (D) of the
quadratic equation; it determines the nature of the roots of the equation:
A) If D is a positive quantity, the two roots are real.
B) If D is a negative quantity, the roots are imaginary.
C) If D = 0, the roots are real and equal.
D) If D is a perfect square, the roots are real and rational.

GT – PREP 270
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

2. EXPONENTS
An exponent is a shorthand way to show how many times a number, called the base,
is multiplied by itself. A number with an exponent is said to be “raised to the power”
of that exponent. Any number raised to the zero power (except 0) equals 1.

Some rules to use with exponents:

𝑎𝑎1 =a Any number raised to the

1. Power of one equals the number itself.

2. For any number a, except 0, 𝑎𝑎0 = 1. Any number raised to the power of zero,
except zero, equals one.
3. For any number a, b, c then 𝑎𝑎𝑏𝑏 × 𝑎𝑎𝑐𝑐 = 𝑎𝑎𝑏𝑏 +𝑐𝑐 .
This multiplication rule tells us that we can simply add the exponents when
multiplying two powers with the same base.
 Note: THESE ARE MISTAKES THAT STUDENTS OFTEN MAKE WHEN
DEALING WITH EXPONENTS.
 Mistake! Do not multiply the base and the exponent. 26 is not equal to the 12,
it’s 64.
 The multiplication rule only applies to expressions with the same base. Four
squared times two cubed is not the same as 8 raised to the power two plus three.
42 × 23 ≠ 82+3
(4) (4) × (2) (2) (2) ≠ 85
128 ≠ 32,768
 The multiplication rule applies just to the product, not to the sum of two
numbers.

22 + 23 ≠ 22+3  (2)(2) + (2) (2) (2) ≠ 25

 4 + 8 ≠ (2) (2) (2) (2) (2)
 12 ≠ 32.
4. Product rule: the exponents “product rule” tells us that, when multiplying two
powers that have the same base, you can add the exponents. In this example, you
can see how it works. Adding the exponents is just a short cut!
𝑎𝑎𝑚𝑚 × 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 = 𝑎𝑎𝑚𝑚 +𝑛𝑛
 4 2 × 43 = 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4

GT – PREP 271
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
5. Power rule: The “power rule” tell us that to raise a power to a power, just
multiply the exponents. Here you see that 52 raised to the 3rd power is equal
to 56 .
The square number is that number times itself.
Square of n = 𝑛𝑛2 .
Square of 5 = 5×5 = 52 .
The perfect squares are the squares of the whole numbers.

6. Quotient rule: The quotient rule tells us that we can divide two powers with the
same base by subtracting the exponents.
𝑎𝑎𝑚𝑚 ÷ 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 = 𝑎𝑎𝑚𝑚 −𝑛𝑛 (a ≠ 0).
[Link].4
4 5 ÷ 42 = .
4.4

45−2 = 43 .
7. Negative exponents: any non-zero number raised to a negative power equals its
reciprocals raised to the opposite positive power.
1 1
4−2 = = .
42 16

8. Perfect squares:
1,4,9,16,25,36,49,64,81,100.
The square root of a number, n, written below is the number that gives n when
multiplied by itself. √𝑛𝑛
√100 = 10
Because 10 × 10 =100.

GT – PREP 272
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
In 6 years, Mary will be 4 times as old as she is now
1. Quantity A Quantity B
The number of years until 4
Mary will be 2 times as
old as she is now
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

2. Three brothers divided a prize in the following way. The

2 1
oldest received th, the middle brother received rd,
5 3

and the youngest received the remaining $120. What

was the value, in dollars, of the prize?

GT – PREP 273
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. On a 50-question multiple-choice test, 3 points were
given for each question answered correctly and 1
point was deducted for each question answered
incorrectly. A student who answered all of the
questions on the test received a total of n points.
Which of the following could be n ?
Select ALL that apply
150
110
98
0
-10

4. If 4 �√𝑥𝑥 + 1� = √𝑥𝑥 + 25, then find x?

GT – PREP 274
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Peter’s present age is 5 times as old as Mary’s present age.
After 10 years, Peter will be thrice as old as Mary
5. Quantity A Quantity
Present age of Mary 10
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

6. Lisa spends ¼ of her monthly salary for Transportation

and 1/6 more than transportation for expenditure of
internet package. What fraction of the amount did she
spend for both the expenditures?
5
A) 12
5
B) 24
7
C) 24
6
D) 24
13
E)
24

GT – PREP 275
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

4 3 10
7. Find the value of x if + = ?
𝑥𝑥 5 𝑥𝑥

8. If the sum of two numbers is 10 and their difference is 2,

what is their product?

GT – PREP 276
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
9. If 3a + 5b = 10 and 5a + 3b = 30, what is the average
(Arithmetic mean) of a and b?

10. A science museum sells children’s tickets for one-third

the adult ticket price. If 4 adult tickets and 7 children’s
tickets cost a total of $38 what is the cost of children’s
ticket?

GT – PREP 277
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
11. Quantity A Quantity B
3100 − 399
3𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗
3

A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

12. The number of a certain bacteria culture at room

temperature doubles every minute. At 9:30 am, the
number of bacteria in bacteria culture was 10. What is
the population at 9:36 am?

GT – PREP 278
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
12 a-3
13. If 64 = 2 , what is the value of a?

14. Diana spent ½ of her allowance on a book and another

$3 on lunch. If she still had 1/6 of her original
allowance, how much is Diana’s allowance?
A) $24
B) $18
C) $15
D) $12
E) $9

GT – PREP 279
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
15. If the profit for sale of certain item is $2 and the sum
of the cost and the profit of the item is $10, find the
profit percentage for sale of the item?
A) 16%
B) 20%
C) 25%
D) 33.33%
E) 10%

16. In a children play ground, there are ‘s’ swing and slide.
If 40 children are all riding on swing and slide except
five swing and slide , two to a swing and slide, what is
‘s’?
A) 15
B) 20
C) 25
D) 30
E) 35

GT – PREP 280
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
17. Peter is thrice as old as Marry, who is two years older
than John. If Peter’s age is five times John’s age, how
old in years is Marry?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 5
D) 8
E) 10

18. If a dozen black markers cost‘d’ dollars, how many

black markers can be purchased for $0.75?
A) 9d
12d
B)
.75
9
C)
d
.75
D)
12d

E) .75d

GT – PREP 281
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

9(𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 3 )6
19. Find ?
(3 𝑥𝑥 6 𝑦𝑦 9 )2

A) 1
B) 3
C) 𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 3
D) 3𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 3
E) 𝑥𝑥 3 𝑦𝑦 2

20. If (𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦)2 – (𝑥𝑥 − 𝑦𝑦)2 = 20, then xy?

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 5
E) cannot determined

GT – PREP 282
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
21. In a certain population group, 57 percent of the people
have characteristic x and 63 percent have characteristic
y. If every person in the group has at least one of the two
characteristics, what percent of the people have both x
and y?
A) 6%
B) 12%
C) 18%
D) 20%
E) 23%

22. Machine X produces w widgets in five minutes. Machine

X and Y, working at the same time, produce w widgets in
two minutes. How long will take machine Y working
alone to produce w widgets?
A) 2min. 30 sec.
B) 2min. 40 sec.
C) 3min. 20 sec.
D) 3min. 30 sec.
E) 3min. 40 sec.

GT – PREP 283
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

23. If a Aeroplane travels m miles in h hours and 20

minutes, what is its average speed of Aeroplane in miles
per hour?
m
A) 1
h+
3
m
B)
113h

C) m(h + 3)
m+20
D)
h

E) h(m + 4)

24. A merchant increased the original price of an item by 10

percent. If he then reduces the new price by 10 percent,
what is the final result in terms of the original price?
A) a decrease of 11 percent
B) a decrease of 1 percent
C) no net change
D) an increase of 1 percent
E) an increase of 11 percent

GT – PREP 284
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
25. If x + 3y = 3 and (𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦)2 =4, what is the value of y?
Select ALL that apply
5
A)
2

B) -5
−1
C)
2
1
D)
2

E) 5

A box contains twice as many pencils as pens. The

total number of pencils and pens is 18.
26. Quantity A Quantity B
Number of pens 12
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 285
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Suppose that x and y are positive integers such that
3x + 3y = 900
27. Quantity A Quantity B
The maximum possible the maximum possible
value of x. value of y.
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

𝑎𝑎2 = 𝑥𝑥 2 + 1
x≠0
28. Quantity A Quantity B
4
𝑎𝑎 - 1 𝑥𝑥 4 + 2x2
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 286
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
29. If p pounds of milk solids cost d dollars, how many
pounds of milk solids can be purchased for x dollars?
px
A)
d
B) – 5
pd
C)
x

d
D)
px

dx
E)
p

30. If the water flows into the empty tank from pipe X at
the rate of p gallons per minute, and water is pumped out
by pipe Y at the rate of q gallons per minute, and p is
greater than q, in how many minutes will the tank be
filled?

GT – PREP 287
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
31. To deliver a package, a delivery service charges $0.75
for the first pound, $0.50 per pound or part thereof for
the next 5 pounds, and $0.25 per pound or part thereof
for each additional pound. If the charge for delivering a
package is greater than or equal to $4.50, which of the
following could be the weight, in pounds, of the
package?
Select ALL that apply
9
10
1
10
2
13
1
17
2

4
If a, b, x are integers each greater than 1 and �𝑥𝑥 𝑏𝑏 � =
𝑥𝑥 4+𝑎𝑎 .
32. Quantity A Quantity B
a b
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 288
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

33. If ( x + y ) =x 2 + y 2 , which of the following statements

2

must also be true?

I. x=0

II. ( )
2
x− y =x 2 + y 2

III. xy = 0
A) None
B) I only
C) II only
D) III only
E) II and III

If n > 0 and 4x2+kx+9 = (2x+n)2 for all values of x

34. Quantity A Quantity B
k-n 12
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 289
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
35. If the number z of laptops sold per week varies with the
price p in dollars according to the equation z = 300 – 2p,
what would be the total weekly revenue from the sale of
$100/ laptop
A) $1000
B) $3000
C) $1,0000
D) $2,8000
E) $3,0000

GT – PREP 290
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

3. INEQUALITIES AND ABSOLUTE VALUES

Inequalities:
The relation between two expressions that are not equal, employing a sign such as ≠
‘not equal to’, > ‘greater than’, or < ‘less than’or Greater than or equal to ≥
Less than or equal to ≤

Just like with equations, the solution to an inequality is a value that makes the
inequality true. You can solve inequalities in the same way you can solve equations,
by following these rules.

• You may add any positive or negative number to both sides of an inequality.
• You may multiply or divide both sides of an inequality by any positive number.

Example : 5 < 2x - 7

7 is added both the sides

7+ 5 < 2x - 7 +7

We get, 12 < 2x

Divide both sides by 2

We get, x > 6

GT – PREP 291
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

ABSOLUTE VALUES
Absolute value: The absolute value of a number is the distance the number is
from zero.
→ x > 0,| x |=x
|x| = → =
x o,| x=| 0
→ x < 0,| x |=− x

In other words |x| is a distance from origin to x.

For instance, |x| = 10

-10 0 10

∴ x = ± 10
Example: |2x + 3| = 10
Solutions: 2x + 3 = 10 or 2x + 3 = -10
2x = 10 – 2 2x = -10 – 3
7 −13
x= or x=
2 2

GT – PREP 292
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Let 2 > 5x – 13 > 8x – 7

1. Quantity Quantity B
x 2
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

2. A greeting card being sold for $1.75. The store offers a

free greeting card a bill that totals to $15 and above.
How many minimum numbers of greeting card must one
buy to get a free greeting card?
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
E) 11

GT – PREP 293
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. A river boat trip costs $1.5 per head. Each trip must
meet the expense of $33 to continue the services. If there
is a definite goods carriage on the boat that pays $27 for
each trip, what is the minimum number of passengers it
must carry to meet the expenses?

Let -11 < 3x – 10 and -2x – 10 < 35 – 5x

4. Quantity Quantity B
Total number of integral 15
values of x will satisfy the
inequalities shown above
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 294
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. If 2< x < 5 and 3 < y < 6, which of the following
describes all of the possible values of x + y?
A) 1< x + y <6
B) 1< x + y < 11
C) 2 < x + y < 6
D) 5 < x + y < 11
E) -5 < x + y < -11

6. If -3x + 6 ≥ 18, which of the following must be true?

A) x ≤ -4
B) x ≤ 6
C) x ≥ -4
D) x ≥ -6
E) x = 2

GT – PREP 295
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

7. A watch loess’s’ seconds every ‘m’ minutes. At this rate,

how many minutes will the watch lose in one day?
A) 24sm
24𝑠𝑠
B)
𝑚𝑚
𝑠𝑠
C)
24𝑚𝑚
60𝑚𝑚
D)
𝑠𝑠
24𝑠𝑠
E)
𝑚𝑚

0<v<w
8. Quantity Quantity B
𝑣𝑣 𝑤𝑤
𝑤𝑤 𝑣𝑣

A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 296
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
9. A candy bar weighing 6 ounces costs c cents. If the size
of the candy bar is reduced to 5.2 ounces while the price
remains the same, then the old price per ounce is what
fraction of the new price per ounce?
8
A)
15
13
B)
15
13
C)
30
13
D)
60
5
E)
6

0 < 6x < 2
10. Quantity A Quantity B
𝑥𝑥 2 𝑥𝑥 4
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 297
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
2
11. If x < 20 and x is an integer, find total number of
possible values of x?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
E) 9

12. If -15 < 2x – 3 < 15 and x is an even integer. Find total

number of possible values of x?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12
E) 16

GT – PREP 298
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
let xy < 0 and yz > 0
13. Quantity A Quantity B
xz 0
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

Let – 6 < x < 8 and – 10 < y < 9

14. Quantity A Quantity B
Greatest value of x – y 10
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 299
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
0 < a < 20
15. Quantity A Quantity B
1
a+ 2
a2

A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

16. Let 0 < x2 < 100 and x is an integer. Find total possible
values of x?
A) 9
B) 10
C) 15
D) 19
E) 20

GT – PREP 300
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
17. Find all values of ‘a’ such that (a - 1) (a + 2) >0
Select ALL that apply
A) -2 < a < 1
B) a < -2
C) a < -2 or a < 1
D) a > 2 or a < -1
E) a > 1
F) a > 0

0<a<b<1
18. Quantity A Quantity B

a+b a+ b
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 301
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

19. Let 0 < 1 − a < 1 , which of the following must be true?

b

Select ALL that apply

a>0
a
<1
b
a2 + b2 > 1
ab > 0
ab < 0
a
<1
b

20. What is the least integer value of n such that

1
< 0.01?
3n
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) There is no such least value

GT – PREP 302
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
| 5x - 2 | = 8
21. Quantity A Quantity
x 2
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

22. Let | 2x + 3 | = 15 and | y – 2 | = 4, what is the value

of x + y?
Select ALL that apply
12
4
-2
-3
-6
-8

GT – PREP 303
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
23. Let | x | < 3 and x is an integer, find total possible
values of x?
A) 0
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) More than 5

24. Let | x + 2 | + | y – 1 | = 0, what is the value of x + y ?

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) - 1

GT – PREP 304
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
25. Let | x - 1 | < 4 and | 2y – 1 | < 3, what is the value
of xy? Select ALL that apply
10
9
0
-3
-6
-8
-9
-10

GT – PREP 305
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

4. FUNCTIONS & GRAPHS

Functions:
A function is an equation with one input (variable) in which each unique input value
yields no more than one output.

Domain and range:

The set of elements that make up the possible outputs of a function is the “range” of
the function.
OR
The set of corresponding values of y is called the range of the function.

A function commonly takes the form f(x) = x + c, where x is a variable and c is a

constant.

 The values for x are the Domain of this function.

 The values of f(x) are the Range of the function.
Nested functions:
Given the definitions of two functions, you can find the result of one function (given
a value) and place it directly into another function.
Example:
If f(x) =5x+2 and g(x) =-2x, what is f (g(x)) when x=3?
Solution: begin with the innermost function
So g (x) = - 2x (since x = 3)

∴ g (3) = - 2(3) = -6.

Now f(g(x)) = f (- 6) = 5 (- 6) + 2 = - 30 +2 = - 28
Therefore, f (g(x)) = - 28 where x = 3.

Graphs of functions:

A quadratic function has the form

f(x) = a𝑥𝑥 2 + bx + c

Where a, b, c are real numbers and a ≠ 0.

The domain of this function is the set of all real numbers.

The y - intercept of the graph of f(x) is given by f(0)=c.

The x - intercept are found by solving the equation a𝑥𝑥 2 + bx + c = 0.

GT – PREP 306
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Find the range of the Quadratic function:

To find the range of the quadratic function, we first rewrite it in the form

f(x) = a(𝑥𝑥 − ℎ)2 + k

Expand the above equation, f(x) = a𝑥𝑥 2 - 2ahx + aℎ2 + k.

It is same function, therefore we need to have -2ah = b (first equation) and

aℎ2 + k = c (second equation).

Solve the first equation for h to obtain h = -b/2a.

b
Substitute h by − in the second equation and solve it for k to obtain
2a
k= (c - 𝑏𝑏 2 )/4a.

Hence any quadratic function can be written in the form

f(x) = a(𝑥𝑥 − ℎ)2 + k, with h and k given in terms of a, b, and c as shown above.

The above form leads to very interesting results. As ‘x’ changes, the term (𝑥𝑥 − ℎ)2 is
either positive or zero.

Hence, (𝑥𝑥 − ℎ)2 ≥ 0

If a > 0, multiplying both sides of the inequality above by ‘a’ to get a(𝑥𝑥 − ℎ)2 ≥ 0.

Add k to both sides of the inequality, a(𝑥𝑥 − ℎ)2 + 𝑘𝑘 ≥ 𝑘𝑘.

The left side is the formula of the function, f(x) = a(𝑥𝑥 − ℎ)2 + k, hence f(x) ≥ k.

The above result tell us that f(x) has a minimum value equal to k. it also tells us that
the range of f(x) is given by (k, +∞).

If a < 0, multiply both sides of the inequality above by ‘a’ and change the inequality
symbol.

a(𝑥𝑥 − ℎ)2 ≤ 0.

The above result tells us that f(x) has a maximum value equal to k. it also tell us that
the range of f(x) is given by (-∞ , k)

It is also important to note that k = f(h).

Note: The graph of a quadratic function is called a parabola and the point with
coordinates (h, k) is called a vertex of the parabola which can be a maximum or a
minimum point.

GT – PREP 307
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

1. f (x) is a quadratic function given by f (x) = 2𝑥𝑥 2 + 2𝑥𝑥 − 4.

A. find the X and Y intercepts of the graph of f (x).
B. Find the vertex of the graph of f (x).
C. Find the domain and range of f (x).

2. If f (x) = 𝑥𝑥 2 + 2x, what is f (x + 2)?

GT – PREP 308
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. If f (x) = 3x + 3, for what the value of ‘a’ is true that
3f (a) = f (2a)?

4. What is the domain of the f (x) =√4 − 𝑥𝑥.

GT – PREP 309
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. If f (x) = 𝑥𝑥 2 − 2𝑥𝑥 , what is the value of f (3)?

GT – PREP 310
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

5. DEFINED FUNCTIONS
A symbol can be used to represent one or more operations. For a particular question
on the GRE, a symbol such as # may be given a certain definition, such as
m#n=m+n

You may be asked to find the value of the function given the values of m and n, or
you may be asked to find an expression that represents the function.

GT – PREP 311
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

1. A function “@” is defined as

a @ b = ba – a. What is the value of 4 @ 5?

x+ y
2. If x11 y is defined as , find (711 3)11 5.
2

GT – PREP 312
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. If + means subtraction and × means addition. And
5 × 6 = k + 7, find k.

GT – PREP 313
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

6. SEQUENCES AND SERIES

Sequences & series:
A sequence is a patterned list of numbers.
i. Arithmetic and Geometric progressions:
A sequence of numbers such as
4, 7, 10, 13…. is called an arithmetic progression (A.P).
Note that each term is obtained from the preceding term by adding 3; thus, the
difference between any term and its preceding term is 3.
We call this number the common difference (d) of the progression or sequence. If the
successive terms decrease, we consider d to be negative.
If we designate the terms of an A.P by 𝑎𝑎1 , 𝑎𝑎2 , 𝑎𝑎3 … . . 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 , we may easily develop the
following formula for the nth term 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 , in items of a and d: 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 = 𝑎𝑎1 + (𝑛𝑛 − 1)𝑑𝑑
The indicated sum of the terms of a progression is called a series.
4 + 7 + 10 + 13 + …. May be referred to as an arithmetic series or the sum of an
arithmetic progression.
The sum of the first n terms of an A.P is given by the formula
𝑛𝑛 𝑛𝑛
𝑆𝑆𝑛𝑛 = ( 𝑎𝑎1 + 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 ) = [2𝑎𝑎1 + (𝑛𝑛 − 1)𝑑𝑑]
2 2

A sequence of terms such as 3, 6, 12, and 24… is called a geometric progression

(G.P).
Here, the ratio (r) of any term to its preceding term is constant, in this case, r = 2.
If we designate the term of a G.P by 𝑎𝑎1 , 𝑎𝑎2 , 𝑎𝑎3 … . . 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 , we can express an in terms of
𝑎𝑎 1
a, and r as follows: 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 =
𝑟𝑟𝑛𝑛 − 1
𝑎𝑎 1 ( 1− 𝑟𝑟 𝑛𝑛 )
The sum 𝑆𝑆𝑛𝑛 of n terms of a G.P is given by the formula: 𝑆𝑆𝑛𝑛 =
(1−𝑟𝑟)

ii. Unpatterened series:

Most of the questions in the GRE are neither Arithmetic nor Geometric sequences
though they exhibit a pattern.
Examples:
a) -4, 2, -3, -4, 2, -3, -4…
Repeats the terms -4, 2, -3
b) 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21…
Terms are the sum of the two previous terms
c) 1, 2, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3…
Adds and then subtracts 1

GT – PREP 314
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

1. The steps of the staircase to a stage decrease in width at

8 cm for each step. If the 6th step is 40 cm wide, find the
width of the 10th step.

2. The pollution levels in a city are increasing at a rapid

rate. The level is tripling every year. If the pollution
was 14 units two years ago, what will the population in
next year?

GT – PREP 315
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. Find the missing terms in the following sequences:

1, - 1, 2, - 3, 5, - 8, 13, ____, 34, ……

a+b
4. A function * is defined as a * b = +b
2
If 5 * 3 = 11 * k, then find ‘k’?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

GT – PREP 316
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. If f (x) = -3x2 + 5x – 8, what is the value of f (-2)?
A) – 10
B) – 15
C) – 30
D) - 20
E) - 25

6. In the xy-plane, the point (7, 19) lies on the graph of the
function f(x) = 2x2 + kx – 30. What is the value of k?
A) 7
B) -7
C) 8
D) -1
E) - 8

GT – PREP 317
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. If p + 2q = 14 and 3p + q = 12 then p=
A) -2
B) -1
C) 1
D) 2
E) 3

8. Of a group of 27 students, 18 belong to the French club

and 15 belong to the Spanish club. If each group
student belongs to at least one club, how many students
belong to both clubs?

GT – PREP 318
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
9. If x = 1- 3t and y = 3t – 1 then for what value of t
does x = y ?
A) 5/2
B) 3/2
C) 2/3
D) 2/5
E) 0

10. Which of these functions represents the following set of

co-ordinate points?
(0, 2), (-1, 3), (1, 3), (2, 6) and (-2, 6)
A) f (x) = x + 2
B) f (x) = 𝑥𝑥 2 − 2𝑥𝑥
C) f (x) = 2𝑥𝑥 2 + 2
D) f (x) = 𝑥𝑥 2 + 2
E) f (x) = 2𝑥𝑥 2 − 2

GT – PREP 319
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Functions g and f are defined by g (x) = |1- 𝑥𝑥 2 |, f (x) =32𝑥𝑥 .
11. Quantity A Quantity B
f (g(2)) g (f(2))
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

12. What is the range of g(x) = | x + 3| - 2?

A) [-2, ∞)
B) (-∞, +∞)
C) (-∞, 2]
D) [-2, 2]
E) All real values.

GT – PREP 320
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
13. If x $ y = x + y + xy and given 1$k = 1, then k ?
A) -1
B) 0
C) 1
D) 2
E) None of these

If x @ y @ z =𝑥𝑥 2 − 𝑦𝑦 2 + 𝑧𝑧, x @ y @ z = x @ z @ y and

y=1
14. Quantity A Quantity B
z 1
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 321
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
15. In the sequence below, what is the product of the 50th
and 51st terms?
1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32…
A) 249
B) 2100
C) 2149
D) 299
E) 2101

Use of the following sequence to answer the questions:

1, 2, 6, 24……
16. Quantity A Quantity B
The fifth term of the 150
sequence
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 322
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Use the following series to answer the questions
(17 to 19):
2 + 12 + 22 + 32 + 42 + … + 102 + 112 + 122 + 132
17. Quantity A Quantity B
The sixth term of the 720
Sequence
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

18. Quantity A Quantity B

The number of terms In the sequence 13
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 323
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
19. Quantity A Quantity B
The sum of the series 1000
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

20. Let <x> is defined as 1 less than the number of digits in

the integer x. For example, <100> = 3-1 = 2. If x is a
positive integer less than 1,000,001, then <x> is at most
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 999,999
E) 1,000,000

GT – PREP 324
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
For all positive integers j and k, let j $ k be defined as
the whole number remainder when j is divided by k.
Given 13 $ k = 1
21. Quantity A Quantity B
k 12
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

In an election for class president, Maria finished first,

Kevin second, Carlos third, and Diane fourth. Maria
received 91 votes and Diane received 32 votes. A total
of 224 votes were cast for these four candidates.
22. Quantity A Quantity B
Minimum number of that Kevin could have
votes received 51
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 325
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
23. Apples are distributed, one at a time, into six baskets.

The 1st apple goes into basket one, the 2nd into basket
two, the 3rd into basket three, and so on until each
basket has one apple. If this pattern is repeated,
beginning each time with basket one, into which basket
will the 74th apple be placed?
A) Basket two
B) Basket three
C) Basket four
D) Basket five
E) Basket six

GT – PREP 326
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

1. Lines and Angles

Lines:
• A line is a set of points that has only one dimension, length. Think of multitudes
of points lying on a single path.
• Points on the same line are called “collinear points”.
• Two points are needed to define a line. When two lines meet at a point, they are
called “intersecting lines”
• The set of points called a plane lies all on one surface.

A line AB B

intersecting lines
B
C

E
A
D

Here ‘E’ is intersecting point

Line segment:
A line segment is simply a part of a line that has a specific length and specific end
points. Notice the symbol for a line segment.
Two line segments that have the same length are called congruent segments.

A B

C D

���� ≅ 𝐶𝐶𝐶𝐶
Here 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 ����

Ray:
A ray is a part of a line that has only one end point. It extends endlessly in one
direction.

U V
UV ray

GT – PREP 327
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Angle:
Two rays joined with a common end point form an angle. The common endpoint is
called a vertex.
x

y z

Angles x, y, z
x, y, z Vertex
Pairs of lines:

• In geometry, lines often occur in pairs. We can define four different types of line
pairs;
• Lines that intersect, lines that are perpendicular, lines that are parallel, and lines
that are skew.
• Intersecting lines are lines that have one, and only one, point in common.
• Perpendicular lines intersect in a special way, forming right angles.
• Parallel lines have no angle between them (though mathematically they do
intersect at infinity!!), and they lie in the same plane. Like parallel lines, skew
lines never touch, but unlike parallel lines, skew lines are not in the same plane.

Classifying angles:

0
90

Right angle Straight angle (1800)

Acute

Angle (45 0) Obtuse angle (135 0)

• A degree is a fraction of a circle – there are 360 degrees in a circle, represented

like this:3600
• You know right angle as the one-fourth of the circle, which is 3600 divided by 4
or 900.
• A straight angle represents half of a circle. 3600 divided by 2 equals 1800 that is
the measure of a straight angle.
• An acute angle is any angle that measures greater than zero and less than 900 .
• An obtuse angle measures greater than 900 but less than1800 .
• The useful tool is called protector, and any student of geometry should have one!
• Two angles have the same measure are called congruent angles.

GT – PREP 328
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Congruent angles

x y

We claim angle ‘x’ is congruent to angle ‘y’.

• Two angles are called supplementary if their measures add up to 180 degrees.
These two 90 degrees angle are supplementary because 90 + 90 =180.

900

• Supplementary angles do not have to touch, or to be in the same plane, Only their
measurements are the secret of their relationship!

0
90

• A pair of angles is called complementary if their measurements add up to 90

degrees. These two angles are complementary, as 600 + 300 = 900.

60 0 30
0

GT – PREP 329
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Angles and intersecting angles:
Two parallel lines intersected by a transversal form corresponding pairs of Angles
that are congruent.
Adjacent angles share a common vertex and common ray.
Two intersecting lines form pairs of adjacent angles that are supplementary. Also,
two intersecting lines form pairs of congruent angles, called vertical angles.

Angles and Intersecting lines

Adjacent means “next to.” But we use this word in a very specific way when we refer
to adjacent angles. Study these two figures. Only the pair on the right is considered to
be adjacent, angles c and d. Adjacent angles must share a common side and a
common vertex, and they must not overlap each other.

Y
C
D

Not Adjacent Adjacent

Vertical angles are pairs of angles formed by two intersecting lines. Vertical angles
are not adjacent angles - they are opposite each other.
In this diagram, angles A and C are vertical angles, and angles B and D are vertical
angles. Vertical angles are congruent.
P

b
a x
c d
B
A C f
e
y
D g h

∠B ≅ ∠D
Transversal
∠A ≅ ∠C

Lines ‘x’ and ‘y’ are parallel, and are cut by a transversal, P which is just a name
given to a line that intersects two or more lines at different points. Eight angles
appear, in four corresponding pairs that have the same measure, therefore the angles
are congruent.

GT – PREP 330
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

These four corresponding pairs are:

Angles a and e

Angles c and g

Angles b and f

Angles d and h

These angles that lie in the interior area, or the area between the two lines that are cut
by the transversal, are called interior angles.

Angles c, d, e, f are interior angles.

Angles a, b, g, h lie in the exterior area, and they are called “exterior angles”.

∠a ≅ ∠h ∠c ≅ ∠f

∠b ≅ ∠g ∠d ≅ ∠e

GT – PREP 331
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
l

q
r p
s

1. In the above figure, P = 650

Quantity A Quantity B
The supplement of a 90°
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

b
c a
d

m
2. In the above figure, if b = 2a, what is the value of b + c
+ d?
A) 1200
B) 1800
C) 2650
D) 3000
E) 3250

GT – PREP 332
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

3. By how many degrees does the angle formed by the hour

hand and the minute hand of a clock increase from 1:27
to 1:28?

4. In the figure below, what is the value of a?

3a0
0 0
b c
(a+2b)0

GT – PREP 333
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. What is the value of x in the below figure?

x0
l

1400
m

6. In the figure below, what is the value of x if y: x = 3:2?

0
y
x0

GT – PREP 334
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

2. Polygons
• Polygons are many sided figures, with sides that are line segments.
• Polygons are named according to the no. of sides and angles they have.
• The most familiar polygons are the triangle, the rectangle, and the square.
• A regular polygon is one that has equal sides.
• Polygons also have diagonals, which are segments that join two vertices and are
not sides.

History of polygons:

• The word polygon is a combination of two Greek words: “poly” means many and
“gon” means angle.
• Along with its angles, a polygon also has sides and vertices. “tri” means “three”,
so the simplest polygon is called the triangle, because it has three angles.
• It also has three sides and three vertices.
• A triangle is always coplanar, which is not true of many of the other polygons.
• A regular polygon is a polygon with all angles and all sides congruent, or equal.
Here are some regular polygons.

Regular Hexagon Regular Pentagon Square

• We use the formula to find the interior angles of a polygon. In this formula, the
letter n stands for the number of sides, or angles, that the polygon has.
Sum of internal angles = (n – 2)180°

GT – PREP 335
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Types of polygons:

• Regular: all angles are equal and all sides are the same length. Regular
polygons are both equiangular and equilateral.
• Equiangular: all angles are equal.
• Equilateral: all sides are the same length.
• Convex: a straight line drawn through a convex polygon.

1
4

Crosses at most two sides. Every interior angle is less than180° .

• Concave: you can draw at least one straight line through a concave polygon that
crosses more than two sides. At least one interior angle is more than180° .

3 4
1 2

Polygons formulas:
(N = number of sides and S= length from center to a corner)

360 °
Area of a regular polygon = (1/2) N sin ( 𝑁𝑁
) S

Sum of interior angles of a polygon = (N -2) ×180° .

N ( N − 3)
The number of diagonals in ‘N’ sided polygon =
2

The number of triangles (when you draw all the diagonals from one vertex) in a
polygon = (n - 2).

GT – PREP 336
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
a < 90°
1. Quantity A Quantity B
The supplement of a 90°
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from the
information given.

2. If the sum of the angles of an ‘n’ sided polygon is three

times the sum of angles of a triangle? Find the number
of sides of the polygon?

GT – PREP 337
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

3. The perimeter of a regular hexagon is 8y – 2. If y = 4,

what is the length of the side of the hexagon?

4. If the polygon has 20 diagonals, how many sides does

the polygon have?

GT – PREP 338
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. A convex polygon has n sides and 4n diagonals. What is
the value of n?

6. If the sum of interior angles of a polygon is An – B, then

𝐴𝐴
what is the value of ?
𝐵𝐵

GT – PREP 339
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. What is the area of a square if its diagonal is 10?

8. If the length of a rectangle is 4 times its width, and if its

area is 144, what is its perimeter?

GT – PREP 340
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
9. In a quadrilateral WXYZ, the measure of angle Z is 10
more than twice the average of the measures of the other
three angles. What is the measure, in degrees, of angle
Z?

10. How many sides does a polygon have if the measure of

each interior angle is 8 times the degree measure of each
exterior angle?

GT – PREP 341
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

3. Triangles
Triangles:
A Triangle is a simplest polygon, having three sides and three angles. The sum of
three angles of a triangle is equal to 180 degrees.
Triangles are classified in to two general ways;
 Basis of sides.
 Basis of angles.

Basis of sides
A
A

B C B C B C
Equilateral Isosceles Scalene

• A triangle with three sides of different lengths is called a “scalene triangle”

• An “Isosceles triangle” has just two equal sides. The third side is called “base”.
The angles that are opposite the equal sides are also equal.
• “An Equilateral triangle” has three equal sides. In this triangle, the angles are
also equal.
Each angle of an equilateral measure 60 degrees,
Note: Since the sum of interior angles of any triangle must equal to the 180 degrees.

Basis of angles:
P
S
A

B C Q R T U
Right angle Acute angle Obtuse angle

 If one of the angles in a triangle is a right angle, then the triangle is called “right
angled” triangle. In above diagram vertex B to show a right angle.
 An “acute angle” has three acute angles, or three angles with measure of less than
90 degrees.
 An “obtuse angle” has one angle greater than 90 degrees.

GT – PREP 342
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Pythagorean Theorem:
The sum of the squares of the two sides that join at a right angle equals to the
square of the third side.
A

B C

Formula:
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴 2 = 𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴2 + 𝐵𝐵𝐵𝐵 2

GT – PREP 343
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
1. In the figure below, what is the value of a?
P
a
0
25

0
55 40 0
Q R S

2. The two sides of a triangle are 24 and 10. What is the

highest possible perimeter of the triangles if the third
side is an integer?
A) 35
B) 42
C) 57
D) 59
E) 67

GT – PREP 344
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

3. In the following diagram if BC =√6, what is the value of

CD?

0
30
900 450
B C

4. In the figure below, what is the perimeter of ∆𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴?

B

10

600
A 10 C

GT – PREP 345
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. What is BC, in the below diagram

A 4 B

C
4

D 3 E

6. What is the area of an equilateral triangle whose altitude

is 6?

GT – PREP 346
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. In the figure below
i) What is the perimeter of ∆𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴?
ii) What is the area of ∆𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴?

15

300
B 9 D C

GT – PREP 347
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
A
0
60

B 150 C

1. What is the perimeter of the triangle below?

A) 15 ( 2 1)
B) 15 ( 3 +1)
C) 30
D) 35
E) 35 ( 3 +1)

0
a b0

2. In the above figure, if the quotient of a and b is 4, then

b=?
A) 35°
B) 36°
C) 40°
D) 46°
E) 50°

GT – PREP 348
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
The difference between the measures of an interior angle
and an exterior angle of a regular polygon is 90°.
3. Quantity A Quantity B
The number of sides 10
Of the regular Polygon
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

4. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon is

equal to six times the sum of the exterior angles, how
many sides does the polygon have?

GT – PREP 349
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. In the below figure, C is the midpoint of AB. If BD =
B, and AD = 17. Find the area of triangle ADC?

D B

B D C

BD = 4, DC = 5
6. Quantity A Quantity B
Area of triangle ABD Area of triangle ACD
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 350
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. If the perimeter of a triangle with sides a, (a+1), (a+2)
is 12, what is the area, in square units, of the triangle?
A) 6
B) 7.5
C) 10
D) 12
E) None of these

8. In the figure below, if QR = x, and QS = RS; then what

is the length of PS?
P

R S Q

13 2
A) m
2
13 2
B) m
4
1 2
C) m
4
D) 56 m2
3 2
E) m
4

GT – PREP 351
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
0
x
A

650
B C

9. In the figure above AB = AC. Then what is the value

of x?
A) 45
B) 50
C) 65
D) 70
E) 90

10. In the figure below, AB = ED = 20. Find x?

A

E D C

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 9
E) 10

GT – PREP 352
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
11. The base of an isosceles triangle is 12 units. If the area
of the triangle does not exceed 48 sq. units, then the
perimeter of the triangle does not exceed ______ units.
A) 16
B) 24
C) 32
D) 48
E) None

12. The sides of a triangle are 9, 12, and p. if the triangle

has the greatest area, what is the value of p?

GT – PREP 353
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
13. If ABC is a right triangle with a right angle at B, and if
AB = 6 and BC = 8, what is the length of AC?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 15
D) 20
E) 25

14. If the area of a right-angled isosceles triangle is 18

square units, what is its perimeter?
A) 6
B) 12
C) 6 + 6√2
D) 12 + 6√2
E) 12 + 12√2

GT – PREP 354
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
15.

In the triangle ABC above, AB = BC and CD bisects

angle C.
If y = 0.33x, then z in degree would be?
A) 40
B) 60
C) 64
D) 72
E) 80

0 1450
y

0
x

0
100

16. Quantity A Quantity B

0 0
x y
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 355
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
17.

AB is parallel to CD
18. Quantity A Quantity B
x+y w+v
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

19.

In the triangle above, lengths AC and BD are both equal

to the same integer. Which of the following could NOT
be the area of the triangle ABC.
A) ½
B) 4 ½
C) 6
D) 8
E) 12 ½

GT – PREP 356
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Phillip drew the triangle with the smallest possible
perimeter whose sides were 5,13 and some other integer.
David drew the triangle with the greatest possible
perimeter whose sides were 5,13 and some other integer.
20. Quantity A Quantity B
The perimeter of
David’s triangle 8
minus the perimeter
of Phillip’s triangle
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

21. Quantity A Quantity B

x+y w+z
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 357
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

QUADRILATERALS & CIRCLES

A quadrilateral is a closed 2 dimensional shape formed by joining 4 straight sides.
Quadrilaterals are classified by the number of pairs of parallel sides and by the
number of equal sides. The five most common types of quadrilaterals are
parallelogram, the rectangle, the square, the trapezoid, and the rhombus.

All of them have four sides, are co-planar. This means they have two diagonals, and
the sum of their four interior angles equals to the 360 degrees.

1
3

2
• A Parallelogram has two parallel pairs of opposite sides.
• A Rectangle has two pairs of opposites sides parallel, and four right angles. It is
also a parallelogram, since it has two pairs of parallel sides.
• A Square has two pairs of parallel sides, four right angles, and all four sides are
equal. It is also a rectangle.
• A Rhombus is defined as a parallelogram with four equal sides. Is a rhombus
always a rectangle? No, because a rhombus does not have 4 right angles.
• Trapezoid has one pair of parallel sides. It is a type of quadrilateral that is not a
parallelogram (British name: trapezium).

GT – PREP 358
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Shapes of quadrilaterals:

Square Rectangle Rhombus

Trapezoid Parallelogram

Properties of a rectangle:
1. Diagonals are equal length and they bisect each other.
If ‘l’ and ‘b’ are the length and breadth of a rectangle,
Length of a diagonal (d) = √𝑙𝑙 2 + 𝑏𝑏 2
2. Perimeter of a diagonal = 2 (l + b).
3. The area of a rectangle is equal to the product of the length of its base and the
height Area (A) = base (b) × height (h).

Height

Base

Properties of a square:
1. Diagonals are of equal length and they bisect each other.
If ‘s’ be the side of the square, Length of the diagonal (d) = 𝑠𝑠√2 .
2. Perimeter = 4s.
3. A square is a special rectangle, and you can find its area using the rectangle
formula. Area (A) =𝑠𝑠 2 .
The area of the square is equal to the length of one side squared.
Side 1

Side 2 Side 3

Side 4

GT- PREP 359

GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Properties of a parallelogram:
1. Diagonals are unequal length and they bisect each other.
2. A diagonal does not bisect the vertex angle.
3. Opposite angles of a parallelogram are equal.
4. Adjacent angles of a parallelogram are supplementary.
5. To find the area of a parallelogram, we use the same formula of the rectangle,
multiplying the length of the base times the length of the height.

Height

Base

Properties of the Rhombus:

1. Diagonals are unequal length and they bisect each other at right angles.
2. Opposite angles of a rhombus are unequal.
3. Adjacent angles of a rhombus are supplementary.
1
4. Area = one half the product of the diagonals. A = ( d1 × d 2 )
2
B

d1

d2
A C

D
Properties of a trapezoid
In trapezium, one pair of opposite sides is parallel to each other; while another pair of
opposite sides must be non-parallel.
Properties of an isosceles trapezoid:
1. One pair of parallel sides (AB and DC)
2. One pair of congruent legs (DA and CB)
3. Base angles are congruent ( ∠D ≅ ∠C and ∠A ≅ ∠B )
4. Diagonals are congruent (AC and BD)
5. Opposite angles are supplementary (their sum is 180 degrees)
6. Area of the trapezoid, we can draw a diagonal so the trapezoid is divided in to two
triangles.

GT – PREP 360
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

A base 1 B

Height

D base 2 C
You can see that the area of the trapezoid ABCD is equal to the sum of the area of
the two triangles DAC, ABC.
Area of the triangle DAC = ½ BH = ½ (DC) h.
Area of the triangle ABC = ½ BH = ½ (AB) h.
Area of the trapezoid ABCD = ½ (DC) h + ½ (AB) h.
Since the height of the triangles DAC, ABC are the same, we can write the formula
for the area of a trapezoid
1
Area = (the product of height) and (sum of parallel sides.)
2

GT- PREP 361

GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Q R

P T S

1. In the figure above, the area of the square PQRS is 144.

What is the area of ∆ QRT?
A) 48
B) 56
C) 72
D) 96
E) 112

x+9

4x

2. In the square above, what is its perimeter?

A) 24
B) 28
C) 32
D) 36
E) 44

GT – PREP 362
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Q R
0
30

0
0 x
110
P S

3. In the figure, PQRS is a parallelogram. Then what is the

value of x0 =
A) 70
B) 80
C) 90
D) 100
E) 110

0
y 70
0

1250 x0

4. In the above figure, what is the values of x + y =

GT- PREP 363

GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Q R
0
x 0
y

P V T S

5. In the above figure, if QRTV is a square, and the lengths

PV, VT and TS are each 4, what is the value of x + y?
A) 105
B) 115
C) 120
D) 125
E) 135

A 70 C

100
60

B D

6. What is the perimeter of the above figure?

A) 230
B) 300
C) 330
D) 360
E) 380

GT – PREP 364
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
D C

A B F

E
7. In the above figure, ABCD and ACFE are squares. The
Area of ABCD
ratio =
Area of ACFE
1
A)
6 2
1
B)
4
1
C)
2
1
D)
2 2
E) 1

B C

A F E D
8. In the figure above, ABCD is an isosceles trapezoid.
Find the length of CD if the altitude is 8 feet, BC is 38
and AD is 50.

GT- PREP 365

GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space

400
l

83

m
k

9. In the figure below, find the value of k.

Note: Lines l and m are parallel.

10. Find the area of parallelogram, if it has a base of 30 and

1
a height measurement that is th of the base length.
6

GT – PREP 366
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

11. The base of a parallelogram is 48 feet and the measure of

its perimeter is 144 feet. What is the measure of an
adjacent side to the base?

GT- PREP 367

GRE Quantitative Reasoning

CIRCLES
Circles:
• A circle is a simple closed shape. All of its points are in equal distance from its
center. That distance is called radius of the circle.
• A diameter is a line segment that has both of its end points on the circle and
passes through a center.
• A chord is a line segment with both endpoints on the circle.
• A portion of a circle is called an arc.
• A semi- circle is an arc that is one – half of a circle.
• A distance around a circle is called its circumference.
• Segments with both points on the circle are called chords.

Circle

• A diameter is a special type of a chord, which passes through the center of a

circle.
• As with any segments, two chords are congruent if their lengths are equal.
• Arcs are measured in degrees, like angles and are classified in similar way.
• There are minor arcs, major arcs and semi- circles.
• A minor arc measures between 0 and 180 degrees.
• A major arc measures between 180 and 360 degrees.
• The semi-circle is exactly 180 degrees.
• The sum of all the lengths of the non-overlapping arcs of a circle is called the
circumference of that circle. This is distance around the circle.
Circumference = 2𝜋𝜋r

GT – PREP 368
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Properties of a circle:
• Area of a circle A =𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2 .

• Two circles that have the same center are called concentric circles.

Concentric circles

• An inscribed angle is an angle with its vertex on the circle and its sides consisting
chords of the circle. Angle ABC is an inscribed angle

C inscribed angle

• Angle made by an arc at the center is twice the angle made by the arc on the
other segment (arc).
A

20

P B

GT- PREP 369

GRE Quantitative Reasoning

More Properties:
• An arc forms the same angle at any point on the circumference of the circle.
Q
P 0
0

A 0 R
B
X
Arc A X B makes the same angle θ at points P, Q, and R on the Circle.

• The ends of a diameter make a right angle at any point on the circumference of
the circle.

X Y
O

O  center of the circle

XY  diameter

XY makes 900 at both points A and B on the circle.

• The tangent to a circle forms a right angle with the radius at the point of contact.
Z
Q

O Y

P
X

O Centre of the circle

P  point of contact
XY is the tangent to the circle at point of contact P. OP is perpendicular to XY.
 P.
QY = PY and OY bisects angle Q O

GT – PREP 370
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
1. In the figure below, square ABCD is inscribed in a
circle O, if the area of the square is 50, what is the
circumference of the circle?

B C

A D

2. A is the center of a circle whose radius is 10, and B is

the center of a circle whose diameter is 10. If these two
circles are tangent to one another, what is the area of the
circle whose diameter is ����
𝐴𝐴𝐴𝐴?

GT- PREP 371

GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. If the line l is tangent to circle O at point P, if B is a
point on l such that PB = 8, and if OB = 10, what is the
radius of the circle?

4. In the figure below, the ratio of the length of arc AB to

the circumference of the circle is 2:15. What is the value
of y?

y0
A

GT – PREP 372
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. If 9 × 12 rectangle is inscribed in a circle, then what is
the radius of the circle?

6. What is the circumference of a circle whose area is

100𝜋𝜋?

GT- PREP 373

GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. What is the area of the circle whose circumference is 𝜋𝜋?

8. If A is Area and C the circumference of a circle, which

of the following is an expression for A in terms of C?

GT – PREP 374
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
9. Town B is 7 miles due west of town A, town C is 6
miles due south of town B and town D is 1 mile due to
West of town C. What is the straight- line distance
between town A and town D?
A) 1 mile
B) 6 miles
C) 7 miles
D) 8 miles
E) 10 miles

10. Quantity A Quantity B

The diagonal of Half the perimeter
a rectangle R of the rectangle R.
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT- PREP 375

GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
11. If the area of a square of side x is 5, what is the area of a
square of side 3x?
A) 45
B) 50
C) 25
D) 15.5
E) 20

12. In parallelogram ABCD, angle A is four times angle B.

What is the measure in degrees of angle A?
A) 360
B) 400
C) 720
D) 1200
E) 1440

GT – PREP 376
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
13. What is the maximum number of right triangular regions
each with a base of 4 inches and height 3 inches that can
be cut from a rectangular sheet of metal measuring 56
inches × 30 inches?
A) 10
B) 14
C) 120
D) 140
E) 280

14. Area of the circle with center O is 4 π. What is the

perimeter of triangle ABC if AB = BC?

A C
O

A) 4
B) 4 + 2√2
C) 4 + 4√2
D) 8
E) 12

GT- PREP 377

GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
15. Which of the following points lies inside the circle
𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝑦𝑦 2 = 25?
A) (3, 4)
B) (-4, 3)
C) (4, 2√2)
D) (4, 2√3)
E) none of these

y-axis

(a, b)

60 0
x-axis

16. Quantity A Quantity B

a b
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 378
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
17. A circle has center at the origin and passes through
point P (0, -3). Which of the following points does it
NOT pass through? Select ALL that apply
A. (3, 3)
B. (-2, -1)
C. (2, 6)
D. (-3, 4)
E. (-4,5)

ABCD is parallelogram. E is any point on AB

18. Quantity A Quantity B
Twice the area of Area of parallelogram
triangle DEC ABCD
(A) Quantity A is greater.
(B) Quantity B is greater.
(C) The two quantities are equal.
(D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT- PREP 379

GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
19. In the figure below, LMNO and GHJK are rectangles
where GH = 1/2 LM and HJ = 1/2 MN. What fraction
of the region bounded by LMNO is NOT shaded ?

1
A)
4

1
B)
3

1
C)
2

2
D)
3

3
E)
4

GT – PREP 380
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

20. In the figure above ABCD is a trapezium, if area of

triangle. ABC is 8cm2, then what is the area of

trapezium?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 10
E. 18

O is the center of the circle. The distance between P and

Q is 4
21. Quantity A Quantity B
y0 700
(A) Quantity A is greater.
(B) Quantity B is greater.
(C) The two quantities are equal.
(D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT- PREP 381

GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

P, Q and R are points on the circle with center O, and

PR and OQ are line segments.
22. Quantity A Quantity B
The length of OM The length of MQ
(A) Quantity A is greater.
(B) Quantity B is greater.
(C) The two quantities are equal.
(D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

23. In the above figure, two lines are tangent to a circle of

radius 2 at points A and B. What is the length of
segment AB (not shown)?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 2 3
E) 4

GT – PREP 382
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

SOLID GEOMETRY & COORDINATE GEOMETRY

Solid Geometry:
The branch of mathematics that deals with three dimensional figures and surfaces
Cube:
A solid which is bounded by six square surfaces is called a cube. The boundary line is
called an edge. A cube has all its three dimensions equal.
a = length of the cube

• Lateral surface area = 4(𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒)2 = 4𝑎𝑎2 .

• Surface area of a cube = 6(𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒)2 = 6𝑎𝑎2 .
• Volume of a cube = (𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒)3 =𝑎𝑎3 .
a
• Length of the diagonal =√3.

Cuboid/rectangular prism:
A solid which is bounded by six rectangular surfaces is called a cuboid. It has all the
three dimensions different.
Length (l) Breadth (b) Height (h)
l
b

• Lateral surface area = 2h (l + b).

• Surface area: 2 [lb + bh + lh].
• Volume = lbh.
• Length of the diagonal =√𝑙𝑙 2 + 𝑏𝑏 2 + ℎ2 .

GT – PREP 383
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Cylinder:

h l

• Area of the curved surface = perimeter of the circumference of the base × height
= 2𝜋𝜋hr [Link].
• Volume = area of the base × height = 2𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2 units.
• Total surface area of a cylinder
= area of curved surface + area of two ends
= 2𝜋𝜋hr + 2𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2
= 2𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 (h + r) [Link].

Cone:
A

B r C

• Volume of the cone = 1/3𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2 ℎ.

• Curved surface area of the cone = 𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 =𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 √𝑟𝑟 2 + ℎ2 .
• Slant height, l = √ℎ2 + 𝑟𝑟 2 .
• Total surface area - 𝜋𝜋𝜋𝜋 (𝑟𝑟 + 𝑙𝑙).

GT – PREP 384
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Sphere:
r

• Volume of the sphere = 4/3𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 3 .

• Surface area = 4𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2 .

Hemisphere:

• Curved surface area = 2𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2 .

• Total surface area = 3𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 2 .
• Volume of the hemisphere = 2/3𝜋𝜋𝑟𝑟 3 .

GT – PREP 385
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
1. The volume of a cylinder having a height of 12 is 144𝜋𝜋.
What is the radius of its base?

2. A cylindrical pail has a radius of 7 inches and a height of

9 inches. If there are 231 cubic inches to a gallon,
approximately how many gallons will be hold in the
pail?

GT – PREP 386
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. What is the surface area of the cube whose volume is
125 cubic centimeter?

4. What is the volume of the cube whose surface area is

150?

GT – PREP 387
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. A solid metal cube of side 3 inches is placed in a
rectangular tank whose length, width, and height are 3, 4
and 5 inches, respectively. What is the volume of the
volume?

GT – PREP 388
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Co- ordinate Geometry

A co-ordinate plane is an important tool for working with these equations. It is
formed by a horizontal number line, called the x-axis, and a vertical number line,
called the y-axis. The two axis intersect at a point called origin.

You can locate any point on the co-ordinate plane by an ordered pair of numbers
(x, y), called the co-ordinates.

Quadrants:

To make it easy to talk about where on the coordinate plane a point is, we divide
the co-ordinate plane into four sections called quadrants.

y-axis

5
Quadrant 1 4 Quadrant 2
3
2
1
x-axis
-6 -5 -4 -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
-1
-2
Quadrant 3 -3 Quadrant 4
-4

• Points in the quadrant 1 have positive x and positive y.

• Points in the quadrant 2 have negative x and positive y.
• Points in the quadrant 3 have negative x and negative y.
• Points in the quadrant 4 have positive x and negative y.

Note:
1. The co-ordinates of origin are (0, 0).
2. The y co-ordinate of any point on x-axis is 0.
3. The x co-ordinate of any point on y-axis is 0.

Distance formulas:

• Distance of any point P from origin (0, 0) is �𝑥𝑥12 + 𝑦𝑦12 .

• Distance between any two points P (𝑥𝑥1, 𝑦𝑦1 ) and Q (𝑥𝑥2 , 𝑦𝑦2 ) is

�( 𝑥𝑥2 − 𝑥𝑥1 )2 + ( 𝑦𝑦2 − 𝑦𝑦1 )2

GT – PREP 389
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Slope and intersect:

Every straight line can be represented by an equation:
ax + by + c = 0.
Note: The coordinates of every point on the line will solve the equation if you
substitute them in the equation for x and y.
The equation of any straight line, called a linear equation, can be written as:
y = mx + b, where m is the slope of the line and b is the y-intercept.
The y-intercept of this line is the value of y at the point where the line crosses the
y-axis.
Slope:
Using any two points on a line, you can calculate its slope using this formula.

𝑐𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑦𝑦 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟

Slope = = .
change in x value 𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟

𝑐𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 𝑦𝑦 𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣𝑣 𝑦𝑦2 − 𝑦𝑦1

m= = .
change in x value 𝑥𝑥 2 − 𝑥𝑥 1

• The slopes of a set of parallel lines are equal. m 1 = m 2

• The slopes of a pair of perpendicular lines are negative reciprocals of each
other or If the slopes of the lines, m 1 and m 2 respectively.

m1 × m2 = -1

Circle:
The equation 𝑥𝑥 2 + 𝑦𝑦 2 = 𝑟𝑟 2 is a circle of radius r with center at the origin
Note: To find the point(s) of intersection of two graphs, solve both the equations
for x and y.
Parabola:
We know the general quadratic function y = a𝑥𝑥 2 + bx + c is a parabola with an x-
axis of symmetry parallel to the y-axis.
b
The equation of the axis of symmetry is x = - .
2a

If a > 0, the parabola opens upwards.

If a < 0, the parabola opens downwards.
The y-intercept is c, and the x- coordinate of the parabola is either a minimum
(a > 0) or a maximum (a < 0).

GT – PREP 390
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Ellipse:
The graph of a𝑥𝑥 2 + b𝑦𝑦 2 = c, where a, b, and c are positive, is an ellipse with
center at the origin.

Hyperbola:
The graph of a𝑥𝑥 2 - b𝑦𝑦 2 = c, where a, b, c are positive, is a hyperbola symmetric
with respect to the origin and having intercepts only on the x-axis.
Example 6. Find the co-ordinates of a point on x-axis, which is at a distance of 4
units from the point (5, -2).
A) (3, -2)
B) (5, 2)
C) (0, 0)
D) (-2, 4)
E) (0, 1)
F) None of these

By Elimination method,
Option B (5, 2) satisfying. ( 𝑥𝑥1 , 𝑦𝑦1 ) 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 ( 5, 2) ( 𝑥𝑥2 , 𝑦𝑦2 ) 𝑖𝑖𝑖𝑖 ( 5, −2)& Distance
between two points =
�( 𝑥𝑥2 − 𝑥𝑥1 )2 + ( 𝑦𝑦2 − 𝑦𝑦1 )2 , → �( 5 − 5)2 + ( −2 − 2)2 = �(−4 )2 = 4

Example 7. What is the slope of the line passing through the points A (-3, 4) and
B (3, 8)?
A) 2/3
B) 1
C) 3/4
D) 4/3
E) 4

Sol: Option A

( y2 − y1 ) = (8 − 4=
) (= 4) 2
( x2 − x1 ) ( 3 − (−3) ( 6 ) 3

GT – PREP 391
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

1. If the sum of the edges of a cube is 60cm, then what is

the volume, in cubic cm?
A) 100
B) 125
C) 150
D) 1000
E) 3600

2. How many small cubes of jelly, each with a total surface

area of 96 sq centimeters, can be cut from a large solid
jelly mass with a total surface area of 2,400 square
centimeters if no jelly is lost in the cutting?
A) 5
B) 25
C) 30
D) 80
E) 125

GT – PREP 392
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. The dimensions of a rectangular box R are 6cm, 8cm,
and [Link] of the following can be the total
surface area, in square cm, of two faces of R?
Select ALL that apply
96
128
108
160
376

4. The surface area of a cube is numerically equal to 3

times its volume. What is the length of the longest
diagonal that can be drawn in a cube?
A) 2
B) 2√2
C) 2√3
D) 4
E) 12

GT – PREP 393
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. Two cubes of edge 4 cm each are joined together to form
a rectangular solid. What is the volume of the solid, in
cubic units?
A) 96
B) 120
C) 128
D) 160
E) 180

880 cubic units of a fluid is to be completely filed in to

right circular cylindrical cans each of radius 2 units and
height 7 units.
6. Quantity A Quantity B
No. of cylindrical cans 10
needed
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 394
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
P≥2
7. Quantity A Quantity B
Volume of a rectangular Volume of a cylindrical
box with dimensions tank with radius and
3, 7 and P height as P.
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

8. What is the maximum number of cylinders each of base

radius 1 foot that can be arranged on a rectangular floor
60 feet × 40 feet?
A) 60
B) 120
C) 192
D) 600
E) 1200

GT – PREP 395
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
9. 27 cubes all of equal size are fastened together to form
one large cube. The large cube is painted red. How many
cubes are painted on exactly two faces?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 9
D) 12
E) 18
F) 1200

10. The line segment containing the points (0,0), (15, 10)
will also contain the point
A) (2, 3)
B) (4, 2)
C) (6, 9)
D) (12, 8)
E) (10, 9)

GT – PREP 396
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
y - axis

(4, y)

(2, 1)
0
x - axis

11. In the figure above xy-plane, if x = 4, then y?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

12. If two of the vertices of a rectangle are (-4, 1) and

(-4, -4), which of the following can be any of the other
two vertices? Select ALL that apply
(-6, 1)
(-6, -4)
(3, 1)
(1, -4)
(-4, 3)

GT – PREP 397
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
13. What is area of the rectangular region bounded by
3 ≤ x ≤ 6 and -2 ≤ y ≤ 3 in Square units.
A) 12
B) 15
C) 24
D) 30
E) 45

14. What is the area, in square units of the region enclosed

by x-axis, y- axis and 3x+ 2y – 6 = 0?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12
E) 15

GT – PREP 398
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
15. Including the end – points, which of the following
coordinate points with integral coordinates lie on the line
joining (0, 0) and (48, 8)? Select ALL that apply
(1, 6)
(12 ,2 )
(15,5)
(30,6 )
48

16. What is the slope of a line perpendicular to the line

5y + 4x = 8?
−4
A)
5

5
B)
4

4
C)
5

−5
D)
4

5
E)
8

GT – PREP 399
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
17. What is the slope of the line with x and y intercepts of
4 and 7 respectively?
A) 6/7
B) – 4/7
C) 4/7
D) – 7/4
E) 7/4

18. What is the area of the region bounded by y = 0, x = y

and x + y = 2, in square units?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 35

GT – PREP 400
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
The length of an edge of cube R is 2 and the length of an
edge of cube T is 3.
19. Quantity A Quantity B
The ratio of the surface The ratio of the volume of
area of cube R cube T cube R R to that of to that of
Cube T
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

A wooden cube whose edges are 3 inches is painted red.

The cube is then cut into 27 cubes whose edges are 1
inch.
20. Quantity A Quantity B
The total surface area of 100 square inches
all of the unpainted faces
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 401
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
21. When 30 gallons of water is poured into a cylindrical
tank whose sides are perpendicular to a flat base, the
water level rises 0.5 foot. If 7.5 gallons of water
occupies 1 cubic foot of space, then the base of the tank
has an area of how many square feet?
A) 37.5
B) 8
C) 4.5
D) 4
E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

22. The height of the solid cone above is 18 inches and the
radius of the base is 8 inches. A cut parallel to the
circular base is made completely through the cone so
that one of the two resulting solids is a smaller cone. If
the radius of the base of the small cone is 2 inches, what
is the height of the smaller cone, in inches?

A) 2.5
B) 4.0
C) 4.5
D) 9.0
E) 11

GT – PREP 402
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
23. A line segment containing the points (0,0) and (12,8)
will also contain the point
A) (2,3)
B) (2,4)
C) (3,2)
D) (3,4)
E) (4,2)

y=x

x
O

24. In the rectangular coordinate system above, the line y =

x is the perpendicular bisector of segment AB (not
shown), and the x-axis is the perpendicular bisector of
segment BC (not shown). If the coordinates of point A
are (2, 3), what are the coordinates of point C?
A) (-3, -2)
B) (-3, 2)
C) (2, -3)
D) (3, -2)
E) (2, 3)

GT – PREP 403
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
y

P (0, 6)

Q (1, 4)

C (3, 0)
x
O

25. In the coordinate plane above, points P (0, 6), Q (1, 4),
and C (3, 0) are on line l. what is the sum of the areas of
the shaded triangular regions?
7
A)
2
B) 4
9
C)
2
D) 5
11
E)
2

# Drawn to scale
26. In the rectangular coordinate system above, if the
equation of R1 is y = x, and R1// R2, What is the
shortest distance between R1 and R2?

A) 2
B) 1
C) 2/2
D) ½
E) ¼

GT – PREP 404
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

1. STATISTICS & NORMAL DISTRIBUTION

Numerical methods for describing data
Measures of central tendency:
Arithmetic mean:
For a set of ‘n’ numbers 𝑎𝑎1 , 𝑎𝑎2, 𝑎𝑎3 , … … … 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛,
𝑎𝑎 1 +𝑎𝑎 2+ 𝑎𝑎 3 +………+𝑎𝑎 𝑛𝑛 ,
Arithmetic mean = 𝑛𝑛

Median: Median is the center- most value of a set of odd number of numbers, when
they are arranged in an ascending/ descending order.
Example 1: For the data 17, 5, 23, 42, 10, 54
Median is the arithmetic mean of the central most two values of a set of even number
of numbers, when they are arranged in an ascending/ descending order.
Firstly arrange the data ascending order i.e., 5, 10,17,23,42, 54
Then median is (17+23)/2 = 20
Mode: Mode is the frequently occurring number in a series of numbers.
Example 2: For the data 5, 10, 17, 5, 23, 42
Mode = 5

Example 3: For the data 5, 10, 17, 5, 23, 42, 17

Mode = 5, 17

Example 4: For the data 5, 10, 17, 23, 42

Mode does not exist.

Note: For discrete data, Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean

Arithmetic mean of grouped data:
Let’s take an example to understand this:
In a class 20 students, a math test is given and the scores are the scores are grouped.
The number of students failing in to each group is shown. The maximum score for the
test is 40.

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 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Example 5

Score (class interval) No. of students

(frequency)
0 – 10 0
10 – 20 5
20 – 30 10
30 – 40 5

To find the arithmetic mean score of the class

First, find the mid – value of each of the groups.
Second, multiply the mid – value with the corresponding frequency.

Mid – value Frequency

5 0
15 5
25 10
35 5
20

Third, add the resulting products i.e. 5×0 + 15×5 +25×10 +35×5 = 520 and
Fourth divide the sum by the total frequency.
So, arithmetic mean score = 500/20 = 25.

GT – PREP 406
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Use the information below to answer all the questions
D = {13, 22, 17, 24, x}
E = {13, 22, 17, 24, y}
x>0,y>0
1. Quantity A Quantity B
The mean of set D The mean of set E.
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

2. Quantity A Quantity B
The median of set D The median of set E.
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 407
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
x>y
3. Quantity A Quantity B
The mean of set D The mean of set E
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

x > y > 24
4. Quantity A Quantity B
The median of set D The median of set E
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined
from the information given

GT – PREP 408
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Measures of position:
In the GRE exam, you may be asked to interpret a data set using one of several
graphical representations of the data.
One convenient way to describe a data set is to use a box plot (also known as a plot).
A box plot graphically displays groups of numerical data through their five – numbers
summaries:
1. The smallest observations (sample minimum)
2. Lower quartile (Q1),
3. Upper quartile (Q2),
4. Largest observation (sample maximum).

The quartiles of set values are the three points that divide the data set in to four equal
groups, each representing a fourth of the population being sampled.
The box plot graphically displays groups of numerically data through their five
number summaries:
1. The smallest observation (sample minimum)
2. Lower Quartile (Q1)
3. Median (M or Q2)
4. Upper quartile (Q3)
5. Largest Observation (Sample maximum)

The quartiles of a set of values are the three points that divide the data set into four
equal groups, each representing a fourth of the population being sampled.
The Percentiles are mostly used for very large lists of numerical data by ordering the
data from minimum to maximum.
Measures of dispersion:
Measures of dispersion indicate how much data is spread out or the degree of spread
of the data. The three dispersion measures that are used on the GRE revised general
test are range, interquartile and standard deviation.
Range:
The range of the numbers in a group of data is the different between the greatest
number in the data and the least number in the data.

GT – PREP 409
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Standard deviation and variance:

Standard deviation is another measure of dispersion, but it is more sensitive than
range, because the standard deviation is dependent on each number in the set, and not
just the largest and smallest ones. The standard deviation considers how much each
value in a set differs from the mean of the set.

For a set of n numbers, the standard deviation is computed in six steps:

1. Calculate the mean
2. Calculate how much each value deviates from the mean.
3. Find the squares the deviation
4. Add the squares to get the sum of squares.
5. Divide the sum of squares by the number of values in the set.
6. Square root the sum of the squares to get the standard deviation.

Example
Consider the following set: A = {5, 7, 9, 10, 14, 19}
The steps of the calculations are:

1. Mean = 5+7+9+10+11+14+19 = 75/7

This is approximately 10.71.
2. Deviation from mean:
5 – 10.71 = - 5.71
7 – 10.71 = - 3.71
9 – 10.71 = - 1.71
10 – 10.71 = - 0.71
11 – 10.71 = 0.29
14 – 10.71 = 3.29
19 – 10.71 = 8.29
3. Squares of deviations:
(-5.712)2 = 32.6
(-3.712)2 = 13.7
(1.712)2 = 2.92
(-0.72)2 = 0.5
(0.292)2 = 0.08
(3.292)2 = 10.8
(8.292)2 = 68.7
4. Sum of the squares
= 32.6 + 13.7 + 2.92 + 0.5 + 0.08 + 10.8 + 68.7 = 129.3

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GRE Quantitative Reasoning
5. Variance (Divide sum by the count of numbers):
129.3/7 = 18.47
6. Standard deviation (square root of variance): 18.47 which is about 4.29 thus
the standard deviation of A is approximately 4.29.
Normal Distribution:
The normal Distribution is a pattern for the distribution of data which follows a bell –
shaped curve.
The normal Distribution is called normal because the data points are concentrated in
the center near the mean, the data does not usually contain extreme values, and the
deviations of the data points from the mean are (nearly) identically in either direction.
Graphically, the normal distribution looks like the following:

Where
μ is the mean,
μ + σ and μ – σ denote one standard deviation greater and less than the mean,
μ + 2 σ and μ – 2 σ denote two standard deviations greater and less than the mean.
The percentage values in the above figure indicate what percentage of the data falls in
to that region.
Note:
All normal distributions satisfy the following:
• Approximately 68% of the observations fall within 1 standard deviation of the
mean.
• Approximately 96% (in some books, 95%) of the observations fall within 2
standard deviations of the mean.
• The mean, median, and mode of the data are nearly all equal.

GT – PREP 411
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Example:
A machine produces electrical components.
99.7% of the components have lengths between 2.176 inches and 2.224 inches.
Assuming this data is normally distributed, what are the mean and standard
deviation?
Explanation: The mean is halfway between 2.176 inches and 2.224 inches:
Mean = (1.176 inches + 1.224 inches)/2 = 1.200 inches
99.73% is 3 standard deviations either side of the mean (a total of 6 standard
deviations) so:
1 standard deviation = (2.224 inches - 2.176 inches)/6 = 0.048 inches/6 = 0.008
inches

EXERCISE
Use frequently distribution below to answer the questions
Ages of women entered in road race

Classes( ages) Frequency

15 – 19 3
20 – 24 14
25 – 29 17
30 – 34 13
35 – 39 10

Use the frequently distribution data from table above, answer the questions 1 to 4 in
the next page.

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GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
1. Quantity A Quantity B
Number of 17 year old Number of 27 year old women
women entered in race entered in race
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

2. Quantity A Quantity B
Total number of entrants 55
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 413
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. Quantity A Quantity B
Median age of entrants 30
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

4. Quantity A Quantity B
Number of entrants under 30 28
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 414
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Use the following set to answer questions (5 - 7)
For x = 0, x = 1, x = 2 and x = 3, let k = {2x, 𝑥𝑥 2 , x + 2}
5. Quantity A Quantity B
The mode of set k 4
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

6. Quantity A Quantity B
Range of set k 10
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

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 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. Quantity A Quantity B
Median of set k Mean of set k
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

The average salary of 99 of 100 employees is $50 per hour.

The hourly wage of the 100th employee exceeds the average
of the 100 employees by $49.
8. Quantity A Quantity B
Average salary of all the $50.50
100 employees
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 416
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
In a series of hundred numbers, 20 are 4’s, 40 are
5’s and 30 are 6’s and the rest are 10’s
9. Quantity A Quantity B
Arithmetic mean of 6
100 numbers
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

Use the following situation to answer questions (10 - 11)

Set J contains of 5 elements. The range of the numbers
in set J is 0, and the sum of the numbers in set J is 40.
10. Quantity A Quantity B
Highest element in set J Lowest element in set J
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 417
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
11. Quantity A Quantity B
Mode of set J 16
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined
from the information given.

Use the following situation to answer questions (12 - 13)

K = {8, x, y, 10}
The mean of set K is 12, there is no mode, and x > y.
12. Quantity A Quantity B
x+y 24
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 418
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
13. Quantity A Quantity B
2x 30
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

Median of a data set is 20. Each observes in is

increased by 2
14. Quantity A Quantity B
Value of the new median 21
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 419
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
15. The average of 10 numbers is zero; of these, at most,
how many numbers could be greater than zero?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 9
E) 10

16. The average of x and y is 20. If z equal to 12, what is the

average of x, y and z?
A) 14
B) 17.3
C) 19
D) 19.5
E) 21

GT – PREP 420
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
17. The average age of a group of n people is 14 years. If
one more person aged 50 years joins the group n so that
the average rises to 17 years, then what is the value of n?

Use the following data for Q. No. 18 & 19.

Monthly Income 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.25 5.00
(in thousands)
No. of workers 6 8 4 5 6 4

18. Calculate the average monthly average income from the

table above

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 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
19. Find the median form the table above.

20. The average (arithmetic mean) of x and y is 40. If z

equals 20, what is the average of x, y, and z?
A) 22
B) 33
1
C) 33
3
D) 45
E) Cannot be determined

GT – PREP 422
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
21. If the average of 7 consecutive integers is 91, what is the
difference of least number and the median of the data?
A) 3
B) 7
C) 21
D) 24
E) 29

1 1
22. If the mean of x and is M, and mean of y and
x y

1 1
is N. then the mean of the items x2, y2, 2
and 2 is
x y

A) M2 - N2 + 1
B) M2 + N2 – 1
C) N2
D) M2 + N2 + 1
E) M2 + N2

GT – PREP 423
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
23. In a set of 9 different numbers, which of the following
cannot affect the value of median?
A) Increasing each number by 5
B) Multiplying each number by 5
C) Increasing the smallest number only
D) Increasing the largest number only
E) Change sign of the numbers

Set A = {-2,-1, 0}
24. Quantity A Quantity B
Standard deviation of Variance of Set A
Set A
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 424
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
x, y and z are different negative numbers
25. Quantity A Quantity B
Standard deviation of x, y Mean of x, y and z
and z
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

26. Quantity A Quantity B

Variance of 4 consecutive Variance of 4 consecutive
even numbers odd numbers
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 425
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
27. If the median of 3, 8, x, y¸15 in that order is 13. If x and
y are integers, then which of the following could be x +
y? Indicate all possible choices
26
27
28
29
30

28. In a set of 11 different numbers, which of the following

can affect the value of standard deviation?
Indicate all possible choices
Double each number
Increasing each number by10
Dividing each number by 10
Increasing largest number only
Change signs of the numbers

GT – PREP 426
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
29.

No. of accidents No. of drivers

0 45
1 30
2 25
3 20

In the frequency table above, what is the mode of

number of accidents /driver?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 45
D) 30
C) Cannot be determined

Use the following data for Q. No. 30 & 31.

Set A = {15, 0, 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 7, 10, 20, 4}?
30. What is the quartile deviation of set A?

GT – PREP 427
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
31. What is the inter quartile range of set A?

32. The mean of November midday temperature in

Hyderabad is 26°C and the standard deviation is 30C
assuming this data is normally distributed. How many
days approximately, in November, would you expect the
midday temperature to be between 26°C and 29°C?
A) 4
B) 10
C) 16
D) 20
E) 30

GT – PREP 428
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
33. The heights of female adults are normally distributed
with mean 1.3 m and standard deviation 0.15m. In a
population of 500 female adults, how many would you
expect to have a height between 1.45 m and 1.6 m?
A) 10
B) 60
C) 166
D) 170
E) 250

GT – PREP 429
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

COUNTING, PERMUTATIONS, COMBINATIONSAND

PROBABILITY AND NORMAL DISTRIBUTIONS
The Multiplication Principle
Using the Multiplication Principle of combinatorics, we know that if there are m ways
of selecting one thing and n ways of selecting another, then the total number of ways
of selecting both things is m * n ways.

PERMUTATIONS: A selection in which the order does matter.

• The number of ways n objects can be arranged into n positions is n!

Where n! = n × (n – 1) × (n – 2) × ……. × 1
• The number of ways n objects can be arranged into m positions where repetition
is allowed nm.
M
Positions

Can be can be filled in

filed in ‘n’ ways ‘n’ ways

i.e., n × n × n ……… × n (m times) = nm

• The number of ways n objects can be arranged into m positions where repetition

of objects is not possible is n Pm , where

n!
n
Pm =
( n − m )!

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GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Example 1: In how many ways can the first and second places are awarded to 10
people who participated in running race?
Explanation:
10! 10! 10 × 9 × 8!
= = = 90
(10 − 2 )! 8! 8!

Example 2:
In how many different ways can the letters of the word 'SECTION’ be arranged in
such a way that the vowels always come together?
Explanation:
The word 'SECTION’ has 7 different letters.
When the vowels EIO are always together, they can be supposed to form one
letter/one cluster.
Then, we have to arrange the letters SCTN(EAI).
Now, 5 (4 + 1 = 5) letters can be arranged in 5! = 120 ways.
The vowels (EOI) can be arranged among themselves in 3! = 6 ways.
Required number of ways = (120 x 6) = 720

Combinations: A selection, in which the order doesn't matter.

• The number of ways groups of r objects can be selected from a group of n objects is
n!
n
Cr where nCr =
( n − r )!r !
Example 3: Out of 5 men and 4 women in the group, three persons are to be selected
to form a committee so that 2 men and 1 woman, in how many ways can it be done?

The total possible committees of 2 men and 1 women or

Required number of ways = ( 5

C2 ×4 C1 )

5× 4 4
= × =40
2 ×1 1

GT – PREP 431
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

PROBABILITY
In assigning measurements to uncertainties in everyday life, we often use ambiguous
terminology.
Such as : “fairly certain”, “probable” or “highly unlikely”.

In mathematics, we attempt to remove this ambiguity by assigning a number to the

likelihood of the occurrence of an event. We call this measurement the probability
that the event will occur.

For example:
If we toss a coin, then the probability that it will land heads up is 0.5 or 1/2
The following are some of the terms with which the student should be familiar.

Experiment: Any activity or happening, whose result is uncertain, is called an

experiment.

Trial: Each repetition of an experiment is called trial.

Outcome: The possible result of an experiment is called outcome.

Sample Space: The set of all possible outcomes of an experiment is called sample
space.

Event: Set of outcomes of an experiment (a subset of the sample space) to which a

probability is assigned. Any event that consists of a single outcome is called simple
event.

Mutually exclusive events: Two events A and B are called mutually exclusive events
if A and B have no out comes in common.

Independent events: If the occurrence of an event A does not depend on the

occurrence of or non-occurrence of an event B, then A and B are called independent
events.

Probability of an event:
To calculate the probability of an event, we count the no of outcomes in the event and
in the sample space. The number of outcomes in A is denoted by n (A) and number of
outcomes in sample space S, is denoted by n (S).

𝑛𝑛(𝐴𝐴)
Then probability of an event P (A) = .
𝑛𝑛(𝑆𝑆)

Because the number of events must less than or equal to the number of outcomes in
sample space, probability of an event must be a number between 0 and 1.
i.e., 0 ≤ P (A) ≤ 1.

Note:
If P (A) = 0, then we call A an impossible event.
If P (A) = 1, then we call A a certain event.

GT – PREP 432
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Additional theorem of probability:

If A and B are two events in a sample space S, then the probability of either A or B to
occur is given by,
P (A U B) = P (A) + P (B) – P (A ∩ B)
Similarly for 3 events A, B, C
P ( 𝐴𝐴 ∪ 𝐵𝐵 ∪ 𝐶𝐶 ) = P(A)+P(B)+P(C) – P (A ∩ B) – P(B ∩ C) – P(A ∩ C) + P (A ∩ B
∩ C)
• If A and B are mutually exclusive, then P (A ∩ B) = 0.
Therefore, P (either A or B or both occur) = P (A) + P (B)
Example 3
A single 6-sided die is rolled. What is the probability of rolling a 3 or a 6?
Probabilities:
1
P ( 3) =
6

1
P (6) =
6

P ( 3 or=
6 ) P ( 3) + P ( 6 )

1 1
= +
6 6

2
=
6

1
=
3

Multiplication rule
• A & B are said to be independent if the occurrence of either of the events does
not affect the occurrence of the other.
If two events A and B are independent
then P (A ∩ B) = P (A) * P (B)

Conditional probability:
The conditional probability of an event B, after it is assumed that the event A has
already occurred, is denoted by P (B|A).
Definition:
Two events A and B are independent if the occurrence of one does NOT affect the
probability of the occurrence of the other. If A & B are not independent, they are said
to be dependent.

GT – PREP 433
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Rule:
Given events A & B, P (A and B) = P (A) * P (B|A) and
𝑃𝑃 (𝐴𝐴 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐵𝐵)
P (B|A) =
𝑃𝑃 (𝐴𝐴)

Example 4
A bag contains 4 red marbles and 6 white marbles. Two marbles are drawn without
replacement from the bag. What is the probability that both of the marbles are red?
Solution: Let A = the event that the first marble is red; and let B = the event that the
second marble is red. We know the following:
In the beginning, there are 10 marbles in the bag, 4 of which are red. Therefore, P (A)
= 4/10.
After the first selection, there are 9 marbles in the bag, 3 of which are red. Therefore,
P (B|A) = 3/9.
Therefore, based on the rule of multiplication:
P (A ∩ B) = P (A) P (B|A)
P (A ∩ B) = (4/10) * (3/9) = 12/90 = 2/15 = 0.133

Example 5
A bag contains 6 blue marbles and 4 red marbles. Two marbles are selected at
random, one after the other (the first marble is not replaced in the bag after it is
drawn).
I. Then find probability of drawing a red followed by a blue marble
II. Find the probability of drawing a blue followed by a red marble.
4 6
Solution: The probability of drawing a red followed by a blue marble is × =
10 9
24 6 4 24
. The probability of drawing a blue followed by a red marble is × = .
90 10 9 90

The Complement of event:

If the probability for an event A to occur is P(A), then the probability for the event A
not to occur is represented by P(𝐴𝐴̅).
Always P (A) + P (𝐴𝐴̅) = 1
P (𝐴𝐴̅) is called the complement of P (A) and vice versa.

GT – PREP 434
GRE Quantitative Reasoning

The rule of subtraction:

The probability of event E will occur is equal to 1 minus the probability that event E
will not occur
P (E) means the probability of event E will occur, P (EC) means the probability of
event E will not occur
P( E ) = 1 – P( Ec ) or P( Ec ) = 1 – P( E )
Example 6
The probability that Peter will basketball from college is 0.20. What is the probability
that peter will not basketball player from college?
Explanation: Probability that peter will not basketball player from college i.e,
P ( Ec ) = 1 – P( E )
= 1- 0.20
= 0.80

GT – PREP 435
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

RANDOM VARIABLES & PROBABILITY

DISTRIBUTION
Random Variables:
A random variable is a function or rule that assigns a number to each outcome of an
experiment.
Example:
X = no of heads when the experiment is flipping a coin 10 times.
C = the daily change in a stock price.
Two types of random variables:
a) Discrete Random Variable
One that takes on a countable number of values – this means it is possible to list all
possible outcomes.
X = values on the roll of two dice: X has to be 2, 3, 4…. 12.
b) Continuous Random Variable
One that takes on an uncountable number of values – this means it is NOT possible to
list all possible outcomes.
X = time it takes you to drive home from class, since there are infinite no of possible
times that can be taken.
Probability Distribution:
A Probability Distribution is a graph, table, or formula that gives the probability for
each value of the random variable.
If x is a random variable then denote by P(x) to be the probability that x occurs. It
must be the case that 0 ≤ P(x) ≤ 1 for each value of x, and ∑ 𝑃𝑃(𝑋𝑋) = 1.
The sum of all the probabilities is 1.

GT – PREP 436
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Use the following situation to answer questions (1 - 3)
Papa’s pizza offers any of up to 2 different toppings on their
pizzas. Papa’s has 8 total toppings from which to choose.
1. Quantity A Quantity B
Total number of possible 8
one topping pizza’s papa’s
makes
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

2. Quantity A Quantity B
Pepperoni is an available topping.
Number of possible pizza’s 8
containing pepperoni
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 437
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
3. Quantity A Quantity B
Total no of possible pizza’s 12
Papa’s makes
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

The mean of the five distinct positive integers is 10

4. Quantity A Quantity B
The largest possible values 46
of one of the integers
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 438
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
5. A superstore has to display three brands of detergent
powder, out of the seven brands in the market. How
many such combinations are possible?
A) 35
B) 60
C) 124
D) 210
E) 420

6. Twelve participants ran a race. In how many different

ways can the first, second, and third places be awarded?
A) 47900
B) 1320
C) 220
D) 144
E) 64

GT – PREP 439
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. Fid the least number of tosses that have to be made
in order that there is 99% probability of getting at
least one head?
A) 6
B) 4
C) 7
D) 8
E) 9

8. The probability that a teacher will give one surprise

1
test during any class meeting in a week is . If a
5

student is absent twice, what is the probability that

he will miss at least one test?
4
A)
15

1
B)
15

1
C)
25

16
D)
125

2
E)
125

GT – PREP 440
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
9. An ice-cream shop allows customers to choose two
flavors of ice-cream (one scoop each), one choice of
toppings and one choice of sauce for its special item.
There are six flavors of ice-cream, four toppings and
four sauces. The ice-cream scoops are mandatory and
may be of the same flavor, but the toppings & sauces are
optional. How many combinations of this special ice-
cream are possible?
A) 240
B) 480
C) 576
D) 600
E) 900

10. Two vegetables are cooked for lunch at a school every

day. There are seven different vegetables available for
cooking. The two must always be different but potato &
sweet potato are never cocked on the same day. How
many days does it take for a combination to repeat if
they are selected in order?
A) 41
B) 40
C) 20
D) 21
E) 17

GT – PREP 441
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
11. If two numbers are selected randomly from 20
consecutive natural numbers, what is the
probability the probability that the sum of the two
numbers is an odd number.
8
A)
19

9
B)
10

10
C)
19

11
D)
19

12
E)
19

12. Find the probability that in a random arrangement of the

letters of the word ‘UNIVERSITY', the two I's come
together.
A) 1/7
B) 3/5
C) 5/11
D) 1/5
E) 1/10

GT – PREP 442
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
Two dice are thrown simultaneously.
13. Quantity A Quantity B
2
The probability of getting
9

the difference of numbers

on the two dice is 2
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

14. If all of the telephone extensions in a certain company must

be even numbers, and each of the extensions uses all four of
the digits 1, 2, 3, and 6. What is the greatest number of four-
digit extensions that the company can have?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 12
D) 16
E) 24

GT – PREP 443
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
15. Five students are to be photographed for the school
paper. They are to be arranged standing side by side in a
single row with the tallest student in the center and the
two shortest students on the ends. If no students are of
the same height, how many different arrangements are
possible?
A) Two
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six
E) Ten

16. Each of the letters of the word RESPONSIBLE are written

on separate pieces of paper that are then folded, put in a hat,
and mixed thoroughly. One piece of paper is chosen (without
looking) from the hat. What is the probability it is an E?
A) 2/11
B) 2/10
C) 2/9
D) 1/11
E) 1/10

GT – PREP 444
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
17. Six text books numbered 1,2,3,4,5,6 are arranged at
random. What is the probability that the text books 2
and 3 will occupy consecutive place?
1
A)
2
1
B)
3

1
C)
4
1
D)
5

5
E)
6

A 5 member committee is to be selected among 6

members belonging to Party A and Party B
18. Quantity A Quantity B
The number of ways of 180
Selecting a committee
such that party A enjoys a
majority
A) Quantity A is greater.
B) Quantity B is greater.
C) The two quantities are equal.
D) The relationship cannot be determined from
the information given.

GT – PREP 445
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
19. The probability of getting at least one defective unit in a
shipment of 10 units is P. What is the probability that all ten
are good?
1
A)
1− P
B) 1 − P
1
C)
10(1 − P)

1− P
D)
10 P
P
E)
10

20. In a sample of 24 patients, 9 of them had type O blood, 6 had

type A, 5 had type B, and 4 had type AB. If the patient is
chosen from the sample, what is the probability that the
patients’ blood is type A or type B?
A) 6/24
B) 5/24
C) 1/24
D) 11/24
E) 7/24

GT – PREP 446
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
21. There are 50 members in a reader’s club. 27 of them like
Fiction, 29 like Thriller, and 5 like neither. A member is
randomly selected from reader’s club what is the probability
that the member selected at random likes both Thriller and
Fiction?
A) 5/50
B) 6/50
C) 11/50
D) 12/50
E) 15/50

22. In a shipment of 15 calculators, 3 are found to be non-

functioning. If 2 calculators are selected at random, what is
the probability that exactly one of the 2 will be non-
functioning?
12
A)
35
9
B)
35
6
C)
35
9
D)
70
3
E)
70

GT – PREP 447
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
23. A number is randomly selected from the set {–10, –3, 0, 3, 10}.
What is the probability that the number is a member of the
solution set of both x + 4 > –3 and 5x – 6 < 9?
A) 2/5
B) 3/5
C) 4/5
D) 1/5
E) 1

24. It is given that P (A) = 4/9, P (B) = 5/9 and P (A and B) =

1/3. Find the probability that A occurs given that B occurs
A) 2/5
B) 3/5
C) 3/4
D) 2/5
E) 1

GT – PREP 448
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

DATA INTERPRETATION
Data Analysis questions use diagrams, figures, tables, or graphs in conjunction with
arithmetic and algebra.
A BAR CHART or BAR GRAPH is a chart with rectangular bars with lengths
proportional to the values that they represent. Bar charts are used for comparing two
or more values that were taken over time or on different conditions, usually on small
data sets. The bars can be horizontally oriented (also called bar chart) or vertically
oriented (also called column chart). Sometimes a stretched graphic is used instead of
a solid bar. It is a visual display used to compare the amount or frequency of
occurrence of different characteristics of data and it is used to compare groups of
data.

A pie chart (or a circle graph) is a circular chart divided into sectors, illustrating
relative magnitudes or frequencies. In a pie chart, the arc length of each sector (and
consequently its central angle and area), is proportional to the quantity it represents.

A line graph is most useful in displaying data or information that changes

continuously over time.

GT – PREP 449
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Data table is another way to depict information that is categorized based on certain
characteristics of that particular data.
NOTE:
A combination of any of the individual representations of data is very likely!
Solved examples:
PETERS MONTHLY EXPENDITURE

Category Estimated expenses

Home rent $500
Car payment / $750
Gasoline
Groceries $300
Entertainment and $50
others
Savings Leftover income

*PETER’S MONTHLY INCOME IS $2000

1. How much would be Peter’s savings per month?

Solution: Savings = Earnings – Expenditures
= 2000 – (500 + 750 + 300 + 50)
= $ 400.
2. If Mr. X manages to cut down his actual expenses by 10% over what he estimated
in each category, then by what percent have his savings increased?
Solution: 10% cut down on all categories
10
= 1600 – (1600 × )
100

= 1440
Savings initially = 400
Savings now = 560
Percent increase in savings
560−400
× 100 = 40%
400

GT – PREP 450
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
(Quantity wise sale million units) (Value wise sale million units)

50 46 50 46
43 43
40 40
31 34 31 34
30 26 30 26
20 20

10 10

A B C D E A B C D E
Brands Brands
1. The relative market potential RMP of two brands is
Difference in % market share
defined as ( Difference in
sum of % market share

% market share / sum of % market share ) then, what is

the RMP of C and D quantity terms?
A) 0.23
B) 0.17
C) 0.11
D) 0.09
E) 0.25

2. What is the ratio of per unit of the costliest and the

second costliest brand?
A) 5:3
B) 7:4
C) 3:2
D) 15 : 8
E) 8 : 15

GT – PREP 451
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space

3. If the standard price ratio is defined as (

average price of brand + average price of unbranded
),
average price of total

what is the standard price ratio of pencil market?

A) 2
B) 1.03
C) 1.11
D) 1.13
E) 2.7

4. Which of the following is true?

A) Quantity wise branded wise and unbranded market
is 1.7 : 1
B) Almost 43% of the market value is attributed to
unbranded to market
C) Company D sells its pencil at $ 1.47 per pencil on
an average
D) The top brand has more than 15% share (both
value wise and quantity wise)
E) Unbranded market : quantity wise branded ratio is
1: 1.7

GT – PREP 452
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
ANNUAL PERCENT CHANGE IN THE NUMBER OF
PROPERTIES SOLD IN THE U.S.A.
City Percent change Percent change
from 2015 to 2016 from 2016 to 2017
Boston 10 -10
San Francisco -20 -9
New York 5 12
Chicago -7 -15
Los Angles 17 -8

5. If the total value of sales in Boston was $80,000 for

2015, what is the dollar amount of sales in 2017?
A) $72,000
B) $79,200
C) $80,000
D) $88,000
E) $96,800.

6. In Los Angles, the value of sales in 2016 was what

percent of the value in 2017? (Approx.)
A) 59
B) 63
C) 108
D) 126
E) 132

GT – PREP 453
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
7. If the value of Chicago in 2016 is $1100. If the
percentage change from 2017 to 2018 is 23%. Find the
value in 2018 ? (approx.)
A) $989
B) $1000
C) $1067
D) $1150
E) $1217

8. If the value of San Francisco in 2015 was $8950 and the

value of Chicago in 2016 was $9500. Find the average
value of San Francisco in 2016 and the value of Chicago
in 2017.
A) $7230
B) $7250
C) $7390
D) $7490
E) $7617.5

GT – PREP 454
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning

Work space
THE PERECENT OF GRE REVISED GENERAL TEST
EXAMINEES, A TOTAL OF $572,000, BY AGE GROUP
AND GENDER

40
35

30
25
20

15
10
5

0
Under 23 23-25 26-30 31-40
Women
Men

9. What is the sum of men under 23 and between 26-30 age

groups?
A) $228,800
B) $230,000
C) $326,040
D) $379,000
E) $400,000

10. If 10% of women and 8% of men from the age group

(23 – 25) got scholarships, what is the total number of
scholarships from that particular group?
A) $14400
B) $19600
C) $25000
D) $28600
E) $32100

GT – PREP 455
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
11. What is the ratio of female in under age of 30 to male in age
group of 23 to 25?
A) 17:5
B) 25:7
C) 7:8
D) 8:7
E) 19:5

GT – PREP 456
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
SUN SOFTWARE CEO’s EARNINGS AND ACTUAL
EXPENDITURES FOR THE FINANCIAL YEAR
2015 – 2016.
Earning $90,000 Expenditure = $56,000

D 20% A 20%
D 21%
A 28%
B 29%
C 30%
B 22% C 30%

A = Travel allowance
B = Food allowance
C = Accommodation
D = Education allowance for kids

12. In the financial year 2015 – 2016, what would be the

percentage of Sun software CEO’s savings?
A) 29
B) 32
C) 37.77
D) 40
E) 42

GT – PREP 457
GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
13. In the financial year 2015 – 2016, how much amount is
saved from accommodation?
A) $9,900
B) $10,200
C) $11,900
D) $12,400
E) $27,000

14. In the financial year 2015 – 2016, which of the following

represents food allowance from earnings, in terms of
degrees?
A) 280
B) 79.20
C) 100.80
D) 1100
E) 1200

GT – PREP 458
 GRE Quantitative Reasoning
Work space
15. In the financial year 2015 – 2016, how much money has
been allocated for kid’s education from the expenditure?
A) $9,970
B) $10,000
C) $11,500
D) $11,760
E) $12,600

GT – PREP 459