17-08-2025

2701CPF404034250126 PF

PHYSICS

1) Which of the following is not equal to watt?

(1) Joule/second
(2) Ampere × volt
(3)
(4) Ampere/volt

2) can be the unit of measure for

(1) force
(2) momentum
(3) power
(4) acceleration

3) Newton-second is the unit of

(1) velocity
(2) angular momentum
(3) momentum
(4) energy

4) Which of the following is not a unit of energy?

(1) W-s
(2) kg-m/sec
(3) N-m
(4) Joule

5) A physical quantity is measured and its value is found to nu where n = numerical value and u=
unit. Then which the following relations is true

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

6) In a new system of units, the unit of mass is 1000 kg (1 metric ton), unit of length is 1000 m (1km)
and unit of time is 3600 s (1 hr). Select correct statement.
(1) The numerical value of 500 m in this new system is 0.5
(2) The numerical value of 7200 s in this new system is 2
(3) The numerical value of 1/36 J in this new system is
(4) All of these

7) The velocity of a freely falling body changes as where g is acceleration due to gravity and
his the height. The values of p and q are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1,1

8) Which one of the following does not have the same dimensions?

(1) Work and energy

(2) Angle and strain
(3) Relative density and refractive index
(4) Planck constant and energy

9) Measure of two quantities along with the precision of respective measuring instrument is
The value of AB will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) What is the number of significant figures in ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

11) A wire has a mass , radius and length . The maximum

percentage error in the measurement of its density is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
12) A physical parameter a can be determined by measuring the parameters b, c, d and e using the

relation If the maximum errors in the measurement of b, c, d and e are

and then the maximum error in the value of a determined by the experiment is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) In an experiment, the following observation’s were recorded :

Diameter Taking using the

formula, the maximum permissible error in Y is

(1) 7.96%
(2) 4.56%
(3) 6.50%
(4) 8.42%

14) A ray of light travels from a light sources to an observer after reflection on from a plane mirror.
If the light source rotates clockwise direction by 10°, by what angle and in what direction must the
mirror be rotated so that the light ray still strive the observer?

(1) 5° Clockwise
(2) 5° Anticlockwise
(3) 10° Clockwise
(4) 10° Anticlockwise

15) When one light ray is reflected from a plane mirror with 30° angle of reflection, the angle of
deviation of the ray after reflection is

(1) 140°
(2) 130°
(3) 120°
(4) 110°

16) If keeping the incidence ray fixed, the mirror rotates by an angle the reflected light will
deviate from its original path by an angle

(1)
(2) 0
(3)
(4)

17) Two vertical plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60° with each other. A ray of light
travelling horizontally is reflected first from one mirror and then from the other. The resultant
deviation is

(1) 60°
(2) 180°
(3) 120°
(4) 240°

18) What should be the angle between two plane mirrors so that whatever be the angle of incidence,
the incident ray and the reflected ray from the two mirrors be parallel to each other

(1) 60°
(2) 90°
(3) 120°
(4) 175°

19) When a plane mirror is rotated through an angle θ then the reflected ray turns through the angle
2θ then the size of the image

(1) Is doubled
(2) Is halved
(3) Remains the same
(4) Becomes infinit

20) Incident ray, normal at the point of incidence and refracted ray are always

(1) mutually perpendicular

(2) inclined at acute angles
(3) parallel
(4) coplanar

21) A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil of refractive index and the other half is filled with
water of refractive index . The apparent depth of the vessel when viewed above is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Suppose you are standing 1m in front of a plane mirror. What should be the minimum vertical
size of the mirror so that you can see your full image in it?

(1) 0.50 m
(2) 2 m
(3) half of your height
(4) twice your height

23) Light travelling in glass of refractive index ng is incident at a boundary with water of refractive
index nw. The critical angle for the boundary is C. Which of the following expressions is correct for
this ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) An object is placed in front of a lens. Which row of the table shows a combination that will
produce a real image of the object?

Focal length of lens/cm object distance/cm

(1)
–5 10
Focal length of lens/cm object distance/cm
(2)
–5 2
Focal length of lens/cm object distance/cm
(3)
5 10
Focal length of lens/cm object distance/cm
(4)
5 2

25) The diagram shows how an image is formed by an object that is placed a small distance from a
thin converging lens

Which of the labels A, B, C or D represents the focal point of the lens?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

26) The diagram shows a ray of light travelling from a transparent medium into air.
The refractive index of the transparent medium is given by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) A wave of wavelength λ1 and frequency f is travelling in a medium with wave speed V1. The wave
passes into another medium with wave speed V2. The wavelength of the wave in the second medium
is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) If the angle of incidence (i) for a light ray in air be 45°and the angle of refraction (r)in glass be
30°, find refractive index of glass with respect to air.

(1) 2.33
(2) 1.41
(3) 1.56
(4) 2.4

29) If the refractive index of glass with respect to air is 1.5, then the respective index of air with
respect to glass will be

(1) 3/2
(2) 1/2
(3) 2/3
(4) 2.5

30) A ray of light travelling inside a rectangular glass block of refractive index is incident on the
glass air interface at an angle of incidence of 45°. The refractive index of air is 1. Under these
conditions the ray

(1) Will emerge into the air without any deviation

(2) Will be reflected back into the glass
(3) Will be absorbed
(4) Will emerge into the air with an angle of refraction equal to 90°

31) When an object is placed 40cm from a diverging lens, its virtual image is formed 20cm from the
lens. The power of lens is

(1) +2.5 D
(2) -2.5 D
(3) +0.4 D
(4) -0.4 D

32) The refractive index of transparent medium is greater than one because

(1) Speed of light in vacuum < speed of light in transparent medium

(2) Speed of light in vacuum > speed of light in transparent medium
(3) Speed of light in vacuum = speed of light in transparent medium
(4) Frequency of light wave changes when it moves from rarer to denser medium

33) In which of the following, the image of an object placed at infinity will be highly diminished and
point sized?

(1) Concave mirror only

(2) Convex mirror only
(3) Convex lens only
(4) Concave mirror, convex mirror, concave lens and convex lens.

34) Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x by F = A sin Ct + B cos Dx. Then the
dimensions of A/B and C/D are

0 0 0 0 0
(1) [M L T ], [M L T–1]
0 0
(2) [MLT–2], [M L–1T ]
0 0 0 0
(3) [M L T ], [M LT–1]
0 0 0 0
(4) [M L1T–1], [M L T ]

35) In the relation y = r sin the dimensions of are

0 0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0
(2) [M L1T–1]
0 0
(3) [M L T1]
0 0
(4) [M L1T ]

36) Given that The unit of abc is same as that of

(1) y
(2) y/t
(3) (y/t)2
(4) (y/t)3

37) The frequency (n) of vibration of a string is given as , where T is tension and l is the
length of vibrating string, then the dimensional formula of m is

0
(1) [M L1T1]
0 0 0
(2) [M L T ]
0
(3) [M1L–1T ]
0 0
(4) [ML T ]

38) If frequency F, velocity V, and density D are considered fundamental units, the dimensional
formula for momentum will be

(1) DVF2
(2) V2F–1
(3) D2V2F2
(4) DV4F–3

39) The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x as where A and B are
constants. The dimensional formula for A × B is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) If force F, acceleration a, and time T are taken as the fundamental physical quantities, the
dimensions of length on this system of units are

(1) FAT2
(2) FAT
(3) FT
(4) AT2

0
41) The position x of a particle at time t is given by where V is constant and a >
0, The dimensions of V0 and a are

0
(1) M LT–1 and T–1
0 0
(2) M LT and T–1
0
(3) M LT–1 and T–2
0 0
(4) M LT and T
42) A physical quantity where I is moment of inertia, F is force, v is velocity, W is work
and L is length, the dimensions of X are (I = MR2, I = moment of inertia)

(1) MLT–2
(2) MT–2
(3) ML2 T–3
(4) LT–1

43) The moment of inertia of a body rotating about a given axis is 12.0 kg m2 in the SI system. What
is the value of the moment of inertia in a system of units in which the unit of length is 5 cm and the
unit of mass is 10 g ?(given I= mR2 , I = moment of inertia, m = mass and R = distance )

(1) 2.4 × 103

(2) 6.0 × 103
(3) 5.4 × 105
(4) 4.8 × 105

44) The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3%, respectively. How
much will be the maximum error in the estimation of KE obtained by measuring mass and speed?

(1) 5%
(2) 1%
(3) 8%
(4) 11%

45) An experiment measures quantities a, b, and c, and then X is calculated from If the
percentage errors in a, b, and c are ±1%, ±3%, and ±2%, respectively, then the percentage error in
X can be

(1) ±12.5%
(2) ±7%
(3) ±1%
(4) ±4%

CHEMISTRY

1) Physical changes are usually_______ in nature

(1) temporary
(2) permanent
(3) irreversible
(4) endothermic
2) CuO + (x) → CuSO4 + H2O. Here (X) is

(1) CuSO4
(2) HCI
(3) H2SO4
(4) HNO3

3) In the electrolysis of water the molar ratio of gas evolved at cathode to gas evolved at anode is

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

4) Caustic soda is the common name for –

(1) Mg(OH)2
(2) KOH
(3) Ca(OH)2
(4) NaOH

5) When CO2 is passed through lime water, it turns milky. The milkyness is due to the formation of

(1) CaCO3
(2) Ca(OH)2
(3) H2O
(4) CO2

6) A white salt is readily soluble in water and gives colorless solution with pH of about 9. The salt
could be

(1) NH4NO2
(2) CH3COONa
(3) CH3COONH4
(4) CaCO3

7) The option(s) with only amphoteric oxides is (are) :

(i) Cr2O3, CrO , SnO , PbO
(ii) NO , B2O3, PbO , SnO2
(iii) Cr2O3, BeO ,SnO , SnO2
(iv) ZnO, Al2O3, PbO , PbO2

(1) i, ii
(2) ii, iv
(3) iii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv

8) A white precipitate can be obtained by adding dilute sulphuric acid to :

(1) CuSO4 solution

(2) NaCl solution
(3) BaCl2 solution
(4) Na2SO4 solution

9) The strength of the acid depends on the

(1) number of hydrogen atoms present in the molecule

(2) oxygen content
(3) density
(4) concentration of hydrogen ions furnished by onisation

10) Arrange following solutions in decreasing hydronium ion concentration. The solutions are:
(P) 0.1M HCl (Q)0.1M H2SO4 (R) 0.001 M NH4OH (S) 0.001 M Ca(OH)2. The correct order will be

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) Q > P > R > S
(3) S > R > Q > P
(4) S > R > P > Q

11) When aqueous solutions of potassium iodide and lead nitrate are mixed, an insoluble substance
separates out. The chemical equation for the reaction involved is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Oxidation is a process which involves

(1) addition of oxygen

(2) addition of hydrogen
(3) removal of oxygen
(4) removal of nitrogen

13) When four dilute solutions of (I) vinegar, (II) common salt, (III) caustic soda and (IV) baking soda
are tested with universal indicator which will be the correct observation

(1) I-Green, II - Violet, III - Blue, IV - Red

(2) I- Green, II - Blue, III -Violet, IV- Red
(3) I-Red, II- Green, III - Violet, IV - Blue
(4) I-Red, II- Violet, III - Green, IV - Blue
14) Study the following chemical reaction The
reducing agent in this reaction is

(1) Na
(2) H2O
(3) NaOH
(4) H2

15) A solution has pH 9. On dilution the pH value

(1) decreases
(2) increases
(3) remain same
(4) none of these

16) To balance the following chemical equation the values of x and y should respectively be

(1) 1, 4
(2) 1, 2
(3) 2, 4
(4) 2, 3

17) Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide. This process is
called slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves in water to form its solution called lime water.
Which among the following is (are) true about slaking of lime
i) It is an endothermic reaction
ii) It is an exothermic reaction
iiii) The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven
iv) The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

18) Which of these will cause a chemical change to occur ?

(1) Grinding of wheat into flour

(2) Lighting of a gas stove
(3) Evaporation of water from a lake
(4) Ringing of an electric bell

19) What happens when dil. H2SO4 is added to baking soda?

(1) CO2 gas is evolved

(2) Sodium sulphate is formed
(3) An neutral salt is produced
(4) All of the above

20) The formula for rust is

(1) CuO
(2) Fe2O3.xH2O
(3) AgNO3
(4) AgS

21) The chemical reaction between quicklime and water is characterized by :

(1) evolution of hydrogen gas

(2) formation of slaked lime precipitate
(3) change in colour of the product
(4) None of these

22) The pH of solution X is 1 and that of Y is 2. Which statement is correct about the hydrogen ion
concentrations in the two solutions?

(1) [H+] in X is half that in Y

(2) [H+] in X is twice that in Y.
(3) [H+] in X is one tenth of that in Y
(4) [H+] in X is ten times that in Y

23) The reaction, is type of

(1) Displacement reaction

(2) Combination reaction
(3) Decomposition reaction
(4) None of the above reaction

24) P, Q, R are different colourless solids, while S is a colourless solution. They are (in random
order) Sodium chloride (NaCl). Calcium carbonate (CaCO3), Acetic acid (CH3COOH) and Pheno-
lphthalein indicator. Small amount of the above substances were added in pairs (e.g.P with Q; Q with
R) to a small amount of water in a test tube. They give the following results as shown in the
observation table.
Then the chemicals are

P Q R S
(1)
Nacl CaCO3 CH3COOH Phenophthalein
P Q R S
(2)
Phenophthalein Nacl CaCO3 CH3COOH
P Q R S
(3)
CH3COOH Phenophthalein Nacl CaCO3
P Q R S
(4)
CaCO3 CH3COOH Phenophthalein Nacl

25) The correct order of pH is :

(1) Lemon juice < Water < Milk of Magnesia

(2) Lemon juice> Water > Milk of Magnesia
(3) Water > Lemon juice > Milk of Magnesia
(4) Milk of Magnesia > Lemon juice > Water

26) Match the acids given in Column I with their correct source given in Column II and select the
correct answer using the options given below :
Column I Column II
A. Lactic acid 1. Tomato
B. Citric acid 2. Curd
C. Acetic acid 3. Oranges
D. Oxalic acid 4. Vinegar

A B C D
(1)
1 3 2 4
A B C D
(2)
3 1 4 2
A B C D
(3)
4 2 1 3
A B C D
(4)
2 3 4 1

27) Consider the following chemical equation I and II

(I)
(II)
The correct statement about these equations is

(1) I is a displacement reaction and II is a decomposition reaction

(2) I is a displacement reaction and II is double displacement reaction
(3) Both I and II are displacement reactions
(4) Both I and II are double displacement reactions

28) Which of the following are correctly matched ?

1. Bleaching powder oxidizing agent in chemical industries.
2. Baking powder a mixture of sodium hydrogen carbonate and a mild edible acid
3. Washing soda remove permanent Hardness of water

(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 3
(4) l, 2 and 3

29) Calcium phosphate is present in tooth enamel, Its nature is

(1) basic
(2) acidic
(3) neutral
(4) amphoteric

30) What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a jar as shown in
the figure?

1) Salt formation takes place

2) The temperature of the solution remains the same.
3) The temperature of the solution decreases.
4) The temperature of the solution increases.

(1) Only 1
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 1 and 4

31) Copper displaces which of the following metals from its salt solution

(1) ZnSO4
(2) NiSO4
(3) FeSO4
(4) AgNO3

32) An acid (A) with sodium hydrogen carbonate is used in making the cakes fluffy and spongy It is
due to the release of gas (B) in the reaction Here, (A) and (B) are

(1) (A) : Tartaric acid (B), O2

(2) (A): Oxalic acid, (B), CO2
(3) (A): Tartaric acid, (B). CO2
(4) (A) : Succinic acid (B), H2

33) Which of the following are used as an antacid to reduce acidity in stomach?
(1) Sodium carbonate and magnesium hydroxide
(2) Magnesium hydroxide and sodium hydroxide
(3) Sodium bicarbonate and calcium hydroxide
(4) Sodium bicarbonate and magnesium hydroxide

34) Ankit observed that the stain of curry on a white shirt becomes reddish-brown when soap is
scrubbed on it,. But it turns yellow again when the shirt is washed with plenty of water. What might
be the reason for his observation?
(i) Soap is acidic in nature.
(ii) Soap is basic in nature.
(iii) Turmeric in a natural indicator which gives reddish tingsdd in bases.
(iv) Turmeric is a natural indicator which gives reddish tinge in acids

(1) (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)

35) What is the total sum of water of crystallization in the following substances:-
Gypsum , Green Vitriol , Blue Vitriol , Alum , Washing Soda

(1) 8
(2) 31
(3) 56
(4) 48

36) Assertion (d): Plaster of Paris is stored in a moisture proof container.

Reason (R): Plaster of Paris sets into a hard mass on wetting with water to form anhydrous calcium
sulphate.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (a)
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (a)
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R Is true

37) When pH strip is dipped in each bottle, the colour shown by bottle A and B will be respectively
(1) orange, blue
(2) blue, orange
(3) green, blue
(4) blue, green

38) On heating gypsum at T1(oC) it loses water molecules and becomes calcium sulphate

hemihydrate (CaSO4. What is the value of T1

(1) 220
(2) 373
(3) 123
(4) 100

39) pH of different solutions are given in the table below :

Arrange these solutions in the increasing order of H+ ion concentration.

(1) S < R < Q < P

(2) P < R < S < Q
(3) Q < R < S < P
(4) Q < S < R < P

40) Select the incorrect statements for the reaction in the given diagram

i) All product in this reaction are metal non metal compound

ii) The salt used in this reaction is formed by reaction between a strong base and a weak acid
iii) Calcium chloride is used in the guard tube because it adds moisture to the gas.
iv) One of the product formed in this reaction can react with copper oxide to give a blue-green
colour solution.

(1) i, iii, iv
(2) ii, iii
(3) i, ii, iii
(4) ii, iv

41) Iron when exposed to moist air for a long time acquires a coating of a brown flaky substance
called rust. This rust when dissolved in dilute hydrochloric acid solution results in.

(1) No reaction
(2) formation of a neutral salt
(3) Formation of a acidic salt
(4) Evolution of hydrogen gas

42) A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed to settle. The clear supernatant solution turns
the pH paper yellowish- orange. Which of the following would change the colour of this pH paper to
greenish – blue ?

(1) Lemon juice

(2) Vinegars
(3) Common salt
(4) An antacid

43) Which of the following can be decomposed by the action of Light ?

(1) NaCl
(2) KCl
(3) AgCl
(4) CuCl

44) Assertion (A) : Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5.
Reason (R) : Enamel starts corroding below 5.5 pH.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

45) Which of the following is the correct observation of the reaction shown in the above set up?
(1) Brown powder of magnesium oxide is formed.
(2) Colourless gas which turns lime water milky is evolved
(3) Magnesium ribbon burns with brilliant white light.
(4) Reddish brown gas with a smell of burning sulphur has evolved

BIOLOGY

1) Which of these does not perform photosynthesis?

(1) Green plants

(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Algae

2) Which part of the alimentary canal receives bile?

(1) Stomach
(2) Jejunum
(3) Duodenum
(4) Ileum

3) Which gland secretes insulin?

(1) Liver
(2) Pituitary
(3) Thyroid
(4) Pancreas

4) Photosynthesis is a/an:

(1) Catabolic process

(2) Physical process
(3) Exothermic process
(4) Anabolic process

5) Which of the following has no digestive function?

(1) Mouth
(2) Stomach
(3) Appendix
(4) Pancreas

6) The site of light reaction in photosynthesis is

(1) Stroma
(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Thylakoids
(4) Mitochondria

7) The digestion of proteins begins in the:

(1) Mouth
(2) Esophagus
(3) Stomach
(4) Small intestine

8) The largest gland in the human body is:

(1) Pancreas
(2) Liver
(3) Thyroid
(4) Pituitary

9) Which of the following organs does not secrete digestive enzymes?

(1) Stomach
(2) Pancreas
(3) Liver
(4) Small intestine

10) The part of the alimentary canal where no digestion occurs is

(1) Esophagus
(2) Stomach
(3) Mouth
(4) Small intestine

11) The function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach is:

(1) Digest fats
(2) Emulsify fats
(3) Kill bacteria and activate pepsin
(4) Neutralize stomach acid

12) The food is pushed down the esophagus by

(1) Gravity
(2) Peristalsis
(3) Diffusion
(4) Ciliary action

13) The final digestion of food occurs in the:

(1) Mouth
(2) Stomach
(3) Large intestine
(4) Small intestine

14) The sphincter controlling food entry into stomach is:

(1) Pyloric
(2) Cardiac
(3) Anal
(4) Rectal

15) Which is not a digestive enzyme?

(1) Lipase
(2) Pepsin
(3) Amylase
(4) Insulin

16) The partially digested food in the stomach is called:

(1) Chyme
(2) Bolus
(3) Faeces
(4) None of these

17) The function of roughage is to:

(1) Provide energy

(2) Help in digestion of protein
(3) Provide fiber for bowel movement
(4) Aid in fat absorption
18) Hydrochloric acid in the stomach helps to:

(1) Digest fats

(2) Activate pepsin
(3) Neutralize food
(4) Absorb nutrients

19) The longest part of the human alimentary canal is

(1) Esophagus
(2) Stomach
(3) Small intestine
(4) Large intestine

20) Which component of food begins digestion in the mouth?

(1) Protein
(2) Fat
(3) Starch
(4) Vitamins

21) The pH of the stomach is:

(1) 2
(2) 7
(3) 9
(4) 6

22) Pepsin works best in:

(1) Acidic medium

(2) Alkaline medium
(3) Neutral medium
(4) Saline medium

23) Glycolysis takes place in:

(1) Nucleus
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum

24) What is released during aerobic respiration?

(1) O₂ and glucose

(2) CO₂, water, and energy
(3) Lactic acid and energy
(4) Alcohol and CO₂

25) In aerobic respiration, pyruvate enters the

(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosome
(4) Nucleus

26) Which organ helps in breathing in humans?

(1) Kidney
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Stomach
(4) Liver

27) In plants, respiration takes place

(1) Only at night

(2) Only during the day
(3) Continuously
(4) Only during photosynthesis

28) How many ATP molecules are formed from one glucose in aerobic respiration?

(1) 2
(2) 18
(3) 38
(4) 4

29) The respiratory pigment in humans is

(1) Chlorophyll
(2) Carotene
(3) Hemoglobin
(4) Myosin

30) Which statement is true about respiration?

(1) It only occurs in animals

(2) It does not require enzymes
(3) It releases energy from food
(4) It stores energy in glucose

31) Which of the following is a product of anaerobic respiration in animals?

(1) Ethanol
(2) CO₂
(3) Lactic acid
(4) Water

32) The organ where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in humans is:

(1) Liver
(2) Kidney
(3) Lungs
(4) Heart

33) In which part of the human body does anaerobic respiration occur?

(1) Liver
(2) Brain
(3) Muscles during exercise
(4) Lungs

34) In plants, gaseous exchange occurs through

(1) Lenticels and stomata

(2) Roots only
(3) Leaves only
(4) Stem only

35) Respiration is the process in which

(1) Energy is stored

(2) Energy is released
(3) Energy is absorbed
(4) Glucose is formed

36) Which one of these does not transport substances?

(1) Xylem
(2) Phloem
(3) Stomata
(4) Blood

37) Which part of phloem transports food?

(1) Tracheids
(2) Companion cells
(3) Sieve tubes
(4) Vessels
38) Transport of food in plants is called

(1) Transpiration
(2) Guttation
(3) Translocation
(4) Absorption

39) Water enters plant roots through

(1) Osmosis
(2) Diffusion
(3) Transpiration
(4) Photosynthesis

40) Which process helps in upward transport of water in plants?

(1) Transpiration
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) Respiration
(4) Excretion

41) In plants, phloem transport is bidirectional because:

(1) Water is needed everywhere

(2) Leaves send food to roots and vice versa
(3) Roots only receive food
(4) Xylem transports minerals

42) Which part of the plant uses energy during transport?

(1) Xylem
(2) Phloem
(3) Root hairs
(4) Guard cells

43) Transport of materials in xylem is:

(1) Active
(2) In both directions
(3) Downward only
(4) Passive and upward only

44) Which structure helps to regulate transpiration?

(1) Phloem
(2) Xylem
(3) Guard cells
(4) Vessels

45) Root pressure is developed due to:

(1) Guttation
(2) Osmosis
(3) Transpiration
(4) Photosynthesis

46) Transpiration helps in:

(1) Photosynthesis
(2) Absorption of CO₂
(3) Cooling the plant
(4) Sugar production

47) The loss of water as liquid droplets from leaf margins is called:

(1) Transpiration
(2) Excretion
(3) Guttation
(4) Diffusion

48) What is the function of white blood cells?

(1) Transport oxygen

(2) Help in clotting
(3) Defend the body
(4) Carry carbon dioxide

49) The function of coronary arteries is to:

(1) Supply blood to lungs

(2) Supply blood to heart muscles
(3) Supply blood to kidneys
(4) Carry waste from heart

50) Which blood vessels bring oxygen-poor blood from the body to the heart?

(1) Pulmonary artery

(2) Pulmonary vein
(3) Vena cavae
(4) Aorta

51) Which part of the heart prevents mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood?
(1) Valves
(2) Auricles
(3) Septum
(4) Ventricles

52) Renal artery carries blood to the:

(1) Heart
(2) Liver
(3) Kidney
(4) Lungs

53) Which blood vessel allows exchange of substances between blood and tissues?

(1) Artery
(2) Vein
(3) Capillary
(4) Lymphatic vessel

54) Which blood vessel has thick muscular walls and carries blood away from the heart?

(1) Vein
(2) Artery
(3) Capillary
(4) Lymph vessel

55) In a healthy person, normal blood pressure is around:

(1) 180/120 mm Hg
(2) 120/80 mm Hg
(3) 90/140 mm Hg
(4) 100/80 mm Hg

56) The blood pressure is measured using

(1) Thermometer
(2) Sphygmomanometer
(3) Stethoscope
(4) ECG

57) The yellow color of urine is due to:

(1) Glucose
(2) Uric acid
(3) Urea
(4) Urochrome
58) The valve between left atrium and left ventricle is:

(1) Tricuspid
(2) Bicuspid
(3) Semilunar
(4) Aortic

59) Lymph differs from blood in not having:

(1) RBCs
(2) WBCs
(3) Platelets
(4) Plasma

60) In humans, systemic circulation refers to:

(1) Circulation between heart and lungs

(2) Circulation between heart and body tissues
(3) Circulation in brain
(4) Lymph circulation

61) Which one is a vascular connective tissue?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Blood
(4) Ligament

62) What is the function of the pulmonary artery?

(1) Carries oxygenated blood to the lungs

(2) Carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs
(3) Carries oxygenated blood to the heart
(4) Carries nutrients to lungs

63) Which of the following is not a function of blood?

(1) Transport of gases

(2) Regulation of body temperature
(3) Excretion of nitrogenous waste
(4) Fighting infections

64) Which part of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body?

(1) Right atrium

(2) Right ventricle
(3) Left atrium
(4) Left ventricle

65) How many chambers are there in a human heart?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

66) Urea is produced in the:

(1) Kidney
(2) Liver
(3) Lungs
(4) Intestine

67) Which organ helps in elimination of excess salts in aquatic animals?

(1) Skin
(2) Lungs
(3) Gills
(4) Intestine

68) Dialysis is used when:

(1) Liver fails

(2) Heart fails
(3) Lungs fail
(4) Kidneys fail

69) Match the following plant tissues with functions:

A. Xylem – (i) Transport of food
B. Phloem – (ii) Transport of water
C. Parenchyma – (iii) Photosynthesis
D. Collenchyma – (iv) Mechanical support

(1) A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i

(2) A–i, B–ii, C–iv, D–iii
(3) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
(4) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv

70) Which part of the nephron forms a cup-like structure?

(1) Glomerulus
(2) Loop of Henle
(3) Bowman’s capsule
(4) Collecting duct

71) The long tube leading from kidney to urinary bladder is:

(1) Urethra
(2) Ureter
(3) Renal tubule
(4) Pelvis

72) In plants, the gaseous wastes are removed through:

(1) Xylem
(2) Phloem
(3) Stomata
(4) Root hairs

73) Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney?

(1) Filtration of blood

(2) Regulation of blood pressure
(3) Excretion of nitrogenous waste
(4) Digestion of proteins

74) A: Breathing in humans involves exchange of gases in alveoli.

R: Alveoli have thin walls and large surface area

(1) (A) and (R) both true, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

75) A: Diaphragm contracts during inhalation.

R: Lung volume decreases during inhalation.

(1) (A) and (R) both true, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

76) A: Xylem transports water and minerals from roots to leaves.

R: Xylem vessels are made of living cells.

(1) (A) and (R) both true, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) (A) and (R) both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

77) A: Photosynthesis occurs in mesophyll cells.

R: Mesophyll has many chloroplasts

(1) (A) and (R) both true, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) (A) and (R) both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

78) A: Excretion removes metabolic wastes.

R: Skin excretes urea and salts via sweat

(1) (A) and (R) both true, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

79) Match the blood components with their function:

A. RBC – (i) Immunity
B. WBC – (ii) Blood clotting
C. Platelets – (iii) Oxygen transport
D. Plasma – (iv) Transport of nutrients

(1) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv

(2) A–iii, B–i, C–ii, D–iv
(3) A–iv, B–i, C–iii, D–ii
(4) A–iii, B–ii, C–iv, D–i

80) A: Translocation in phloem requires energy.

R: It's a passive process driven by concentration gradient.

(1) A) and (R) both true, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

81) A: Inhalation muscles include intercostals.

R: Intercostals pull ribs downwards

(1) (A) and (R) both true, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

82) A: Insects breathe through spiracles and trachaea

R: Tracheal tubes transport gases directly to tissues

(1) A) and (R) both true, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) A is true, R is false
(4) A is false, R is true

83) A: Kidney failure can be treated with dialysis.

R: Dialysis filters blood using a semi‑permeable membrane

(1) (A) and (R) both true, and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) (A) and (R) both true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true

84) Which part of the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing water under hormonal effect?

(1) Glomerulus
(2) Proximal convoluted tubule
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) Collecting duct

85) Match the leaf structures with their functions:

A. Chlorophyll – (i) Transport of water
B. Stomata – (ii) Gaseous exchange
C. Veins – (iii) Transport of nutrients
D. Mesophyll – (iv) Photosynthesis

(1) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii

(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–iii, D–i
(3) A–iii, B–ii, C–iv, D–i
(4) A–iv, B–ii, C–i, D–iv

86) What causes dental caries?

(1) Excess saliva

(2) Bacterial infection
(3) Excess fluoride
(4) Lack of vitamins

87) Dental caries primarily affect which part of the tooth?

(1) Pulp
(2) Enamel
(3) Cementum
(4) Dentin
88) Match the processes with their descriptions:
A. Transpiration – (i) Removal of waste
B. Photosynthesis – (ii) Food synthesis
C. Excretion – (iii) Loss of water vapor
D. Respiration – (iv) Release of energy

(1) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv

(2) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–ii, D–i
(4) A–ii, B–iii, C–i, D–iv

89) What role does saliva play in preventing dental caries ?

(1) Produces acid to kill bacteria

(2) Washes away food particles and neutralizes acid
(3) Increases sugar levels in the mouth
(4) Hardens the enamel instantly

90) Which lifestyle habit can help maintain healthy blood pressure?

(1) Regular exercise

(2) Excess salt intake
(3) Smoking
(4) Stress and anxiety
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 3 2 4 4 2 4 1 2 4 4 3 1 3 3 4 2 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 4 2 2 4 3 2 4 3 4 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 4 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 4 4 1 2 3 3 4 2 2 1 3 1 1 2 2 2 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 3 2 1 4 2 4 1 4 4 3 4 3 4 3 1 4 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 3 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 3 1 3 2 4 2 4 1 3 2 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 3 4 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 2 3 3 3 1 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 4 2 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 4 3 3 2 3 4 1 3 3 1 1 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 1 4 4 2 2 1 2 1
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