22-02-2026

9610ZMD802532250010 MD

PHYSICS

1) What is the value of α for which there are maximum 2 reflections only

(1) 35°
(2) 45°
(3) 55°
(4) 65°

2) A dentist uses a concave mirror. If he wants to see 4 times magnified & virtual image of an object
placed at 0.60 cm from mirror, then find radius of curvature of concave mirror :-

(1) 1.60 cm
(2) 0.80 cm
(3) 1.20 cm
(4) 0.60 cm

3) White light is used to illuminate the two slits in a Young's double-slit experiment. The separation
between the slits is b and the screen is at a distance d(>>b) from the slits. At a point on the screen
directly in front of one of the slits. certain wavelengths are missing. One of these missing
wavelengths is :-

(1) λ = b2 / 2d
(2) λ = 2b2 / d
(3) λ = b2 / 3d
(4) λ = 3b2 / 2d

4) The bulk modulus of a liquid is 3 × 1010 Nm–2. The pressure required to reduce the volume of
liquid by 2% is :

(1) 3 × 108 Nm–2

(2) 9 × 108 Nm–2
(3) 6 × 108 Nm–2
(4) 12 × 108 Nm–2

5) A U tube contains water and methylated spirit separated by mercury. The mercury columns in the
two arms are at the same level with 10 cm of water in one arm and 12.5 cm of spirit in the other as
shown in figure. The relative density of the spirit is:

(1) 0.6
(2) 0.8
(3) 1.0
(4) 1.25

6)

With what angular velocity the earth should spin in order that a body lying at 30° latitude may
become weightless [R is radius of earth and g is acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A satellite of mass m revolving around the earth in a circular orbit of radius r has its
angular momentum equal to L about the centre of earth. The potential energy of the satellite is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Current flows through uniform, square frames as shown. In which case is the magnetic field at the
centre of the frame not zero ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A small, flat coil of resistance r is placed at the centre of a large, closed coil of resistance R. The
coils are coplanar. Their mutual inductance is M. Initially, a constant current i was flowing in the
inner coil. If this current is suddenly switched off, what charge will circulate in the outer coil ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A closed loop lying in the xy plane carries a current. If a uniform magnetic field B is present in
the region, the force acting on the loop will be zero if B is in

(1) the x-direction

(2) the y-direction
(3) the z-direction
(4) any of the above directions

11) A wire carrying a current I is shaped as shown. Section AB is a quarter circle of radius r. The

magnetic field at C is directed

(1) along the bisector of the angle ACB, away from AB

(2) along the bisector of the angle ACB, towards AB
(3) perpendicular to the plane of the paper, directed into the paper

(4)
at an angle to the plane of the paper
12) A point P lies on the axis of a flat coil carrying a current. The magnetic moment of the coil is μ.
The distance of P from the coil is d, which is large compared to the radius of the coil. The magnetic
field at P has magnitude

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A cyclist moving on a circular track of radius 80 m has a velocity of 72 km/hr. To navigate the
turn safely, at what angle θ from the vertical must he lean?

(1) tan–1(1/4)
(2) tan–1(1)
(3) tan–1(1/2)
(4) tan–1(2)

14) A thin square plate ABCD has a moment of inertia I about an axis passing through its centre
O and perpendicular to its plane. If I1, I2 are MOIs about diagonals and I3, I4 are MOIs about axes

passing through the midpoints of opposite sides, which relation is FALSE?

(1) I = I1 + I2
(2) I = I1 + I3
(3) I = I4 + I2
(4) I = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4

15) A disc of moment of inertia I and radius r is reshaped into a ring of radius nr while keeping the
mass same. The new moment of inertia of the ring is:

(1) n2I
(2) 2n2I

(3)

(4) I

16) 4 J of work is required to stretch a spring through 10 cm beyond its unstretched length. The
extra work required to stretch it through additional 10 cm shall be
(1) 4 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 12 J
(4) 16 J

17) A block Q of mass M is placed on a horizontal frictionless surface AB and a body P of mass m is
released on its frictionless slope. As P slides by a length L on this slope of inclination θ, the block Q

would slide by a distance :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) In an A.C. circuit, a capacitor of 1μF value is connected to a source of frequency 1000 rad/sec.
The value of capacitive reactance will be –

(1) 10 Ω
(2) 100 Ω
(3) 1000 Ω
(4) 10,000 Ω

19) In a circuit an A.C. current and a D. C. current are supplied together. The expression of the
instantaneous current is given as
i = 3 + 6 sin ωt
Then the rms value of the current is –

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 3

20) If ∈0 and µ0 represent the permittivity and permeability of vaccum and ∈ and µ represent the
permittivity and permeability of medium, then refractive index of the medium is given by-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21)

An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by-

E = E0 sin(kx – ωt)
B = B0 sin (kx – ωt)

(1) E0B0 = ωk
(2) E0ω = B0k
(3) E0k = B0ω
(4) none of these

22) If a photocell is illuminated with a radiation of 1240 Å, the stopping potential is found to be 8
volt; then the work function of emitter and the threshold wavelength are :

(1) 2eV, 2000 Å

(2) 2eV, 6200 Å
(3) 2eV, 2480 Å
(4) 3eV, 6200 Å

23) The dominant mechanism for motion of charge carriers in forward and reverse biased
silicon P–N junctions are :

(1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias

(2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias
(3) Diffusion in both forward and reverse bias
(4) Drift in both forward and reverse bias

24) A Junction diode having forward resistance . Then determine current I :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

25) An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
associated with them is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Assertion: When a projectile is thrown vertically upwards with velocity u, the time for which it
remains in air is equal to 2u/g.
Reason: The time of flight of such a projectile can be found by setting θ = 90° in the expression for
time of flight.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

27) The adjoining figure shows the frictional force versus displacement for a particle in motion. The

loss of kinetic energy in travelling from s = 0 to 20 m will be

(1) 250 J
(2) 180 J
(3) 200 J
(4) 220 J

28) A piece of ice slides down a 45° incline in twice the time it take to slide down a frictionless 45°
incline. What is the coefficient of friction between the ice and incline?

(1) 0.25
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.40

29) A block of mass m slides in an inclined right angled trough as shown in the figure. If the
coefficient of kinetic friction between block and material composing the trough is µk, find the
acceleration of the block

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) Assertion :- Light year and year, both measure time.

Reason :- Light year is the time taken by the light to reach the earth from the sun.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion and reason both are false

31) A simple pendulum is made by attaching 1 kg bob to a 5 m long copper wire. Its period is T.
Now, if 1 kg bob is replaced by 10 kg bob, the period of oscillations : -

(1) remains T
(2) becomes greater than T
(3) becomes less than T
(4) any of above depends on locality

32) The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation,
x = A cos(ωt) Where x = displacement at time t
ω = frequency of oscillation
Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the variation of a with t?
Here, a = acceleration at time, T = time period

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

33) A person standing at a distance of 6m from a source of sound receives sound wave in two ways,
one directly from the source and other after reflection from a rigid boundary as shown in figure. The
maximum wavelength for which, the person will receive maximum sound intensity, is : -

(1) 4m

(2)

(3) 2cm

(4)

34) A vernier callipers has 20 divisions on the vernier scale which coincide with n divisions on main
scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm and one main scale division are of 0.5 mm. Then
value of n is : -

(1) 19
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) 14

35) The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by y = 6 sin 2π (2t – 0.1x), where x and y are in
mm and t is in seconds. The phase difference between two particles 2 mm apart at any instant is : -

(1) 18°
(2) 36°
(3) 54°
(4) 72°

36) Assertion (A): The ratio of specific heats γ = C_p/C_v for a monoatomic gas is greater than that
for a diatomic gas.
Reason (R): The molecules of a monoatomic gas have more degrees of freedom than those of a
diatomic gas.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

37) Imagine a traditional Indian 'petha' maker's stove, which has a clay pipe with a varying cross-
section to control the airflow to the fire. The wide end of the pipe is near the fire at 400°C, and the
narrow end is at 50°C. In a steady state of heat conduction, what can be said about the temperature
gradient across the pipe?

(1) Temperature difference is same across every section.

(2) The temperature gradient is higher at the wider end.
(3) The temperature gradient is higher at the narrower end.
(4) The temperature gradient is the same throughout the pipe.

38) P–V graph for an ideal gas undergoing polytropic process PVN = constant is shown. Then N is:

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 1.5
(4) None of these

39) An electric field exists in space. A cube of side 2m is placed in the space as per
figure given below. The electric flux through the cube is ……………… Nm2/C.

(1) 30
(2) 16
(3) 14
(4) 12
40) At the centre of a half ring of radius R = 10 cm and linear charge density 4n C m–1, the potential
is x π V. The value of x is ________.

(1) 23
(2) 36
(3) 63
(4) 32

41) Let σ be the uniform surface charge density of two infinite thin plane sheets shown in figure.

Then the electric fields in three different region EI, EII and EIII are: -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The deflection in moving coil galvanometer falls from 25 divisions to 5 division when a shunt of
24Ω is applied. The resistance of galvanometer coil will be : -

(1) 12Ω
(2) 96Ω
(3) 48Ω
(4) 100Ω

43) A 16Ω wire is bend to form a square loop. A 9V battery with internal resistance 1Ω is connected
across one of its sides. If a 4μF capacitor is connected across one of its diagonals, the energy stored

by the capacitor will be μJ. where x = _________.

(1) 81
(2) 75
(3) 48
(4) 100
44) A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 40cm2 and plates separation 2 mm. The space between
the plates is filled with a dielectric medium of a thickness 1 mm and dielectric constant 5. The
capacitance of the system is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A capacitor of capacitance 900 µF is charged by a 100 V battery. The capacitor is disconnected
from the battery and connected to another uncharged identical capacitor such that one plate of
uncharged capacitor connected to positive plate and another plate of uncharged capacitor connected
to negative plate of the charged capacitor. The loss of energy in this process is measured as x × 10-2
J. The value of x is _____.

(1) 225
(2) 522
(3) 252
(4) 255

CHEMISTRY

1) A compound is found to contain 24g C, 4gH and 32 g O. Its empirical formula is:

(1) C2H4O2
(2) CH2O2
(3) C2H8O2
(4) CH2O

2) If 0.4 gm NaOH is present in 1 litre solution, then its pH will be :-

(1) 2
(2) 10
(3) 11
(4) 12

3) pH of 10–2 M NH4Cl solution is : (pKb = 4.74)

(1) 6.63
(2) 4.23
(3) 5.21
(4) 5.63

4) In isolated system :-
(1) Energy transfer does not take place
(2) Mass transfer does not take place
(3) Both energy & mass transfer take place
(4) Neither energy nor mass transfer take place

5) In a gaseous reaction A(g) → P(g) , if rate law is r = k(PA)3/2 where unit of pressure is atm., then
unit of rate and k is, respectively :-

(1) atm. × s–1, atm. × s–1

(2) atm. × s–1, atm.1/2 × s–1
(3) atm. × s–1, atm.–1/2 × s–1
(4) atm. × s–1, atm.–1 × s–1

6) What weight of non volatile solute (M.W. = 60) should be dissolved in 180 g water to reduce the

vapour pressure to of pure water :-

(1) 120 g
(2) 175 g
(3) 150 g
(4) 100 g

7) The highest electrical conductivity from the following aqueous solutions will be of :

(1) 0.1 M acetic acid

(2) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid
(3) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid
(4) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid

8) Which of the following is different from other three oxides :-

(1) MgO
(2) SnO
(3) PbO
(4) ZnO

9) Which is correct IP order :-

(1) F > Cl > Cl– > F¯

(2) F > Cl¯ > Cl > F¯
(3) F < Cl < Cl¯ < F¯
(4) F > F¯ > Cl > Cl¯

10) The bond order of given species are such that:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) The ion with maximum number of lone pairs on the central atom is-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN gives :-

(1) Cu(CN)2
(2) CuCN
(3) K3[Cu(CN)4]
(4) K2[Cu(CN)4]

13) Which of the following complex is an outer orbital complex ?

2+
(1) [Ni(NH3)6]
4–
(2) [Mn(CN)6]
3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6]
4–
(4) [Fe(CN)6]

14) Incorrect about B2H6 is :-

(1) It is Lewis acid

(2) Non planar
(3) It has two 2c–2e¯ bond
(4) Four hydrogen present in same plane

15) Species which do not exist -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) SbCl3 and BiCl3 on hydrolysis give :-

(1) Sb3+, Bi3+

(2) Sb(OH)3, Bi(OH)3
(3) SbOCl, BiOCl
(4) None

17) On heating NaNO3, gas released is :-

(1) O2
(2) NO2
(3) O2 + NO2
(4) Na2O

18) Dipole moment of H2S is smaller than -

(1) CO2
(2) XeF2
(3) SiF4
(4) H2O

19) Which of the following is not able to show +5 oxidation state ?

(1) Fe
(2) V
(3) Mn
(4) 1 & 2 both

20) Product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

21) CH3NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH → (x) + KCl + H2O, x is :-

(1) CH3–C≡N
(2) CH3–NH–CH3

(3)

(4)

22) Give the final Product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Which among the following compound has only one monochloro derivative ?

(1) n-butane
(2) Isobutane
(3) Neohexane
(4) Neopentane

24) Which of the following is false for the given molecules:-

(1) Equimolecular mixture of I and II does not show optical activity

(2) II and III have same physical and chemical properties
(3) II & III are identical
(4) I & II can not be separated by fractional distillation method from their mixture

25) Match the columns :-

List – I (common name) List – II (IUPAC Name)

(a) Mesityl oxide (i) Propane-1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid
(b) Phthaldehyde (ii) Pro-2-enal
(c) Carballylic acid (iii) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one
(d) Acrolein (iv) Benzene-1,2-dicarbaldehyde
(1) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
(2) a–i, b–iv, c–iii, d–ii
(3) a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii
(4) a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv

26) Select the acid with highest Ka .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) In Which of following Enolisation is maximum ?

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3–CHO

(4)
28) Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?

(1) Glycol with KOH

(2) Zn-Hg with HCl
(3) LiAlH4
(4) H2 and Pt as catalyst

29) If the radius of first Bohr's orbit is 'a' (for H-atom), what is the radius of first Bohr's orbit for
Li+2 ion?

(1) 3a
(2) 27a
(3) a × (27)–1
(4) a × (3)–1

30) The equilibrium constant for the reaction w + x ⇌ y + z is 9. If one mole of each of w and x are
mixed and there is no change in volume the number of moles of y formed is:

(1) 0.10
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.54

31) A hypothetical reaction, A → 2B, proceed through following sequence of steps: A → C; ΔH = q1 C

→ D; ΔH = q2 D → B; ΔH = q3 The heat of reaction for A → 2B is:

(1) q1 – q2 + 2q3
(2) q1 + q2 – 2q3
(3) q1 + q2 + 2q3
(4) q1 – 2q2 + 2q3

32) Oxidation state(s) of chlorine in CaOCl2 (bleaching powder) is/are :

(1) +1 and –1
(2) +1 only
(3) –1 only
(4) None of these

33) For an electrochemical cell

Sn(s) | (aq,1M) || (aq,1M)|Pb(s) the ratio when this cell attains equilibrium is ____.

(Given = – 0.14 V, = –0.13 V, = 0.06)

(1) 2.15
(2) 3.16
(3) 1.14
(4) 2.82

34) Which of the following is incorrect order of radius?

(1) Ti < Zr ≃ Hf
(2) Fe ≃ Co ≃ Ni
(3)

(4) Br¯ > S–2 > Cl¯ > N–3

35) Select the correct order of 2nd I.P. of C, N, O, F :-

(1) C > N > O > F

(2) F > O > N > C
(3) O > F > N > C
(4) C > O > N > F

36) Determine the correct order of bond angle?

(1) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3

(2) NF3 = CCl4 =
(3) NH3 < PH3 < H2O < CH4
(4) = =

37) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List-1 List-2
Complex Ions Magnetic moment μm Bohr Magnetons
–4
(a) [Fe(CN)6] (1) 1.73
3+
(b) [Ti(H2O6)] (2) 5.93
3+
(c) [Cr(H2O)6] (3) 0.00
2+
(d) Ni(H2O)6] (4) 2.83
–3
(e) [FeF6] (5) 3.88
(1) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3, e-5
(2) a-3, b-1, c-5, d-4, e-2
(3) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-5, e-1
(4) a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2, e-3

38) CFSE for high spin d2 octahedral complex is :-

(1) –0.6Δ0
(2) –0.8Δ0
(3) 0
(4) –1.2Δ0

39) CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by :

(1) Benedict test

(2) Iodoform test
(3) Tollen's reagent test
(4) Fehling solution test

40) A B C
Identify product C.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Which of the following molecules have only sp2 Hybridised carbon atoms ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Which compound is aromatic ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Which of the following has maximum heat of hydrogenation ?

(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
(2) CH3–CH=CH2

(3)

(4) CH2 = CH2

44) Assertion (A) : When a ideal gas is allowed to expand adiabatically through a fine hole from a
region of high pressure to a region of low pressure, the temperature of the gas falls.
Reason (R) : Work is done at the cost of internal energy of the gas.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

45) Match the following and select the correct answer :

Column-I Column-II

A Glucose solution I. Gas dissolved in solid

B Air II. Solid dissolved in solid

C Brass III. Gas dissolved in gas

D H2/Pd IV. Solid dissolved in liquid

(1) (A–IV), (B–III), (C–II), (D–I)
(2) (A–I), (B–II), (C–III), (D–IV)
(3) (A–II), (B–III), (C–I), (D–IV)
(4) (A–III), (B–IV), (C–II), (D–I)

BIOLOGY

1) Lamarck's theory was disproved mainly because:

(1) Acquired traits are not inherited
(2) Mutations are random
(3) Fossils show gradual changes
(4) Populations evolve

2) Molecular evidence for evolution includes similarities in:

(1) DNA sequences

(2) Bone structures
(3) Embryos
(4) Behaviors

3) Assertion (A): Human evolution involved increase in brain size.

Reason (R): Modern man have prognathous condition.

(1) Both A and R true, R explains A

(2) Both true, R does not explain A
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

4) For cloning of foreign DNA it is attached with ori gene of vector which controls

(1) Replication
(2) Copy number of replicating DNA
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

5) If alien DNA is introduced using SalI in pBR322 then transformant will grow on :

(1) Ampicillin
(2) Tetracycline
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

6) Select the incorrect matching :

(1) pBR322 E. coli cloning vector

(2) EcoRI, Cla I, Hind III Restriction enzyme

(3) rop Protein involved in the replication of the plasmid

Technique in which multiple copies of the gene (or DNA)

(4) PCR
of interest is synthesized in vitro
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Select the correct matching.

(1) Lepidopterans → Tobacco bud worm, armyworm

(2) Coleopterans → Beetles and bud worm
(3) Dipterans → Flies, mosquitoes, spiders
(4) Aves → Lady bird, hummingbird

8) Bt-toxin is obtained from :

(1) Bacilli
(2) Cocci
(3) Vibrio
(4) Spirillum

9) RNAi process takes place in :

(1) Prokaryotes
(2) Unicellular eukaryotes only
(3) Multicellular eukaryote only
(4) All eukaryotes

10) Assertion : Nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine and opium are produced by plants actually as
defences against grazers and browsers.
Reason : Thorns of Acacia and cactus are most common physiological means of defence.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False

11) What is/are correct about parasite.

(a) Parasite can be host specific
(b) Biotic potential of parasite is high
(c) Parasite does not directly kill their host
(d) Parasite and host tend to co-evolve

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) None

12) Read the column I & II carefully and choose the correct answer :-

A. The term ecology was used by i. A.G. Tansley

 B. Father of ecology ii. [Link]

C. Father of Indian ecology iii. Reiter

D. Coined the term ecosystem iv. Prof. R.D. Mishra

(1) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv
(2) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i
(3) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii
(4) A–i, B–ii, C–iv, D–iii

13)

Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other a labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A sparrow is a primary consumer when it eats seeds, fruits, peas, and a secondary
consumer when it eats insects and worms.
Reason (R): A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the
same time.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

14) How many statement is/are correct about food chain:

(a) GFC is the major conduit of energy flow in aquatic ecosystem
(b) Source of energy in detritus food chain is not directly sun
(c) Detritus food chain may be connected to grazing food chain somewhere
(d) In grazing food chain size of organisms commonly decreases at higher level

(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

15) Given below is a food chain of terrestrial ecosystem.

Grass →Grass hopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
If the solar energy is 10,00,000 J , what will be the amount of energy obtained by Frog and hawk
respectively?

(1) 100 J, 1J
(2) 1000 J, 10 J
(3) 1000 J, 100 J
(4) 10000 J, 100 J

16) Nile perch invasion resulted in extinction of :

(1) Stellers sea cow
(2) Dodo
(3) Passengers pigeon
(4) Cichlid fish

17) Which of the following statements is not true w.r.t. hotspots.

(1) Number of endemic species is very high at hot spots.

(2) Hot spots have very high level of species richness.
(3) Hot spots are least threatened reservoir of plant and animal life on earth.
(4) 34 hot spots are identified globally.

18) The root region is arranged proximal to distal part from the root apex in the following manner :

(1) Zone of cell elongation ‒ Zone of cell maturation ‒ Zone of cell division
(2) Zone of cell division ‒ Zone of cell elongation ‒ Zone of cell maturation
(3) Zone of cell elongation ‒ Zone of cell division ‒ Zone of cell maturation
(4) Zone of cell maturation ‒ Zone of cell division ‒ Zone of cell elongation

19) Which stem act as an organ of perennation?

(1) Potato
(2) Ginger
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Both (1) & (2)

20) Which is the edible part in mango?

(1) Thin epicarp

(2) Fleshy mesocarp
(3) Stony hard endocarp
(4) All of these

21) Select the incorrect statement among the following:

(1) Ring arrangement of vascular bundle is a characteristic of dicot stem.

(2) Phloem parenchyma is absent in monocot stem
(3) Monocots have sclerenchymatous hypodermis.
In monocot, peripheral, vascular bundle, which are generally large and centrally located are
(4)
small and water containing cavities are present within the vascular bundle

22) In the diagram of T.S. of Stele of Dicot Root, the different parts have been indicated by
alphabets.
Choose the answer in which these alphabets correctly match with the parts they indicate.
(1) A = Endodermis, B = Conjunctive tissue, C = Metaxylem, D = Protoxylem, E = Phloem, F = Pith
A = Endodermis, B = Pith, C = Protoxylem, D = Metaxylem, E = Protoxylem, F = Conjuctive
(2)
tissue
(3) A = Pericycle, B = Conjuctive tissue, C = Metaxylem, D = Protoxylem, F = Endodermis
(4) A = Endodermis, B = Conjuctive tissue, C = Protoxylem, D = Metaxylem, E = Phloem, F = Pith

23) Which light is absorbed more by Chlorophyll ‘a’?

(1) Yellow and green

(2) Red and blue
(3) Yellow and orange
(4) Yellow and red

24) In C4 plants, Calvin cycle occurs in

(1) Stroma of bundle sheath chloroplast

(2) Mesophyll chloroplast
(3) Grana of bundle sheath chloroplast.
(4) Does not occur as CO2 is fixed mainly by PEP and no CO2 is left for the Calvin cycle.

25) Assertion: Oxidative phosphorylation requires oxygen.

Reason: Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in chloroplast

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

26) 1 molecule of glucose on glycolysis produces

(1) 2 molecule of pyruvic acid

(2) 1 molecule of pyruvic acid
(3) 2 molecule of CO2
(4) 2 molecule of O2
27) Identify A to E in the given figure.

A = Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid, B = Lactic acid,

(1) C = 3-Phosphoglyceric acid, D = Ethanol + CO2,
E = Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate
A = Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate, B = 3-Phosphoglyceric acid,
(2)
C = Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid, D = Ethanol, E = Lactic acid
A = Lactic acid, B = Ethanol + CO2,
(3) C = Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate,
D = Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid, E = 3-Phosphoglyceric acid
A = 3-Phosphoglyceric acid, B = Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid,
(4) C = Lactic acid, D = Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate,
E = Ethanol + CO2

28) The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is

(1) NADH
(2) Oxygen
(3) ADP
(4) ATP + H2O

29) Development consists of

(1) Growth
(2) Differentiation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

30) Identify A, B, C and D in the given figure.

(1) A–Cell division, B–Senescence, C–Plasmatic growth
(2) A–Meristematic cell, B–Plasmatic growth, C–Maturation
(3) A–Mature cell, B–Maturation, C–Senescence
(4) A–Maturation, B–Cell division, C–Meristematic cell

31) Identify A and B and their respective functions:

Function
A B
A B

Inner cell Attach to the Differentiated

(1) Trophoblast
mass Endometrium as embryo

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(2) Trophoblast
mass as embryo Endometrium

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(3) Mesoderm
mass as embryo Endometrium

Attach to the Differentiated

(4) Ectoderm Mesoderm
myometrium as embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Liberation of sperms from sertoli cells is called :-

(1) Semination
(2) Spermiation
(3) Ejaculation
(4) Insemination
33) Which type of cells have the potency to give rise to all the tissue and organs in embryo ?

(1) Trophoblast
(2) Stem cells
(3) Ectoderm
(4) Amniogenic cells

34) Which of the following hormone responsible for milk formation in Human female ?

(1) Prolactin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Estrogen
(4) Progesterone

35) Multiload -375 is a :-

(1) Hormone releasing I.U.D.

(2) Copper releasing I.U.D
(3) Non-medicated I.U.D
(4) Emergency Contraceptive pill

36) In ART, the embryo more than 8 blastomeres stage is transferred to uterus, this is called :-

(1) ICSI
(2) G.I.F.T
(3) A.I
(4) I.U.T.

37)

Which of the following statement is false for the structure given below ?

(1) Represented by H2L2

(2) These are found in blood or humor so response is termed as humoral immune response
(3) These are secreted by T-cells
(4) They have four peptide chains
38) Virus infected cells secrete antiviral glycoprotein. They belong to which category of barriers of
innate immunity?

(1) Physical barrier

(2) Physiological barrier
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Cytokine barrier

39) What is true for allergy except

(1) The exaggerated response of the immune system

(2) Allergy is due to release of histamine and serotonin
(3) Antibodies produced to these are of IgE type
(4) Neutrophil releases histamine and serotonin

40)

Immunisation, colostrum, antibodies from mother through placenta, BCG, ATS, natural infection.

How many of the above are example of passive immunity ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

41) Match the column I with column II.

Column II
Column I
(Number in
(Bone)
Adult Human)

A. Vertebrae 1. 16

B. Ribs 2. 56

C. Carpals 3. 24

D. Phalanges 4. 26
(1) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(2) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(3) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(4) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

42) A. Myosin heads form cross-bridges with actin.

B. ATP is required for cross-bridge detachment.
C. Length of actin filament decreases during contraction.
D. Z-lines move closer during contraction.
Choose correct statements:

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) All are correct

43) Assertion (A): Gout causes severe joint pain.

Reason (R): It is due to deposition of uric acid crystals in joints.

(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

44) 1. Tidal volume is about 500 mL in a normal adult.

2. Inspiration occurs due to contraction of diaphragm.
3. Normal expiration is an active process.
4. Bronchitis is inflammation of bronchi.
5. Emphysema destroys alveolar walls.
6. During inspiration, intrapulmonary pressure decreases.
Choose correct statements:

(1) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
(2) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(3) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
(4) All are correct

45) Statement A: Most oxygen is transported bound to haemoglobin.

Statement B: Most carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate ions.

(1) Both A and B are correct

(2) A correct, B incorrect
(3) A incorrect, B correct
(4) Both are incorrect

46) 1. Cardiac cycle consists of systole and diastole.

2. Double circulation includes pulmonary and systemic circulation.
3. Heartbeat is regulated by SA node.
4. Cardiac arrest refers to stoppage of breathing only.
Choose correct statements :

(1) 1, 2 and 3
(2) 2, 3 and 4
(3) 1 and 4 only
(4) All correct

47) Match the columns -

Column I Column II
A Albumin 1 Oxygen transport

B Prothrombin 2 Clotting factor

C RBC 3 Osmotic pressure maintenance

D Neutrophils 4 Phagocytosis

E Platelets 5 Blood clot formation

(1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, E-5
(2) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-5, E-4
(3) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2, E-4
(4) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1, E-5

48) Match the columns -

Column I Column II

A Cerebrum 1 Balance

B Cerebellum 2 Intelligence & memory

C Medulla 3 Controls heartbeat

D Hypothalamus 4 Homeostasis
(1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(2) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(3) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(4) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

49) Assertion (A): Synaptic transmission is unidirectional.

Reason (R): Neurotransmitters are released only from presynaptic terminal.

(1) Both A and R are true and R explains A

(2) Both true but R not explanation
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

50) Match the columns -

Column I Column II

A Testes 1 Oestrogen

B Thymus 2 Testosterone

C Ovary 3 Thymosin

D Kidney 4 Erythropoietin
(1) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(2) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(3) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

51) Peptide hormones act by:

(1) Entering nucleus directly

(2) Binding intracellular receptors
(3) Binding membrane receptors and activating second messengers
(4) Binding DNA directly

52) Which statement correctly differentiates them?

(1) Cretinism is due to excess growth hormone

(2) Dwarfism is due to thyroid hormone deficiency in childhood
(3) Cretinism involves mental retardation due to thyroid deficiency
(4) Both are caused by insulin deficiency

53) Assertion (A): Birds have pneumatic bones.

Reason (R): Pneumatic bones reduce body weight and aid in flight.

(1) Both A & R are true and R explains A.

(2) Both A & R are true but R does not explain A.
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

54) Select correct statements for Chordata:

A. Notochord replaced by vertebral column in adults
B. Ventral hollow nerve cord
C. Pharyngeal gill slits present at some stage
D. Post-anal tail present
Correct answer:

(1) A, C & D
(2) A & B only
(3) B & C only
(4) All of these

55) Correctly matched animal and excretory organ:

(1) Earthworm – Flame cells

(2) Ascaris – Renette cells
(3) Cockroach – Nephridia
(4) Frog – Malpighian tubules

56) Match tissue with function:

Tissue Function
 A. Tendon 1. Bone to bone

B. Ligament 2. Muscle to bone

C. Cartilage 3. Flexibility
Correct option:
(1) A–2, B–1, C–3
(2) A–1, B–2, C–3
(3) A–3, B–1, C–2
(4) A–2, B–3, C–1

57) Which connective tissue has chondrocytes in lacunae?

(1) Bone
(2) Cartilage
(3) Blood
(4) Areolar

58) Functional unit of frog kidney is:

(1) Nephridium
(2) Nephron
(3) Malpighian tubule
(4) Renette cell

59) Cockroach blood is called:

(1) Plasma
(2) Lymph
(3) Haemolymph
(4) Serum

60) Protonephridia (flame cells) are primarily concerned with:

(1) Elimination of urea only

(2) Osmoregulation rather than nitrogen excretion
(3) Filtration of blood plasma
(4) Active secretion of ammonia

61) Which pair is incorrectly matched?

(1) Earthworm – Nephridia

(2) Cockroach – Malpighian tubules
(3) Prawn – Green glands
(4) Planaria – Malpighian tubules

62) What is the role of yeast in the preparation of dough for bread?
(1) Production of CO2 causing dough to rise
(2) Conversion of sugar to lactic acid
(3) Formation of antibiotics
(4) Nitrogen fixation

63) On what basis are plant families mainly characterised?

(1) Habitat and distribution

(2) Vegetative and reproductive features
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Size of the plant

64) Archaebacteria are unique because they:

(1) Are photosynthetic

(2) Live in extreme environments
(3) Lack a nucleus
(4) Produce diatoms

65) Which of the following is true regarding Kingdom Protista?

(1) All protists are unicellular autotrophs

(2) Protists include Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates, Slime molds, and Protozoans
(3) Protists lack a nucleus
(4) Protists are exclusively terrestrial

66) Assertion (A): Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen and lack a cell wall.
Reason (R): Many mycoplasma are pathogenic in plants and animals.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

67) Primary producers in aquatic ecosystems are mainly

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Algae
(3) Fungi
(4) Angiosperms

68) The red colour of Rhodophyceae is due to -

(1) Chlorophyll b
(2) Phycocyanin
(3) Phycoerythrin
(4) Fucoxanthin

69) Assertion (A): Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Reason (R): Bryophytes live on land but require water for sexual reproduction.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

70) Which of the following biomolecules acts as biocatalysts and accelerates metabolic reactions?

(1) Hormones
(2) Enzymes
(3) Nucleotides
(4) Vitamins

71) Match the biomolecule with its major function:

Column I Column II
(Molecule) (Function)
A. Enzyme 1. Catalyzes biochemical reactions
B. DNA 2. Stores genetic information
C. Phospholipid 3. Structural component of cell membranes
D. Glycogen 4. Energy storage in animals
E. Antibody 5. Immune defense
(1) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, E–5
(2) A–2, B–1, C–4, D–5, E–3
(3) A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4, E–5
(4) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–5, E–4

72) Which of the following statements about proteins is incorrect ?

(1) All enzymes are proteins.

(2) Proteins are polymers of amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
(3) Primary structure of a protein refers to its linear amino acid sequence.
(4) Every protein exhibits quaternary structure.

73) Which of the following statements about the cell membrane is true?

(1) It allows all substances to pass freely in and out of the cell.
(2) It is composed of a single layer of phospholipids.
(3) It regulates the movement of substances in and out of the cell.
(4) It is found only in plant cells.

74) Statement 1: Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain ribosomes.

Statement 2: Prokaryotic cells have no membrane-bound organelles, including ribosomes.

(1) Statement 1 is true, and Statement 2 is false

(2) Statement 1 is false, and Statement 2 is true
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true
(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false

75) The ______ is the membranous structure in eukaryotic cells that is involved in the synthesis and
transport of lipids and detoxification of certain chemicals.

(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Mitochondrion
(3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Golgi apparatus

76) Assertion (A): The mitochondrion is known as the powerhouse of the cell because it generates
energy in the form of ATP.
Reason (R): Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in mitochondria.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but the Reason is true.

77) Fill in the blanks in the following statement:

During mitosis, the chromosomes condense and the nuclear membrane dissolves in the __________
phase. In the __________ phase, chromosomes align at the cell's equator, and during __________, sister
chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell.

(1) Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase

(2) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase
(3) Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase
(4) Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase

78) Match the following events of Meiosis I and Meiosis II with their correct descriptions:

Column A(Event) Column B (Description)

A. Prophase I i. Chromosomes recombine, and the nuclear envelope dissolves.

B. Anaphase I ii. Sister chromatids are separated to opposite poles.

C. Telophase I iii. Cytokinesis occurs, resulting in two daughter cells.

D. Anaphase II iv. Homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles.

E. Telophase II v. Four non-identical haploid cells are formed.

(1) A-i, B-iv, C-v, D-ii, E-iii
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii, E-v
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-v
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-vi, D-v, E-ii

79) Which of the following is true about the S phase of the cell cycle?

(1) The cell is preparing for cytokinesis.

(2) The DNA content is halved, and the cell prepares for division.
(3) DNA replication occurs, resulting in the chromosome duplication.
(4) The cell undergoes significant growth, and organelles are duplicated.

80) Which of the following statements about Meiosis II is false?

(1) It is similar to mitosis, but it involves haploid cells.

(2) Sister chromatids are separated during anaphase II.
(3) It results in four non-identical haploid cells.
(4) The chromosome number is halved during Meiosis II.

81) Assertion (A): Tapetum is essential for pollen grain development.

Reason (R): Tapetum provides nourishment to developing microspores.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

82) Which are correct about post-fertilization changes?

1. Ovule → Seed
2. Ovary → Fruit
3. Integuments → Seed coat
4. Anther → Endosperm

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 1, 3
(3) 2, 4
(4) 1, 4

83) Match Column I with Column II:

Column I Column II

A. Protandry 1. Anther matures first

B. Protogyny 2. Stigma matures first

C. Cleistogamy 3. Flower never bloom

No synchrony in Androecium
D. Dichogamy 4.
& Gynoecium development
(1) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-2
(4) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

84) Assertion (A): Linked genes do not assort independently.

Reason (R): Linked genes are located on the same chromosome and tend to be inherited together.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

85) Two genes show 20% recombination frequency. This indicates that:

(1) They are on different chromosomes

(2) They are 20 map units apart
(3) They show complete linkage
(4) They assort independently

86) Find the incorrect statement regarding autosomal recessive inheritance:

(1) Affected individuals may have unaffected parents

(2) Trait always appears in every generation (cannot skip)
(3) Males and females are equally affected
(4) Disease occurs in homozygous recessive individuals

87) Match the following:

Column I Column II
A. Initiator tRNA 1. Enzyme for peptide bond formation
B. Peptidyl transferase 2. Carries methionine
C. A site 3. Incoming aminoacyl tRNA
D. P site 4. Growing polypeptide chain
(1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(2) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(3) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
(4) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

88) Statement I: In the presence of lactose, repressor binds to operator.

Statement II: Lactose acts as an inducer by inactivating the repressor.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

89) Which of the following are correct regarding the Human Genome Project?
I. It identified approximately 20,000–25,000 genes.
II. Less than 2% of genome codes for proteins.
III. Chromosome 1 has the maximum number of genes.
IV. Repetitive sequences form a major portion of the genome.

(1) I and II only

(2) I, II and III only
(3) I, II, III and IV
(4) II and IV only

90) Assertion (A): Sickle-cell anaemia is caused by a point mutation.

Reason (R): It involves substitution of GAG to GTG in coding strand of DNA.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 4 3 1 3 4 2 3 4 3 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 2 1 1 1 3 1 4 1 3 1 2 4 2 3 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 1 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 4 4 3 3 4 1 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 1 4 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 4 3 1 2 1 2 4 3 3 1 1 3 3 4 2 2 2 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 4 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 1 4 3 3 2 4 3 1 4 3 2 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 2 1 3 1 2 4 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 4 3 4 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 3 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 2 1 4 3 1 3 1 2 3 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 4 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining : Find the value of angle α incident ray from mirror as given condn.
Concept : This question is based on for reflection .

Solution : 120 – α < 60

60° < α
Final Answer : (4)

2)

Explaining : To find radius of curvature in the given question.

Concept : This question is based on magnification (transverse) = mt = & radius of

curvature R = 2f.

Solution : m =
⇒ f = 4f – 4u
⇒ 3f = 4u

f= = (– 0.60) cm
f = – 0.8 cm
Radius of curvature R = |2f| = 1.60 cm
Final Answer : (1)

3) Explaining : To find specific wavelength value as given condn.

Concept : This question is based on position of minima .

Solution :
Position of minima are

Missing wavelength are

Here x=b/2, So,

For m = 0, ; For m = 1,
Hence, the correct choice is (c)
Final Answer : (3)

4) Explain Question : The bulk modulus of a liquid is 3 × 1010 Nm–2. The pressure required to
reduce the volume of liquid by 2% is
Concept : Bulk Modulus
Solution :
B = 3 × 1010

Final Answer : Option (3)

5)

As the mercury columns in the two arms of U tube are at the same level, therefore

Pressure due to water = Pressure due to spirit column

ρwhwg= ρshsg

6)

Question Explanation : Find the angular velocity of Earth so that a body at 30° latitude
becomes weightless.
Concept: Effective weight = 0
Solution:
At latitude λ, effective outward acceleration acting radially is:
Centrifugal acceleration = ω² R cos λ
Radial (vertical) component = ω² R cos² λ
For weightlessness,
g = ω² R cos² λ
So,
ω=
For λ = 30°
cos 30° =
cos² 30° = 3 / 4
Therefore,
ω=
ω=
Final Answer: Option (4)

7) Explain Question : Find potential energy of the satellite is

Concept : Gravitational potential energy
Solution :

.....(i)
L = mvr ....(ii)

....(iii)

Final Answer : Option (4)

8) Explaining : To pick the option in which the magnetic field is non zero at centre.
Concept : Magnetic field
Solution :
In all the four arrangements, the field at the centre due only to the currents flowing in the
square frames is zero. The field here due to the currents flowing in and out of the frames is
nonzero only in (3)
Final Answer : (3)

9) Explaining : To find the charge circulating in coil

Concept : Induced parameters
Solution :
Initial flux linked with outer coil = ϕ = Mi.
When current is switched off, Δϕ = Mi.

Q= =
Final Answer : (3)

10) Explaining : To find force acting on loop

Concept : Magnetic force
Solution :
A closed, current - carrying loop of any shape placed in any uniform magnetic field,
experiences no force.
Final Answer : (4)
11) Explaining : To find direction of magnetic field at centre.
Concept : Direction of magnetic field.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

12) Explaining : To find magnetic field at point.

Concept : Magnetic field due to circular coil.
Solution :

The magnetic field at P due to the flat coil of n turns, radius r, carrying current i is

B= . ≅ . (d > > r)

= . = .
Final Answer : (1)

13) Question Explanation: Finding the angle of banking/leaning for a cyclist on a curved
path.
Concept Involved: Balancing the horizontal component of normal reaction with centripetal
force.
Solution:

Final Answer: (3)

14) Question Explanation: Testing the application of the Perpendicular Axis Theorem on a
symmetric square plate.
Concept Involved: Perpendicular Axis Theorem (Iz = Ix + Iy)
Solution: For a square, I1 = I2 and I3 = I4. By theorem, I = I1 + I2 and I = I3 + I4. Therefore, I =
I1 + I3 is also true. Adding all four results in 2I, making option 4 false.
Final Answer: (4)

15) Question Explanation: Calculating the change in MOI when a mass is redistributed from
a disc shape to a ring shape.

Concept Involved: Formulas for MOI ( and ).

Solution:

Substituting , we get .
Final Answer: (2)

16) Question Explanation: Find work for further spring stretching given initial work.

Concept: Work done in stretching a spring W = kx2.

Solution: Work done in stretching a spring: W = kx2

where k is the spring constant and x is the extension in the spring

∴ W1 = ....(i)

and W2 = ....(ii)
Divide (ii) by (i), we get

=4
W2 = 4W1
Extra work done = W2 – W1 = 4W1 – W1
= 3 W1 = 3 × 4 J = 12 J
( W1 = 4J (Given))
Final Answer : option (3)

17)

Explain Question : As shown in figure, find distance move by the block Q when block P Slide
from point A to B.

Concept : This question is based conservation of momentum.

Solution :
Here, the centre of mass of the system does not move in horizontal direction when the mass m
moved a distance L cos θ, let the mass (m + M) moves a distance x in the backward direction.

M (–x) + m(L cosθ – x) = 0

Final Answer : option (4)

18) Explain Question : In an A.C. circuit, a capacitor of 1μF value is connected to a source of
frequency 1000 rad/sec. The value of capacitive reactance will be –
Concept : AC circuit

Solution :
Final Answer : (3)

19) Explain Question : In a circuit an A.C. current and a D. C. current are supplied together.
The expression of the instantaneous current is given as
Concept :rms current
Solution : i2 = 9 + 36sin2ωt + 2 × 18sinωt

<i2> = 9 + +0
<i2> = 27
irms =
Final Answer : (4)

20) Explain Question : If ∈0 and µ0 represent the permittivity and permeability of vaccum and
∈ and µ represent the permittivity and permeability of medium, then refractive index of the
medium is given by-
Concept :EMW

Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

21) Explain Question : An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by

Concept :EMW

Solution :
 E0k = ωB0
Final Answer : (3)

22) Explaining : Find the work function and threshold wavelength given the incident
wavelength and stopping potential.
Concept : This question is based on Einstein’s Photoelectric Equation.
Solution :
ϕ = hν – KE

Final Answer : (2)

23) Explaining : Identify the dominant charge carrier motion mechanism in p-n junctions.
Concept : This question is based on Drift and Diffusion in p-n junctions.
Solution :
In F.B., majority carriers participate & this process is called diffusion. In R.B. minority carrier
particles which is called drift mechanism.
Final Answer : (2)

24) Explain Question: A part of a circuit is shown below, find value of current I -

Concept:
p-n junction diode and circuit based questions

Solution:
Equivalent circuit-

On applying kirchhoff's voltage law (KVL)

Final Answer: Option (2)

25) Explaining : Calculate the ratio of de Broglie wavelengths for an electron and a photon of
same energy.
Concept : This question is based on Wave-particle duality of matter and radiation.
Solution :

For electron

For photon E = pc ⇒ λPh = Final Answer : (1)

26) Explaining : The Assertion is true because for a vertical throw, the launch angle θ = 90°.
Substituting this into the general time of flight formula T = (2u sin θ) / g yields T = 2u / g.
The Reason is the correct explanation as it describes this substitution method.
Concept : This question is based on This question is based on Ground to Ground Projectile
Motion.
Solution :
Both are true.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
Final Answer : (1)

27) Explaining : : According to the Work-Energy Theorem, the work done by all forces equals
the change in kinetic energy. The work done by friction is the area under the Force-
Displacement (F-s) graph.
* Area (0 to 20m) = ½ × (Sum of parallel sides) × height.
* Work = ½ × (20 + 10) × 10 + ½ × 10 × 10 (breaking into a trapezoid and triangle, or
calculating total area).
* The total area calculation yields 250 J, which represents the loss in kinetic energy.
Concept : This question is based on Work-Energy Theorem [Based On Calculus And
Vectors].
Solution :
Work done = area under the F-x graph = 250 J.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
Final Answer : (1)

28) Explaining :
1. For a smooth plane, acceleration a₂ = g sin θ.
2. For a rough plane, acceleration a₁ = g(sin θ – μ cos θ).
3. Using s = ½at², if displacement s is constant and u = 0, then at² is constant.
4. Given t₁ = 2t₂, then a₁ / a₂ = (t₂ / t₁)² = (1 / 2)² = 1 / 4.
5. g(sin 45° – μ cos 45°) / (g sin 45°) = 1 / 4.
6. 1 – μ = 1 / 4, which leads to μ = 0.75.
Concept : This question is based on Motion On Rough Incline Plane And Angle Of
Repose.
Solution :
In both the case, the initial speed u and the distance s travelled is
According to formula:
at2 is constant (as u = 0 in both the cases).
Let a1 be the acceleration of the ice block on rough incline and t1 be the time taken to slide
down this rough plane.
Similarly, let a2 and t2 be the similar quantities in case of frictionless inclined plane.
Given that t1 = 2t2

Further, ( at2 = constant)

⇒ ...(1)
But a1 = g(sinθ – µ cosθ) ...(2)
and a2 = g sinθ ...(3)

∴
⇒ 4sinθ – 4µ cosθ = sinθ
⇒ 3sinθ = 4µ cosθ

∴ ⇒ = 0.75
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).
Final Answer : (3)

29) Explaining :
1. In a right-angled trough, the block makes contact with two walls.
2. The normal reaction from each wall is N = (mg cos θ) / √2 (due to the 45° tilt of the walls).
3. Total friction from two walls = 2 × μₖ × N = 2 × μₖ × (mg cos θ) / √2 = √2 μₖ mg cos θ.
4. Net acceleration a = g sin θ – √2 μₖ g cos θ.
Concept : This question is based on Motion On Rough Incline Plane And Angle Of
Repose (with specific geometry).
Solution :
Equation of motion of the block is
ma = mg sinθ – 2µk mg cosθ cos 45º.
(Net force = Gravitational force + Frictional force)
In the second term on the right side of above equation factor 2 arises due tot he fact that
frictional force arises from two walls of the trough and the term cos 45º takes case of the fact
that the walls are tilted at 45º to the axis of the channel.
So that the normal reaction is accordingly reduced.
∴ a=
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).
Final Answer : (1)

30) Explain Question: Find correct option for given assertion & reason.
Concept: Units
Solution:
Light year used to measure distance.
year to measure time
One light year is equal to distance travelled by Light in One year.
Final Answer: (4)

31) Explain Question: Find time period in new situation.

Concept: Simple pendulum
Solution:

Time period of a simple pendulum,

It is independent of the mass of the bob. Therefore, time period of the pendulum will remain T.
Final Answer: (1)

32)

Explain Question: Find a-t graph for given situation

Concept: Kinematics of SHM
Solution:
Here, x = A cosωt

∴ Velocity,

Acceleration,
Hence, the vibration of a with t is correctly shown by graph (3)
Final Answer: (3)

33)

Explain Question: Find value of wave length

Concept: Interference
Solution:

Δx = 10 – 6 = 4m = nλ

For maximum value of λ

n = 1 (minimum)
λ = 4m
Final Answer: (1)

34)

Explain Question: Find value of no. of divisions on main scale which conside with v.s.
Concept: Vernier callipers
Solution:
20 VSD = n MSD & L.C. = 0.1 mm

1VSD = MSD & 1MSD = 0.5 mm

So, LC = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

0.1 mm = 0.5 mm – (0.5 mm)

(0.5 mm) = 0.4 mm

n = 16
Final Answer: (2)

35)

Explain Question: Find phase difference

Concept:
Solution:
From the given equation, k = 0.2π

⇒ = 0.2π ⇒ λ = 10 mm

Final Answer: (4)

36) Explaining: Compare γ for monoatomic vs diatomic gases and assess the stated reason
about degrees of freedom.
Concept: This question is based on concept that For an ideal gas with f active degrees
of freedom: C_v = (f/2)R, C_p = C_v + R = ((f+2)/2)R, so γ = C_p/C_v = 1 + 2/f. Monoatomic: f
= 3 ⇒ γ = 5/3 ≈ 1.67. Diatomic (rotational active, vibrational frozen): f = 5 ⇒ γ = 7/5 = 1.4.
Solution:
Thus γ_mono > γ_dia, so (A) is true. But monoatomic gases have fewer degrees of freedom (3)
than diatomic (5), so the reason stated is false.
Final Answer: Option (2) — (A) true, (R) false.

37) Explaining: We compare the magnitude of the temperature gradient along sections of
different cross-sectional area in steady heat flow.
Concept: This question is based on concept that
Fourier's law: q = -kA dT/dx.
In steady state, q is constant along the rod, so A |dT/dx| = constant ⇒ |dT/dx| ∝ 1/A.
Solution: Since the cross-sectional area is smaller at the narrow end, |dT/dx| is larger there.
Hence the temperature gradient is higher at the narrow end.
Final Answer: Option (3) — Higher gradient at the narrower end.

38) Explaining: For a polytropic PVN = const, the slope of the curve on a P–V plot relates N to
V and P at a point.
Concept: This question is based on concept that
Differentiate P VN = const
VN dP + N P V{N-1} dV = 0
⇒ dV/dP = − V/(N P).
Thus |dV/dP| = V/(N P) ⇒ N = V/(P |dV/dP|).
Solution:
From the figure (as described): at the marked point V/P = (4×105)/(2×105) = 2.
The tangent makes 37° with the V-axis
⇒ its slope in V–P coordinates is |dV/dP| = tan(90°−37°) = tan(53°) ≈ 4/3.
Hence N = 2 ÷ (4/3) = 3/2 = 1.5.
Final Answer: Option (3) — 1.5.

39) Explanation: The electric field is non-uniform and depends on the x-coordinate. For a
cube placed in this field, only the faces perpendicular to the x-axis (left and right faces)
contribute to the net flux, as the field is directed solely along the x-axis.
Concept
Electric Flux: ϕ = E · A
Net Flux: ϕnet = ϕout + ϕin
Area of face: A = side²
Solution

dnet = ϕin + ϕout = –16 + 32 = 16 Nm2 /c

Final Answer: (2)

40) Explanation
Since every point on the half-ring is at an equal distance R from the center, the potential is the
scalar sum of the potentials from all charge elements.
Concept
Total Charge: Q = λπR
Electric Potential: V = kQ / R
Solution
Potential at centre of half ring

V = Kλπ ⇒ V = 9 × 109 × 4 × 10–9π

V = 36π
Final Answer : (2)

41) Explanation
An infinite sheet produces a field E = σ / 2ε₀. We use superposition to add the field vectors
from both sheets in each region.
Concept
Field from one sheet: E = σ / 2ε₀
Superposition: E_net = ΣE
Solution:
Assuming RHS to be

Final Answer: (4)

42) Explanation
Deflection is proportional to current. The shunt acts as a parallel resistor, diverting current
away from the galvanometer.
Concept
Parallel Voltage: Ig × G = Is × S
Solution
Let x = current/division

After applying shunt

Now 5x × G = 20x × 24
G = 4 × 24
G = 96Ω
Final Answer : (2)

43) Explanation
The square has four sides of 4 Ω each. The battery is in series with the parallel combination of
one side (4 Ω) and the other three sides (12 Ω).
Concept
Energy: U = ½ CV²
Solution
VA – VB = I1 × 8 = ×8= V

∴
∴ x = 81
Final Answer: (1)

44) Explanation
This configuration represents two capacitors in series: one filled with dielectric (1 mm) and
one with air (1 mm).
Concept
Series Capacitance: 1/Ceq = 1/C₁ + 1/C₂
Solution

This can be seen as two capacitors in series combination so

Final Answer : (3)

45) Explanation
When capacitors are connected, charge is shared until they reach a common potential,
resulting in energy loss as heat. +1
Concept
Heat Loss: ΔU = ½ [ (C₁C₂) / (C₁ + C₂) ] (V₁ - V₂)²
Solution
Q = CV = 900 × 10–6 × 100 = 9 × 10–2 = 90 MC
Now

Common potential will be developed across both capacitors by kVL

Total charge on left plates of capacitors should be conserved.
∴ 90 mc + 0 = 2cv0
cv0 = 45 mc

Heat dissipated [Change in energy stored in the capacitors]

OR

Final Answer: (1)

CHEMISTRY

46) Explaining : A compound is found to contain 24g C, 4gH and 32 g O. Its empirical formula
is:
Concept : This question is based on empirical formula.
Solution :

C =2 =1

H =4 =2

O =2 =1
Empirical formula = CH2O
Final Answer : (4)

47) Explaining : If 0.4 gm NaOH is present in 1 litre solution, then its pH will be :-
Concept : This question is based on pH of strong base.

Solution : [OH–] = = 10–2 ; pOH = 2 ; pH = 12

Final Answer : (4)

48) Explaining : pH of 10–2 M NH4Cl solution is : (pKb = 4.74)

Concept : This question is based on salt hydrolysis.
Solution :
10–2 M NH4Cl : Salt of W.B. (NH4OH) + S.A. (HCl)

pH = 7 – pKb – log C

pH = 7 – × 4.74 – log 10–2

pH = 5.63
Final Answer : (4)

49) Explaining : In isolated system :-

Concept : This question is based on types of system.
Solution :
Isolated system
Neither energy nor mass transfer take place.
Final Answer : (4)

50) Explaining : In a gaseous reaction A(g) → P(g) , if rate law is r = k(PA)3/2 where unit of
pressure is atm., then unit of rate and k is, respectively :-
Concept : This question is based on unit of rate constant.
Solution :
We know that k = (mol L–1)1–n s–1
Or k = (conc)1–n s–1

Where n = order of rxn =

k = (atm)1–3/2 s–1

r = k(PA)3/2
or r = atm–1/2 s–1 × (atm)3/2

Final Answer : (3)

51) Explaining : What weight of non volatile solute (M.W. = 60) should be dissolved in 180 g

water to reduce the vapour pressure to of pure water :-

Concept : This question is based on relative lowering in vapour pressure.
Solution :
Let vapour pressure of pure water be P

⇒ vapour pressure of solution = P

⇒ w = × 600 = 150 g
Final Answer : (3)

52) Explaining : The highest electrical conductivity from the following aqueous solutions will
be of :
Concept : This question is based on factors affecting conductance.
Solution :
0.1m difluoroacetic acid has highest electrical conductivity because it is stronger acid and
form greater no of ions as compare to other members.
Conductivity ∝ No of ions.
Final Answer : (4)

53) Explaining : Which of the following is different from other three oxides :-
Concept : This question is based on nature of oxides.
Solution : MgO is basic oxide while others are amphoteric in nature.
Final Answer : (1)

54) Explaining : Which is correct IP order :-

Concept : This question is based on ionization energy.
Solution :

IE ∝ +ve charge ∝
F > Cl > Cl¯ > F¯
Final Answer : (1)

55) Explaining : The bond order of given species are such that:-
Concept : This question is based on bond order.
Solution :
> O2 > >
15e¯ 16e¯ 17e¯ 18e¯
B.O = 2.5 2 1.5 1
Final Answer : (2)

56) Explaining : The ion with maximum number of lone pairs on the central atom is-
Concept : This question is based on VSEPR Theory.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

57) Explaining : Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN gives :-

Concept : This question is based on complex formation.
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

58) Explaining : Which of the following complex is an outer orbital complex ?

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR Theory.
Solution :
0
Ni+2 – 4s 3d8

For SFL eg1

Sp3d2 t2g6
Outer orbital complex.
Final Answer : (1)

59) Explaining : Incorrect about B2H6 is :-

Concept : This question is based on dimerisation of BH3.
Solution :
2c – 2e¯ = 4 bonds.
Final Answer : (3)

60) Explaining : Species which do not exist -

Concept : This question is based on existance and non-existance of molecules.
Solution : Steric hindrance of Cl atoms.
Final Answer : (3)

61) Explaining : SbCl3 and BiCl3 on hydrolysis give :-

Concept : This question is based on hydrolysis of group-15 halides.
Solution :
SbCl3 + H2O → SbOCl
BiCl3 + H2O → BiOCl
Final Answer : (3)

62) Explaining : On heating NaNO3, gas released is :-

Concept : This question is based on heating effect on nitrates.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

63) Explaining : Dipole moment of H2S is smaller than -

Concept : This question is based on dipole moment.
Solution :

µ = |q × α|
Final Answer : (4)

64) Explaining : Which of the following is not able to show +5 oxidation state ?
Concept : This question is based on possible oxidation states of d-block metals.
Solution : Fe shows + 2, +3, +4 & +6 oxidation state.
Final Answer : (1)

65) Explaining : Find is known product.

Concept : This question is based on substitution reaction.
Solution :
 Final Answer : (3)

66) Explaining : CH3NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH → (x) + KCl + H2O, x is :-

Concept : This question is based on carbylamine reaction.
Solution :
This is carbylamine reaction

CH3NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH → + KCl + H2O

Final Answer : (4)

67) Explaining : Give the final Product :-

?
Concept : This question is based on reaction of diazonium salt.
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

68) Explaining : Which among the following compound has only one monochloro derivative ?
Concept : This question is based on derivatives of hydrocarbon.
Solution :

→ neopentane forms only one monochloro derivative because all H are identical
Final Answer : (4)

69) Explaining : Find incorrect statement.

Concept : This question is based on optical activity.
Solution : I → R, II → S, III → R
Final Answer : (3)

70) Explaining : Match the columns.

Concept : This question is based on common names.
Solution :

(a) Mesityl oxide → 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one

(b)

Phthaldehyde → Benzene-1,2-dicarbaldehyde
(c) Carballylic acid → Propane-1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid
(d) Acrolein → CH2= CH–CHO Prop-2-enal

Final Answer : (1)

71) Explaining : Order of acidic strength.

Concept : This question is based on acidic strength.
Solution : Ka ∝ acidic strength
Final Answer : (2)

72) Explaining : In Which of following Enolisation is maximum ?

Concept : This question is based on tautomerism.
Solution :

Non aromatic Aromatic

So maximum enolisation takes place
Final Answer : (1)

73) Explaining : Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of
the following?
Concept : This question is based on Clemmensen reduction.
Solution : Fact
Final Answer : (2)

74) Explaining : If the radius of first Bohr's orbit is 'a' (for H-atom), what is the radius of first
Bohr's orbit for Li+2 ion?
Concept : This question is based on Bohr's atomic model.
Solution :

r = 0.529 ×

r14 = 0.529 × = a (given)

Now,

rLi2+ = 0.529 × =
So, a × (3)–1
Final Answer : (4)

75) Explaining : The equilibrium constant for the reaction w + x ⇌ y + z is 9. If one mole of
each of w and x are mixed and there is no change in volume the number of moles of y formed
is:
Concept : This question is based on law of mass action.
Solution :

KC = ⇒9=

9= ⇒ x = 0.75
Final Answer : (3)

76) Explaining : A hypothetical reaction, A → 2B, proceed through following sequence of

steps: A → C; ΔH = q1 C → D; ΔH = q2 D → B; ΔH = q3 The heat of reaction for A → 2B is:

Concept : This question is based on Hess law.
Solution :
A → 2B
A → C → ΔH = q1
C → D → ΔH = q2
D → 2B → ΔH = 2q3
Add all three equation
A → 2B
ΔH(A → 2B) = q1 + q2 + 2q3
Final Answer : (3)

77) Explaining : Oxidation state(s) of chlorine in CaOCl2 (bleaching powder) is/are :

Concept : This question is based on calculation of oxidation state.
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

78) Explaining : For an electrochemical cell

Sn(s) | (aq,1M) || (aq,1M)|Pb(s) the ratio when this cell attains equilibrium is
____.

(Given = – 0.14 V, = –0.13 V, = 0.06)

Concept : This question is based on Nernst equation.
Solution :
Sn(s) + Pb+2(aq) → Sn+2(aq) + Pb(s)

E=
E = 0, at equilibrium

–0.13 –(–0.14) =

= antilog ⇒
Final Answer : (1)

79) Explaining : Which of the following is incorrect order of radius?

Concept : This question is based on atomic radius
Solution :

will have equal radius no effect of isotope will be observe

Final Answer : (3)

80) Explaining : Select the correct order of 2nd I.P. of C, N, O, F :-

Concept : This question is based on ionzation energy
Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

81) Explaining : Determine the correct order of bond angle?

Concept : This question is based on bond angle
Solution : = = (NO lone pair)
Final Answer : (4)

82) Explaining : Match the column

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR Theory.
Solution :
(1) [Fe (CN)6]–4
Fe+2 :- 3d6 CN :- Strong Field Ligand
Unpaired e¯ = 0
So µ = 0
(2) [Ti(H2O6)]3+
Ti+3 3d1 H2O :- Weak Field Ligand
 Unpaired e¯ = 1
µ= = 1.73
3+
(3) [Cr(H2O)6]
Cr+3 :- 3d3 H2O :- Weak Field Ligand
Unpaired e¯ = 3
µ= = 3.88
+2
(4) [Ni(H2O)6]
Ni+2 :- 3d8 H2O :- Weak Field Ligand
No. of unpaired e¯ = 2
µ= = 2.83
–3
(5) [FeF6]
Fe+3 :- 3d5 F :- Weak Field Ligand
Unpaired e¯ = 5
µ= = 5.93
Final Answer : (2)

83) Explaining : CFSE for high spin d2 octahedral complex is :-

Concept : This question is based on Crystal field theory.
Solution :
+ pairing energy
= –0.4 × 2 + 0.6 × 0 = –0.8 Δ0
Final Answer : (2)

84) Explaining : CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by :

Concept : This question is based on iodoform test.

Solution : Compounds containing gives iodoform test.

Final Answer : (2)

85) Explaining : A B C
Identify product C.
Concept : This question is based on chemical reactions of hydrocarbons.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

86) Explaining : Which of the following molecules have only sp2 Hybridised carbon atoms ?
Concept : This question is based on hybridisation.
Solution :

All C-atom are sp2

Final Answer : (1)

87) Explaining : Which compound is aromatic ?

Concept : This question is based on aromatic compounds.
Solution : It is cyclic, planar and completely conjugated with (4n+2)π electrons.
Final Answer : (2)

88) Explaining : Which of the following has maximum heat of hydrogenation ?

Concept : This question is based on heat of hydrogenation.
Solution :

Heat of hydrogenation ∝ (If π bond same)

⇒ Maximum heat of hydrogenation

Final Answer : (4)

89)

Explaining : Assertion and reason.

Concept : This question is based on work in adiabatic process.
Solution : ΔE = w, if q = 0
Final Answer : (1)

90)

Explaining : Match the column

Concept : This question is based on types of solution.
Solution :
Glucose + water → Solid + liquid
Air → Mixture of air
Brass → Mixture of solids
H2 and Pd → Gas in solid
Final Answer : (1)
BIOLOGY

91) Explanation : Traits gained during an organism's lifetime, like piercingnase & building
strong muscles, do not alter germ cells and thus are not passed to offspring.
Final Answer : (1)

92) Explanation: Conserved genes and proteins across species indicate common descent, with
differences reflecting divergence time.
Final Answer : (1)

93) Explanation: Larger brains in Homo species correlated with cognitive abilities for
survival. Prognathous is a face structures (flat).
Final Answer : (2)

94) Solution : Ori gene is responsible for initiation of DNA replication as well as control the
copy number of replicating DNA.
Final Answer : (3)

95) Solution : If alien DNA is introduced using SalI in pBR322 then transformant will grow on
ampicillin as insertional inactivation of tetracycline gene is done.
Final Answer : (1)

96) Solution : rop are the genes which codes for the proteins envolved in the replication of
plasmeid.
Final Answer : (3)

97) Solution :
Lepidopterans → Tobacco bud worm, armyworm
Coleopterans → Beetles
Dipterans → Flies, mosquitoes
Aves → humming bird.
Final Answer : (1)

98) Solution : Bt-toxin is obtained from bacilli.

Final Answer : (1)

99) Solution : RNAi process takes place in all eukaryotes.

Final Answer : (4)

100) Solution : -
Nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine and opium are produced by plants actually as defences
against grazers and browsers, Thorns of Acacia and cactus are morphological means of
defence.
 Final Answer : (3)

101) Solution :
All options are correct w.r.t. parasite.
Final Answer : (3)

102) Solution : A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i

A. The term ecology was used by ii. [Link]

B. Father of ecology iii. Reiter

C. Father of Indian ecology iv. Prof. R.D. Mishra

D. Coined the term ecosystem i. A.G. Tansley

Final Answer : (2)

103) Solution :
A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the same
time. A sparrow is a primary consumer when it eats seeds, fruits, peas, and a secondary
consumer when it eats insects and worms.
Final Answer : (4)

104) Solution : In grazing food chain size of organisms commonly increases at higher level.
Final Answer : (3)

105) Solution :

According to 10% energy transfer law and only 1% of ISR is taken by producer.
Final Answer : (1)

106) Solution : Nile perch causes extinction of Cichlid fishes in lake victoria.
Final Answer : (4)

107) Solution : Hot spots are most threatened reservoir of plant and animals life of earth.
Final Answer : (3)

108) Solution : Zone of cell division ‒ Zone of cell elongation ‒ Zone of cell maturation
Final Answer : (2)

109) Solution : Underground stem of potato and ginger act as organ of perennation.
Final Answer : (4)

110) Solution : Fleshy mesocarp is edible part in mango.

Final Answer : (2)

111) Solution :
In monocot stem, centrally located vascular bundles are large while peripheral ones are
smaller.
Final Answer : (4)

112) Solution : A = Endodermis, B = Conjuctive tissue, C = Protoxylem, D = Metaxylem, E =

Phloem, F = Pith
Final Answer : (4)

113) Solution :
Chl a absorb blue and red light.
Final Answer : (2)

114) Solution : In C4 plants, Calvin cycle occurs in stroma of bundle sheath chloroplast.
Final Answer : (1)

115) Solution : Oxidative photophosphorylation occurs in mitochondria.

Final Answer : (3)

116) Solution :
1 molecule of glucose on glycolysis produces 2 molecule of pyruvic acid.
Final Answer : (1)

117) Solution : A = Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate, B = 3-Phosphoglyceric acid,

C = Phosphoenol Pyruvic acid, D = Ethanol, E = Lactic acid
Final Answer : (3)

118) Solution :
The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is ATP + H2O.
Final Answer : (4)

119) Solution :
Development is sum of growth and differentiation.
Final Answer : (3)

120) Solution :
A–Cell division, B–Senescence, C–Plasmatic growth
Final Answer : (1)

121) A. Trophablast
B. Inner cell mass

122) Liberation of sperms from sertoli cells is called spermiation

123) Stem cells have the potency to give rise to all the tissue and organs in embryo

124)

Prolactin hormone responsible for milk formation in human female

125) CUT, CU-7 and multiload-375 are a group of copper releasing IUD.

126) Theembryo more than 8 blastomeres stage is transferred to uterus is called I.U.T.

127)

Antibody are secreted by B-cells. (not T-cells)

128) Virus infected cells secrete antiviral glycoprotein (Interferon) is a cytokine barrier.

129) Basophil releases histamine and serotonin not neutrophil

130) Colostrum (IgA) placenta (IgG) and ATS are example of passive immunity.

131) Explanation: Vertebrae – 26, Ribs – 24, Carpals in two forelimbs– 16, total phalanges in
forelimbs and hindlimbs = 56
Final Answer : (1)

132) Explanation: Cross-bridge formation ✔

ATP needed for detachment ✔
Actin does NOT shorten ✘
Z-lines come closer ✔
Final Answer : (1)

133) Explanation: Gout results from uric acid crystal deposition in joints, causing
inflammation and severe pain.
Final Answer : (1)

134) Explanation: Tidal volume ≈ 500 mL ✔

Inspiration active ✔
Normal expiration passive ✘
Bronchitis inflammation ✔
Emphysema destroys alveoli ✔
Pressure decreases during inspiration ✔
Final Answer : (1)

135) Explanation: About 97% O₂ carried as oxyhaemoglobin.

About 70% CO₂ transported as bicarbonate ions.
Final Answer : (1)

136) Explanation: Cardiac cycle ✔

Double circulation ✔
SA node pacemaker ✔
Cardiac arrest = heart stops, not only breathing ✘
Final Answer : (1)

137) Explanation: Albumin – osmotic balance

Prothrombin – clotting factor
RBC – oxygen
Neutrophils – phagocytosis
Platelets – clot formation
Final Answer : (1)

138) Explanation: Cerebrum – intelligence

Cerebellum – balance
Medulla – cardiac control
Hypothalamus – homeostasis
Final Answer : (1)

139) Explanation: Neurotransmitter release from presynaptic side ensures one-way

transmission.
Final Answer : (1)

140) Explanation:
Testes – Testosterone
Thymus – Thymosin
Ovary – Oestrogen
Kidney – Erythropoietin
Final Answer : (1)

141) Explanation: Peptide hormones are water-soluble and act via membrane receptors and
second messenger systems like cAMP.
Final Answer : (3)

142) Explanation: Cretinism – congenital hypothyroidism causing stunted growth and mental
retardation.
Dwarfism – due to deficiency of growth hormone.
Final Answer : (3)

143) Solution : Air-filled bones reduce weight.

Final Answer : (1)

144) Solution : Nerve cord is dorsal, not ventral.

Final Answer : (1)

145) Solution : Renette cells helps in excretion in nematodes.

Final Answer : (2)

146) Solution : Tendon connects muscle to bone; Ligament connects bone to bone.
Final Answer : (1)

147) Solution : Cartilage contains chondrocytes in lacunae.

Final Answer : (2)

148) Solution : Frog has mesonephric kidney with nephrons.

Final Answer : (2)

149) Solution : In open circulatory system, blood = haemolymph.

Final Answer : (3)

150) Solution : Flame cells mainly regulate ionic and fluid balance; nitrogen excretion is
secondary.
Final Answer : (2)

151) Solution : Planaria possess flame cells (protonephridia), not Malpighian tubules.
Final Answer : (4)

152) Solution : Saccharomyces cerevisiae (baker's yeast) ferments sugars in dough,

producing CO2 which makes the dough rise.
Final Answer : (1)

153) Explanation: Plant families are characterised using both vegetative (roots, stems,
leaves) and reproductive (flowers, fruits) features.
Final Answer : (2)

154) Explanation: Archaebacteria (halophiles, thermophiles, methanogens) survive in

extreme conditions due to their unique cell wall structure.
Final Answer : (2)
 155) Explanation: Protista includes a wide variety of single-celled eukaryotes, including both
autotrophs (Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates) and heterotrophs (Slime molds, Protozoans).
Final Answer : (2)

156) Explanation: Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and are facultative anaerobes.
Final Answer : (2)

157) Explanation: Algae form the base of aquatic food chains.

Final Answer : (2)

158) Explanation: Red pigment r-phycoerythrin dominates.

Final Answer : (3)

159) Explanation: Bryophytes grow on land but fertilisation occurs only in the presence of
water because antherozoids must swim to the archegonium.
Final Answer : (1)

160) Solution : Enzymes lower the activation energy of a reaction.

Final Answer : (2)

161) Solution : A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, E–5

Column II
Column I (Molecule)
(Function)
A. Enzyme 1. Catalyzes biochemical reactions
B. DNA 2. Stores genetic information
C. Phospholipid 3. Structural component of cell membranes
D. Glycogen 4. Energy storage in animals
E. Antibody 5. Immune defense
Final Answer : (1)

162) Solution : Incorrect because only some proteins (e.g., haemoglobin) have quaternary
structure.
Final Answer : (4)

163) Solution : Cell membrane is a selectively permeable membrane.

Final Answer : (3)

164) Solution : Ribosomes are universal organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
cells.
Final Answer : (1)

165) Solution : SER helps in synthesis of lipids and steroidal hormones.

 Final Answer : (3)

166) Solution : Reason is correct explanation of assertion

Final Answer : (1)

167) Solution : During mitosis, the chromosomes condense and the nuclear membrane
dissolves in the Prophase phase. In the Metaphase phase, chromosomes align at the cell's
equator, and during Anaphase, sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell.
Final Answer : (2)

168) Solution : A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-v

Column A(Event) Column B (Description)

A. Prophase I i. Chromosomes recombine, and the nuclear envelope dissolves.

B. Anaphase I iv. Homologous chromosomes are pulled to opposite poles.

C. Telophase I iii. Cytokinesis occurs, resulting in two daughter cells.

D. Anaphase II ii. Sister chromatids are separated to opposite poles.

E. Telophase II v. Four non-identical haploid cells are formed.

Final Answer : (3)

169) Solution : Sister chromatids are formed in S phase. DNA content double but
chromosomes number remains same.
Final Answer : (3)

170) Solution : Meiosis II is similar to mitosis i.e. equational division occurs.

Final Answer : (4)

171) Solution : Tapetum supplies nutrients and enzymes required for pollen development.
Final Answer: (1)

172) Solution : NCERT-listed post-fertilization changes. Anther does not form endosperm
fertilisation.
Final Answer: (1)

173) Solution : A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

A. Protandry 1. Anther matures first

B. Protogyny 2. Stigma matures first

C. Cleistogamy 3. Flower never bloom

D. Dichogamy 4. No synchrony in Androecium & Gynoecium development

Final Answer : (2)
174) Solution: Both statements are true and R correctly explains A.
Final Answer: (1)

175) Solution: 20% recombination means 20 map units apart on same chromosome.
Final Answer: (2)

176) Solution: Statement 2 is incorrect because recessive traits may skip generations.
Final Answer: (2)

177) Solution: Initiator carries methionine; peptidyl transferase forms peptide bond; A site
accepts new tRNA; P site holds growing chain.
Final Answer: (1)

178) Solution: Repressor binds operator only in absence of lactose; lactose inactivates
repressor.
Final Answer: (4)

179) Solution: All four statements are correct as per HGP data.
Final Answer: (3)

180) Solution: Point mutation causes amino acid substitution at 6th position of β-globin chain.
Final Answer: (1)