15-02-2026

0999DMD363101250014 MD

PHYSICS

1) A uniformly graduated meter scale of mass 400 g with centre of gravity at 50.5 cm mark is
pivoted at 40 cm. A 200 g mass is suspended at 10 cm mark. The position, where a 50g mass must

be suspended so as to balance the scale is :

(1) 56 cm
(2) 64 cm
(3) 76 cm
(4) 80 cm

2) A copper calorimeter of mass 160 g contains 200 g of water at room temperature of 25°C. A ball
of copper of mass 240 g at temperature T is dropped in calorimeter and final temperature at steady
state of system is found to be 75°C. If specific heat of copper is 0.1 cal/g°C then, initial temperature
T of copper ball is : (Assume system to be closed and thermally insulated)

(1) 475°C
(2) 525°C
(3) 575°C
(4) 640°C

3) To find the Young's modulus of a material of wire using Searle's apparatus, the load-micrometer
(extension) graph gives a slope of 25 divisions per newton. If least count of micrometer is 0.005
mm/division, length of wire 2.5 m and diameter 0.40 mm, then value of Young's modulus for wire is :

(1) 1.1 × 1011 Pa

(2) 1.6 × 1011 Pa
(3) 2.1 × 1011 Pa
(4) 2.5 × 1011 Pa

4) The potential energy of water of surface tension 7.0 × 10–2 N/m density 103 kg/m3, that rises into
capillary tube w.r.t. level in vessel is :
(Take g = 9.8 m/s2 and angle of contact with capillary ≈ 0°)

(1) 0.5 µJ
(2) 0.5 πµJ
(3) π µJ
(4) 5 µJ

5) A spherical ball of radius and density 105 kg/m3 fall freely under gravity through a
distance 'h' before entering a tank of water. If after entering in water, the velocity of ball does not
change, then value of h is approximately (coefficient of viscosity of water is 10–3 Nsm–2, take g = 10
ms–2)

(1) 80 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 120 m
(4) 164 m

6) A tuning fork of frequency 425 Hz is vibrated just above empty resonance tube of height 120 cm.
Now water is slowly poured in it. The minimum height of water required for resonance is : (Velocity
sound at room temperature = 340 m/s end correction for tube = 2 cm)

(1) 18 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 22 cm
(4) 24 cm

7) A pendulum with length 1.0 m is released from an initial angle of 36° from vertical. After 1000 s,
its amplitude has been reduced to 18°. After how much time its amplitude is reduced to 4.5°.

(1) 18 min
(2) 30 min
(3) 45 min
(4) 50 min

8) A motorcyclist rides around the well with a round vertical wall and does not fall down while riding
because :

(1) The force of gravity disappears

(2) Normal reaction of wall balances his weight
(3) He is kept in this path due to the force exerted by surrounding air
(4) The frictional force of wall balances his weight.

9) A body executing uniform circular motion has at any instant its velocity vector and acceleration
vector :

(1) Along the same direction

(2) In opposite direction
(3) Normal to each other
(4) Not related to each other

10) What is approximately the centripetal acceleration (in terms of acceleration due to gravity of
earth i.e.g) of an aircraft flying at a constant speed of 400 ms–1 in a circle of radius 0.6 km?

(1) 26.7 g
(2) 16.9 g
(3) 13.5 g
(4) 30.2 g

11) The moment of inertia of two rotating bodies A and B are IA and IB. If their rotational kinetic
energies are equal then which of the following is correct if IA > IB.

(1) Angular momentum of A = Angular momentum of B.

(2) Angular momentum of A > Angular momentum of B
(3) Angular momentum of A < Angular momentum of B
(4) Angular momentum of both bodies can't be compared with the given data.

12) A uniform rod of mass m and length ℓ rest on a smooth horizontal surface. Rod is given a sharp

horizontal impulse P perpendicular to the rod at a distance from one end. The angular velocity of
the rod will be.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A smooth uniform rod of length L and mass M has two identical beads of neglisible size, each of
mass M, which can slide freely along the rod. Initially they were at center of the rod and rod has
angular velocity ω0. There is no external force when beads reach the ends of the rod, the angular

velocity of the system will be.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A uniform rod of mass M and length ℓ is pivoted at one end so that it can rotate in a vertical
plane. There is neglisible friction at the pivot. The free end is held vertically above the pivot and
then released. The angular acceleration of the rod when it makes an angle θ with the vertical is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) For a disc of given density and thickness, Its moment of inertia varies with radius of disc as

(1) I ∝ R2
(2) I ∝ R4
(3) I ∝ R3
(4) I ∝ R

16) Velocity of the center of smaller cylinder is V. The velocity of the center of larger cylinder will

be (There is no slipping anywhere)

(1) 2V
(2) V

(3)

(4) zero

17) If a piece of metal is heated to temperature T and then allowed to cool in a room which is at
temperature T0, the graph between the temperature T of the metal and time t will be closest to :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Four rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from the same metal form the sides of
square. The temperature of two diagonally opposite points are T and T respectively in the steady
state. Assuming that only heat conduction takes place, what will be the temperature difference
between other two diagonally opposite points :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 0
(4) None of these

19) Three rods A, B and C of thermal conductivities K, 2K and 4K, cross-sectional areas A, 2A and 2A
and lengths 2ℓ, ℓ and ℓ respectively are connected as shown in the figure. If the ends of the rods are
maintained at temperatures 100°C, 50°C, and 0°C respectively, then the temperature θ of the

junction is :-

(1)

(2) 20°C
(3)

(4)

20) Two identical beakers A and B contain equal volumes of two different liquids at 60°C each and
left to cool down. Liquid in A has density of 8 × 102 kg/m3 and specific heat of 2000 J kg–1 K–1 while
liquid in B has density of 103 kg m–3 and specific heat of 4000 J kg–1 K–1. Which of the following best
describes their themperature versus time graph schematically ? (assume the emissivity of both the
beakers to be the same)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A Carnot engine takes 3 × 106 cal of heat from a reservoir at 627°C and gives it to a sink at
27°C. The work done by the engine is:

(1) 4.2 × 106 J

(2) 8.4 × 106 J
(3) 16.8 × 106 J
(4) Zero

22) One mole of ideal monoatomic gas is mixed with one mole of diatomic gas .
What is γ for the mixture ? γ denotes the ratio of specific heat at constant pressure, to that at
constant volume.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

23) Find work done by the gas in the process shown in figure :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under three different processes. Process 1 is isobaric
process, process 2 is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let ΔU1, ΔU2 and ΔU3 be the change in

internal energy of the gas is these three processes. Then

(1) ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU3

(2) ΔU1 < ΔU2 < ΔU3
(3) ΔU2 < ΔU1 < ΔU3
(4) ΔU2 < ΔU3 < ΔU1

25) The gravitational potential due to the earth at infinite distance from it, is zero. Let the
gravitational potential at a point P be –5 J/kg. Suppose, we arbitrarily assume the gravitational
potential at infinity to be + 10 J/kg, then the gravitational potential at P will be:

(1) –5 J/kg
(2) +5 J/kg
(3) –15 J/kg
(4) +15 J/kg

26) An earth satellite moves from an orbit A to another stable lower orbit B. In this process :

(1) Gravitational PE decreases

(2) Gravitational PE increases
(3) Angular speed decreases
(4) None of the above

27) The speed of the earth's rotation about its axis is ω. Its speed is increased to x times to make the
effective acceleration due to gravity equal to zero at the equator. Then x is :

(1) 1
(2) 8.5
(3) 17
(4) 34

28) At the surface of a certain planet acceleration due to gravity is one-quarter of that on the earth.
If a brass ball is transported to this planet, then which one of the following statements is not correct
?

(1) The mass of the brass ball on this planet is a quarter of its mass as measured on the earth.
(2) The weight of the brass ball on this planet is a quarter of the weight as measured on the earth.
(3) The brass ball has same mass on the other planet as on the earth.
(4) The brass ball has the same volume on the other planet as on the earth.

29) Statement of assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement of reason (R) just
below it. Of the following options, choose the correct answer:
Assertion (A) :- Two satellites A and B are in the same orbit around the earth, B being behind A.
Satellite B can overtake satellite A by increasing its speed.
Reason (R) :- Orbital speeds of two satellite in same orbit may be different.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion and reason both are false

30) If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by a tube

(1) Air flows from the bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till the sizes become equal
(2) Air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till the sizes are interchanged
(3) Air flows from the smaller bubble to the bigger.
(4) There is no flow of air.

31) A metallic wire of diameter "d" is lying horizontally on the surface of water. The maximum length
of wire so that it may not sink will be (T is surface tension).

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) Any length

32) The lower end of a capillary tube is at a depth of 12 cm and water rises 3 cm in it. Assume
contact angle is 0°. The mouth pressure required to blow an air bubble at the lower end will be x cm
of water column, where x is :

(1) 12
(2) 15
(3) 3
(4) 9

33) When a glass capillary tube is immersed in a liquid, the liquid rises to a height of 6mm. The tube
is gradually pressed down, until a length of only 4 mm projects outside. Now the liquid meniscus
makes an angle of 60° with the walls of the capillary. Determine the angle of contact for the glass
and the liquid pair.

(1) cos–1 (3/4)

(2) cos–1(3/7)
(3) 37°
(4) cos–1(1/2)

34) In the case of a fluid, Bernoulli's theorem expresses the application of the principle of
conservation of :

(1) Linear momentum

(2) Energy
(3) Mass
(4) Angular momentum

35) When temperature is increased :

(a) Viscosity of the gas increases
(b) Viscosity of the gas decreases
(c) Viscosity of the liquid decreases
(d) Viscosity of the liquid increases

(1) a and c are true

(2) b and c are true
(3) b and d are true
(4) a and d are true

36) On suspending a mass m from a spring of force constant k, frequency of vibration f is obtained. If
a second spring, as shown in the figure, is arranged with the first spring, then the frequency will be
:-

(1)
(2)
(3) 2f
(4) f

37) In an artificial satellite, the object used is :-

(1) Spring watch

(2) Pendulum watch
(3) Watches of both spring and pendulum
(4) None of these

38) The mass of a bob, suspended in a simple pendulum, is halved from the initial mass, its time
period will :-

(1) Be less
(2) Be more
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) None of these

39) Sufficient and necessary condition for SHM is :-

(1) Elastic force is proportional to acceleration

(2) Elastic force is proportional to displacement and opposite in direction.
(3) Acceleration is proportional to displacement
(4) Acceleration is proportional to position vector

40) A sine wave has amplitude A and wavelength λ. If V is the wave velocity and v be the maximum
particle velocity, then :-

(1)

(2) V = v, if A = 2πλ
(3) V = v, if A = πλ
(4) V can never be equal to v

41) The equation of a progressive wave is . The frequency of the wave will be
:-

(1) 0.1 Hz
(2) 2.5 Hz
(3) 100 Hz
(4) 200 Hz

42) If ratio of amplitudes of two waves is then ratio of their intensities will be :

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

43) On pouring water in a pipe its frequency will :-

(1) Decreases
(2) Increase
(3) Remain unchanged
(4) None of the above

44) Beats are the result of :-

(1) Diffraction
(2) Destructive interference
(3) Constructive and destructive interference
(4) Superposition of two waves of nearly equal frequencies

45) A uniform rope of length 10 m and mass 15 kg hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of
mass 5 kg is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 0.08 m is
produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the

rope will be :-

(1) 0.08 m
(2) 0.04 m
(3) 0.16 m
(4) 0.2 m

CHEMISTRY

1) Which is incorrect matching-

(1)
→ Corey-House Alkane synthesis
(2)
→ Wurtz-Fittig reaction

(3)
→ Wurtz reaction

(4)

→ Wolf-Kishner Reduction

2) Assertion : Hydration of alkenes in the presence of mineral acids, takes place via carbocation as
intermediates.
Reason : Hydration of alkenes is initiated by electrophilic attack of H⊕ ions on carbon-carbon double
bond.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

3) Which of the following reaction doesn't produce benzene ?

(1)
HC ≡ CH

(2)

(3)

(4)
+ H2O →

4) Predict the final product :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) "Halogenation of methane take place at higher temperature or diffused sunlight". Find correct for
this statement

(1) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 (Reactivity of halogen)

(2) CH4 < CH3 – CH3 < CH3 – CH2 – CH3 (Reactivity of alkane)
(3) Reaction initiate with heterolysis
(4) Intermediate is methyl carbocation.

6) When methane react with steam at 1273 K in presence of Ni product formed is :-

(1) CO + H2
(2) CO + 3H2
(3) CH3OH
(4) HCOOH

7) Which reaction does not show correct product-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of following reaction will produce the given alkene as major product ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) All of these

9) Isobutylene t-Butyl bromide

Intermediate of reaction is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)
Product A, B, C are respectively-

(1)
, ,

(2)
, ,

(3)
, ,

(4)

, ,

11)
Identify C :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which of the following IUPAC numbering is correct :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Correct IUPAC name of the given compound is:-

(1) 5-formyl-2-hydroxy cyclo hexane carboxylic acid
(2) 3-carboxy-4-hydroxy cyclo hexane carbaldehyde
(3) 3-formyl-6-hydroxy cyclo hexane carboxylic acid
(4) 2-carboxy-4-formyl cyclo hexane-1-ol

14)

How many cyclic structural isomers form by C5H10 :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

15) Out of the following, which will show geometrical isomerism ?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a, b
(2) a,d
(3) a,c,d
(4) All

16) Which of the following have Z configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) Which of the following compound is not aromatic

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) In the following compounds the order of pKb is :-

(1) I > III > II > IV

(2) IV > II > III > I
(3) IV > I > III > II
(4) III > I > IV > II

19) Which of the following has lowest pKa values ?

(1) Cl–CH2–CO2H

(2)

(3) Cl3C–CO2H
(4) CH3–CO2H

20) The correct order of basic strength of the following compounds is :-

(1) B > A > C > D
(2) C > B > A > D
(3) C > A > B > D
(4) A > B > C > D

21) Correct stability order of following resonating structure :-

(1) III > II > I

(2) I > II > III
(3) I > III > II
(4) II > I > III

22)

Correct order of acidic strength

(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI

(2) HF > H2O > NH3 > CH4
(3) H3C – C ≡ CH > HC ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2
(4) CH4 > CH2 = CH2 > HC ≡ CH

23) N2O4 2NO2; Kc = 4

This reversible reaction is studied graphically as shown in the given figure. Select the correct
statements out of I, II & III.
(I) Reaction quotient has maximum value at point A
(II) Reaction, proceeds left to right at a point when [N2O4] = [NO2] = 0.1 M.
(III) Kc = Q, when point D or F is reached.

(1) I, II
(2) II, III
(3) I, III
(4) I, II, III

24) The equilibrium 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) shifts forward if :-

(1) A catalyst is used.

(2) An adsorbent is used to remove SO3 as soon as it is formed.
(3) Some amounts of reactants are removed.
(4) None of these

25)

In the following equilibria,

I. A + 2B C; Keq = K1
II. C + D 3A; Keq = K2
III. 6B + D 2C; Keq = K3
Hence,

(1) 3K1 × K2 = K3
3 2
(2) K1 × K2 = K3
2
(3) 3K1 × K2 = K3
3
(4) K1 × K2 = K3

26) Calculate the ratio of solubility of AgCl in 0.1M AgNO3 and in pure water :
Given : KSP of AgCl = 1.8 × 10–10

(1) 1.34 × 10–5

(2) 1.34 × 10–4
(3) 2 × 10–8
(4) 3 × 10–6

27) Which one has pH = 12 at 25°C :

(1) 0.01M KOH

(2) 1M KOH
(3) 1M NaOH
(4) 0.5M Ca(OH)2

28) At a certain temperature, only 50% HI is dissociated into H2 and I2 at equilibrium. The
equilibrium constant for 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g) is :-

(1) 1.0
(2) 3.0
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.25

29) How much of 0.2 N NaOH is required for completely neutralize 100 ml of 0.5 N H2SO4
(1) 200 ml
(2) 250 ml
(3) 300 ml
(4) 350 ml

30) Match List-I (Compounds) with List-II (Oxidation states of Nitrogen) and select answer using the
codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(a) NaN3 (1) +5

(b) N2H2 (2) +2

(c) NO (3) -1/3

(d) N2O5 (4) -1

Codes:-
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 3 4 2 1

(2) 4 3 2 1

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 4 3 1 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31)

Number of moles of MnO4– required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic
medium will be:-

(1) 7.5 moles

(2) 0.2 moles
(3) 0.6 moles
(4) 0.4 moles

32) When CrI3 oxidies to Cr2O72– and IO4– equivalent mass of CrI3 will be

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

33) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 75 mL of 0.1 M NH4Cl to make a basic buffer. If pKa of NH4+ is
9.26 then pH will be :

(1) 4.44
(2) 9.56
(3) 4.74
(4) 9.26

34)

A compound consists of elements P,Q, and R. has Oxidation Numbers of +1, +6 and –2 respectively.
than what is molecular formula of that compound:-

(1) P2QR2
(2) P2QR
(3) P2Q2R7
(4) P3Q4R2

35) The IUPAC name of the compound :-

(1) 2-Cyano-2-methyl-4-oxo pentane

(2) 4-Cyano-4-methyl-2-oxo pentane
(3) 4-Cyano-4-methyl-2-oxo pentanone
(4) 2,2-Dimethyl-4-oxo pentanenitrile

36) The saturated heterocyclic compound is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
37) The correct structure of
6-ethyl-2,3,5-trimethylnonane is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which of the following isomerism is not found in alkenes ?

(1) Metamerism
(2) Geometrical isomerism
(3) Position isomerism
(4) Chain isomerism

39) Which type of isomerism is observed between (I) and (II) :-

(1) Chain isomerism

(2) Position isomerism
(3) Functional isomerism
(4) Metamerism

40) Stability order of following carbocations is :-

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(1) i > ii > iii > iv

(2) i > iii > iv > ii
(3) i > iv > iii > ii
(4) iv > iii > ii > i

41) Which of the following species is not electrophile in nature :-

(1) BH3
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The decreasing order of basic characters of the following is :

I. II.

III. IV.

(1) III > I > IV > II

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) I > II > III > IV

43) A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be separated by :-

(1) Simple distillation

(2) Fractional distillation
(3) Vacuum Distillation
(4) Steam Distillation

44) Which of the following compound is used as an adsorbent in column chromatography :-

(1) Na2O
(2) Na2SO4
(3) Al2O3
(4) NaCl

45) 0.1 gm of organic compound was analysed by Kjeldahl's method. In analysis produced NH3
absorbed in 30 ml N/5 H2SO4. The remaining acid required 20 ml N/10 NaOH for neutralisation.
Calculate percentage of nitrogen in organic compound :-

(1) 28 %
(2) 56 %
(3) 35 %
(4) 70 %
 BIOLOGY

1) Polysome contain :-

(1) One ribosome + One mRNA

(2) Many ribosome + Many mRNA
(3) One ribosome + Many mRNA
(4) Many ribosomes + One mRNA

2) Which of the following cell organelle is involved in the synthesis of the cell organelle that contains
hydrolytic enzymes?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Plastids
(4) Nucleus

3)

Cytoplasmic connection between adjacent plant cells is called :-

(1) Middle lamella

(2) Plasmodesmata
(3) Golgi apparatus
(4) (1) and (2) both

4)

Colourless plastid, which store proteins, is :-

(1) Amyloplast
(2) Elaioplast
(3) Aleuroplast
(4) Chromoplast

5) An elaborated network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm, is -

(1) Endomembrane system

(2) System of membranes
(3) Cytoskeleton
(4) Protein synthesis machinery

6) Chlorophyll pigments are present in -

(1) Cristae
(2) Cisternae
(3) Thylakoids
(4) Stroma

7) What is P, Q, R in given figure :

P Q R

(1) Inner Membrane Matrix Cristae

(2) Outer membrane Cristae Matrix

Outer
(3) Matrix Cristae
membrane

(4) None of these

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Assertion: Ribosomes are found in all cells i.e. in both eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic cells.
Reason: Ribosomes are non membrane bound cell organelles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(I) S phase (i) Most of the organelles duplication

(II) G1 phase (ii) Tubulin proteins are synthesised

(III) Anaphase (iii) DNA Replication

(IV) G2 phase (iv) Centromere split

(1) I-ii, II-iii, III-iv, IV-i
(2) I-i, II-iv, III-ii, IV-iii
(3) I-iii, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii
(4) I-iii, II-ii, III-i, IV-iv

10) In which phase of meiosis sister chromatids are separate?

(1) Anaphase - I
(2) Metaphase - I
(3) Diplotene
(4) Anaphase - II

11) Interval between pre-DNA synthesis and synthesis of tubulin protein will be :-

(1) G1-Phase
(2) G2-Phase
(3) S-Phase
(4) M-Phase

12) Growth is measured by a variety of parameters among following which is not included in these ?

(1) Cell type

(2) Dry weight
(3) Fresh weight
(4) Cell number

13) The factors influencing growth are -

(1) Light and Temperature

(2) Oxygen and Water
(3) Different nutrients
(4) All of the above

14) Match the following column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

a. Ethephon (i) GA

b. Terpene (ii) Ethylene

c. Zeatin (iii) Natural Auxin

d. IAA (iv) Cytokinin

(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(3) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)
(4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

15) Growth of living being is/are -

(1) Irreversible
(2) Increase in size
(3) Increase in weight
(4) All of these

16) Assertion (A) : Gibberellin is useful in early seed production in conifers.

Reason (R) : Ethephon is responsible for early ripening in tomato and apple.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

17) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Abscisic acid - stress hormone

(2) Ethylene - Delay leaf senescence
(3) Gibberellins - Bolting
(4) Auxins - Parthenocarpy

18) Increased vacuolation is a characteristic of -

(1) Meristematic phase

(2) Maturation phase
(3) Elongation phase
(4) All of these

19) Match the column in respect with the measurement growth :

Column-I Column-II

a. Maize i. Length

b. Watermelon ii. Surface area

c. Pollen tube iii. Cell number

d. Dorsiventral leaf iv. Cell size

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

20) Statement-I : ABA is also called stress hormone.

Statement-II : ABA stimulates the closure of stomata and increase the tolerance of plants to various
kinds of stresses.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(3) Only statement-II is correct
(4) Only statement-I is correct
21) Select the incorrect statement :
(a) Intrinsic factor that control the development in plant include both intracellular or intercellular
factors.
(b) Intercellular factors are also known as genetic factors.
(c) Chemicals such as plant growth regulators are intracellular factors.
(d) Temperature, water, oxygen and nutrition are extrinsic factors that control the development in
plants.

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)

22) Statement-I : Auxin prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stage.
Statement-II : Auxin promote abscission of older mature leaves & fruits.

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect

(2) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

23) Glycolysis pathway is discover by :

(1) Melvin-Calvin
(2) Hatch & Slack
(3) Embden, Meyerhof & Parnas
(4) Krebs

24) Glycolysis occurs in -

(1) Nucleus
(2) Matrix of mitochondria
(3) Plasma membrane
(4) Cytoplasm of cell

25) Which of the following enzyme is called pacemaker enzyme of glycolysis ?

(1) Hexokinase
(2) Pyruvic acid kinase
(3) Phospho fructokinase [PFK]
(4) Isomerase

26) How many ATP are produced from 2-molecule of pyruvic acid in link reaction or oxidative
decarboxylation ?

(1) 3ATP
(2) 6 ATP
(3) 2 ATP
(4) 8 ATP

27) In Krebs cycle two successive step of _______ leading to the formation of _______ respectively ?

(1) Oxidation, α-ketoglutaric acid

(2) Decarboxylation, Malic acid
(3) Decarboxylation, α-ketoglutaric acid
(4) Oxidation, Succinyl Co-A

28) Statement-I : The breaking of C—C bonds of complex compounds through oxidation within the
cells leading to release of considerable amount of energy is called respiration.
Statement-II : The compounds that are oxidised during the respiration are known as respiratory
substrate.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-II is incorrect and Statement-II is correct

29) Match the column A and Column B.

Column-A Column-B

(A) Collagen (i) Hormone

Enables glucose
(B) Trypsin (ii)
transport into cells

(C) Insulin (iii) Enzyme

Intercellular ground
(D) Glut-4 (iv)
substance

Select the correct option :-

(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

30) Statement-I : Nitrogen bases when found attached to a sugar they are called nucleosides.
Statement-II : Adenosine, thymidine, Adenylic acid etc are nucleosides.
Select the correct option :

(1) Both statements I and II are correct.

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.
31) Statement-I : The neural tissues have lipids with more complex structures. Statement-II :
Lecithin is phospholipid in which lipid has phosphorylated organic compound.
Select the correct option.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct.

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.

32) Match the Column A & Column B

Column-A Column-B

(A) Rubber (i) Lectins

(B) Codeine (ii) Drugs

Polymeric
(C) Concavalin-A (iii)
substance

(D) Vinblastin (iv) Alkaloids

Select the correct option :

(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

33) Read following statements carefully and select the correct statements.
(A) Lipids, whose molecular weights donot exceed 800 Da. Come under insoluble fraction.
(B) When we grind a tissue, cell membrane and other membranes are broken.
(C) The acid soluble pool represent roughly the cytoplasmic composition.
(D) Lipids are not strictly macromolecules.
Select the correct option

(1) A, B & C
(2) A, B & D
(3) B, C & D
(4) A, B, C & D

34) Statement-I : In a polysaccharide chain of glycogen, the right end is called reducing end and
left end is called non reducing end.
Statement-II : Cellulose contains complex helices and hence can hold iodine and gives blue colour.
Select the correct option.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct.

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.
35) In which part of the chloroplast does the light reaction of photosynthesis take place?

(1) Stroma
(2) Grana
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Mitochondria

36) Which pigment is chief pigment associated with photosynthesis?

(1) Chlorophyll a
(2) Chlorophyll b
(3) Xanthophyll
(4) Carotene

37) Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reaction of photosynthesis?

(1) ATP
(2) NADPH
(3) O2
(4) Glucose

38) The first stable product of C3 cycle is :

(1) Oxaloacetic acid

(2) Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
(3) Malic acid
(4) Pyruvic acid

39) Which enzyme is responsible for carbon fixation in the Calvin cycle?

(1) ATP synthase

(2) PEP carboxylase
(3) Rubisco
(4) NADP reductase

40) C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants because:

(1) They have bundle sheath cells

(2) Photorespiration is absent
(3) They absorb more light
(4) Their leaves are broader

41) The law of limiting factors in photosynthesis was given by:

(1) Van Niel

(2) Ruben and Kamen
(3) Blackman
(4) Priestley

42) Which molecule acts as the hydrogen acceptor during the light reaction?

(1) ATP
(2) NADP+
(3) Rubisco
(4) FAD

43) Which wavelength of light is least effective in photosynthesis?

(1) Blue
(2) Green
(3) Red
(4) Violet

44) The ‘Z’ scheme of photosynthesis related with :

(1) Calvin cycle

(2) Arrangement of chloroplasts
(3) Cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation

45) Statement-1: Photolysis of water is associated with PSII.

Statement-2: PSII is located in the stroma of the chloroplast.

(1) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are incorrect

(2) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct
(3) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement-1 incorrect and Statement-2 are correct.

46) Among the following statements, how many statements are correct ?
(A) Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of fibrous matrix, plasma and formed elements.
(B) Leucocytes are colourless due to absence of Hb.
(C) Blood group-B individuals have anti-A antibodies on their [Link].
(D) The opening between right atria and right ventricle is guarded by tricuspid valve.
(E) End of T-wave represents the end of ventricular systole.

(1) A, B, C, D & E
(2) B, C & D only
(3) B, D & E only
(4) A, B, D & E only

47) Statement I : In humans hepatic vein carries blood from intestine to the liver before it is
delivered to the pulmonary circulation.
Statement II : Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves can increase the rate of heart beat.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct while statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect while statement II is correct.

48) Assertion : 'Dub'-heart sound is produced at the begining of ventricular diastole stage.
Reason : At the begining of ventricular diastole semilunar valves are closed.

(1) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

(2) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are correct & Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.

49) Which of the following animals have open circulatory system ?

(1) Pheretima
(2) Periplaneta
(3) Frog
(4) Octopus

50) Incomplete double circulation is found in which animals ?

(1) Labeo
(2) Crocodiles
(3) Parrot
(4) Hyla

51) Which of the following vein carry oxygenated blood ?

(1) Hepatic portal vein

(2) Renal vein
(3) Systemic vein
(4) Pulmonary vein

52) Among the following pair which one is incorrectly matched.

(1) SA-Node → Pacemaker

(2) Leucocytes → [Link]
(3) P-wave → Atrial depolarisation
(4) Bundle of His → Interatrial septum

53) Match the following columns :-

Column I Column II
 (i) CAD (a) Heart stops beating

(ii) Heart attack (b) Atherosclerosis

(iii) Cardiac arrest (c) Heart muscles damaged

(1) (i) → (c), (ii) → (b), (iii) → (a)
(2) (i) → (b), (ii) → (c), (iii) → (a)
(3) (i) → (b), (ii) → (a), (iii) → (c)
(4) (i) → (a), (ii) → (b), (iii) → (c)

54)

What is the state of iron in haemoglobin ?

(1) Fe–
(2) Fe+
(3) Fe2+
(4) Fe2–

55) Identify the given figure & select the correct option :-

(1) Eosinophil → Allergic reactions

(2) Neutrophils → Agranulocytes
(3) Neutrophils → Phagocytic cell
(4) Basophils → Inflammatory reactions

56) SAN presents at __(b)__ of right atria while AVN presents at __(a)__ of right atria.

a → right upper corner,

(1)
b → lower left corner
a → left upper corner,
(2)
b → lower left corner
b → right upper corner,
(3)
a → lower left corner
b → left upper corner,
(4)
a → lower left corner

57) Brainstem consists of all except :-

(1) Midbrain
(2) Pons
(3) Medulla
(4) Cerebellum
58) Which of following part of brain wraps around the thalamus?

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Diencephalon
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Corpus callosum

59) Brain stem includes -

(1) Mid brain, Pons, cerebellum

(2) Mid brain, Pons, Medulla oblongata
(3) Cerebrum, Pons, medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebellum, Pons, Medulla oblongata

60) The hypothalamus contains a number of centres which controls :-

(1) Body temperature

(2) Urge of drinking water
(3) Urge of eating
(4) All of the above

61) Which of the following cranial meninges in is contact with the brain tissue?

(1) Duramater
(2) Arachnoid
(3) Piamater
(4) Both 1 & 3

62) Pre-synaptics membrane and post -synaptic membrane are present in very close proximity in -

(1) Electrical synapse

(2) Chemical synapse
(3) Electrochemical synapse
(4) All of the above

63) Consider following statements-

A. Visceral neural system is the part of PNS.
B. CNS is further classified as somatic & autonomic neural system.
C. Cell body, dendrites & axon of neuron contains Nissl's granules.
D. Nodes of Ranvier are found only in myelinated nerve fibres.
E. A current flows on inner side of axonal membrane, from earlier part to later part during impulse
conduction.
How many of above are not correct?

(1) A, B,C & E only

(2) B & C only
(3) C,D & E only
(4) B, C & E only

64) Assertion (A) : Cerebral cortex contains a large area which is neither clearly sensory nor motor
in function.
Reason (R) : Association areas are responsible for complex function like inter sensory association,
memory & communications.

(1) (A) & (R) both are correct & (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) & (R) both are false.
(4) (A) & (R) both are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

65) Statement-I : Neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulses at electrical

synapses.
Statement-II : Transmission of an impulse across electrical synapse is very similar to impulse
conduction along a single axon.

(1) Both statements I & II are correct.

(2) Only statement I is correct.
(3) Only statement II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

66) In which type of synapses transmission of impulse is very similar to impulse conduction along a
single axon ?

(1) Chemical synapse

(2) Electrical synapse
(3) Electrochemical synapse
(4) 1 & 2 both.

67) If PCT removed from nephron what change will be seen :

(1) more concentrated urine

(2) no change in quality and quantity of urine
(3) no urine formation
(4) more dilute urine formation

68) Which of the following is not a function of kidney ?

(1) Secretion of albumin

(2) Regulation of pH of body fluids
(3) Removal of urea
(4) Regulation of BP

69) Which condition is characterised as 'Diuresis' ?

(1) Increase in urine volume

(2) Increase in sugar excretion
(3) Decrease in urine volume
(4) Decrease in ionic concentration

70) With respect to human blood human urine is :

(1) Hypotonic
(2) Hypertonic
(3) Isotonic
(4) None of these

71) 70-80% amount of electrolytes and water is reabsorbed by which part of the nephron ?

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Desending limb of loop of henle
(4) Ascending limb of loop of henle

72) Assertion : Increase in blood flow to the atria of heart can causes the release of atrial
natriuretic factor (ANF)
Reason : ANF causes vaso constriction

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

73) Assertion : Ascending limb of henle's loop is site of minimum reabsorption.

Reason : The descending limb of henle's loop is permeable to water and impermeable to
electrolytes.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

74) Read the following statements and answer accordingly :

Statement-I : Mammals have ability to produce a concentrated urine.
Statement-II : The henle's loop and vasa recta play significant role in urine concentration.

(1) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect, Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.
75) Identify (A), (B), (C) & (D) in given flow chart.

A-Angiotensinogen
B-Renin
(1)
C-Angiotensin-I
D-Angiotensin-II
A-Angiotensin-II
B-Renin
(2)
C-Angiotensin-I
D-Angiotensinogen
A-Angiotensinogen
B-Renin
(3)
C-Angiotensin-I
D-ANF
A-ANF B-Renin
(4) C-Angiotensinogen
D-Angiotensin-I

76) Arrange the part of nephron in a correct sequence :

(I) Glomerulus, (II) Bowman's capsule, (III) Henle's loop (IV) PCT, (V) DCT

(1) I→II → III → IV → V

(2) I → II → IV → III → V
(3) I → III → IV → II → V
(4) IV → III → II → I → V

77) In the given matched pairs, which one is correctly matched ?

(1) ADH H2O reabsorption

(2) Aldosteron H2O & Na+ reabsorption

(3) ANF Decreased in BP

(4) Angiotensinogen Vasodilator

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78)
Which of these is not a basis of classification for muscles ?

(1) Appearance
(2) Location
(3) Excitability
(4) Regulation of activities

79) What is fascia made of ?

(1) Keratin
(2) Muscle fibres
(3) Myofilaments
(4) Collagen

80)

Which of these is not a function of joints ?

(1) Articulation
(2) Bone growth
(3) Supports body
(4) Enables mobility

81) In which region is the sternum present ?

(1) Thoracic
(2) Lumbar
(3) Cervical
(4) Coccygeal

82) Match the following and mark the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Cartilaginous joint (i) Between the carpals

Between carpals and metacarpals of

(B) Gliding joint (ii)
thumb

(C) Fibrous joint (iii) Pubis symphysis

(D) Saddle joint (iv) Between the cranials bone

(1) A→iii, B→ii, C→iv, D→iii
(2) A→iii, B→i, C→iv, D→ii
(3) A→ii, B→i, C→iv, D→iii
(4) A→iii, B→iv, C→ii, D→iii

83) Assertion (A) : H-Zone is the zone of the thin myofilaments in center of the A band.
Reason (R) : Within the A-band of a sarcomere is a central pale region called the H-zone.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

84) All adrenal cortex hormones are :

(1) Peptide
(2) Polypeptide
(3) Steroid
(4) All of the above

85) β and α cells of lslets of Langerhans secrete the following hormones in respective order :

(1) Insulin and glucagon

(2) Glucagon and insulin
(3) Testosterone and progesterone
(4) Glucagon and somatostatin

86) Hormone which interacts with membrane bound receptors normally but do not enter the target
cell and use 2° messengers like :

(1) Cyclic AMP

(2) IP3
(3) Ca++
(4) All

87) Both Adrenaline and cortisol are secreted in response to stress. Which of the following statement
is also true for both of these hormones ?

(1) They act to increase blood glucose

(2) They are secreted by adrenal cortex
(3) Their secretion is stimulated by adrenocorticotropin.
(4) Both are steroid hormone

88) When a person suffers from a marked fall in blood pressure, it is helpful to administer to him the
following hormone :

(1) Oxytocin
(2) Thyroxine
(3) GH
(4) Adrenaline

89) The secretion of following hormones is controlled by hypothalamus :

(1) TSH and cortisol
(2) FSH and progesterone
(3) LH, corticotrophin and thyrotropin (TSH)
(4) ACTH, GH and HCG

90) The important function of vasopressin hormone is to :

(1) Causes contraction of the uterus

(2) Increases reabsorption of H2O in the nephron
(3) Stimulates the secretion of milk
(4) lower the level of blood pressure
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 2 3 1 3 4 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 4 1 2 1 3 1 4 3 4 2 1 2 1 1 1 3 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 2 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 4 3 2 2 3 4 3 2 4 2 1 3 2 2 3 2 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 2 4 2 1 4 2 1 3 2 2 3 4 3 1 1 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 4 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 4 3 1 4 2 4 2 2 3 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 4 3 2 3 1 1 3 1 1 4 3 2 1 4 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 4 3 3 4 3 2 4 4 4 2 3 3 3 4 1 2 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 2 4 3 2 4 1 1 2 1 3 2 3 1 2 3 3 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 4 3 1 4 1 4 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Let 50 g mass is suspended at x cm mark

From principle of moments :

(40 – 10)200 g = (50.5 – 40) × 400g + (x – 40)50g
6000 = 4200 + 50x – 2000
⇒ 50x = 3800 ⇒ x = 76 cm

2) Heat lost = Heat gained

240 × 0.1 × (T – 75)
= 160 × 0.1 (75 – 25) + 200 × 1(75 – 25)
24T – 1800 = 800 + 10000
⇒ T = 525°C

3) Slope ⇒ Extension per newton

Let for 1 newton extension is x
⇒ x = 25 div. = 25 × 0.005 mm = 1.25 × 10–4m ;
r = 2 × 10–4m

Y=

4)

PE = mg (COM at )

= (T × 2πr) = πTrh

= πTr × =
Substituting values : PE = πµJ

5) VT = (ρB – ρL)g

=
VT = 396 × 10–1 = 39.6 ≈ 40 m/s
If the velocity of ball after entering the water has to be constant, then velocity just above the
surface of water should be equal to terminal velocity.

⇒h= = = 80 m

6) λ = = = 0.8 m = 80 cm

Length of first resonance ℓ1 = – e = 18 cm

Second resonance ℓ2 = – e = 58 cm

Third resonance ℓ3 = – e = 98 cm

Fourth resonance ℓ4 = – e = 138 cm

As length of tube is only 120 cm, so fourth resonance is not possible :
Minimum height of water column = 120 – 98
= 120 – 98 = 22 cm

7) For damped oscillates :

0
A = A e–kt
18° = 36°e–K(1000)

⇒ e–K(1000) = ....(1)
4.5° = 36°e–Kt

⇒ e–Kt = = = ....(2)

From (1) and (2) [e–k(1000)]3 = = e–Kt

⇒ e–K(3000) = e–Kt
⇒ t = 3000 sec = 50 min
Alternate solution
Initial amplitude A0 = 36°

After 1000 s A1 = 18°=

After 2000 s

After 3000 s

From start 3000 s or 50 min

8)
f = mg, so motorcyclist does not fall down.

9) Velocity is along tangent to the circular path acceleration vector is along the radius.

10)

11) KEA = KEB

∵ IA > IB ⇒ LA > LB

12)

13) Li = Lf

Iiωi = Ifωf

14)
15)
M = ρ × vol.
= ρ × πR2 × t

⇒ I ∝ R4

16) For small cylinder = V = Rω

Speed of every point of rod = 2V
for bigger cylinder, let the velocity of center of bigger cylinder be V1
V1 – 2 Rω = 0
V1 = 2Rω
V1 + 2Rω = 2V ⇒ V1 = V

17) According to Newtons cooling law option (3) is correct answer.

18) Temperature difference between C and D is zero.

19) Let RA, RB and RC be the thermal resistance of rods A, B and C respectively. Then

and RC =
Since thermal current

or RH = θ1 – θ2
∴ 100 – θ = RAHA ...(i)
θ – 50 = RBHB ...(ii)
 θ – 0 = RCHC = RC(HA – HB) ...(iii)
On substituting values of RA, RB and RC, we get

θ = 20°C

20)
ρA < ρB
mA < mB

at t = 0

21)

= 8.4 ×106 J

22)

23) Work done by the gas = Area enclosed on the P-V graph.
∵ Cycle is anti clock wise so W = –ve

24) For isobaric process ΔU1 > 0

For isothermal process ΔU2 = 0
For adiabatic process ΔU3 < 0
hence ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU3

25) According to the problem, as the potential at ∞ increases by +10 J/kg, hence potential will
increase by the same amount everywhere (Potential gradient will remain constant). Hence,
potential at point P
= 10 – 5 = +5 J/kg.
26) As
When r decreases, gravitational potential energy becomes more negative, i.e., U decreases.

27)
For weightlessness at equator
T' = 84.6 min

= 17

28)

By theory

29)

By theory

30) Theory

31)

32) Let P1 be the Mouth pressure

P1 = ρgx = [P0 + ρg(12 + 3)] – P0
ρgx = ρg(15) ⇒ x = 15

33)

34) Bernoulli's theorem based on the principle of conservation of energy

35) When temperature increased, viscosity of gas increases, and viscosity of liquid decreases.
For gas viscosity is due to collision. When temperature increases, gas molecule attains more
kinetic energy.

36)
 NCERT Pg. # 14.13

37)

NCERT Pg. # 14.15

geff = 0

38)

NCERT Pg. # 14.15

T ∝ m°

39)

NCERT Pg. # 14.23

F∝–x

40)

V=v

41)

42)

I ∝ a2

43)

44)

due to supper position of two waves of nearly equal frequencies.

45)

f = constant

CHEMISTRY
46)
Fittig reaction

47)

Acidic hydration of alkene in starts by attack of H+ which leads to formation of carbocation.

48)

49)

50)

This reaction is free radical substitution reaction.

Reactivity ∝ stability of radical.

51) CH4 + H2O CO + 3H2

(Steam)

52)
53)

54)

55)

56)

57)

Ist main F.G. then multiple bond then substituents

58)

59) 5 isomer

60) a, d can show G.I.

61)

H.P. groups are on some side according to CIP rule.

62)

Cyclooctatetraene is NON aromatic compound

63)

64)

Cl3C–COO–H has strong-I effect so more acidic in nature thus has lowest pKa value.

65)

66)

67)

HF > H2O > NH3 > CH4 → Acidic strength

 68) (I) Reaction quotient has maximum value at point A.

A. At point A, the concentration of N2O4 is high, and the concentration of NO2 is low.
B. Q = [NO2]2 / [N2O4]
C. Since [N2O4] is high and [NO2] is low, Q will be very small, approaching zero, not maximum.
D. Statement (I) is incorrect.

(II) Reaction proceeds left to right at a point when [N2O4] = [NO2] = 0.1 M.

A. Let's calculate Q for this point:

A. Q = (0.1)² / (0.1) = 0.1
B. Kc = 4
C. Since Q (0.1) < Kc (4), the reaction must proceed to the right (towards products) to reach
equilibrium.
D. Statement (II) is correct.

(III) Kc = Q, when point D or F is reached.

A. Points D and F represent the points where the concentrations of N2O4 and NO2 become
constant, indicating equilibrium.
B. At equilibrium, Kc = Q.
C. Statement (III) is correct.

69)

Le- Chatelier's Principal

70)

Reaction III = (I) × 3 + (II)

K3 = K13 × K2

71)

In AgNO3 ⇒ [Ag+] = 0.1 M (Common ion)

KSP = [Ag+] [Cl–]

1.8 × 10–10 = 0.1 × S
⇒ [S = 1.8 × 10–9 mol/L ]

In water :

72) 0.01 M KOH

 [OH–] = 10–2 M
pOH = – log[OH–] = – log 10–2 = 2
pH = 14 – pOH
pH = 14 – pOH
pH = 14 – 2
[pH = 12]

73) 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)

Let initial conc. 2 0 0
m
at eq 2-1 0.5 0.5

74) For complete neutralisation :

Gram equivalent of acid = Gram equivalent of base
(∵ No. of gram equivalent = N × V)
∴ N1 × V1 = N2 × V2
0.5 × 100 = 0.2 × V
[ V = 250 ml]

75) NaN3 ⇒ 1(+1) +3 (x) = 0 ∴ x = –1/3

N2H2 ⇒ 2(x) +2 (+1) = 0 ∴ x = –1
NO ⇒ 1(x) + 1(–2) = 0 ∴ x = +2
N2O5 ⇒ 2(x) + 5(–2) = 0 ∴ x = +5

76)

A. Number of equivalents of FeC2O4 = Number of equivalents of MnO4−

B. Mol × valency factor of FeC2O4 = Mol × valency factor of MnO4−

Using the law of equivalence:

1 × 3 = mol × 5

Mol = = 0.6

number of moles of MnO4− required = 0.6

Correct option is 3

77)
n-factor ⇒ Cr = (+ 3 to + 6) = 3e– loss
I = (– 1 to + 7) × 3 = 24 e– loss

n-factor = 27 ∴ E =
78)
= 7.5milimole 5milimole
7.5 – 5 0 5 milimole
= 2.5 milimole
Finally : 5 milimole NH4OH + 2.5 milimole NH4Cl
↓

79)

P2 Q2 R7
2(1) + 2(6) +7(–2) = 14 – 14 = 0

80)
2, 2-dinethyl-4-oxopentanenitvile

81)
is saturated ∵ C=C
or C≡C are absent and hetero cyclic
∵ N is part of ring

82)

83)

metamerism never shown by alkenes.

84) Functional group is different

NCERT Chemistry 11 part-II Pg. # 340

85)

Stability of carbocation
 86)

H3O+ is source of electrophile

87)

88) A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be seperated by steam distillation

because o-nitrophenol is steam volatile due to less boiling point.

89)

Fact Based

90) 0.1g → NH3 → 30ml

Remaining acid = 2ml NH2SO4

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 91

92)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 96

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NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94
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NCERT-XII, Pg. # 98

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NCERT-XII, Pg. # 127

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NCERT

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NCERT Pg. # 236

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158) NCERT XI, Page # 211

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179) NCERT Page No. 332

180)

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