03-08-2025

1103CMD303003250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find the resultant of three vectors and shown in the following figure. Radius of the

circle is R.

(1) 2R
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) Two force vectors of same magnitude are arranged in the following manner :-

Magnitude of resultant force is maximum for :

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) II and III

3) Which of the following relation is wrong?

(1) –
(2)
(3)
(4)
4) If , Here , then angle between is:-

(1) 150°
(2) 135°
(3) 120°
(4) 45°

5) A vector = is perpendicular to the vector = . The value of a is :

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3

6) The angle which the makes with the coordinate axes are

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

7) A cyclist is moving on a circular path with constant speed v. What is the change in its velocity
after it has described an angle of 60°

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) v

8) Unit vector parallel to the resultant of vectors and will be: -

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None of these

9) Which of the following statement is/are true?

(a) Two vectors of unequal magnitude can add up to zero.
(b) Three vectors of unequal magnitude can add up to zero, if they lie in a same plane.
(c) Three vectors of unequal magnitude can added upto zero, if they do not lie in same plane.

(1) Only a
(2) a, b and c
(3) Only b
(4) Only c

10) If resultant of is making an angle 30° with and 60° with then what can be said about
magnitude of & :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Nothing can be said

11) In the shown figure what amount of force and in which direction we should apply so that net

force only acts along x-axis only

(1) 3N along –ve of y-axis

(2) 3N along +ve of y-axis
(3) 2N along –ve of x-axis
(4) 2N along +ve of x-axis

12) If are two non-zero vectors such that and then the
angle between is :

(1) 37o
(2) 53o
(3)
(4)

13) If and .
If . Find the magnitude of .

(1) 34 units
(2)
(3) 23 units
(4)

14) A particle moves from position due to a uniform force of

. If the displacement in metres then work done will be : ( )

(1) 100 J
(2) 200 J
(3) 300 J
(4) 250 J

15) The values of x and y for which vectors and may be parallel
are :

(1)
x = 0,

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Given and . Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A bird moves from point (1, –2) to (4, 2). If the speed of the bird is 20 m/s, then the velocity
vector of the bird is

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

18) Which of the following is correct regarding these four vectors ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) The ratio of maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors and is 4 : 3.
The relation between A and B is (A > B)

(1) A = 7B
(2) 7A = B
(3) A = 3B
(4) A = 4B

20) In new system of untis unit of mass α kg, unit of length is β m & unit of time is γ sec then in this
system 10 J will be represented by :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) If momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are taken to be fundamental quantities, then dimensional
formula of power is:-

(1) [P1 A–1 T1]

(2) [P2 A1 T1]
(3) [P1 A1/2 T–2]
(4) [P1 A–1/2 T1]

22) If A and B are two physical quantities having different dimensions, then which of the following
operation might be possible :-

(1) (A + 3B)
(2) (3A – B)
(3) A3 + 3B3
(4) 3AB3
23) Percentage error in measuring the radius and mass of a solid sphere are 1% and 2%
respectively. The error in measurement of density :-

(1) 9%
(2) 6%
(3) 5%
(4) 4%

24) If frequency (F), velocity (V) and density (D) are considered fundamental units, the dimensional
formula of momentum will be :-

(1) DVF2
(2) DV2F1
(3) D2V2F2
(4) DV4F–3

25) If P, Q, R are physical quantities, having different dimensions, which of the following
combinations can never be a meaningful quantity ?

(1)

(2) PQ – R

(3)

(4)

26) In a equation , P is pressure, x is distance and t is time the dimension of will be :-

(1) [MT–2]
(2) [M2LT–3]
(3) [ML3T–1]
(4) [LT–1]

27) If K = find dimensional formula of K :-

(1) [LT–3]
(2) [L4T–4]
(3) [LT–4]
(4) [LT4]

28) The speed of light (c), gravitational constant (G) and planck's constant (h) are taken as the
fundamental units in a system. The dimension of time in this new system should be :-

(1) G1/2h1/2c–5/2
(2) G–1/2h1/2c1/2
(3) G1/2h1/2c–3/2
(4) G1/2h1/2c1/2

29) The density of a solid ball is to be determined in an experiment. The diameter of the ball is
measured with a screw gauge, whose pitch is 0.5 mm and there are 50 divisions on the circular
scale. The reading on the main scale is 2.5 mm and that on the circular scale is 20 divisions. Then
diameter of ball is :

(1) 2.60 mm
(2) 2.50 mm
(3) 2.70 mm
(4) 2.80 mm

30) If then angle between and is :-

(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 0°

31) Assertion (A) :- Length, volume and linear momentum cannot enter into the list of fundamental
quantities in any system of unit.
Reason (R) :- Dimension of a derived quantity may be zero in any base quantity.

(1) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) A is false and R is true.

32) The length of a cylinder is measured with a metre rod having least count 0.1 cm. its diameter is
measured with vernier callipers having least count 0.01 cm. given the length is 5.0 cm and diameter
is 4.00 cm. the percentage error in the calculated value of volume will be :-

(1) 2%
(2) 3%
(3) 2.5%
(4) 4%

33) A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003 g, radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and length 6 ± 0.06 cm. The maximum
percentage error in the measurement of density is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Kinetic energy of a particle moving along elliptical trajectory is given by K = as2 where 's' is the
distance travelled by the particle. Dimensions of 'a' are :

(1) ML–1T–2
(2) ML–1T–1
(3) MLT–2
(4) MT–2

35) Which of the following statement is INCORRECT:

(1) There can be a physical quantity which has no unit and no dimensions
(2) Dimension of a base quantity in other base quantities is zero
Two physical quantities with different dimensions cannot added/subtracted but can be divided /
(3)
multiplied.
(4) The dimension of a derived quantity is never zero in any base quantity

36) In a vernier callipers, one main scale division is x cm and n divisions of the vernier scale coincide
with (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. The least count (in cm) of the callipers is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A bus travels distance x, when accelerates from rest at constant rate a1 for some time and after
that travels a distance x2 when decelerates at a constant rate a2 to come to rest. A student

established a relation x1 + x2 = .
Choose the correct option(s).

(1) The relation is dimensionally correct

(2) The relation is dimensionally incorrect
(3) The relation may be dimensionally correct
(4) None of the above

38) A student uses a simple pendulum of exactly 1 m length to determine g, the acceleration due to
gravity. He uses a stop watch with the least count of 1 sec for this and record 40 seconds for 20
oscillations for this observation, which of following is true ? (T is time period of oscillations)
(1)
ΔT = 1 sec ; = 2.5 %

(2)
ΔT = 0.05 sec ; =5%

(3)
ΔT = 0.025 sec ; =5%

(4)
ΔT = 0.025 sec ; = 2.5 %

39) If 3.8 × 10–6 is added to 4.2×10–5 giving due regard to significant figures, then the result will be:-

(1) 4.58 × 10–5

(2) 4.6 × 10–5
(3) 4.5 × 10–5
(4) None of these

40) The best method to reduce random error is :

(1) To change the instrument used for measurement

(2) To take help of experienced observer
(3) To repeat the experiment many times and to take the average of results
(4) None of the above

41) A physical quantity depends upon five factors, all of which have dimensions; then to deduce the
relation between them, method of dimensional analysis :

(1) Can be applied

(2) Cannot be applied
(3) Depends upon factors involved
(4) Both (1) and (3)

42) If 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result in terms of significant figures is

(1) 38.4
(2) 38.3937
(3) 38.394
(4) 38.39

43) A screw gauge with a pitch of 0.5 mm and a circular scale with 50 divisions is used to measure
the thickness of a thin sheet of Aluminium. Before starting the measurement, it is found that when
the two jaws of the screw gauge are brought in contact, the 45th division coincides with the main
scale line and that the zero of the main scale is not visible. What is the thickness of the Sheet if the
main scale reading is 0.5 mm and the 25th division coincides with the main scale line :-

(1) 0.80 mm
(2) 0.70 mm
(3) 0.50 mm
(4) 0.75 mm

44) The order of magnitude of 6.6 × 10–11 will be:

(1) –11
(2) –10
(3) –12
(4) None

45) Two resistance are measured in ohm and is given as :-

R1 = 3Ω ± 1%
R2 = 6Ω ± 2%
When they are connected in parallel, the percentage error in equivalent resistance is :

(1) 3%
(2) 4.5%
(3) 0.67%
(4) 1.33%

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which is not isoelectronic with O2– :-

(1) N–3
(2) Na+
(3) F–
(4) Ti+

2) Ratio of neutrons in 'C' & 'Si' having atomic masses 12 and 28 respectively are -

(1) 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 7
(4) 7 : 3

3) Isotone of is/are -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (2) & (3) both
4) The approximate radius of the nucleus of 28Ni64 is :-

(1) 3 × 10–15 m
(2) 4 × 10–15 m
(3) 5 × 10–15 m
(4) 2 × 10–15 m

5) The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between
their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will be :-

(1) λ1 = λ2
(2) λ1 = 2λ2
(3) λ1 = 4λ2

(4)

6) Which of the following observations was not correct during Rutherford's Scattering experiment :-

(1) most of the α-particles passed through the gold foil undeflected.
(2) A small fraction of the α-particles was deflected by a small angle
(3) A large number of the α-particles were bounced back
(4) A very few α-particles (1 in 20,000) were bounced back

7)

(i) 26 Fe54,26Fe56,26Fe57,26Fe58 (a) Isotopes

(ii) 1 H3, 2He3 (b) Isotones

(iii) 32 Ge76, 33As77 (c) Isodiaphers

(iv) 92 U235, 90Th231 (d) Isobars

(v) 1 H1, 1D2, 1T3

Match the above correct terms:-
(1) (i)-a, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-c, (v)-a
(2) (i)-a, (ii)-d, (iii)-d, (iv)-c, (v)-a
(3) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-d, (iv)-c, (v)-a
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d, (v)-c

8) In photoelectric effect, the kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases linearly with the:

(1) Wavelength of incident light.

(2) Frequency of incident light.
(3) Velocity of incident light.
(4) Atomic mass of an element.
9) When an electron jumps from K to L shell:

(1) Energy is absorbed

(2) Energy is released
(3) Energy remains constant
(4) Can't determined

10) No. of photon of light having a wavelength 4000Å are necessary to provide 1.00 J of energy.

(1) 2.0 × 1018

(2) 4.0 × 1018
(3) 4.9 × 10–19
(4) 8.34 × 10–17

11) Calculate the frequency of radiation having wavelength 1 Å ?

(1) 3 × 1018 Hz
(2) 3 × 1018 sec–1
(3) 3 × 1018 cycles/sec.
(4) All of the above

12) If no. of e– present in x+3 is 16, then number proton in x will be

(1) 16
(2) 12
(3) 18
(4) 19

13) If in periodic table mass of C12 is assumed is 150 unit then what will be mass of O16 ?

(1) 150 unit

(2) 200 unit
(3) 100 unit
(4) 50 unit

14) Ratio of specific charge of a proton and deuterium is -

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 1

15) Which of the following are isotones :-

(1)
(2)
14
(3) C, 147N, 179F
6

(4)

16) The atomic weight of element γ is 20.2. γ exist in form of two isotope γ22 and γ20, then the
percentage abundance of lighter isotope will be :

(1) 20
(2) 40
(3) 90
(4) 10

17) Choose the correct option in terms of mass ?

(1) α > n > e– > p

(2) α > n > p > e–
(3) α > e– > n > p
(4) α > e– > p > n

18)

In if mass attributed to electrons were doubled & the mass attributed to protons were halved,
the atomic mass would become approximately :-

(1) Halved
(2) Doubled
(3) Reduced by 25%
(4) Remain same

19)

Choose the false statement about deuterium :-

(1) It is an isotope of hydrogen

(2) It contains [(1 e) + (1 p) + (1 n)]
(3) It contains only [(1 p) + (1 n)]
(4) D2O is called as heavy water

20)

A and B are two elements which have same atomic weight and having atomic number 27 and 30
respectively. If the atomic weight of A is 57 then number of neutron in B is :-

(1) 27
(2) 33
(3) 30
(4) 40

21)

200 gm CaCO3 heated and it decomposed into CaO and CO2. What is the weight of residue -(Atomic
weight of Ca= 40)

(1) 56 gm
(2) 200 gm
(3) 100 gm
(4) 112 gm

22) The volume of oxygen required for complete oxidation of 8L of CO at NTP will be :-

(1) 8 L
(2) 16 L
(3) 4 L
(4) 2 L

23) When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g) each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to :-

(1) 1 mol of HCl(g)

(2) 2 mol of HCl(g)
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl(g)
(4) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)

24) If one mole of H2SO4 reacts with an excess of NaOH, how many moles of water are formed ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole
of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are respectively

(1) 20, 30
(2) 30, 20
(3) 40, 30
(4) 60, 40

26) An organic compound on analysis give the following data : C = 57.82%, H = 3.6% and rest is
oxygen. Its vapour density is 83, then calculate its molecular formula ?

(1) C8H6O6
(2) C8H6O4
(3) C4H3O2
(4) C6H6O6

27) Density of ozone relative to oxygen is under the same temperature and pressure

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 1.5
(4) 2.5

28) The total number of protons in 10g of calcium carbonate is :-

(1) 1.505 × 1024

(2) 2.04 × 1024
(3) 3.011 × 1024
(4) 4.09 × 1024

29) The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X (atomic weight = 10) and 50%
of element Y (atomic weight = 20) is

(1) XY
(2) X2Y
(3) XY2
(4) X3Y

30) The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63 × 10–34 Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 ms–1. Which
value is closed to the wavelength in meters of a quantum of light with frequency of 8 × 1015 s–1.

(1) 3 × 107
(2) 2 × 10–25
(3) 5 × 10–18
(4) 3.75 × 10–8

31) The number of electrons in one molecule of CO2 are :-

(1) 22
(2) 44
(3) 66
(4) 88

32) The number of moles of water present in 90 g of water is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

33) At STP 5.6 litre of a gas weighs 60 gm. The vapour density of gas is

(1) 60
(2) 120
(3) 30
(4) 240

34) The largest number of molecules is in

(1) 36 g of water
(2) 28 g of carbon monoxide
(3) 46 g of ethyl alcohol [C2H5OH]
(4) 54 g of nitrogen pentoxide [N2O5]

35) 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 6 litres of volume at STP the gas is

(1) NO
(2) N2O
(3) CO
(4) CO2

36) 4.4 g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24 L of volume of NTP. The gas may be:

(1) C2H6
(2) CO
(3) N2O
(4) CH4

37) Number of neutrons present in 3.4 g of NH3(g) :-

(1) 2NA

(2)

(3)

(4) NA × 20 × 7

38) Which of the following contains the largest mass of hydrogen atoms?

(1) 5.0 moles C2H2O4

(2) 1.1 moles C3H8O3
(3) 1.5 moles C6H8O6
(4) 4.0 moles C2H4O2
39) For a reaction 2A + 3B → 2C. The amount of C formed by starting the reaction with 4 moles of A
and 12 moles of B is :-

(1) 8 mol
(2) 4 mol
(3) 2 mol
(4) 1 mol

40) 10 mol SO2 and 15 mol O2 were allowed to react, the remaining mole of O2 is:
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2SO3 (g)

(1) 10 mol
(2) 2 mol
(3) 4 mol
(4) 8 mol

41) Molality is expressed in units of -

(1) Mol L–1

(2) Mol kg–1
(3) Mol L–1 g–1
(4) Mol . kg

42) Moles of urea present in 250 ml, 0.4 M aqueous solution of urea will be :

(1) 1
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.2

43) The mole fraction of glucose in aqueous solution is 0.2, then molality of solution will be (in
mol/kg)

(1) 13.89
(2) 55.56
(3) 2
(4) 12

44) If 0.4 g of NaOH is present in 40 mL of solution. What is the molarity of solution? [Mol wt of
NaOH = 40]

(1) 0.25 M
(2) 0.50 M
(3) 0.75 M
(4) None of these
45) In seven molal solution that contains 2.8 mole of a solute, there is :

(1) 400 g of solvent

(2) 400 mL of solvent
(3) 500 g of solvent
(4) 800 mL of solvent

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the classification, group plants on the basis of their economical importance ?

(1) Natural
(2) Practical
(3) Empirical
(4) All the above

2) The two kingdom classification was proposed by :-

(1) Carolus Linnaeus

(2) Haeckel
(3) R.H. Whittaker
(4) Copeland

3) Thermoacidophiles lives at :-

(1) High temperature and high pH

(2) Low temperature and high pH
(3) Low temperature and low pH
(4) High temperature and low pH

4) In prokaryotes, cyanobacteria chromatophores are –

(1) Specialized granules responsible for colouration of cells

(2) Structures responsible for organizing the shape of the organism
(3) Inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for carrying out various metabolic activities
(4) Internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in photosynthetic bacteria

5) Read the following points carefully :-

(A) Stagnant water
(B) Protein rich pellicle
(C) Flexible body
(D) Short and long flagella
Above given statements are correct for:-

(1) Gonyaulax
(2) Euglena
(3) Physarum
(4) Amoeba

6) Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to antibiotics due to changes in their :

(1) Cosmids
(2) Plasmids
(3) Nucleus
(4) Nucleoid

7) Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans ?

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Diatoms
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Euglenoids

8) According to R.H. Whittaker, Euglena and Chlorella are placed in which kingdom

(1) Fungi
(2) Monera
(3) Protista
(4) Plantae

9) Two kingdom classification system used for a long time was inadequate, so a need was felt for
including besides gross morphology, other characteristics also. What were these characters which
resulted in formation of five kingdom classification system ?
(a) Cell structure
(b) Mode of nutrition
(c) Reproduction
(d) Evolutionary relationship

(1) a & b only

(2) a, b & c only
(3) a, c & d only
(4) a, b, c & d

10) Which one of the following structure is found in prokaryotes but absent in eukaryotes?

(1) Cell wall and cell membrane

(2) Mesosome and plasmid
(3) Cytoplasm and ribosome
(4) Ribosome and gas vacuole

11) According to Carl Woese, archaebacteria belong to domain :-

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Plantae
(4) Archaea

12) Find the incorrect statements from the following:- (A) Bacterial structure is very simple but very
complex in behaviour (B) Bacteria show the most extensive metabolic diversity
(C) The vast majority of bacteria are autotrophs and a few are heterotrophs
(D) Bacterial cell wall is made up of lipoprotein

(1) Only A & B

(2) Only C & D
(3) Only A & D
(4) Only B & C

13) Which of the following are correct regarding Mycoplasma?

(A) Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall.
(B) Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen.
(C) Mycoplasma is the smallest living cell known.
(D) Mycoplasma is a member of the Kingdom Fungi.

(1) (A), (B ), and (C)

(2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (B) and (D) only
(4) (A), (B), and (D)

14) Consider the following four (A-D) statements.

(A) Spores of slime moulds do not have any walls
(B) Euglena shows autotrophic as well as heterotrophic nutrition
(C) Dinoflagellates have plated cell wall in which silica particles embedded
(D) Diatoms lack flagella/cilia but they float passively on water surface
Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct ?

(1) A and C
(2) A, C and D
(3) B and C
(4) B and D

15) Identify the correct match from column I, II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

(Kingdom) (Cell wall) (Body organisation)

1 Monera a Present in some i Tissue/ organ

2 Protista b Present (Chitin) ii Loose tissue

3 Fungi c Present (Cellulose) iii Cellular

4 Plantae d Polysaccharide + Amino acid iv Cellular

(1) 2–a–iii, 1–d–iv, 3–b–ii, 4–c–i
(2) 1–d–iv, 2–b–i, 3–a–ii, 4–c–iii
(3) 1–d–iv, 2–c–ii, 3–a–i, 4–b–iii
(4) 2–b–iii, 1–c–iv, 3–d–ii, 4–c–i

16) Which of the following are correct for slime moulds ?

(a) Their spores are dispersed by air currents
(b) Their vegetative phase does not possess any walls but reproductive phase (spores) possesses true
walls
(c) Stored food is floridean starch
(d) They are photosynthetic protists

(1) a & d
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) a & b

17) Citrus canker disease is caused by :-

(1) Virus
(2) Bacteria
(3) Protozoa
(4) Viroid

18) Read the following statements (A – D) :-

(A) Cell wall of dinoflagellates has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface.
(B) All protozoans are heterotrophs and live as predator or parasites.
(C) During unfavourable condition slime moulds form on aggregation called plasmodium.
(D) Majority of euglenoids are fresh water organisms found in stagnant water.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect.

(1) A and D
(2) Only C
(3) Only B
(4) A, B, C

19)
Identify correct option for above figure :-

Structure Function
(1) A is heterocyst Food Storage
(2) A is heterocyst N2 fixation
(3) B is mucilage sheath Reproduction
(4) B is filament to make new antibiotic sheath
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Answer the following questions :-

(A) – Identify the figure
(B) – Identify the parts labelled a, b & c

A B

a- Pellicle
Dividing
(1) b- Cell membrane
Euglena
c- DNA

a- DNA
Dividing
(2) b- Cell membrane
bacteria
c- Cell wall

a- DNA
(3) Paramecium b- Cell membrane
c-glycocalyx

a- Mesosome
(4) Mycoplasma b- Cell membrane
c- Cell wall
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Recognise the figure and find out the suitable matching.

(a)
(b)

(1) Both 'a' and 'b' are included in kingdom protista

(2) 'a' is heterotrophic while 'b' is both autotrophic and heterotrophic
(3) Both 'a' and 'b' are motile
(4) All of these

22) Statement-I : The natural classification systems were based on natural affinities among the
organisms and consider only the external features of the organism.
Statement-II : At present phylogenetic classification systems based on evolutionary relationships
between the various organisms are acceptable.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

23) Statement-I :- All single celled eukaryotes are placed under protista, and the boundaries of this
kingdom are well defined.
Statement-II :- Protists reproduce asexually and sexually by a process involving cell fusion and
zygote formation.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

24) Statement-I :- Instead of a cell wall, Euglenoides have a protein rich layer called pellicle which
make their body flexible.
Statement-II :- Under favourable conditions, slime moulds form an aggregation called plasmodium.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

25) Statement-I : Archaebacteria have complex cell wall and complex cell membrane.
Statement-II : Archaebacteria can survive in extremely harsh habitats.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
26) Identify the diagram.

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Euglena
(3) Slime Moulds
(4) Protozoa

27) In given diagram (A), (B), (C) and (D) represents :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Given below the Diagram showing increasing complexity during evolution

Which among the following is correct regarding A, B, C & D

 A = Kingdom Fungi
B = Kingdom Monera
(1)
C = Kingdom Protista
D = Mode of Nutrition
A = Kingdom Fungi
B = Kingdom Protista
(2)
C = Kingdom Monera
D = Major Ecological role
A = Kingdom Monera
B = Kingdom Protista
(3)
C = Kingdom Fungi
D = Major Ecological role
A = Kingdom Monera
B = Kingdom Protista
(4)
C = Kingdom Fungi
D = Mode of Nutrition

29)

Read the following terms carefully.

Cilia, Flagella, Zygote, Diatomite, Photosynthesis, Pellicle, Peptidoglycan wall, Bioluminescence,
Multicellular, heterocyst, decomposer, Holozoic.

How many terms are not related with kingdom Protista:-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 6

30) In earlier classification system which organisms were included under "Plants" :-

(1) Bacteria, BGA, Fungi, Bryophyte, pteridophytes and Spermatophytes

(2) Bacteria, protozoa, Green algae, Porifera & bryophytes.
(3) Green algae, Bryophytes, Protozoa & Porifera
(4) Bryophytes, Gymnosperms, Protozoa and Porifera

31) Name of scientist who divided animals on the basis of RBC presence or absence ?

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Mayer
(3) Aristotle
(4) Bentham and Hooker

32) Who classified plants into trees, shrubs and herbs ?

(1) Aristotle
(2) Mendle
(3) linnaeus
(4) John Ray

33) The vast majority of bacteria are :-

(1) Symbiotic
(2) Autotrophic
(3) Heterotrophic
(4) Nitrogen fixing

34) Cynobacteria are used in agricultural fields for crops improvements because of :

(1) Respiration
(2) Algal blooms
(3) N2 fixation
(4) All of these

35) Chemosynthetic bacteria help in recycling of which nutrients ?

(1) Phosphorous
(2) Nitrogen
(3) Iron
(4) All of these

36) Main criteria used by R.H. Whittaker in his five kingdom classification was not the :-

(1) Cell structure

(2) Thallus (Body) organization
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Ecological role

37) Which of the following is not a feature of Bentham and Hookers classification ?

(1) It was based on actual observations

(2) It was a natural form of classification
(3) It was based on floral features
(4) It was a phylogenetic classification

38)
Identify the given figure :-

(1) Photosynthetic diatom

(2) Euglena
(3) Paramoecium
(4) Dinoflagillates

39) Which of the following are incorrect for slime moulds?

(1) Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation called plasmodium

(2) Plasmodium may grow and spread over several feet
During unfavourable conditions, the plasmodium differentiates and farms fruiting bodies
(3)
bearing spores at their tips
(4) These spores lack cell wall

40) Choose the wrong statement for chemosynthetic autotroph bacteria

They oxidise various inorganic substrate such as nitrates, nitrites & ammonia and use the
(1)
released energy for their ATP production
(2) They play great role in recycling nutrient like nitrogen phosphorous, iron & sulphur
(3) For their energy production they utilize solar energy
(4) They can prepare their food from inorganic substrate.

41) Assertion : Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.

Reason : Slime moulds derive their nutrition mainly from decaying organic matter.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

42) Read the following point carefully.

(a) Nitrogen fixation ability
(b) Oxygenic photosynthesis
(c) Have chlorophyll a similar to green plants
These points are related with :

(1) Eubacteria
(2) Euglenoids
(3) Green algae
(4) Cyanobacteria

43) What is incorrect for chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria ?

(1) Oxidise various organic and inorganic substances

(2) Uses the energy released through oxidation for their ATP production
(3) Play great role in recycling of nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, iron and sulphur
(4) They are most abundant in nature

44)

Read the following statements w.r.t. methanogens:

(i) These produce biogas/gobar gas
(ii) These are strict anaerobes
(iii) These belong to archaebacteria
(iv) These are also found in marshy areas
(v) These possess non-cellulosic cell wall
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Two
(4) Three

45) Assertion: Bacteria are prokaryotic.

Reason: Bacteria do not possess true nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

46) Metagenesis is observed in :-

(1) Meandrina
(2) Planaria
(3) Obelia
(4) Hydra

47)
How many of the above given characters are correct with respect to the given figure?

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 1

48) The correct statements about notochord is/are :

(i) It is derived from mesoderm
(ii) It is formed on the ventral side
(iii) Porifera are notochord bearing animals
(iv) Physalia have notochord in their embryonic stage
(v) In vertebrates notochord give rise to vertebral column

(1) i, iii
(2) ii, iv
(3) i, v
(4) iii, v

49) How many of examples mentioned below possess closed and open circulatory system?
Annelids, Tunicates, Hemi-chordates and Arthropods, Reptile, Aves, Echinodermata

(1) Closed = 2, Open = 5

(2) Closed = 4, Open = 3
(3) Closed = 5, Open = 2
(4) Closed = 3, Open = 4

50) Which of the following statements are true/false?

I. Cell aggregates body plan is found in phylum-Platyhelminthes.
II. Radial symmetry is the most common symmetry found in animals.
III. Pseudocoelom is found only in phylum – Aschelminthes.
IV. All triploblastic animals have a true coelom.
V. Haemocoel is sometimes observed in animals
belonging to phylum–Platyhelminthes.

(1) I and V are true and II, III and IV are false
(2) II, III and V are true and I and IV are false
(3) I, II and III are true and IV and V are false
(4) I, II, IV and V are false, Only III is true

51) Which sponge is found in the river :-

(1) Pila
(2) Spongilla
(3) Sycon
(4) Euspongia

52) Flat worms show many characters. Mark the wrong one :-

(1) Triploblastic and organ grade

(2) Internal fertilization and bilateral symmetry
(3) Acoelomate and complete digestive system
(4) Locomotory organs are absent

53) Identify the animal in the photograph below. Which of the following is not a correct reason for its
identification :-

(1) It is a female Ascaris posterior-end is straight

(2) It is bilaterally symmetrical and without metameric segmentation
(3) It is a male Ascaris, posterior-end is curved
The body is circular, hence it is a round worm, alimentary canal is complete with muscular
(4)
pharynx

54) Match the following column I & column II:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Taenia (I) Hook worm

(B) Fasciola (II) Round worm

(C) Ascaris (III) Filarial worm

(D) Wuchereria (IV) Tape worm

(E) Ancyclostoma (V) Liver fluke

(1) A - I, B - V, C - II, D - III, E - IV
(2) A - IV, B - V, C - II, D - III, E - I
(3) A - IV, B - II, C - V, D - III, E - I
(4) A - IV, B - III, C - V, D - II, E - I

55) Assertion : Annelids have metamerically segmented body.

Reason : They are divided into segment with serial repetition of some body organs

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true .

56) Which set includes arthropods of economic importance providing useful products to humans ?

(1) Limulus, Locusta, Bombyx

(2) Culex, Limulus, Laccifer
(3) Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer
(4) Anopheles, Locusta, Limulus

57) The incorrect feature about feather like gills in the second largest animal phylum is

(1) Present in space between the hump and the mantle

(2) Have respiratory and excretory functions
(3) Increases the area available for gas exchange
(4) Play role in digestion

58) Assertion (A): Echinoderms have radial symmetry throughout their life.
Reason (R): Echinoderm larvae are also radially symmetrical.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is false, and R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

59) This phylum consists of a small group of worm-like marine animals with organ-system level of
organisation. They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals. Identify the
animal of this phylum.

(1) Ctenoplana
(2) Balanoglossus
(3) Salpa
(4) Doliolum

60) Match items in column-I with those in column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A. Cyclostomata (i) Mouth without jaws

B. Chondrichthyes (ii) Oviparous without any exception

C. Aves (iii) Gills without operculum

D. Mammalia (iv) Unique in possessing hair

(1) A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(iv)
(2) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(iv); D-(i)
(3) A-(i); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(iv)
(4) A-(ii); B-(i); C-(iv); D-(iii)

61)

In the figure given below, Identify the parts labelled as A,B,C and D and select correct option about
them
 Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Pharyngeal
(1) Notochord Nerve cord Post Anal Tail
gill slits

Pharyngeal
(2) Nerve cord Notochord Post Anal tail
gill slits

Pharyngeal Post Anal

(3) Nerve Cord Notochord
gill slits tail

Post Anal Pharyngeal Nerve

(4) Notochord
Tail gill slits cord
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

62) Assertion : Cyclostomes are marine but some migrate for spawning to fresh water.
Reason : Larvae of cyclostome is metamorphosed in marine water.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

63) Choose the incorrect statement?

(1) Both cartilaginous and bony fishes are dioecious

(2) Cartilaginous fishes show sexual dimorphism
(3) Male cartilaginous fish have claspers
(4) Female cartilaginous fish have claspers

64) Statement-I : Amphibians show external fertilisation.

Statement-II : They are homeothermic animals.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

65) Annelida is advanced over Nematoda in having which of the following traits?
(1) Closed circulation
(2) Metameric segmentation
(3) True coelom
(4) All the above

66) Flame cells are the excretory structures in which of the following?

(1) Planaria
(2) Hydra
(3) Pila
(4) Ancyclostoma

67) Choose the correct match

Column I Column II

Ventral mouth, placoid scales,

(1) gill slits without operculum,
presence of air bladder

Males with brood pouch,

(2) swim vertically, presence of
air bladder

Hindlimbs longer than

(3) forelimbs, skin dry and scaly,
internal fertilization

Usually found in marine

habitat, cold blooded, three
(4)
chambered heart and
external fertilization

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

68) Given below are two statements. Mark the correct option –
Statement 1 : Skin of class Aves is dry without glands except the oil gland at the base of hindlimbs.
Statement 2 : Air sacs connected to the lungs supplement respiration.
(1) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
(2) Both are statements are true.
(3) Both the statements are false.
(4) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

69) Choose the correct option –

Assertion (A) : Mammals commonly exhibit viviparity.
Reason (R) : Mammary glands are milk producing glands by which the young ones are nourished.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

70) _______ and ________ reptiles shed their scales as skin cast.

(1) Snakes & Turtles

(2) Lizards & Crocodile
(3) Snakes & Lizards
(4) Chelone & Chameleon

71) Pick the odd pair out :-

(1) Cellular level : Porifera

(2) Tissue level : Aschelminthes
(3) Organ level : Platyhelminthes
(4) Organ system level : Annelida

72) Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the body
cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called :

(1) Acoelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Coelomate
(4) Haemocoelomate

73) When young one resembles the adult the development is –

(1) Complete
(2) Incomplete
(3) Direct
(4) Indirect

74) Assertion : All members of animalia are multicellular

Reason : All of them do not exhibit the same pattern of organisation of cells
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong

75) Which one of the following is oviparous?

(1) Platypus
(2) Flying fox (Bat)
(3) Elephant
(4) Whale

76) Find out the mismatched pair:

(1) A fish possessing an electric organ → Torpedo

(2) An organ, which regulates buoyancy → Operculum
(3) Animal, which exhibits alternation of generation → Obelia
(4) Oviparous animal with mammary gland →Platypus

77) Identify uncommon feature between Bufo, Rana, Hyla, Ichthyophis.

(1) all exhibit 2 pair of limbs

(2) all are oviparous
(3) aquatic as well as terrestrial
(4) heart is three chambered

78) In contrast to Aves, mammals have:

A. Crop
B. Hair
C. mammary gland
D. ear pinna
E. pneumatic bones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) B, C and D
(2) A, B and D
(3) C, D and E
(4) A and E

79) Complete the given correlation –

Air bladder : ____________ :: Tailed amphibian : ___________

(1) Exocoetus, Hyla

(2) Clarias, Salamandra
(3) Dog fish, Salamandra
(4) Saw fish, Ichthyophis
80) Which of the following is a living fossil?

(1) Balanoglossus
(2) Echinus
(3) Ancylostoma
(4) Limulus

81) Hemichordates have a rudimentary structure in the collar region called ________ a structure
similar to notochord.

(1) Stomochord
(2) Proboscis
(3) Vertebral column
(4) Nerve cord

82) Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?

(1) Camelus
(2) Chelone
(3) Macropus
(4) Psittacula

83) Aquatic mammal is

(1) Panthera tigris

(2) Balaenoptera
(3) Pteropus
(4) Macropus

84) Select the correct match :

(A) Feathers - Parrot - Pneumatic bone
(B) Crop and gizard-Pigeon - Homoiothermous
(C) 2 Auricle and 2 ventricle - Peacock - Homoiothermous
(D) Scales on Hind limb - Vulture - Internal fertilisation

(1) Only A, B, C
(2) Only B, C, D
(3) All
(4) Only A, C, D

85) Pneumatic bones are found in -

(1) Neophron
(2) Chelone
(3) Ornithorhynchus
(4) Prawn
86) Metameric segmentation is the characteristics of

(1) Mollusca and Choradata

(2) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda
(3) Echinodermata and Annelida
(4) Annelida and Arthropoda

87) Choose the incorrect statements?

(1) Coelenterates and ctenophores are diploblastic

(2) Animals from platyhelminthes to chordates are triploblastic
(3) Radially symmetric animals remain attached to a surface by their oral surface
(4) Mesoglea is an undifferentiated layer which do not form any tissue or organ

88) In Fasciola :

(1) Fertilization is internal and development is through many larval stages

(2) Flame cells are absent
(3) Cross-fertilization is absent
(4) True coelom is present

89) Body is externally and internally divided into segments with serial repetition of atleast some
organs, this is called :-

(1) Metamorphosis
(2) Metagenesis
(3) Metamerism
(4) Metachrosis

90) Statement I : Alimentary canal is incomplete with a well developed muscular pharynx in
aschelminthes.
Statement II: Aschelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical pseudocoelomate animals.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 3 2 3 1 4 2 3 3 1 3 2 1 2 4 4 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 4 3 4 1 1 3 1 3 1 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 2 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 1 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 4 3 2 3 1 2 1 1 4 4 2 1 1 3 2 3 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 1 1 3 2 3 3 2 4 1 4 2 1 3 3 3 4 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 1 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 4 4 2 2 2 3 4 2 4 2 1 1 1 4 2 2 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 3 4 4 1 2 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 4 4 4 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 4 2 1 3 1 3 4 4 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 3 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 4 2 4 1 (2) 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 1 1 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 2 3 1 4 3 1 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

Magnitude of resultant force is maximum for (iii).

3)

4) If , Here , then angle between is 135°.

5)

A vector = is perpendicular to the vector = . The value of a is 4.

6)

7)

The change in its velocity after it has described an angle of 60° is v.

8)

9)

(b) Three vectors of unequal magnitude can add up to zero, if they lie in a same plane.

10)

11)

3N along –ve of y-axis

12)
 13)

14)

100 J

15) Condition for parallel vectors

or xy = –12,
+6y = 10
–36 = 5x

16)

= 18 + 32 = 50

17)

18) (according to pollygon law)

19)

so = ⇒ A = 7B.

20)
21) Power = Pa Ab Tc → eq. (1)
ML2T–3 = (MLT–1)a (L2)b Tc
ML2T–3 = Ma L(a +2b) T(–a + c)
Comparing power of M, L and T both the sides.
we get
M→ T → –3 = –a + c
L→ –3 = –1 + c
1 + 2b = 2 –3 + 1 = c
∴ 2b = 2 –1

∴ b=
Putting the value of
'a' 'b' and 'c' in
eq. (1) we get
power = P1 A1/2 T–2
Hence Ans (3) is correct

22) Sum and difference is not possible for different dimensions but product and division is
possible.

23)

= [2% + 3 × 1%] = 5%

24) p = FaVbDc
⇒ MLT–1 = [T–1]a [LT–1]b[ML–3]c
⇒ MLT–1 = McLb–3cT–a–b
Comparing powers, we get
c=1
b–3c=1 ⇒ b – 3(1) = 1 ⇒ b = 4
–a – b = –1 ⇒ a = 1 – b ⇒ a = –3
4 –3
∴ [p] = DV F

25) Physical quantities having different dimensions cannot be added or subtracted.

As P, Q and R are physical quantities having different dimensions, therefore they can neither
be added nor be subtracted. Thus, (1) can never a meaningful quantity.

26) dimension of a and t2 will be same

[a] = [T2] and

[b] =
⇒ [b] = [M–1T4]
∴

27) = [LT–4]

28)

t ∝ Gahbcc
T ∝ [M–1L3T–2]a[ML2T–1]b[LT–1]c
0 0
M L T1 ∝ M–a+bL3a+2b+cT–2a–b–c
–a + b = 0, 3a + 2b + c = 0, –2a – b – c = 1

a=
t ∝ G1/2 h1/2c–5/2

29) LC = 0.01 mm
Diameter d = 2.5 + (0.01) × 20 = 2.70 mm

30)

The angle between and is 90°

31)

A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

32)

The percentage error in the calculated value of volume will be 2.5%.

33)

The maximum percentage error in the measurement of density is 4.

34) [K] = [a] [s2]

⇒ ML2T–2 = [a] L2

⇒ [a] =

35) (1) True, eg. strain

(2) Base quantities are independent
(3) Only physical quantities with same dimensions can be added / subtracted
 0
(4) Can be zero in several base quantities eg. [F] = MLT–2A i.e., zero dimension in current.

36)

37) L.H.S.
0 0
[x1 + x2] = [x1] = [x2] = [M L1T ]
R.H.S.

[LHS] = [RHS]
It is dimensionally correct

38) Time period T =

T= = 2 sec

ΔT = = 0.05 sec

Δℓ = 0 ΔT = 0.05 sec

= 5%

39) 3.8 × 10–6 + 4.2 × 10–5

= (0.38 + 4.2) × 10–5
= 4.58 × 10–5 ≡ 4.6 × 10–5

40) Random error is reduced by making large number of observations and taking mean of all
the results.

41) If a quantity depends upon more than three factors, each having dimensions, then the
method of dimensional analysis cannot be applied. It is because applying the principle of
homogeneity will give only three equations.
 42)

If 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result in terms of significant figures is 38.4.

43) When jaws are closed, the zero error will be = main scale reading + (circular scale
reading) (Least count)
Negative zero error = (50 – 45) × 0.01 mm = 0.05 mm
When the sheet is placed between the jaws; measured thickness
= 0.5 mm + (25)(0.01) = 0.75 mm
⇒ Actual thickness
= 0.75 mm + (0.05) mm
= 0.80 mm

44) ∵ 6.6 is more than 5 power is added 1

45)

⇒ % error in Req =
= 1.33%

CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation :- not isoelectronic with the oxide ion (O²⁻).

Concept:- isoelectronic electron mean same no. of electron

Solution:

A. O²⁻ = 8+2=10

A. N³⁻ = (7 + 3 = 10).

B. Na⁺ = (11 - 1 = 10).

 C. F⁻ = (9 + 1 = 10).

D. Ti⁺ = (22 - 1 = 21).

Final Answer : Option (4) :

47) EXPLANATION: Carbon (C) and Silicon (Si) with atomic masses is given and ratio of
neutrons is to be found.
GIVEN DATA: Carbon (C) and Silicon (Si) with atomic masses 12 and 28 respectively.
CONCEPT: Neutrons (N): The number of neutrons in an atom is given by the difference
between the atomic mass and the atomic number.
N=A-Z
Where : N is the number of neutrons,
A is the atomic mass (or mass number),
Z is the atomic number.
CALCULATION :
number of neutrons in Carbon (C): N = A - Z = 12 - 6 = 6
number of neutrons in silicon (Si): N = A - Z = 28 - 14 = 14
Calculate the ratio of neutrons in Carbon and Silicon:
Ratio = 6 : 14 = 3 : 7
FINAL ANSWER : Ratio = 3 : 7
CORRECT OPTION: 3

48)

Explanation:
Isotones are atoms of different elements that have the same number of neutrons but a
different number of protons.

Given Data: You haven't provided the options, but I'll explain how to find them. Let's say the
options were:

1. ¹⁴₆C
2. ¹⁵₇N
3. ¹⁶₈O
4. ¹⁷₉F

Concept:
Isotones, atomic number (number of protons), and mass number (number of protons +
neutrons). The number of neutrons is calculated as: Number of Neutrons = Mass Number -
Atomic Number.

Solution:
Mathematical Calculation:

Calculate the number of neutrons in : 16 - 8 = 8 neutrons

Now, check each option:

¹⁴₆C: 14 - 6 = 8 neutrons
¹⁵₇N: 15 - 7 = 8 neutrons

¹⁶₈O: 16 - 8 = 8 neutrons

¹⁷₉F: 17 - 9 = 8 neutrons

Final Answer: (4)

49)

r = ro A1/3
r = 1.33 × 10–15 × 641/3
= 1.33 × 10–15 × 4

= 5.32 × 10–15 m

50) Explanation : Relation between 1 & 2

Given data :
E1 = 25ev , E = 50 ev

Concept :

Calculation :
Final Answer : λ1 = 2λ2
Correct option : 2

51) Explanation :
We need to identify the incorrect observation from Rutherford's alpha scattering experiment.
This experiment helped propose the nuclear model of the atom by observing how alpha
particles interacted with a this gold foil.

Given :
Four statements are provided about the behavior of alpha particles during the experiment.
One of them is not consistent with the actual results.

Concept :
Rutherford's atomic model
Evaluation of options :
1. Most of the alpha particles passed through the gold foil undeflected - this is correct
2. A small fraction of the alpha particles was deflected by a small angle- this is correct.
3. A very few alpha particles (1 in 20,000) were bounced back - This is correct.
4. A large number of the alpha particles were bounced back - This is not correct, it contradicts
the actual observation.
Answer
A large number of the α-particles were bounced back

52) 1- Question Explanation: We are given five groups of atomic species and asked to match
them with the correct nuclear relationship: isotopes, isobars, isotones, or isodiaphers.
2- Given:
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
3- Concept:
• Isotopes: Same atomic number, different mass numbers.
• Isobars: Different atomic numbers, same mass numbers.
• Isotones: Same number of neutrons, different atomic and mass numbers.
• Isodiaphers: Same difference between neutrons and protons (N - Z).
4- Matching and Calculation:
(i) All have atomic number 26 (Fe), but different mass numbers → Isotopes (a)
(ii) 1H3 (1 proton, 2 neutrons) and 2He3 (2 protons, 1 neutron) - Same mass number (3),
different elements → Isobars (d)
(ii) Ge-76: 76-32-44 neutrons, As-77: 77-33-44 neutrons → Same number of neutrons →
Isotones (b)
(iv) U-235: 235-92=143 neutrons, Th-231: 231-90-141 neutrons → N-Z for U=143-92-51,
Th=141-90-51
→ Same N-Z-Isodiaphers (c)
(v) 1H1, 1D2, 1T3, - Same atomic number (1), different mass numbers - Isotopes (a)
5- Final Answer: 1. (i)-a, (ii)-d. (iii)-b, (iv)-c, (v)-a

53) K.E. = hν – Work function

K.E. = hν – hν0
K.E. = h(ν – v0)

54)
After absorbing energy, electron jump from lower energy level to higher energy level.

55) Explanation : find value of No. of photon (n).

Given data : λ = 4000 Å, E = 1J
Concept :

E=
h = 6.626 × 10-34 JS
C = 3 × 108 ms-1 (1Å = 10-10 m)
Calculation :
 1=

n=
= 201.22 × 1016
= 2.01 × 1018
Final Answer : 2.0 x 1018
Correct Option : 1

56) All of the above

57) 16 + 3 = 19 P

58)

59) 2 : 1

60)

Ans :

61)

Av at. wt =

⇒ 2020 = 2200 – 2x
⇒ 2x = 180
⇒ 90%

62)

Question Explanation:
This question asks us to arrange the masses of an alpha particle (α), neutron (n), electron (e–),
and proton (p) in descending order.

Concept:
Atomic Structure

Explanation:

A. Alpha particle (α): Consists of 2 protons and 2 neutrons, so it has a relatively large mass.
B. Neutron (n): A subatomic particle with a mass slightly greater than a proton.
C. Proton (p): A subatomic particle with a mass approximately 1 atomic mass unit (amu).
D. Electron (e – ): A subatomic particle with a mass significantly smaller than protons and
neutrons (approximately 1/1836 of the proton's mass).
E. Mass of α ≈ 4 amu
F. Mass of n ≈ 1.00866 amu
G. Mass of p ≈ 1.00728 amu
H. Mass of e⁻ ≈ 0.0005486 amu

Therefore, the order of masses from largest to smallest is: α > n > p > e–

Final Answer:
The correct order of masses is α > n > p > e–.
Therefore the correct option is (2).

63)

% change = Reduces.

64)

Deuterium
p→1
e→1
n→1

65) 27A57 30B57

nB = 57 – 30 = 27

66)

Question Explanation :
200 g of CaCO3 is heated and decomposes into CaO and CO2. We need to find the weight of the
residue which is CaO.

Concept :
Use the molar masses and stoichiometry of decompositon.
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
Solution :
Molar mass of CaCO3 = 40 (Ca) + 3 × 16 (O) = 100 g/mol
Molar mass of CaO = 40 (Ca) + 16 (O) = 56 g/mol
From 100 g CaCO3, we get 56 g CaO residue.

So, from 200 g CaCO3 , CaO residue = = 112 g

Final Answer :
Option (4)

67) Explanation :
At NTP, for complete oxidation of CO, required volume of oxygen will be found.

Given Data :
At NTP, volume of CO = 8L

Concept :
Stoichiometry Based Concept

Calculation :
Reaction :- 2CO (g) + O2(g) → 2CO2 (g)
According to stoichiometry -
At NTP for 2 Litre of CO, required volume of O2 = 1 L
At NTP for 8 Litre of CO, required volume of O2 = 4 L

68) Question Explanation

We need to determine the number of moles of HCl gas formed when 22.4 L of H2 and 11.2 L of
Cl2 are mixed at STP.
Given
Volume of H2 = 22.4L
Volume of Cl2 = 11.2L
Condition = STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure)

Concept
Number of Moles Calculation & Concept

Explanation
At STP, 1 mole of any gas occupies 22.4 L
The balanced chemical reaction for the formation of HCl is
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
From the balanced equation. 1 mole of H2 reacts with 1 mole of Cl2 to form 2 of HCI.

Moles of H2 =

Moles of Cl2 = =0.5 mol

Since Cl2 is the limiting reagent (we have less of Cl2) the moles of HCI formed will be based on
the amount of Cl2, available.
From the equation. 1 mole of Cl2 produces 2 moles of HCl. Therefore. 0.5 moles of Cl2 will
produce
0.5 mol Cl2 × 2 = 1 mol HCl
Final Answer
The number of males of HCl formed is 1 mole.
Correct Answer: Option 1,

69) Explanation :
How many moles of water are formed when 1 mole of H2SO4 reacts with NaOH.

Given Data :
Mole of H2SO4 = 1 mole
NaOH in excess

Concept :
Stoichiometry based concept

Calculation :
Reaction :- H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
According to stoichiometry -
1 mole of H2SO4 react with NaOH, gives 3 mole of H2O

70)

71)

72) = 1.5

73) Number of protons = × NA × 50

(mole)
23
⇒ 5 × 6.02 × 10
= 3.01 × 1024
∵ number of proton in one molecule of CaCO3 = 20 + 6 + 24 = 50

74)

75)

76)

6e– in C; 8e– in O
total number of e– in CO2 = 6 + (2 × 8) = 22

77)

78)

MW = = 240

V.D =

79)

Number of molecules ∝ number of moles

80)
= 28 (molar mass of CO).

81) mole = = = 0.1 mole

0.1 = ; M = 44
So gas will be N2O
14 × 2 + 16 = 44
82) mole of NH3 = = 0.2 mol
no. of neutrons = 0.2 × NA × 7 = 1.4 NA

83)

Moles of hydrogen atom =

= 4 × 4 = 16 moles
mass = 16 × 1 = 16 g

84)

2A + 3B → 2C
4mol 12 mol
A is LR
2 mole of A gives 2mol of C
4 mol of A gives 4 mol of C

85)

2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3
10 mol 15 mol
(L.R.)
After reaction
(0 mol)

86) Molality =

87) Molarity =
Moles = 0.4 × 0.25
= 0.1 mole

88) 0.2 moles of glucose present in 1 mole solution

Moles of solvent = 1 – 0.2 = 0.8

Molality = = 13.89

89) We know that

Molarity =
 90)

BIOLOGY

91)

Practical

92) NCERT, Pg. # 10

93)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks about the environmental conditions where
thermoacidophiles, a type of microorganism, typically live, specifically focusing on
temperature and pH levels.

Underlying Concept: Thermoacidophiles are extremophiles that thrive in environments with

both high temperatures and low pH (acidic conditions). This concept involves understanding
how certain organisms adapt to extreme habitats that are typically inhospitable for most life
forms.

Tips and Tricks: Break down the word: 'thermo' means heat and 'acidophile' means acid-
loving. So, put together, thermoacidophiles prefer high temperature and low pH.

Common Mistakes: Confusing 'acidophiles' with 'alkaliphiles', which prefer high pH, or
assuming all extremophiles live only at high pH levels.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options mentioning high pH are incorrect because
thermoacidophiles thrive in acidic (low pH) rather than alkaline (high pH) environments.
Similarly, low temperature options are incorrect because 'thermo' implies high temperature
preference.

94) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 129

95) Euglena

96)
 The correct answer is:
2. Plasmids
Explanation: Pathogenic bacteria can acquire antibiotic resistance through genetic changes in
plasmids. Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules that exist independently of the bacterial
chromosomal DNA. They can carry genes that provide resistance to antibiotics. These
resistance genes can be transferred between bacteria, enabling them to quickly adapt to
antibiotics.

97) The correct answer is: 2. Diatoms

Explanation: Diatoms are one of the most important groups of primary producers in the
oceans. They are a type of phytoplankton that perform photosynthesis and contribute
significantly to the marine food chain by producing organic matter that serves as food for
other marine organisms. Diatoms are crucial in the oceanic carbon cycle and produce a large
amount of oxygen.

A. Dinoflagellates (Option 1) also play a role in marine production, but they are more commonly
associated with harmful algal blooms.
B. Cyanobacteria (Option 3) are also primary producers, but diatoms are considered more
significant in terms of primary productivity in the oceans.
C. Euglenoids (Option 4) are mainly found in freshwater environments, and are not as significant
in the oceanic primary production.

Thus, diatoms are considered the chief producers in the oceans.

98)

Protista

99)

(a) Cell structure

(b) Mode of nutrition
(c) Reproduction
(d) Evolutionary relationship

100)

Mesosome and plasmid

101)

According to Carl Woese, archaebacteria belong to domain Archaea

102)

NCERT (XI)(E) Page. # 18,19; Para. - 2.1

103) 1, 2, and 3
104) NCERT-XI Pg. # 20, 21

105) NCERT-XI, Pg # 11

106)

(a) Their spores are dispersed by air currents

(b) Their vegetative phase does not possess any walls but reproductive phase (spores)
possesses true walls

107) NCERT, Pg. # 20

108) NCERT Pg # 20, 21

109) Structure – A is heterocyst

Function – N2 fixation

110)

NCERT Pg. # 20

111)

All of these

112)

Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

113)

NCERT XI Pg no. 14

114)

NCERT XI Pg no. 15

115)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 19

116) NCERT Page No. 21

 117)

118)

A = Kingdom Monera
B = Kingdom Protista
C = Kingdom Fungi
D = Major Ecological role

119) NCERT Pg. # 14, 15

Peptidoglycan wall, multicellular, and heterocyst are not related with protista.

120)

In earlier classification systems, the organisms included under "Plants" were:

A. Bacteria
B. Blue-green algae (BGA)
C. Fungi
D. Bryophytes
E. Pteridophytes
F. Spermatophytes

The correct answer is:OPTION(1)Bacteria, BGA, Fungi, Bryophyte, pteridophytes and

Spermatophytes

121)

NCERT Pg # 16

122) NCERT Pg. # 16

123)

Question Explanation :
The vast majority of bacterial are of which of the given mature.
Concept :
Most bacteria are heterotrophic in nature.
Solution :
The vast majority of bacteria obtain their nutrients by consuming organic matter from other
sources, making them heterotrophic. These bacteria can be saprophytic (decomposers),
parasitic, or mutualistic in nature.
Hence,
Option (3) : Heterotrophic

124) NCERT Pg. # 19

 125) NCERT XI Pg. 19, (2.1.2)

126)

Whittaker classified organisms based on the following criteria:

A. Cell structure (i)

B. Body organization (ii)
C. Mode of nutrition (iii)
D. Mode of reproduction (iv)
E. Physiological characters (vii)

127)

Solution:

The correct answer is:

4. It was a phylogenetic classification

Bentham and Hooker's system is natural, based on observable features (especially flowers),
not phylogenetic (not based on evolution)

128) NCERT Pg.# 21

129) [NCERT Pg. No. 21]

These spores lack cell wall

130)

For their energy production they utilize solar energy

131) NCERT Page No. # 21

132)

Solution :
The correct answer is : 4. Cyanobacteria

133)

They are most abundant in nature

134)

Five
135) Explaining the Question:
This question asks you to what defines prokaryotic cells through Assertion Reason.

Concept:
Prokaryotes cells

Solution:
Assertion : Bacteria are prokaryotic. (True)
Reason : Bacteria do not posses true nucleus and membrane bound organelles. (True)

And yes this Reason correctly explains why bacteria are classified as prokaryotes

Correct Answer:
Option (1)

136)

Metagenesis is observed in Obelia.

137) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 53

138)

NCERT XI, Page No. # 39

139)

Closed = 3, Open = 4

140)

I, II, IV and V are false, Only III is true.

141) Spongilla

142)

Acoelomate and complete digestive system

143)

It is a male Ascaris, posterior-end is curved

 144)

A - IV, B - V, C - II, D - III, E - I

145)

The correct answer is 1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.

Here's why:

A. Assertion: "Annelids have metamerically segmented body." This statement is true.

A. Reason: "They divided into segment with serial repetition of some body organs." This
statement is also true. Metameric segmentation in annelids involves the linear repetition
of various internal and external body organs in each segment.

Explanation: The reason directly explains the assertion. The metameric segmentation observed in
annelids is precisely due to the division of their body into segments with the serial repetition of
organs.

146) NCERT Page no. 44

147)

Play role in digestion

148) A is false, and R is false.

(NCERT Page 45)

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 45, 46

150)

A-(i); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(iv)

151) NEW NCERT-XI, Pg. # 46, Para 4.2.11

152)

Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(NCERT-XI, Page # 47)

153)

Female cartilaginous fish have claspers

154) NCERT Pg. # 57

155) NCERT Textbook [Link]: 52

156) Planaria
(NCERT Textbook [Link]: 51)

157) Ncert page 57.

158) Skin of class Aves is dry without glands except the oil gland at the base of the tail.

159) Mammals are commonly viviparous, and presence of mammary glands is the unique
feature of mammals.

160) Ncert page 58.

161)

Tissue level : Aschelminthes

162)

Pseudocoelomate

163)

Direct

164)

Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion

165)

Platypus
166)

An organ, which regulates buoyancy → Operculum

167) Ncert page 48.

168)

B, C and D

169) Dogfish and sawfish belong to Chondrichthyes, but air bladder is present in Osteichthyes.
Ichthyophis is a limbless amphibian. Body of Hyla is divided into head and truck only.

170) Limulus commonly known as king crab belongs to phylum arthropoda. It is a living fossil
and large sized marine arthropod.

171) Ncert page 45.

172)

Chelone

173)

Aquatic mammal is Balaenoptera.

174) NCERT XI, Page # 44

175) NCERT – XI- PAGE NO. 54,55

176)

Annelida and Arthropoda

177)

Radially symmetric animals remain attached to a surface by their oral surface.

178)
Fertilization is internal and development is through many larval stages

179)

Explain Question : Body is externally and internally divided into segments with serial
repetition of at least some organs, this is called

Concept : This question is based on Animal Kingdom.

Solution : This is called as Metamerism Exhibited by members of Phylum Annelida.

Final Answer : option (3)

180) NCERT XI Page # 43